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High Yield Concepts > CVS/Cardio > Flashcards

CVS/Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

Most efficient extractor of oxygen from the blood

A

Heart

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2
Q

Intracellular junctions responsible for the cardiac syncytium

A

Gap junctions

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3
Q

Substance that dilates upstream blood vessels

A

Endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF) aka Nitric oxide (NO)

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4
Q

Most potent vasoconstrictor

A

ADH (can increase levels of Endothelin-1)

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5
Q

An increase in venous return will increase the heart rate

A

Brainbridge reflex

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6
Q

An increase in venous return will increase the stroke volume.

Basis: stretching if cardiac sarcomeres will increase contraction

A

Frank-starling mechanism

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7
Q

Hypertension
Irregular respiration
Bradycardia

Due to activation of the CNS ischemic response and baroreceptor reflex in increased ICP

A

Cushing reflex

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8
Q

Formula for Blood pressure based ob Ohm’s Law

A 
BP= CO x TPR
CO= HR x SV

TPR is synonymous with SVR and increases when arterioles vasoconstricted

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9
Q

Normal pressures at various parts of adult circulation

A 
Large arteries: <120/80 mmHg
Sytemic capillaries: 17 mmHg
Vena cava : 0 mmHg
Pulmonary artery : 25/8 mmHg
Pulmonary capillaries : 7 mmHg
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10
Q

At least 10 second pressure over the RUQ

+ response: sustained rise of >3 cm in JVP for at least 10-15 sec after release of the hand

A

Abdominojugular reflux

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11
Q

Pansystolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation

Louder during inspiration and diminishes during forced expiration

A

Carvallo’s sign

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12
Q

Apical pulse is reduced and may retract in systole in CONSTRICTIVE PERICARDITIS

A

Broadbent’s Sign

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13
Q

High pitched, diastolic, decresendo blowing murmur along the left sternal border due to dilation of the pulmonary valve ring

  • occurs in Mitral Valve disease and severe Pulmonary Hypertension
A

Graham Steell Murmur

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14
Q

Condition where the murmur of Aortic Stenosis may be transmitted downward and to the apex and may be confused with the sytolic murmur of Mitral Regurgitation

A

Gallavardin Effect

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15
Q

Peripheral Signs of AORTIC REGURGITATION

A
  1. ) CORRIGAN’S PULSE: rapidly rising “WATER HAMMER” pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure falls rapidly during late systole and diastole
  2. ) QUINCKE’S PULSE: capillary pulsations , alternate flushing and paling of the skin while pressure is applied to the tip of the nail
  3. ) TRAUBE’S SIGN: booming “PISTOL SHOT” sound heard over the femoral arteries
  4. ) DUROZIEZ SIGN: to-and-from murmur audible if the femoral artery is lightly compressed with steth
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16
Q

Most noninavsive marker of increased CV morbidity/mortality risk

A

LVH (Left Ventricular Hypertrophy)

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17
Q

Cornerstone in the diagnosis of acute and chronic heart disease

A

ECG

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18
Q

Ideal imaging modality for cardiac emergencies

A

2D-ECHO

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19
Q

Gold standard for imaging valve morphology and motion,detection of pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade, and assessment of LV cavity size, systolic function and wall thickness

A

2D- ECHO

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20
Q

Gold standard for assessing LV mass and volumes

A

MRI

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21
Q

Imaging modalities of choice for the evaluation of suspected aortic aneurysm or aortic dissection and in distinguishing between restrictive and constrictive pericarditis

A

CT scan and MRI

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22
Q

Gold standard in assessing the anatomy & physiology of the heart & associated vasculature

A

Cardiac catheterization and coronary angiography

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23
Q

Triad of RUPTURED ANEURYSM

A
  1. ) Left flank pain
  2. ) Hypotension
  3. ) Pulsatile mass
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24
Q

Diagnostic triad of Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) ECG Pattern

A
  1. ) Wide QRS complex
  2. ) Relatively short PR interval
  3. ) Slurring of the initial part of QRS complex ( delta wave)
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25
Q

Triad of CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE in ECG

A
  1. ) Peaked T waves (HYPERKALEMIA)
  2. ) Long QT d/t ST segment lengthening (HYPOCALCEMIA)
  3. ) LVH ( sytemic hypertension)
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26
Q

