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PharmEducate Notes > CVS > Flashcards

CVS Flashcards

1
Q

Symptoms of AF?

A

Palpitations, dyspnoea, dizziness and tiredness

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2
Q

What is paroxysmal AF?

A

Symptoms for less than 7 days

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3
Q

What is persistent AF?

A

Symptoms for more than 7 days

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4
Q

What is permanent AF?

A

Symptoms all the time

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5
Q

What are the two different types of AF control?

A

Rate and rhythm

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6
Q

What is first line treatment for AF?

A

Rate control with monotherapy

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7
Q

What medications are used in rate control of AF?

A

Beta blockers (not sotalol)
Rate limiting CCB (diltiazem and verapamil)
Digoxin

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8
Q

Which rate limiting CCB can cause constipation?

A

Verapamil

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9
Q

When can digoxin be used as monotherapy in AF?

A

For sedentary patients or patients with HF

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10
Q

What can be given if monotherapy rate control is not effective?

A

Dualtherapy with beta blocker + digoxin

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11
Q

What can be given if dual therapy rate control is not effective?

A

Rhythm control

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12
Q

What medications are used in rhythm control?

A

Beta blocker or anti arrhythmic drug

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13
Q

Exceptions to 1st line treatment of AF?

A

New onset within 48 hours = Rate/rhythm control

Patients with HF and reduced ejection fraction = dual therapy

Reversible cause

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14
Q

Which rate limiting CCB can never be given with a beta blocker?

A

Verapamil = severe bradycardia and hypotension

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15
Q

What medications are used for “pill in a pocket”

A

Flecainide or propafenone

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16
Q

When should “pill in a pocket” be used?

A

Infrequent episodes

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17
Q

When should “pill in a pocket” never be used?

A

In ischaemic heart disease

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18
Q

What is Torsade de pointes?

A

A life threatening form of arrhythmia caused by prolonged QT interval

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19
Q

Symptoms of torsade de pointes?

A

Fainting or seizures

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20
Q

Treatment of torsade de pointes?

A

IV magnesium sulphate

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21
Q

What does the CHASVASc score measure?

A

Risk of stroke

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22
Q

What does the orbit score measure?

A

Risk of bleeding for patients on anticoagulants in AF

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23
Q

What does CHADSVASc stand for?

A

C = chronic HF or LV dysfunction
H = hypertension
A2 = age 75+
D = diabetes
S2 = stroke / ischaemic attack / VTE history
V = vascular disease
A = aged between 65 - 75
Sc = sex category (females = 1)

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24
Q

What CHADSVASc score prompts anticoagulation?

A

2+ = anticoagulation with warfarin or DOAC

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25
Q

What does ORBIT stand for?

A

O = over 75
R2 = reduced Hb / anaemia
B2 = bleeding history
I = insufficient kidney function (<60)
T = treatment with anti platelets

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26
Q

What ORBIT score prompts avoiding anticoagulation?

A

Men = 2+
Women = 3+

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27
Q

What anti arrhythmic class is amiodarone?

A

3

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28
Q

Loading dose of amiodarone?

A

200mg TDS for 7 days, then 200mg BD for 7 days, then 200mg OD as maintenance

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29
Q

Side effects of amiodarone?

A

“PHONES”

P = pulmonary toxicity / QT prolongation
H = hyper/hypothyroidism / hepatic impairment
O = optic neuropathy
N = neuropathy of the limbs
E = eyes - corneal micro deposits
S = slate grey skin / photosensitivity

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30
Q

Amiodarone interactions?

A

“BCDDGW”

Beta blocker
CCB
Digoxin
Diuretics
Grapefruit juice
Warfarin

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31
Q

What is the therapeutic drug range for digoxin?

A

0.8 - 2micrograms/L

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32
Q

How long after doses should digoxin blood samples be taken?

A

6 hours post dose

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33
Q

Does digoxin require a loading dose?

A

Yes due to its long half life

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34
Q

When is digoxin contraindicated?

A

When heart rate is less than 60bpm

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35
Q

Digoxin dose in atrial flutter or non-paroxysmal AF?

A

125 - 250mg

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36
Q

Digoxin dose in worsening or severe HF?

A

62.5 - 125mg

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37
Q

Signs of digoxin toxicity?

