CVS Flashcards

0
Q

Which vessels come off the arch of the aorta (right to left)?

A

Brachiocephalic, left common carotid, left subclavian.

(Alphabetical)

Note: right and left coronary Arteries come off the ascending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

How much blood is there is a normal man? And how much is stored in the veins?

A

6L in body

3.9 in veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 main types of arteries?

A

Elastic conducting - widest
Muscular distributing - most named arteries
Arterioles - narrowest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the tunica intima?

A

Inner layer of an artery containing an endothelium and subendothelium of connective tissue with internal elastic lamina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the structure of large arteries

A

TI
TM - 40- 70 fenestrated elastic membranes. Smooth muscle cells (create the fibres) and collagen bundles. May contain external elastic lamina.
TA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the tunic adventitia?

A

Outer layer of arteries.
Fibroelastic CT.
Often contains vasa vasorum, lymphatic vessels and nerve fibres. E.g. To stimulate vasoconstriction via diffusion of noradrenaline causing depolarisation of tunica media cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the structure of muscular arteries

A

TI
TM: 40 layers of smooth muscle cells (connected via gap junctions) with a prominent external elastic lamina.
TA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are end arteries?

A

Terminal artery supplying all or most of the blood to a body part - not branching with other arteries.

E.g. Coronary, splenic and renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the structure of Arterioles

A
TI - sometimes just endothelial cells
TM - 1-3 layers of smooth muscle
Internal elastic lamina only present in larger.
No external elastic lamina.
TA is scant.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the structure of metarterioles

A

Supply blood to capillary beds.
Non continuous smooth muscle layer
Each muscle cell encircles the endothelium of the capillary functioning as a sphincter controlling blood flow at every branch entering a capillary bed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the general structure and function of capillaries and list the 3 types.

A

Largest surface area. Up only holds 5% of blood.
Single layer of endothelium and basement membrane.
Continuous capillaries, fenestrated capillaries, sinusoid/discontinuous capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe continuous capillaries.

A

Found in nervous, muscle, connective, exocrine gland and lung tissues.
Continual layer of epithelium with cells joined by tight occlusive joints.
Pericytes are found around them and are capable of becoming fibroblasts or muscle cells in wound healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe fenestrated capillaries and the 4 routes of diffusion.

A

Found in gut, endocrine glands and renal glomerulosus.
Windows in endothelium bridged by a thin diaphragm.
4 routes of diffusion:
Direct diffusion
Through fenestration
Through basement membrane
Through intercellular cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe sinusoid/ discontinuous capillaries

A

Found in spleen liver and none marrow.
Large diameter and slow blood flow.
Gaps exist allowing whole cells to move in and out of tissue and blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe postcapillary venules

A

Simple endothelium and Pericytes.

Low pressure so blood drains into them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Compare corresponding veins and arteries.

A

Veins are bigger and have valves.
Arteries have bigger TM (I leg there is large TM to resist distension)
As veins get bigger TI and TA increases.
Veins contain less elastic fibres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are Venae comitants?

A

Veins wrapped around arteries.
Normally in pairs.
Pulsing of artery promotes Venus return.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the min and max blood flow to all tissues in the body?

A

5l.min-1 and 24.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the layers of the pericardium.

A

Fibrous pericardium

Serous pericardium: parietal pericardium (fused to fibrous) and visceral pericardium ( part of epicardium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is the coronary sinus and great cardiac vein found?

A

Sinus: posterior of the heart, between left atrium and ventricle to the left of the inferior vena cava running to the left of the inferior left pulmonary vein. Great cardiac vein is the largest vein going into it on the left pulmonary vein side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the rough muscular anterior walls of the atrium made of?

A

Pectinate muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the fossa ovalis?

A

Ruminant of the Foramen ovale on the interatrial septum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What muscles line the interior of the ventricles?

A

Trabeculae carneae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do chordae tendineae do?

A

Attach free free edges and the ventricle surfaces of the cusps of the tricuspid valve to the papillary muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the papillary muscles?