3 principal features of tamponade (BECK’S TRIAD)

A
  1. ) HYPOTENSION
  2. ) SOFT/ABSENT HEART SOUNDS
  3. ) JV DISTENTION with prominent x descent, absent y descent
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27
Q

Plaques that have caused fatal thromboses tend to have

A
  • thin fibrous caps
  • relatively large lipid cores
  • high content of macrophages
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28
Q

Major determinants of myocardial O2 demand (MVO2)

A
  • Heart rate
  • Myocardial contractility
  • Myocardial wall tension (stress)
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29
Q

Triad of BUERGER’S DISEASE

A
  • claudication of the affected extremity
  • Reynaud’s phenomenon
  • Migratory superficial vein thrombophlebitis
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30
Q

VIRCHOW’S TRIAD

A
  • stasis
  • vascular/endothelial damage
  • hypercoagulability
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31
Q

DRESSLER’S TRIAD

Post MI Pericarditis

A
  • fever
  • pleuritic pain
  • pericardial effusion
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32
Q

Drugs that INCREASES CONTRACTILITY

A
  • Digoxin
  • Dobutamine
  • Milrinone
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33
Q

Drugs that REDUCES PRELOAD

A
  • Diuretics ( furosemide)
  • Vasodilators ( NItrates, Hydralazine)
  • ACEI/ARBS
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34
Q

Drugs that REDUCES AFTERLOAD

A
  • Diuretics ( furosemide)
  • Vasodilators ( NItrates, Hydralazine)
  • ACEI/ARBS
  • Beta Blockers ( Metropolol succinate, Bisoprolol, carvedilol)
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35
Q

Drug for HF:

  • binds to activated Na channels and blocks flow of Na ions into cardiac myocyte ( prolongs AP)
A

IA ( Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide)

Clinical use:

  • Afib
  • Atrial flutter
  • V tach
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36
Q

Drug for HF:

  • bind to both activated and inactivated Na channels (shortens AP)
A

IB ( Lidocaine, Tocainide, Mexiletine)

Clinical use:

  • Post ischemic arrhythmia
  • V fib
  • V tach
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37
Q

Drug for HF:

  • binds to activated Na channels ( no effect on AP)
A

IC (Flecainide, Encainide, Propafenone)

Clinical use:
- tx of severe refractory Ventricular arrythmia

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38
Q

Drug for HF:

  • blocks Beta 2 receptors
A

II ( Propanolol, Metropolol)

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39
Q

Drug for HF:

  • bind and block K channels ( prolongs AP)
A

III ( Sotalol, Ibutilide, Bretylium, Amiodarone)

Clinical use:
- atrial and ventricular arrythmias

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40
Q

Drug for HF:

  • blocks voltage gated Ca channels
A

IV ( Verapamil, Diltiazem)

Clinical use:

  • Supraventricular tachycardia
  • rate reduction in patients with atrial fibrillation
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41
Q

Drugs in HPN:

  • causes Na excretion and reduction in blood volume
A

Diuretics

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42
Q

Drugs in HPN:

  • CCB, VESSELS> heart
A

DHT ( Dihydropyridines)

  • Nifedipine
  • Felodipine
  • Amlodipine
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43
Q

Drugs in HPN:

  • CCB, HEART> vessels
A

Non DHT

  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
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44
Q

Drugs in HPN:

  • decreases work load of heart
A

Beta blockers

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45
Q

Drugs in HPN:

  • blocks AT1 receptor of Angiotensin II
A

ARB’s

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46
Q

Drugs in HPN:

  • notorious for drug induced cough by increasing bradykinins
A

ACEI

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47
Q

Drugs in HPN:

  • blocks aldosterone action in collecting tubules
A

Spirinolactone, Eplerenone

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48
Q

Drugs in HPN:

  • Hypertension with BPH
A

Alpha 1 Antagonists ( Prazosin)

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49
Q

Drugs in HPN:

-maintainace for PRE ECLAMPSIA

A

Methyldopa

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50
Q

Physiologic basis for normal ECG tracing

A
  • P wave : atrial depo
  • QRS complex: vent depo
  • T wave: vent repo
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51
Q