A

“GRACE”

G = GI disorders
R = rash
A = arrhythmias caused by hypokalaemia
C = CNS effects E.g. confusion
E = eyes E.g. blurred or yellowing vision

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38
Q

What electrolyte disturbances can digoxin cause?

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Hypercalcaemia

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39
Q

How should electrolyte disturbances caused by digoxin be treated?

A

Withdraw digoxin while electrolyte imbalances are corrected

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40
Q

Digoxin interactions?

A

“CRASED”

C = CCB
R = Rifampicin
A = amiodarone, quinine and donedarone - half dose of digoxin
S = SJW
E = erythromycin
D = diuretics

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41
Q

What is tranexamic acid?

A

Antifibrinolytic which helps reduce bleeding

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42
Q

Typical tranexamic acid dose?

A

1g TDS for 4 days
(7 days for nose bleeds)

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43
Q

What are the two types of VTE?

A

PE and DVT

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44
Q

VTE risk factors?

A

Immobility
Obesity
Cancer
60+
VTE history
HRT/COC
Pregnancy

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45
Q

Bleeding risk factors?

A

Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count)
Acute stroke
Bleeding disorder: acquired (E.g. liver disease) or inherited (e.g. haemophilia)
Anticoagulant use
Systolic hypertension

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46
Q

When should stockings be avoided?

A

In stroke patients

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47
Q

How long should stockings be used for?

A

Until sufficiently mobile / 30 days for spinal injuries

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48
Q

When is unfractionated heparin preferred over LMWH?

A

Renal impairment or increased risk of bleeding

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49
Q

Heparin alternative?

A

Fondaparinux

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50
Q

How long are heparins normally given for surgical VTE prophylaxis?

A

General surgery = 7 days
Abdominal surgery or cancer patients = 28 days
Spinal surgery = 30 days

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51
Q

Surgical VTE prophylaxis in hip surgery?

A

LMWH for 10 days then 28 days of low dose aspirin

OR

LMWH for 28 days + stockings/rivaroxaban

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52
Q

Surgical VTE prophylaxis in knee surgery?

A

Low dose aspirin for 14 days

OR

LMWH for 14 days + stockings/rivaroxaban

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53
Q

Which heparin is used if the patient has an increased risk of bleeding?

A

Unfractionated

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54
Q

Which heparin has lower risk of osteoporosis and thrombocytopenia?

A

LMWH

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55
Q

Reversal agent for LMWH?

A

Protamine (partial reversal)

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56
Q

Which electrolyte disturbance is caused by LMWH?

A

Hyperkalaemia

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57
Q

Which heparin causes osteoporosis when used long term?

A

Both but risk higher with unfractionated

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58
Q

How long does it take for warfarin to work?

A

2-3 days

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59
Q

Typical warfarin dose?

A

10mg OD for 2 days
Then 3-9mg OD

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60
Q

What should be done if a dose of warfarin is missed?

A

Take as soon as you remember if on the same day. If next dose is due omit previous dose (I.E. never take more than one in a day)

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61
Q

How long is warfarin given for an isolated calf DVT?

A

6 weeks

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62
Q

How long is warfarin given for a provoked VTE?

A

3 months

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63
Q

How long is warfarin given for an unprovoked VTE?

A

At least 3 months

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64
Q

What colour is the 0.5mg warfarin tablet?

A

White

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65
Q

What colour is the 1mg warfarin tablet?

A

Brown

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66
Q

What colour is the 3mg warfarin tablet?

A

Blue

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67
Q

What colour is the 5mg warfarin tablet?

A

Pink

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68
Q

Normal INR range for warfarin?

A

2.5

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69
Q

INR range in recurrent VTE while the patient was on anticoagulants?

A

3.5

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70
Q

How often is INR checked?

A

Every 12 months

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71
Q

MHRA alert for warfarin? (2)

A
  1. Calciphylaxis - report painful rash
  2. Miconazole (Daktarin) - severe interaction
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72
Q

What should be done if a patient taking warfarin has no bleeding but INR is between 5-8?

A

Hold 1 - 2 doses. Restart when INR below 5

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73
Q

What should be done if a patient taking warfarin has no bleeding but INR is >8?

A

Stop warfarin and give oral phytomenadione.
Repeat after 24 hours if still high.
Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.

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74
Q

What should be done if a patient taking warfarin has minor bleeding and INR is between 5-8?

A

Stop warfarin and give IV phytomenadione.
Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.

