CV1-CM Flashcards

1
Q

what is the number one cause of death for males and females?

A

cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the most cardiovascular deaths caused by?

A

42% from coronary artery disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how many times a day does the heart beat?

A

100,000 times a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how much does the heart weigh?

A

9-12 oz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the purpose of the structure of the heart?

A

maintain pressure differences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the chest cavity is ______ the sternal boarder?

A

2/3 the sternal border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where is the myocardium most vulnerable to external forces?

A

the ventricle lays right along the rib cage along the left border of the sternum, if you got hit directly here it can put you into a dangerous rythmn and kill you

you want to protect this area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how many times does your heart beat a per day and per year?

A

100,000 per day

  • 35 million per year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the function of the coronary arteries?

where do they originate from?

A

provide the heart with its blood supply

they originate from the base of the ascending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

does the heart recieve blood during systole or diastole?

A

during diastole!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what four arteries does the right coronary artery (RCA) feed into? why is this so important?

A
  1. SA NODE artery
  2. AV NODE artery
  3. acute marginal artery
  4. posterior descending artery

**this is important because it controls the electrophysiology of the heart, if there isn’t any blood getting to the SA and AV nodes, then the heart won’t function**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the two main branches the left coronary artery branches into?

what are the two subbranches of each of these?

A

1. left anterior descending artery

a. 1st septal artery
b. anterior diagonal

2. circumflex artery

a. oblique marginal
b. posterior lateral circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which is the worst artery to get an occlusion in?

A

left main coronary artery

because it brances into the left circumflex artery and left anterior descending artery basicaly knocks out the entire left side of the heart and the left side of the heart is most important!!

***the left anterior descending is know as the widow maker because it is the most important and basicallly feeds the wole left ventricle, if this ventricle doens’t work, your body doesn’t get blood!!!**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does high intensity cardio workouts effect the coronary arterys?

A

it doesn’t make more of them like it would by making collateral arteries….

….it just makes them LARGER!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain what the areas of the heart are?

A
  1. lateral
  2. inferior
  3. apex
  4. anterior
  5. posterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where is the worst place for you to get a MI?

A

the left coronary artery is the worse place for you to get a MI because it feeds the entire left side of the heart! so if you block this it will likely cut off most of the blood supply

this is known as the widow maker!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a threshold?

A

the minimal chance in polarity to produce a AP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the primary ion repsonsible for depolarization at the SA and AV node?

A

CALCIUM

the massive influx of calcium causes the SA and AV nodes to depolarize!

**keep in mind this is opposit of the perkinje fibers which depolarization is caused by Na***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

absolute refractory period

for myocardial cell

A

no stimulus no matter how strong will depolarize the myocardial cell

**see area in yellow**

this is the time that the myocardial cell is contracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

relative refractor period

of myocardial cell

A

a sufficiently strong stimulus will depolarize the myocardial cell

this signal must be recieved before it has depolarized or after it has repolarized

see green areas in the picture, this is at the resting membrane potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how many times longer is the cardiac action potentential than the muscle action potential?

why is this a good thing?

A

cardiac AP is 10x longer than skeletal muscle potentential

think about when you flex your bicep to show off your muscle, it stays flexed because the AP for skeletal muscles are really short, so they keep firing quickly to keep the muslce contracted

this would be BAD in the heart!! this would mean the heart could stay contracted which is dangerous, the longer AP allows the heart to contract and fully relax before it can take another AP allows the heart time to fill with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the SA node depolarizing rate?

A

60-100 times/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the AV node depolarizing rate?

A

40-60 times/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the purkinje cell depolarizing rate?

A

20-40 times/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the electrical conducting pathway through the heart?

where is there a delay and why is this a good thing?

A
  1. SA node (0sec)
  2. Far side Left atrium (.09 sec)
  3. AV node (.03 sec)
  4. bundle of HIS (.16 second)
  5. purkinje fibers (.19 sec)
  6. epicardial wall (.22 sec)

notice that there is a delay at the AV node since it takes longer to travel down the bundle of HIS, this occurs intentionallly because you want to allow enough time for the atria to contract and push the blood into the ventircles so they can fill before contracting!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

if your atrial stopped contracting would you notice it?