Master pacemaker of heart

A

SA node

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52
Q

Causes depolarization of SA node

A

Ca influx

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53
Q

Only electrical connection between atria and ventricles

A

AV node

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54
Q

Failure to increase heart rate during exercise

- <100 bpm

A

Chronotrophic Incompetence

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55
Q

Most common arrythmia mechanism

A

Reentry

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56
Q

Only reliable therapy for symptomatic bradycardia in the absence of extrinsic and reversible etiologies

A

Permanent pacemaking

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57
Q

Most rapid conduction in the heart

A

His bundle and Bundle branches

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58
Q

Most expeditious technique in the management of AV conduction block

A

Transcuatneous pacing

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59
Q

Most common arrythmia during extended ECG monitoring

A

Atrial Premature Complexes

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60
Q

Most common sustained arrythmia

A

Atrial Fibrillation

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61
Q

Prolongation of PR interval before dropped QRS complex

A

Mobiltz Type I

  • I gets taller
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62
Q

No prolongation of PR interval before dropped DRS complex

A

Mobitz Type II

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63
Q

Duration that distinguishes sustained from nonsustained ventricular tachycardia

A

> 30 seconds

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64
Q

Most common POST MI arrythmia

A

Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)

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65
Q

Most common lethal POST MI arrythmia

A

Ventricular Fibrillation

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66
Q

Most common cause of SYSTOLIC dysfunction that leads to Left Sided HF

A

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

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67
Q

Most Common cause of DIASTOLIC that leads to Left Sided HF

A

Concentric LVH due to HPN

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68
Q

Most common cause of Right sided HF

A

Left sided HF

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69
Q

Earliest cardinal symptom of Left sided HF

A

Dyspnea

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70
Q

Earliest cardinal sign of Left sided HF

A

Left sided S3

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71
Q

Presentation of Left sided HF

A
  • Dyspnea
  • left sided S3
  • PND
  • MV regurgitation
  • inc BNP
  • siderophages ( Hemosiderin laden macrophages of HF cells)
  • Pulmonary edema ( septal edema, peribronchiolar edema)
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72
Q

Presentation of Right sided HF

A
  • Peripheral ankle edema (HM of Right sided HF)
  • NVE
  • tricuspid regurgitation
  • ascites
  • chronic passive congestion of liver (nutmeg liver)
  • cardiac cirrhosis
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73
Q

Most sensitive index of cardiac function

A

Ejection fraction

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74
Q

Single most important bedside measurement to estimate volume status

A

JVP (internal jugular vein preferred)

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75
Q

Cardinal symptoms of HF

A
  • Fatigue

- SOB

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76
Q

Most important mechanism of dyspnea in HF

A

Pulmonary congestion with accumulation of interstitial or intra alveolar fluid, which activates juxtacapillary J receptors

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77
Q

Only pharmacologic agents that can adequately control fluid retention in advanced HF

A

Diuretics

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78
Q

Major problem of Aldosterone antagonists

A

development of life threatening Hyperkalemia

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79
Q

Cornerstones of modern therapy for HF with a depressed EF

A

ACEI/ARBS and Beta blockers

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80
Q

Most common side effect of all vasodilating agents

A

Hypotension

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81
Q

Most commonly used inotropic agents for acute HF

A

Dobutamine

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82
Q

First choice for therapy in which modest inotropy & pressor support are required

A

Dopamine

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83
Q

Most common reason for rehospitalization in HF

A

Failure to meet criteria for discharge

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84
Q

Most common symptom of cor pulmonale

A

Dyspnea

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85
Q

Murmurs that always signify structural heart disease

A

Diastolic murmurs (Grade I-II systolic murmurs are usually benign)

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86
Q
  • Opening snap
  • mid-late diastolic murmur
  • typical tethering and diastolic doming on 2D echo
  • atrial fibrillation
A

MITRAL STENOSIS

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87
Q

Leading cause of Mitral stenosis (MS)

A

Rheumatic Heart Disease

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88
Q

Pansystolic murmur, may due to Mitral valve prolapse

A

Mitral Regurgitation

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89
Q

Papillary muscle involved more frequently in acute MR because of single blood supply