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75
Q

What should be done if a patient taking warfarin has minor bleeding and INR is >8?

A

Stop warfarin and give IV phytomenadione.
Repeat after 24 hours if still high.
Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.

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76
Q

What should be done if a patient taking warfarin has major bleeding and INR is between 5-8?

A

Stop warfarin and give IV phytomenadione + dried prothrombin.
Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.

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77
Q

What should be done if a patient taking warfarin has major bleeding and INR is >8?

A

Stop warfarin and give IV phytomenadione + prothrombin.
Repeat after 24 hours if still high.
Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.

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78
Q

When should patients taking warfarin report nose bleeds?

A

If they last greater than 10mins

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79
Q

When should patients taking warfarin report headaches?

A

Always due to risk of SAH

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80
Q

Main OTC interactions with warfarin?

A

Cranberry juice, pomegranate juice, leafy veg (high in vit K), Miconazole and NSAIDs

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81
Q

How long before surgery should warfarin be stopped?

A

5 days

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82
Q

What can be done if a patient needs to stop taking warfarin for a surgery but is at high risk of VTE?

A

Bridge with LMWH

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83
Q

Rivaroxaban MHRA interaction?

A

Erythromycin increases risk of bleeding

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84
Q

Rivaroxaban dose for VTE prophylaxis?

A

10mg OD
35 days = hip
14 days = knee

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85
Q

Rivaroxaban dose in recurrent VTE?

A

10mg OD for 6months
20mg if at high risk

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86
Q

Rivaroxaban dose in VTE treatment?

A

15mg BD for 21 days, then 20mg OD

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87
Q

Rivaroxaban dose in stroke prevention in AF?

A

20mg OD
(Always double VTE prophylaxis)

88
Q

Rivaroxaban dose in acute coronary syndrome?

A

2.5mg BD 12 months

89
Q

Apixaban dose for VTE prophylaxis?

A

2.5mg OD
Hip = 32-38 days
Knee = 10-14 days

90
Q

Apixaban dose for recurrent VTE?

A

2.5mg BD

91
Q

Apixaban dose for VTE treatment?

A

10mg BD for 7 days, then 5mg BD

92
Q

Apixaban dose in stroke prevention in AF?

A

5mg BD (2.5mg if 80+, <61kg or Creatinine >133)

93
Q

When is the Apixaban dose in stroke prevention in AF halved?

A

2.5mg if 80+, <61kg or Creatinine >133

94
Q

Apixaban and rivaroxaban reversal agent?

A

Andexanet alpha

95
Q

Dabigatran dose for VTE prophylaxis?

A

220mg OD
Hip = 35 days
Knee = 14 days

150mg OD if 75+ and taking amiodarone or verapamil

96
Q

When should dabigatran dose be reduced when given for VTE prophylaxis?

A

150mg OD if 75+ and taking amiodarone or verapamil

97
Q

Dabigatran dose for VTE treatment or stroke prevention in AF?

A

150mg BD

If 75+, moderate RI, or increased risk of bleeds = 110-150mg BD
If 80+ and taking verapamil = 110mg BD

98
Q

Edoxaban dose for VTE prevention, treatment or stroke prophylaxis for stroke in AF?

A

60mg OD
If <60kg = 30mg OD

99
Q

Which medications require edoxaban dose to be halved from 60mg to 30mg?

A

“DECK”

Donederone
Erythromycin
Ciclosporin
Ketoconazole

100
Q

Which DOACs are given OD?

A

“RE”
Rivaroxaban
Edoxaban

101
Q

Which DOACs are given BD?

A

“AD”

Apixaban
Dabigatran

102
Q

Which DOACs can be given in dyspepsia?

A

“EA”
Edoxaban
Apixaban

103
Q

Which DOACs should be avoided in liver impairment?

A

“ED”
Edoxaban
Dabigatran

STOP if ALT/ALP = 2x normal

104
Q

What is a transient ischaemic attack (TIA)?

A

Temporary disruption in blood supply causing stroke-like symptoms

105
Q

Initial management of ischaemic stroke?

A

Alteplase if given within 4.5hours of symptom onset.
Aspirin ASAP within 24 hours of onset

106
Q

Long term treatment of ischaemic stroke or TIA?