A

you wouldn’t notice it originally just at rest, but if you got up and started jogging you would notice it because the demands of the body are going up and without the atria contracting you can’t meet those demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

sympathetic stimulation on the heart…how does it effect:

  1. ep/NE; adrenergic receptors
  2. HR
  3. conduction velocity
  4. force of contraction
A
  1. increases stimulation of EP/NE receptors

2. increases HR

3. increases conduction velocity (wires to lightbulb)

4. increases force of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the parasympathetic innervation of the heart effect:

  1. ACH muscarinic receptors
  2. HR
  3. conduction velocity
A

stimulates ACH muscarinic receptors

2. decreases HR

3. decreases conduction velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what receptors in the heart does sympathetic stimulation act on?

A

adrenergic receptors NE/EPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what receptors in the heart does parasympathetic stimulation act on?

A

ACH, muscarinic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

explain the hormonal influence on the heart?

what is the order of organs that produce them?

what is this hormal influence on the heart important

A

circulating catecholamines

  1. epinephrine (80%)
  2. norepinephrine (20%)

hypothalamus->pituitary glands->adrenal glands

this is the order that is used to produce them

significance: if someone lost their sympathetic/parasympathetic control of their heart, like with a heart transplant, they are still able to control HR using circulating hormones, it might take a little time to see the response because you have to wait for them to be produced, but the can do the same time, just takes a longer work up like walking on treadmill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Case: a pt has a HR of 30 and an occlusion in the right coronary artery. ECG shows no P waves. Pt complains of being dizzy!

whats happened? what does he potentially need?

A

SA and AV node have been taken out and he is firing from the purkinje fibers

atria aren’t contracting anymore

likely needs a dual wire pacemaker!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what do you need to do about the QT interval to account for HR? what is the name of this equation?

A

Bazetts equation

allows you to correct the QT for heart rate

divide the square root of the RR interval into the QT interval, measured in seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where do V1 and V2 lie?

where do V3 and V4 lie?

where do V5 and V6 lie?

A

v1 and v2: directly over right atrium

v3 and v4: directly over interventricular septum

v5 and v6: directly over left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the direction of the mean vector is called….

A

mean electrical axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the leading cause of cardiovascular death?

A

atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what percent of people with PAD are asymptomatic?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

in a person with PAD

where are the arterial ulcers?

where are the venous ulcers?

A

arterial ulcers: lateral side

venous ulcers: medial side, usually painless, large and irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

people with athlerosclerosis most likely die from….

A

AMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ankle-brachial index

what is this used to diagnose? how does the test work? what value is diagnostic?

A

used to diagnose PAD

  1. BP cuff around the ankle, meausure the systolic BP using doppler (measures the PT and PD pressure)
  2. BP cuff around the brachial artery

ankle/brachial of .9 or less is diagnostic for PAD, since the pressure in the ankle decreases if PAD is present since the tissue isn’t being profused and there is decreased BV and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

if the ABI is less than .5, what is the 5 year survival rate?

A

63%! so hey, thats good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does a supervised walking program do in PAD? (four things)

A
  1. improves oxygen utilization
  2. increases muscle anaerobic metabolism
  3. shifts energy of walking to muscles with higher O2 delivery
  4. recruits collateral blood flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

explain how the charges on the inside of the cell change through the cardiac cylcle?

A

Resting state: inside the cell is -negatively charged

depolarization: creates a temporary + charge inside cell
repolarization: cells go back to -negative charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

explain the properties of pacemaker cells?

(7 characteristics)

A
  1. autorythmic (can generate a AP on their own)
  2. coupled to myocytes via gap junctions
  3. no resting membrane potentional, always constantly changing with their charge in cell, constant flux
  4. located in SA node, AV node, purkinje cells
  5. under neural and hormonal imput that determines the rate of depolarization
  6. with each depolarization, a new AP is created that stimulates the next cell
  7. 5-10 ug long
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

explain the properties of the SA node

A

dominant pacemaker cells, 60-100 b

  1. primary pacemaker of the heart

2. slow response action potential

  1. no true resting membrane potential
  2. AV node action potential very similar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

explain the properites of the electrical conducting cells

what is the electrical conducting pathway of the heart?

(7 pathways)

A

hard wiring of heart, long and thin, “wires to a lightbulb” they carry the messages quickly and effectively to the heart

pathway:

  1. interatrial pathway
  2. SA Node
  3. inter nodal pathway
  4. AV node
  5. bundle of HIS
  6. right and left bundle branches
  7. perkinje fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

purkinje fibers are the _______ conducting system

A

ventricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

bachmans bundle allows for…..