A

Postmedial papillary muscle

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90
Q

Most prominent complaints in chronic sever MR

A
  • fatigue
  • exertional dyspnea
  • orthopnea
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91
Q

Most important finding on auscultation in MVP

A

Mid- or late (non-ejection) systolic click

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92
Q

Most common ECG finding in MVP

A

Normal

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93
Q

Most common cause of midsystolic murmur in an adult

A

Aortic stenosis (AS)

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94
Q

Most common congenital heart valve defect

A

Bicuspid Aortic Valve Disease

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95
Q

3 cardinal symptoms of AS

A
  • Exertional dyspnea
  • Angina pectoris
  • syncope
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96
Q

IE in Drug abusers, pulsating liver, giant C-V wave in JVP

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

97
Q

Carcinoid Heart disease

A

Pulmonary stenosis

98
Q

Typical clinical features of myocarditis

A
  • young adult
  • progressive dyspnea and weakness days to weeks after viral syndrome
  • fever
  • mylagia
99
Q

3rd most common parasitic infection in the world, a cause of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Chaga’s Disease

100
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by the bite of

A

Reduviid Bug

101
Q

African Trypanosomiasis is caused by

A

Tsetse fly bite

102
Q

Most common cause of death in Diphtheria

A

Myocarditis

103
Q

Time frame of peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

Last trimester or within the 1st 6 months after pregnancy

104
Q

Most common toxin in chronic dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Alcohol

105
Q

Temporary dilated cardiomyopathy due to stress

A

Tako-tsubo cardiomyopathy

aka “Broken Heart” Syndrome

106
Q

Most common reason for thyroid abnormalities in HF

A

Use of Amiodarone

107
Q

Least common of the triad of cardiomyopathies

A

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

- dilated, hypertrophic

108
Q

Best characterized genetic cardiomyopathy and the common lesion found at autopsy of young athletes dying suddenly

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)

109
Q

Most common presenting symptom of HCM

A

dyspnea on exertion

110
Q

Classic finding on the echocardiogram of HCM

A

systolic anterior motion (SAM) of mitral valve

111
Q

Most commonly used initial therapy for HCM

A
  • Beta blockers

- verapamil

112
Q

Most common pathologic process involving the pericardium

A

Acute Pericarditis

113
Q

Typical pain in pericarditis

A

worse when supine and relieved by sitting upright and leaning forward

114
Q

Pericardial friction rub in acute pericarditis is heard most frequently at

A

end expiration with patient upright and leaning forward

115
Q

Most common ECG finding in acute pericarditis

A

Diffuse ST segment elevation

except V1, aVL, aVR

116
Q

3 most common cause of tamponade

A
  • neoplastic diseases
  • idiopathic pericarditis
  • renal failure
117
Q

Important due to the presence of cardiac tamponade consisting of greater than normal (10 mmHg) inspiratort decline in systolic arterial pressure

A

Paradoxical Pulse (Pulsus paradoxus)

118
Q

Most common causes of bloody pericardial fluid

A

neoplasm in US

Tuberculosis in developing nations

119
Q

Pericardial effusion in HIV is usually due to

A

Infection (mycobacterial)

Neoplasm (most frequently lymphoma)

120
Q

Most common causes of pericarditis d/t neoplastic disease

A

extension or invasion of metastatic tumors

  • carcinoma of lung and breast
  • malignant melanoma
  • hematologic (lymphoma, leukemia)
121
Q

Grossly sanguineous pericardial fluid in chronic pericarditis results mostly commonly from

A
  • neoplasm
  • TB
  • Renal failure
  • slow leakage from an aortic aneurysm
122
Q

basic physiologic abnormality in chronic constrictive pericarditis

A

inability of ventricles to fill because of limitations imposed by the rigid, thickened pericardium

123
Q

Most prominent deflection in constrictive pericarditis (absent/diminished in tamponade)

A

Y- descent

124
Q

The only definitive treatment of constrictive pericarditis

A

Pericardial resection

125
Q

Most common of tumor of the pericardium

A

secondary to malignant neoplasm from or invading the mediastinum ( CA of bronchus and breast, lymphoma, melanoma)

126
Q

Most common primary malignant pericardial tumor

A

Mesothelioma (from asbestosis)