A

Clopidogrel + high intensity statin + anti hypertensive (not a beta blocker unless indicated for another condition)

107
Q

Long term treatment of ischaemic stroke or TIA when Clopidogrel is not suitable?

A

Aspirin +/- Dipyridamole MR
+ high intensity statin + anti hypertensive (not a beta blocker unless indicated for another condition)

108
Q

Haemorrhagic stroke long term treatment?

A

Anti-hypertensive.

Aspirin, statins and anticoagulants are contraindicated.

109
Q

Counselling for dipyridamole?

A

Take 30-60mins before food
Discard after 30 days

110
Q

Counselling for dipyridamole MR tablets?

A

Take after food
Discard after 6 weeks

111
Q

What is a normal blood pressure?

A

120/80

112
Q

What is stage 1 hypertension and how is it treated?

A

> 140/90
Give lifestyle advice

113
Q

When should stage 1 hypertension be treated pharmacologically?

A

When the patient is:
Over 80 and >150/90
Under 80
Target organ damage
Diabetes
Kidney disease

114
Q

What is stage 2 hypertension and when should it be treated?

A

160/100
Treat all

115
Q

What is hypertensive crisis?

A

> 180/110
Treat promptly

116
Q

Treatment of hypertension if the patient is <55 or has T2DM?

A

ACE/ARB
(ARB preferred if they’re black)

117
Q

Treatment of hypertension if the patient is >55 or afro Caribbean?

A

CCB

118
Q

Step up treatment of hypertension if the patient is <55 or has T2DM?

A

+ CCB or TLD (in HF)

119
Q

Step up treatment of hypertension if the patient is >55 or afro Caribbean?

A

+ ACE/ARB or TLD (in HF)

120
Q

Third step up in treatment of hypertension?

A

ACE/ARB + CCB + TLD

121
Q

Fourth step up in treatment of hypertension?

A

If K+ < 4.5 = + spironolactone
If K+ > 4.5 = + alpha blocker or beta blocker

122
Q

1st line treatment of hypertension in pregnancy?

A

Labetalol (hepatotoxic)
Alternatives = nifedipine MR or methyldopa

123
Q

When should gestational hypertension treatment be stopped?

A

2 days after birth

124
Q

BP target for someone under 80?

A

<140/90

125
Q

BP target for someone over 80

A

<150/90

126
Q

BP target for someone with diabetes?

A

<130/80

127
Q

BP target for a pregnant woman?

A

<135/85

128
Q

Which ACE can be given BD?

A

Captopril

129
Q

Which ACE must be given 30-60mg a before food?

A

Perindopril

130
Q

Side effects of ACE/ARB?

A

Hyperkalaemia
Hypoglycaemia
Angioedema
Teratogenic
Nephrotoxicity
Hepatotoxicity
Taste disturbance
Oral ulcers
Indigestion

131
Q

Which CCBs are brand specific?

A

Nifedipine MR
Diltiazem MR

132
Q

Which CCBs are more cardio selective?

A

Rate limiting CCBs - avoid in HF

133
Q

Which CCB can cause constipation?

A

Verapamil

134
Q

Side effects of CCBs?

A

“DEATH FOG”

Dizziness
Erectile dysfunction
Ankle swelling
Tachycardia
Headaches
Flushing
Oedema
Gingival hyperplasia

Can also cause interstitial lung disease

135
Q

Which juice should be avoided with CCBs?

A

Grapefruit juice

136
Q

Symptoms of heart failure?

A

Dyspnoea
Oedema
Pink sputum

137
Q

Treatment of fluid overload in heart failure?

A

Loop or thiazide diuretic

138
Q

Which thiazide diuretic is effective in eGFR < 35?

A

Metolazone

139
Q

1st line treatment of heart failure?

A

ACE + beta blocker

140
Q

Alternatives to ACE in heart failure treatment?

A

ARB
Or hydralazine + nitrate

141
Q

Which beta blockers can be used in heart failure?

A

“CBN”

Carvedilol
Bisoprolol
Nebivolol (if 70+ with mild-moderate stable HF)

142
Q

When can Nebivolol be used in HF?

A

if 70+ with mild-moderate stable HF

143
Q

What can be added to 1st line treatment of HF if symptoms persist?

A

Aldosterone antagonist E.g. spironolactone

144
Q

Which loop diuretic is most likely to cause gout?

A

Furosemide

145
Q

Which loop diuretic is is most likely to cause musculoskeletal pain?