A

activation of the left atrium from the right atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

explain the characteristics of myocardial cells

(7 things)

A

allow for contractility of the heart, account for 99% of the cells in the heart, THESE ARE THE WAVES YOU SEE ON THE EKG

  1. striated muscle with gap junctions or intercalculated disks
  2. fast reponse action potenitals
  3. NOT AUTORYTHMIC
  4. true resting potential unlike SA and AV
  5. contain actin and myosin
  6. depolarization causes CA TO ENTER CELL and cause it to contract
  7. spreads slowly across myocardial cells compared to conducting cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

explain the small and large boxes on both the X and Y axis of the EKG paper

A

X axis: seconds

small boxes: 1mm x 1mm, .04 seconds

larger pink boxes: 5mm X 5mm .2 seconds

Y-axis: mV

small boxes: .1 mv

large boxes: .5 mv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

explain the p wave seen on the EKG

what leads do you read the p wave in?

A

the right atria depolarizes creating the p wave

first part of p wave is right atrial depolarization

second part of p wave is left atrial depolarization

read the p waves:

1. left lateral leads (I and aVL)

2. inferior leads (II and aVF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

explain the function of the AV node?

A

gate between the atria and the ventircles, slows the conduction so that the atria have time to contract and the vetnricles to fill with blood

represented by the P-R segment on the EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what wave represents ventricular depolarization?

where does the signal travel after AV node?

in a normal person what two leads would you expect this to be positive in?

which one would you expect this to be negative in?

A
  1. bundle of HIs
  2. right and left bundle branches
  3. purkinje fibers

positive in:

1. lateral leads (I and aVL)

2. inferior leads II, aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Q wave of QRS

what is this? what does it represent? what is normal mV for it? what four leads would you see it in most likely?

A

first downward deflection

represents septal depolarization

**not always visible** generally <.1 mV

leads:

I, aVL, V5, V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

R wave in QRS

what is it? what does it represent? what do you see it?

A

first deflection upwards, might be a second spike called R’

represents ventricular myocardium depolarization

leads:

left lateral (aVL, I)

inferior leads (II, aVF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the S wave in QRS?

what is it?

A

first downard deflection AFTER UPWARD!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is a QS wave?

A

if the entire configuration is only one downward deflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

explain what these are?

A

wow you’re good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what part of the heart does the EKG reflect?

A

measures the electrical activity of the myocytes particullary the left ventricle since this is the largest, it has the most electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what does the T wave represent?

A

ventricular repolarization, requires energy because it uses the membrane pump

this is a active process, explaining why it takes longer with a wider wave on the EKG

typically these are positive in the same leads where the R is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

explain what the PR interval is?

what is a normal time for this interval?

A

includes the p wave to the start of the QRS

atrial depolarization to just before ventricular depolarization

usually .12-.2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what does the PR segment represent?

why is this important?

A

from the end of atrial depolarization to the start of ventricular depolarization

represents the depolarization stimulus slowing at the AV node creating a brief pause, this allows the atrial blood to enter the ventricles before they contract, held here about .1 of a sec then travels down ventricles via bundle of his, bundle branches, terminal perkinje

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what does the ST segment represent?

A

measures time after ventricular depolarization to the start of ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the QT interval?

how much of the cardiac cycle should this account for? what must you control for?

A

begining of the QRS to the end of the T

begining of ventricular depolarization through ventricular repolarization

~40% of each cardiac cycle and varies with HR, if it repolarizes faster the QT interval becomes shorter, therefore, if the heart rate is slower the QT becomes longer, but controll for heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

explain how depolarization moving towards or away from a postivie electrode effects the deflection? what about perpendicular?

A

if moving towards: positive deflection

if away from: negative deflection

if perpendicular: get biphasic deflection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what charge is the EKG picking up?

A

the charge on the outisde of the cell, not the inside!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

explain the relationship between depolarization “QRS” and repolarization T waves?

A

repolarization occurs in the last area of the heart to have been depolarized and travels backwards, in a direction opposit of the wave depolarization

since the same electrodes that recorded a positive depolarization, (appearing as a tall R wave), will generally record a positive deflection during repolarization

it is therefore typical to find positive T wave deflection in the same leads that have tall R waves with positive deflection!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

explain how repolarization is seen when traveling toward or away from an electrode? what about perpendicular?