127
Q

Most common type of primary cardiac tumor in all age groups and occurring at all ages

A

Myxomas (90% are sproradic)

128
Q

Most common tumor of the cardiac valves

A

Papillary Fibroelastomas

129
Q

Most common cardiac tumors in infants and children

A

Rhabdomyomas

130
Q

Almost all primary originating sites of cardiac metastases

A

cancer of the breast and lung

131
Q

Most common primary originating sites of cardiac metastatses

A

breast and lung CA

132
Q

Most often involved in metastases to the heart

A

Pericardium> Myocardium> Endocardium or cardiac valves

133
Q

Central role in the diagnostic evaluation of cardiac metastases and cardiac tumors

A

Cardiac MRI

134
Q

Most common form of non penetrating cardiac injury

A

Myocardial contusions

135
Q

Most common valves that rupture in non penetrating cardiac injury

A

TV or MV ( heralded by the deveploment of a loud murmur)

136
Q

Most serious consequence of non penetrating injury

A

Myocardial rupture

137
Q

Most common vascular deceleration injury

A

rupture of the aorta

138
Q

Most common cause of sudden death in contact sports ( american football)

A

commotio cordis

139
Q

Most common CHD; CXR shows biventricular enlargement & dilated left atrium; most common type is membranous

A

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

140
Q

Most common CHD diagnosed in adults; CXR shows dilated right atrium and right ventricle

A

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

141
Q

CHD with Early Cyanosis ( R-> L shunt)

A
  • TOF
  • Tricuspid atresia
  • truncus arteriosus
  • TAPVC
  • TGA

-starts with T

142
Q

CHD with late cyanosis ( L-> R shunt)

A
  • ASD
  • VSD
  • PDA
  • AVSD
143
Q

conversion of an initial L->R shunt into R ->L shunt

A

Eisenmengerization

144
Q

CHD assoc with Congenital Rubella syndrome; “continuous machinery like murmur”
- needs indomethacin to close and PGE1 to remain open

A

Patent Ductal Arteriosus (PDA)

145
Q

CHD assoc w/ Turner’s Syndrome

A

Preductal Coarctation of aorta ( CoA)

146
Q

CHD assoc with Down Syndrome

A
  • ASD

- Endocardal cushion defect

147
Q

CHD assoc with Marfan syndrome

A
  • MVP

- Aortic dissection

148
Q

CHD assoc with offspring of diabetic moms

A

TGA

149
Q

CXR shows “ BOOT-SHAPED HEART” ( Coeur en Sabot);
components:
- subpulmonic stenosis (main determinant of severity)
- RVH
- VSD
-overriding of aorta

A

TOF

150
Q

CXR shows EGG SHAPED SILHOUETTE or EGG-ON-ITS-SIDE appearance

A

TGA

151
Q

CXR shows SNOWMAN SIGN/ COTTAGE LOAF HEART

A

TAPVC

152
Q

CXR shows FIGURE OF 3 sign

A

CoA (rib notching seen in adult or post ductal form)

153
Q

Most common underlying cause of myocardial ischemia and injury

A

Obstruction of coronary arteries by atherosclerosis

154
Q

Most common cause of anterior chest musculoskeletal pain

A

Costochondral and chostosternal syndromes

155
Q

Myocardial perfusion occurs during this time

A

Diastole

156
Q

Major cause of death and premature disability in developed societies

A

Atherosclerosis

157
Q

Represents the initial lesion of atherosclerosis

A

Fatty streak

158
Q

Major features of metabolic syndrome

A
  • central obesity
  • hypergylycemia
  • hypertriglyceridemia
  • hypertension
  • low HDL cholesterol
159
Q

Age when lipid screening should start (based on current ATP III guidelines)

A

All adults > 20 years (fasting lipid profile, total cholesterol, triglycerides, LDL and HDL) repeated every 5 years

160
Q

First manuever to achieve LDL goal

A

Therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC)

161
Q

Ultimately causes the gravest complications of atherosclerosis

A

Thrombosis

162
Q

Key feature of metabolic syndrome

A

Central adiposity

163
Q

Most accepted & unifying hypothesis to describe pathophyisology of metabloc syndrome