A

Torasemide

146
Q

Which thiazide diuretic can be used on alternate days due to long half life?

A

Chlortalidone

147
Q

Which thiazide diuretic is least likely to aggregate diabetes?

A

Indapamide

148
Q

Which thiazide diuretic is brand specific?

A

Metolazone

149
Q

Which aldosterone antagonist can be used in liver ascites?

A

Spironolactone

150
Q

Which potassium sparing diuretic can turn your urine blue?

A

Triamterene

151
Q

Onset of action of loop diuretics?

A

1 hour

152
Q

Duration of action of loop diuretics?

A

6 hours

153
Q

Which electrolytes can be reduced by furosemide?

A

All

154
Q

Key side effect of loop diuretics?

A

Ototoxicity

155
Q

Why must loop diuretics and aminoglycosides be separated by long periods?

A

Ototoxicity

156
Q

Thiazide diuretics onset?

A

1-2 hours

157
Q

Thiazide diuretic duration of action?

A

12-24 hours

158
Q

Which diuretics can exacerbate gout?

A

Both thiazides and loop diuretics. Loops exacerbate more.

159
Q

Which diuretics can cause GI disturbance?

A

Thiazide diuretics

160
Q

Which diuretics can cause impotence?

A

Thiazides

161
Q

Which electrolytes are decreased by thiazide diuretics?

A

All except calcium which increases

162
Q

Which thiazide diuretic can cause skin cancer?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

163
Q

Side effects of aldosterone antagonist diuretics?

A

Gynaecomastia and hypertrichosis (excessive hair growth all over the body)

164
Q

Do aldosterone antagonists increase or decrease potassium levels?

A

Increase

165
Q

Which beta blocker should be given by IV?

A

Esmolol

166
Q

Which beta blocker can be used for migraine prophylaxis and anxiety?

A

Propranolol

167
Q

Which beta blocker can cause QT prolongation leading to torsade de pointes?

A

Sotalol

168
Q

Warning label for beta blockers?

A

Do not stop unless GP tells you to

169
Q

Which beta blockers are least likely to cause bradycardia or coldness to extremities?

A

“ice PACO”

Pindolol
Acebutol
Celiprolol
Oxprenolol

170
Q

Which beta blockers are most water soluble meaning they least effect sleep disturbance?

A

“watering CANS”

Celiprolol
Atenolol
Nadolol
Sotalol

171
Q

Which beta blockers are most cardio selective and therefore least likely to cause bronchospasms?

A

“B A MAN”

Bisoprolol
Acebutol (least cardio selective)
Metoprolol
Atenolol
Nebivolol

172
Q

Which beta blockers are the longest acting meaning they can be given OD?

A

“BACoN / CAN B”

Bisoprolol
Atenolol
Celiprolol
Nadolol

173
Q

Beta blocker side effects?

A

“BAD FISH”

Bronchospasm / bradycardia
Atrioventricular block
Disturbs glucose metabolism (hypo/hyper)

Fainting / dizziness
Impotence
Sleep disturbances
Hypotension / HF / cold hands and feet

174
Q

What is the main cause or peripheral (AKA occlusive) arterial disease?

A

Atherosclerosis restricting the blood supply but resolves shortly

175
Q

Treatment of peripheral (AKA occlusive) arterial disease?

A

Secondary prevention = high intensity statin + aspirin

176
Q

Treatment of vasospastic arterial disease?

A

Avoid triggers E.g. smoking/stress.
If serious give nifedipine.

177
Q

What is given for primary prevention of CVD?

A

Low dose of high intensity statin E.g. 20mg atorvastatin

178
Q

What is given for secondary prevention of CVD?

A

High dose of high intensity statin E.g. 80mg atorvastatin

179
Q

What is added to secondary prevention of CVD with atherosclerosis?

A

Low dose aspirin

180
Q

What is added to secondary prevention of CVD with stoke/TIA?

A

Clopidogrel
Or dipyridamole + aspirin

181
Q

Cholesterol targets?

A

“5 4 3 2.3 1”

Total cholesterol < 5
Non-LDL < 4
LDL < 3
Triglycerides < 2.3
HDL > 1

182
Q

Which drugs can cause hyperlipidaemia?

A

“AITCH”

Antipsychotics
Immunosuppressants
Thiazide diuretics
Corticosteroids
HIV meds

183
Q

1st line treatment of hyperlipidaemia?