A

THIS IS OPPOSTITE OF DEPOLARIZATION!!!!

IN REPOLARIZATION:

  1. a wave traveling TOWARDS, is NEGATIVE
  2. a wave traveling AWAY is POSITIVE
  3. if perpendicular: biphasic, but negative inflection comes first
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

explain the degrees of each of the limb leads as seen on the circle?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what leads are included and called left lateral leads?

what degrees do these measure at?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is considered a right lateral leads? what does it measure at?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what leads are considered inferior limb leads? what angle do they measure at?

A

lead II 60*

aVF 90*

lead III 120*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

explain the placement of the 6 pericordial leads?

A

V1-fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum

V2-fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum

V3- between 2 and 4

V4-fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line

V5- between four and 6

V6- placed in the fifth intercostal space in the midaxillary line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

of the pericordial leads, which ones measure the

anterior

left lateral

right ventricular regions?

A

anterior: V2, V3, V4

left lateral: V5 V6

right ventricular: V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

of combined leads, which ones reads the ANTERIOR HEART?

A

V2, V3, V4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

of the combined leads which ones read the LEFT LATERAL heart?

A

I, aVL, V5, V6 read left lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

of the combined leads which ones read the INFERIOR heart?

A

II, III, aVF read inferior heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

of the combined leads which ones read the RIGHT VENTRICULAR of the heart?

A

aVR and V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

explain what a vector is that the EKG reads?

A

the average direction

if you have players on the a soccer field and they are running to get a goal, individually the players are running all over the place, but together they are moving down the field=average direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

explain the four rules that typically reflect R wave progression in the precordial leads?

A
  1. V1 smallest R wave
  2. V5 largest R wave, and builds progressively as it gets up to this
  3. V6 is usually a little smaller than V5
  4. V3/V4 R wave goes from being smaller than S wave, to larger than s wave, so S3 is usually biphasic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

explain the difference between the resting state AP and the exercise state AP for pacemaker cells.

(3 things for each)

A

resting membrane (blue line):

  1. parasympathetic tone
  2. resting membrane potential more negative
  3. rate of rise to threshold, the slope becomes less steep, so it takes more time to get to threshold

exercise state (green line):

  1. sympathetic tone
  2. decreased Ca entry
  3. increased rate of rise to threshold, steeper slope so it takes less time to get to threshold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

explain what happens at the three stages in an action potential in SA and AV pacemaker cells!

A

controlled by Ca and K

Phase 4: -60 mV spontaneous depolarization that triggers action potential when threshold is met at -30-40 mV

slow Na+ and Ca++ in

Phase 0: depolarization phase of AP

fast Ca++ IN

phase 3: repolarization till -60mV, cycle spontaneously repeates

Ca channels close, K+ OUT FAST (makes neg again)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what are the SA and AV node pacemaker cells depolarization depended on?

A

CALCIUM AND K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

when a ion channel is open there is increase in…

A

conductance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

myocytes are sometimes referred to as…..

A

“fast reponse AP” since they have very rapid depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

explain the depolarization repolarization phases seen in myoctyes?

A

Phase 4: -90mV, with true resting potential

K conductance and currents high since K is leaving the cell, making the inside negative

Phase 0: threshold -70mV, rapid delpolarization

rapid increase in Na++ conductance, rushes in!! K conductance decreases because gates close, so the K is stuck inside of the cell, making it more positive

Phase 1: inital repolarization, plateau phase

Ca+ still moving in but K gates open, so K starts to move out, but they someone equal each other so you get a plateau

Phase 2: plateau phase prolongs the action potential since the Long type Ca gates (L-type) are still open, this distinguishes cardiac muscle from the fast muscle AP in skeletal muscle

Phase 3: repolarization

K current increases as it rushes out of the cell, Ca gates close, makes the cell negative again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what ions are the non-pacemaker heart cells (myocytes) dependent on?

A

depolarization-fast Na influx

plateau- slow Ca in

repolarization- Fast K out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

how do you determine HR from EKG?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

explain what hypertrophy of the heart is?

give two examples of conditions this is common in?

A

increase in muscle mass, most commonly caused by pressure overload where the heart is forced to pump blood against increase resistance in the body

Ex: hypertension or aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

explain what englargment of the heart means?