A

Insulin resistance

164
Q

Driving force behind the metabolic syndrome

A

Obesity

165
Q

Primary approach to metablic syndrome

A

weight reduction (caloric restriction; most important component)

166
Q

Drug of choice to lower LDL

A

HMG-Coa reductase inhibitors (Statins)

167
Q

Drug of choice to lower fasting TG

A

Fibrates

168
Q

Only currently available drug with predictable HDL - raising properties

A

Nicotinic acid

169
Q

Most common cause of Myocardial ischemia

A

atherosclerotic disease of epicardial coronary artery

170
Q

Major site of atherosclerotic disease

A

epicardial arteries (Most common: LEFT ANTERIOR DESCENDING ARTERY)

171
Q

Sites of predilection for atherosclerotic plaques to develop d/t increased turbulence

A

Branch points in the epicardial arteries

172
Q

Time frame for rerversible damage in myocardium

A

<20 mins for total occlusion in the absence of collaterals

173
Q

Most widely used test for both the diagnosis of IHD and estimating the prognosis

A

ECG stress testing

174
Q

route of administration where absorption of nitrates is most rapid and complete

A

sublingual / through mucous membranes

175
Q

Most common route in administration of nitroglycerin

A

Sublingual

176
Q

Most common pathophysiologic cause of unstable angina

A

Plaque rupture or erosion with superimposed non occlusive thrombus

177
Q

Only absolute contraindications to nitrate use

A
  • Hypotension

- Sildenafil or other drugs in that class in previous 24-48 hours

178
Q

Most important adverse effect of all antithrombotic agents

A

excessive bleeding

179
Q

Most common artery involved in focal spasms of Prinzmental angina

A

Right Coronary artery

180
Q

Main agents for acute episodes and to abolish recurrent episodes of Prinzmental angina

A

Nitrates & CCB (Nifedipine)

181
Q

Type of necrosis seen in MI

A

Coagulation necrosis (preserved architecture,faded details)

182
Q

Time frame where gross changes in MI occur

A

12 hours after the onset of symptoms

183
Q

Color changes in MI

A

Mottling: 4 hours
Bright yellow: 1 week
Surrounding red granulation tissue: 2 weeks
Gray-white scar: 2 mos

184
Q

Full thickness/ Transmural
ECG: ST elevation, Q waves
assoc w/ increased mortality

A

Q wave infarction (equivalent to STEMI in Clinical medicine)

185
Q

Partial thickness/ subendocardial; involves inner 3rd of myocardium
ECG: ST depression
increases risk of infarction and sudden cardiac death post MI

A

Non Q wave infarction (equivalent to NSTE ACS in clinical medicine)

186
Q

Fibrinous pericarditis ( bread and butter pericarditis) post MI

A

Dressler’s syndrome

187
Q

Myocardial rupture post MI occurs in patients who are

A

1st time MI patients ( cardiac scar in those w/ previous MI prevents rupture)

188
Q

Pivotal diagnostic and triage tool bec it is at the center of the decision pathway for management of STEMI

A

12L ECG

189
Q

Most common presenting complaint in STEMI

A

chest pain

190
Q

Preferred biochemical markers for MI

A

Cardiac specific Trop T & Cardiac specific Trop I

191
Q

Primary cause of out-of-hospital deaths from STEMI

A

ventricular fibrillation

192
Q

Primary cause of in-of-hospital deaths from STEMI

A

Pump failure

193
Q

Most common clinical signs of pump failure

A

Pulmonary rales; S3 and S4 gallop sounds

194
Q

Greastest delay usually occurs between

A

onset of pain and the patient’s decision to call for help

195
Q

Principal goal of fibrinolysis

A

Prompt restoration of full coronary arterial patency

196
Q

Door-to-needle time

A

less than or equal to 30 min

197
Q

Most frequent and potentially the most serious complication of fibrinolysis

A

Hemorrhage (hemorrhagic stroke: most serious complication)

198
Q

Standard antiplatelet agent for STEMI

A

Aspirin

199
Q

Standard anticoagulant agent for STEMI

A

Unfractionated Heparin

200
Q

Extent of LV involvement that usually results in cardiogenic shock

A

infarction > 40 %

201
Q

Usual duration of hospitalization for an uncomplicated STEMI

A

5 days

202
Q

Most common complication of angioplasty

A

Restenosis

203
Q

Most common thrombi found in NSTEMI (composed mainly of platelets)