A

Statins (low intensity) treat high LDL and moderately high triglyceride levels

184
Q

Additional treatment to statins in severe hyperlipidaemia?

A

Ezetimibe

185
Q

Additional treatment to statins if triglycerides are still high?

A

Fibrates E.g. benzofibrate, fenofibrate

186
Q

What is the treatment of familial hypercholesterolaemia?

A

High intensity statin
Or ezetimibe

187
Q

Which statins are short acting so should be taken at night?

A

Fluvastatin and simvastatin

188
Q

What is the LDL reduction required to be considered a high intensity statin?

A

> 40%

189
Q

Which statins and what doses are considered high intensity statins?

A

Atorvastatin - 20mg for primary prevention, 80mg for secondary prevention
Rosuvastatin - 20mg
Simvastatin - 80mg

190
Q

Main side effect of Simvastatin?

A

Myopathy / rhabdomylosis

191
Q

When are statins cautioned?

A

Hypothyroidism - monitor TSH
Kidney damage
Pregnancy - teratogenic - use contraception for up to 1 month after stopping

192
Q

Side effects to look out for in statins?

A

Interstitial lung disease - report SOB
Diabetes - monitor HbA1c
Hepatotoxicity - stop if LFTs 3 x normal

193
Q

Can a macrolide be given with a statin?

A

No due to risk of rhabdomylosis

194
Q

Which fibrate should never be given with a statin?

A

Gemfibrozic due to risk of rhabdomylosis

195
Q

What is the maximum dose of simvastatin that can be given concomitantly with benzofibrate or ciprofibrate?

A

10mg

196
Q

What is the maximum dose of simvastatin that can be given concomitantly with amiodarone, amlodipine, diltiazem or verapamil?

A

20mg

197
Q

What is the maximum dose of atorvastatin that can be given concomitantly with Ciclosporin?

A

10mg

198
Q

What is the maximum dose of Rosuvastatin that can be given concomitantly with benzofibrate, ciprofibrate or fenofibrate?

A

5mg

199
Q

Expiry for GTN sublingual tablets?

A

8 weeks

200
Q

Examples of long acting nitrates?

A

GTN patches
Isosorbide dinitrate - BD (lasts 12H)
Isosorbide mononitrate MR (given OM)

201
Q

Examples of vasodilators used in angina?

A

Nicorandil
Ivabradine
Ranolazine

202
Q

MHRA alert for nicorandil?

A

Skin, eye and mucosa ulceration

203
Q

Treatment of acute attacks in stable angina?

A

GTN spray/SL

204
Q

GTN spray/SL counselling?

A

GTN SL every 5mins if needed
If no response after 2 call 999
Max 3 doses

205
Q

1st line prophylaxis of stable angina?

A

Beta blocker
Or rate limiting CCB

206
Q

2nd line prophylaxis of stable angina?

A

Beta blocker + rate limiting CCB (not verapamil)

207
Q

Treatment of unstable angina/NSTEMI?

A

Low dose aspirin + high intensity statin + clopidogrel (for 12 months) + anti-angina drug

208
Q

Treatment of STEMI?

A

Low dose aspirin + high intensity statin + clopidogrel (4 weeks) + ACE + beta blocker

209
Q

Treatment of unstable angina/NSTEMI in a medical emergency?

A

Aspirin 300mg (chew or disperse in water) + GTN

210
Q

Treatment of STEMI in a medical emergency?

A

Aspirin 300mg (chew or disperse in water) + GTN + IV diamorphine/morphine + metoclopramide

211
Q

What are the 2 different types of stent?

A

Bare metal and drug-eluting

212
Q

What medications should a patient be offered if they have a bare metal stent?

A

Aspirin indefinitely + clopidogrel (in stable angina) for 1 month

213
Q

What medications should a patient be offered if they have a drug-eluting stent?

A

Aspirin indefinitely + clopidogrel (in stable angina) for 6 months

214
Q

What can be done to digoxin dose if the patient experiences nausea?

A

Give as BD instead

215
Q

Which side effect of amiodarone doesn’t require the patient to stop taking it?

A

Corneal micro deposits

216
Q

Which is preferred in HF with reduced EF, Spironolactone or eplerenone?

A

Eplerenone

PharmEducate Notes (8 decks)

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