A

dilation of a particular chamber, allowing it to hold more blood than a regular chamber, this usually happens because of volume overload caused by increase volume of blood

the chamber dilates in an attempt to decrease the overall pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what are three things on a EKG that can suggest enlargement or hypertrophy?

A
  1. chambers take longer to depolarize increase in duration
  2. chamber can generate more voltage higher amplitude
  3. change in the electrical shift
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is axis? what is normal values for this and what leads do you see it in?

A

axis: the average direction or mean vector of ventricular depolarization, mean electrical axis

normal 0-90*

positive in I and aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what two leads do you look at to determine axis deviation?

A

I and aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

explain what you would see for:

left axis deviation

right axis deviation

extreme right axis devation

what specific two leads do you look at?

A

look at I and aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

After finding the axis explain how you calculate the axis by degree?

A
  1. figure out which quadrant it is in
  2. find a biphasic wave in the limb leads

this means the axis is perpendicular to this, so add 90*

  1. there will be two options for this, but pick the one that is in the axis that you already defined

Ex: you know you have left axis deviation, the biphasic QRS is at aVR.

AVR is at -150, subtract 90 from it=60*

this is in the left axis deviation quadrant so you know this must be right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

which is more common:

Left axis deviation or right axis deviation?

A

Left axis deviation is far more common than right axis

deviation, it is more likely that left ventricle has hypertrophy because of sustained hypertension than hypertrophy of the right ventricle, however, this does happen with conditions like PE, where the blood is backed up with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what wave do you look at to determine atrial enlargement?

what is the normal duration and ampitude for this wave?

what two leads do you look at to determine right and left atrial englargements?

A

Pwave for atrial englargment

normal duration: .12 seconds (3 little boxes)

normal amplitude: 2.5 mm (2.5 little boxes)

lead II=right atrial englargement

lead V1=left atrial englargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

right atrial enlargment

what lead do you look at?

what will you see?

what is the nickname for this and why?

A

look at lead II

greater than 2.5 in amp of pwave

commonly seen in SEVERE LUNG DISEASE so called p. pulmonade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

left atrial enlargement

what lead do you look at?

what will you see? what is the nickname for this and why?

A

lead V1

of the biphasic p wave the second portion must:

greater that 1 mm wide**

OR

greater than 1 mm amp

Commonly seen in mitrial valve disease so nicknamed P. mitrale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

right ventricular hypertrophy

what are the rules for this in the limb leads and pericordial leads?

A

Limb leads:

I QRS negative (since moving away from I)

Pericordial leads:

MUST HAVE RIGHT AXIS DEVIATION

THEN

A: R>S in V1

B: S>R in V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

explain how this shows right ventricular hypertrophy?

A

V1: R>S

V6: S>R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

left ventircular hypertrophy

what are the two limb lead rules?

what are the four pericordial rules?

A

SPECIFIC IN LIMB, SENSITIVE IN PRECORDIAL

LIMB:

R amp in aVL exceeds 11mm

R amp in I exceeds 14 mm

pericordial:

R amp in V5 + S wave in V1= 35 mm

R amp in V5>26 mm

R amp in V6>18 mm

R amp in V6>V5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

in ventricular hypertrophy

what two characteristics of the wave might you see?

what does this happen?

A
  1. downward sloping ST depression
  2. T wave inversion

people don’t know why it happens but it often happens with severe hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what are the four questions you want to ask when analyzing a rythmn?

A
  1. does the rythmn appear regular/irregular? fast or slow?
  2. Is the QRS wide or narrow? greater than .12
  3. are there p waves present and what do they look like?
  4. what is the relationship between p waves and QRS? 1:1 etct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what are the four sinus origin rythms?

A

normal sinus rythmn

sinus arrythmia

sinus bradycardia

sinus tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what are the symptoms that are generally associated with the presence of arrythmia if the pt is symptomatic? 4 things

A

palpitations

awareness of rapid heart beat

decreased CNS profusion causing leightheadedness and syncope

sudden cardiac death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

explain how enhanced automaticity leads to arythmias?

what type of depolarization do they exhibit?

what are four things that can cause this?

A

accounts 10% of arrythmias

property of certain cardiac cells to spontaneously initiatie an action potential

cells exhibit diastolic depolarization

cells become activated and “irritable” as a result of drug toxicity, hypoxemia, ischemia, metabolic abnormalites and more, these initiate the arrythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what are the three mechanisms of arrhythmias occuring outside of the sinus node?