A

White thrombi

204
Q

Most common thrombi found in STEMI (composed of cells and fibrin)

A

Red thrombi

205
Q

Most common cause of death in hypertensive patients

A

Cardiac

206
Q

Second most frequent cause of death in the world

A

Stroke

207
Q

Strongest risk factor for stroke

A

Hypertension

208
Q

Reliable marker of CKD severity and is a predictor of its progression

A

Proteinuria

209
Q

Classic symptom of Peripheral Artery Disease

A

Intermittent claudication

210
Q

ABI cut off diagnostic of PAD and associated with > 50 % stenosis in at least one major lower limb vessel

A

ABI < 0.90

211
Q

ABI cut off associated with elevated BP, particularly systolic BP

A

ABI < 0.80

212
Q

Time of the day where myocardial infarction and stroke are more frequent

A

early morning hours

213
Q

Gold standard for evaluation and identification of renal artery lesions

A

Contrast arteriography

214
Q

Most common congenital cardiovascular cause of hypertension

A

CoA

215
Q

BP cut off where drug therapy is recommended

A

> 140/90 mmHg

216
Q

Single most common effective intervention for slowing the rate of progression of hypertension-related CKD

A

BP control

217
Q

Most common vascular deceleration injury

A

rupture of the aorta

218
Q

Othery name for Strep pyogenes (RF)

A

GABHS (group a beta hemolytic strep)

219
Q

Signs and symptoms of RF

A
  • polyarthritis
  • carditis
  • subcutaneous nodules
  • erythema nodules
  • syndenham chorea
220
Q

Most common initial presentation of RF

A

Polyarthritis

221
Q

Most specific preentation of RF

A

Sydenham chorea

222
Q

Most serious presentation of RF

A

Carditis

223
Q

Manifestation of carditis in RF

A
  • pericardial friction rub
  • weak heart sounds
  • tachycardia
  • arrythmia
  • mitral regurgitation
224
Q

Pathologic lesion in RHD

A

Anitschkow cells/ caterpillar cells

  • macrophages containing abundant cytoplasm and round nuclei w/ slender, wavy ribbon of chromatin
  • may coalesce to form Aschoff Giant Cells that together w/ T cells and plasma celss form Aschoff bodies

Fibrinoid Pericarditis ( Bread and butter pericarditis)
MacCallum Plaques: irregular thickening of subendocardium
Fishmouth/Buttonhole stenosis
Mitral stenosis

225
Q

Most common pathologic condition assoc w/ degenerative aortic aneurysms

A

Atherosclerosis

226
Q

Location of 90% of syphilitic aneurysms

A

Proximal ascending aorta, particularly aortic root

227
Q

Typical location of Tuberculous aneurysms

A

Thoracic aorta

228
Q

Aneurysms assoc w/ Takayasu’s arteritis

A

aneurysms of aortic arch and descending thoracic aorta

229
Q

First test that suggests the diagnosis of a thoracic aortic aneurysm

A

CXR ( Widened mediastinum)

230
Q

Harbinger of rupture and represents a medical emergency

A

Aneurysmal pain

231
Q

Most common presenting complaint of aortic dissection

A

sudden onset of severe sharp pain

232
Q

Usual location of aortic dissection

A

right lateral wall of ascending aorta

233
Q

pathology of TAKAYASU’s ARTERITIS

A

Panarteritis

234
Q

pathology of GIANT CELL ARTERITIS

A

Focal granulomatous lesions involving the entire arterial wall

235
Q

Initial lesion of Syphilitic Aortitis

A

Obliterative endarteritis

236
Q

Buerger’s Disease (Thromboangitis Obliterans) has ad definite relationship with

A

Cigarette smoking (especially in young male Jewish smokers)

237
Q

Major predisposing cause of venous thrombosis

A

Immobilization

238
Q

Most common cause of secondary lymphedema

A

Filariasis

239
Q

Most common symptom attributable to pulmonary HPN

A

Exertional dyspnea

High Yield Concepts (3 decks)

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