A

Muscle projections of the ventricle wall which attach to chordae tendineae. This prevents the cusps prolapsing into the atria during ventricular systole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is the fibrous pericardial sac connected to the diaphragm?

A

It is continuous via the central tendon of the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the location of the right descending coronary artery

A

Posterior of the heart where the right artery splits, it is the descending artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe he location of the right marginal artery.

A

Main branch coming off the right artery on the anterior surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the locations of the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery.

A

First split of the left coronary artery under left auricle. Circumflex goes round to posterior of heart. Left anterior descending splits and stays anteriorly come down between ventricle and atrium.

29
Q

Describe the location of the left marginal artery.

A

Comes of the left circumflex artery and descends on the left side.

30
Q

Where is the great cardiac vein?

A

Just superior to the right circumflex artery on the posterior surface but originates on the anterior surface ascending on the right side. The joins the coronary sinus on its most left, superior point,

31
Q

Describe the locations of the middle and small cardiac veins

A

Both posterior, small is next to right coronary artery to the right. Middle is descending by the posterior descending artery.

32
Q

Difference between cyanosis and asyanotic conditions?

A

Cyanotic there is a lower oxygen saturation due to deoxygenated blood getting into systemic circulation.

33
Q

What is tetralogy of fallot?

A

Pulmonary valve stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, VSD and overriding aorta

34
Q

What is tricuspid atresia and what is needed for it to be compatible with life?

A

Missing valve. An ASD is needed or PFO along with PDA or VSD so blood can get into the pulmonary circulation.

35
Q

Describe hypoplasic left heart

A

Underdeveloped left ventricle and ascending aorta. VSD/ PDA needed along with a ASD or PFO

36
Q

Where does a VSD normally occur?

A

Membranous portion of the ventral septum

37
Q

What is eisenmengers syndrome?

A

Left to right shunt, increases blood flow to pulmonary circulation, vascular remodelling occurs and there is increased pulmonary resistance, causes increases pressure in right side of heart so blood may flow right to left.

38
Q

Functional Importemce of transposition if the great vessels?

A

2 sererate circuits- leads to death without a shunt.

39
Q

Effects of coarctation of the aorta

A

Narrowing at ligamentum arteriosum. Left ventricular hypertrophy. Blood supply reduced to lower body. Hypertension in limbs and head. Heart failure.

40
Q

What does lateral folding achieve with regards to the primitive heart?

A

2 primitive cardio genie tubes together to create the heart tube

41
Q

Name the regions of the developing heart.

A

Sinus venosus- atria - ventricle - bulbus cordis, trucus arteriosus, aortic roots.

42
Q

Explain the process of folding.

A

5 days long occurs at day 23.
Cephalic portion grows caudally and dorsally.
Caudal portion grows cranial sand ventrally until both inflow and outflow are cranially.

43
Q

Anterior in the embryo?

A

Thumb, posterior pinkie so cranial.

44
Q

How is the transverse pericardial sinus formed?

A

Space between inflow and outflow at the end of looping

45
Q

Describe the development of the atria

A

Sinus venosus is originally symmetrical but the right side grows and left side shrinks.

Right atrium forms from mostly the primitive atria and part of the sinus venous.
Left atrium forms from mostly the pulmonary veins and part of the primitive atrium.

46
Q

Describe in brief the development of the great vessels

A

Originally a symmetric system of 6 arches.

4R becomes subclavian.
4L becomes arch of aorta
6R and L become pulmonary arteries

47
Q

Describe the location of the recurrent laryngeal nerves

A

Both loop around level 4 (subclavian and arch of the aorta) to join the left and right vagus nerves.
Left recurrent laryngeal nerve runs just to the right of the ligamentum arteriosum.

48
Q

Describe how atrial septal ion occurs.

A

Endocardial cushions form in the atrioventricular region which divide the heart into left and right channels.
Septum premium grows down the atria towards the Endocardial cushions, leaves a hole before it joins called ostium premium.
Ostium premium closes and ostium secundum appears.
Septum secundum and grows down, starting as a crescent shape on septum primuim.
Fossa ovale forms in the growing septum secundum.
Acts as a r->L shunt.