A
  1. reentry (most common!)
  2. enhance automaticity
  3. afterdepolarizations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

afterpolarizations

What is this caused by? what can this trigger if it is large? what about sustained? what are the two ways that this can occur by? what are 3 things that cause the first and two things that cause the second?

A

oscillations of membrane potential before or after completion of repolarization, if they reach threshold potential they can initiate spontaneous action potentials , can happen in any cells in the heart including nonpacemaker cells, happens in people with cardiac pathology

IF AFTERPOLARIZATION LARGE CAN TRIGGER PVC or SUSTAINED SYSTOLES WHICH MEANS SUSTAINED VTACH, this is dangerous!! THIS IS WHY IT IS DANGEROUS!

Causes:

1. prolonged APs

-long QT syndrome, genetic defects, drug induced

2. Ca overload from

-digoxin toxicity, PDE inhibitor toxicitiy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

how do you preform carotid massage?

what are the 5 steps to preforming this?

A
  1. auscultate for carotid bruits, DO NOT PREFORM IF BRUITS PRESENT BECAUSE YOU DON’t want to cut off the last remain blood supply OR CAUSE STROKE
  2. lay patient supine, rotate head away from you
  3. apply gentle pressure to carotid artery at the angle of the jaw 10-15 seconds
  4. TRY THE RIGHT CAROTID FIRST because has higher rate of success, then move on to the left if right doesn’t work
  5. have rythmn strip running through the entire thing so you can see what hs happening, have defib stuff handy just in case
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what rythmns can carotid massage help?

3 things

A
  1. atrial flutter
  2. paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PVST)
  3. sinus tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

explain how carotid massage effects narrow QRS tachycardia like:

  1. sinus tachycardia
  2. atrial flutter
  3. Paryoxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)
A

sinus tachycardia: briefly slow rate, will return to tachycardia when carotid massage is stopped

atrial flutter with 2:1 block: increase the AV block (make there be more flutter waves make it 4:1) which in turn slows the ventricular rate because the QRS are farther apart

PSVT: may abruptly terminate the arrythmia, or not work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what are four drugs that can cause a decreased heart rate and cause bradycardia?

A

Beta blockers

diltiazem

verapamil

digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what are the 6 drugs that can cause increased heart rate of tachycardia?

A
  • levothroxin
  • digoxin toxicitiy
  • caffeine
  • cocaine
  • amphetamines
  • sympathomimetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what are four drugs that can cause a prolonged QT?

A
  • antiarrythmics (class 1A, 1C, class III0
  • erythromycin
  • antifungals
  • tricyclic antidepressants

AND MORE…naturally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what must you do if a elderly pt has sinus node dysfunction caused be medication and needs a pacemaker?

A

must stop the drug before getting a pacemaker

need to determine if its the persons heart or the drug….they might not need it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what are the two most common indications for a pacemaker?

A
  1. sinus node dysfunction
  2. AV node dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

if the ventricular rate of Afib continues to exceed 200 bpm

consider…

A

WPW syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what is the best rate control med you can give the ED for afib?

what about for acute MI or HF?

A

IV diltiazem for a fib

IV B-blocker for acute MI or HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

in pts with chronic/recurrent afib who can’t be cardioverted….what is their tx option?

A

rate control approact

leave in afib, control ventricular rate and anticoagulate with warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what are the 6 risk factors for stroke that would make you want to put a patient with rate controlled afib on anticoagulation?

A

must put these patients on anticoagulation if at increased risk for stroke to prevent against embolism

RF for stroke:

  1. prior stroke/TIA
  2. HTN
  3. DM
  4. HF
  5. >75 years old
  6. valvular disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what has the ability to increase contractility?

A

only sympathetic tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

a depolarized cell is ______ on the outside of the cell and ______ on the inside of the cell when it repolarizes?

A

a depolarized cell is negative on the outside of the cell and when repolarizing is negative on the inside of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

circulating catecholamines can cause a decrease in HR?

true or false

A

false, they come from the adrenal glands and they can only INCREASE the HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

if you were at the highest point of the QRS, you would be completely depolarized?

true or false?

A

false!!

this would mean you are only half depolarized because in order for full depolarzation you have to make it through the entire QRS, not just the top!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what are the two parts of the cardiac cycle?