49
Q

Describe how ventricular septation occurs

A

Ventricular septum grows up towards Endocardial cushions but leaving a hole called the 1degree intra ventricular foramen.
This is closed via a membranous portion of connective tissue derived from Endocardial cushions.

50
Q

Describe the development of atria

A

Right from sinus venosus and most of primitive atrium and left from pulmonary veins and a little of primitive atrium

51
Q

Great vessels?

A

Symmetrical bilateral system.
4 becomes aorta Nd right subclavian.
6 becomes pulmonary arteries

52
Q

What is viscosity and how does it relate to velocity?

A

Viscosity is how must the fluid layers resist sliding over each other.
As it decreases, velocity increases.

53
Q

Link between radius and resistance

A

Resistance decreases with increases forth power of radius.

54
Q

Origin of parasympathetic vs sympathetic

A

Craniosacral vs thoracolumbar

55
Q

What are chromatin cells

A

In adrenal medulla, Innervated by pre ganglionic sympathetic. Secrete adrenaline into blood stream

56
Q

Which receptors cause SM constriction/ dilate tigon

A
A1 = constriction
B2 = dilatation
57
Q

Explain the AP in a cardiac myosotis

A
Na influx.
Transient K+ efflux.
Ca in (some K out)
K out.
200ms
-80mV RMP
58
Q

Describe pacemaker action potential

A

Funny current (If) Na in. Done through HCN channels (hyperpolarisation activated (lower than -50mV)). And some ca?
Ca in
K out

59
Q

How does contraction occur in smooth muscle and what inhibits this?

A

Ca in. Binds to calmodulin. This complex activates MLCK (myosin light chain kinase) this phosphorylates and activates the myosin head so the muscle can contract.
PKA inhibits MLCK

60
Q

Where may a third and forth sound be heard?

A

Early diastole and atrial contraction respectively.

61
Q

Describe the pressure changes in the internal jugular vein

A

Atrial contraction so pressure increases dramatically. A
Decreases due to atria relaxing. X.
Slight increase during x for ventricular contraction pushing tricuspid valve into atria. C.
Increase in pressure due to atria being full. V.
Fall in pressure as tricuspid opens at beginning of diastole. Y.

62
Q

Normal range of CVP?

A

1-10mmHg

63
Q

Pressures in heart:

A
Ra = 4
Rv 25/3
Pa 25/10
La 5
Lv 80/4
Ao 80/40
64
Q

Main action and innervation of biceps femoris

A

Flex knee.
When flexed it laterally rotates leg and extends thigh.
Long head is tibial division of sciatic and short head is fibulae division

65
Q

Main action and innervation of semi membranosus and semi tendinosus

A

Flex knee extend thigh and medial rotation when knee is flexed.
Tibial part of sciatic nerve

66
Q

Nerves that Innervated the heart?

A

Phrenic nerve- pericardium
Vagus nerve- parasympathetic
Sympathetic chain of ganglia.

67
Q

Describe shock

A

Acute circulatory failure with inadequate or inappropriate distributed tissue perfusion so that there is a generalised lack of O2.

68
Q

Describe cardio genie shock

A

Failure of the heart to pump enough blood e.g. Ischemia or arrhythmias.

69
Q

Describe mechanical shock

A

Cardiac tamponade affecting filing or occlusion in pulmonary system.

70
Q

Describe hypovolaemic shock

A

Haemorrhage and reduced blood volume.
Fluids/ blood given
Sympathetic - cold wet

71
Q

Distributive shock?

A

Loss of TPR
Sepsis: bacterial releasing endotoxins causing vasoconstriction. Warm- wet due to sympathetic and dilatiom
Treat with adrenaline and antibiotics.
Anaphylaxis: histamine causing vasodilation. Treat with adrenaline. Bronchoconstriction and larangeal oedema