A

systole and diastole

refers to the ventricles

systole=when the ventricles are contracting

diastole=when the ventricles are relaxing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

as you sit in a chair under parasympathetic control, what happens to the K+?

A

increase in K exiting the cell, makes the cell more negative which lowrs the resting membrane potential and makes the HR slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

explain the different waves of the atrial pressure curve and what is happening at each stage?

A

wave a: occurs in the last 1/3 of ventricular diastole, atria contract to push the remain blood that didn’t passive drain into the ventricles into the ventricles

wave C: ventricles contract, but since they do it with such force, they push the closed AV valves up into that atria increasing the pressure

wave V: occurs towards the end of ventricular systole while the AV valves are still closed and the atria steadily fill with blood, increasing their pressure, at this point atria pressure is greater than ventrcular pressure (since they have pushed everything out)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

explain the ventricular pressure curve as seen in the picture?

A, B, C, D

A

region A: diastole, passive ventricular filling

region B: systole, isovolumic contraction meaning the ventricles are contracting, but they haven’t gained enough pressure yet to open the pulmonary or aortic valves yet!

region C: blood ejection by ventricular contraction, pressure in the ventricles is greater the in the aorta or pulmonary arteries so it pushes the semilunar valves open

region D: diastole, isovolumetric relaxtion, when ventricular blood volume stays the same (residual), muscle starts to relax decreasing the pressure in the ventricle until it becomes less than the atria causing the AV valve to open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

explain the aortic pressure curve?

what does the dicrotic notch represent?

A

systolic peak pressure (systolic BP)

diastolic pressure

diacrotic notch: when the aortic pressure is greater than the ventricular pressure this causes the blood to come back towards the heart and the aortic valve to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

what is end diastolic volume?

what is end systolic volume?

A

end diastolic volume: peak volume in the heart, occurs right after atrial contraction at end of diastole

end systolic volume: amount left in ventricle after contraction (residule) after systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

explain what happens to the ventricular volume during stages A, B, C, D in the picture?

what is it called when its the most? and what about when the volume is the least?

A

phase A: diastole peak end diastolic volume or when the ventricle has the most blood in it because the atria has just contracted and pushed all the blood in

phase B: systole, isometric contraction volume doesn’t change

phase C: stystole peak end systolic volume or the amount of blood that is left as residule or the smallest volume of blood in the ventricle

phase D: diastole isovolumetric relaxation where the volume of blood hasn’t change, because the AV valve hasn’t opened yet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what is the S1 heart sound from?

A

closure of the AV valves with the initiation of systole or ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what equation do you use to determine the stroke volume?

what does this tell you?

A

end diastolic volume (max volume in ventricle)-end systolic voume (minimum volume in venricle)

=stroke volume

this tells you the amount of blood that is pumped through in each stroke of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what is the S2 heart sound?

A

closure of the semilunar valves at the end of systole and the begining of diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

in relation to systole, where do you hear the S1 and S2 heart sounds?

A

s1=begining of systole when AV vavles close

S2=end of systole when semilunar valves close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

when are s4 heart sounds heard?

A

atrial gallop, forceful contraction of atria against stiff or hypertrophic ventricle

occurs during the last 1/3 of atrial contraction in diastole

occurs just after atrial contraction and is caused by the atria contraction forcefully in an effort to overcome an abnormally stiff or hypertrophic ventricle

heard as “TEN-a-see” ten=s4 sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

explain what the S3 heart sound is?

A

ventricular gallop, can be associated with HF

heard immediately after the “lub dub”of a normal heart, occurs in the begining of diastole right after S2, lower in pitch and best heard with bell of stethoscope

“ken-tuck-KY” KY=s3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

when is the heart tissue recieve blood during the cardiac cycle?

A

during diastole

the left ventricle pumps the blood up through the aorta, causing a decrease quickly in the pressure in the left ventricle and causes the blood to come back towards the heart.

simoutaneously, the aortic valve closes and stops the blood from flowing backwards. right above the valve is the enterance to the coronary arteries, so this blood flows down to feed the heart!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

how is coronary blood flow influcened in someone with aortic regurgitation?

A

in aortic regurgitation, the aortic vavle isn’t working right and so the blood flows back into the left ventricle, since it itsn’t being stopped by the aortic valve, the blood can’t enter the coronary arteries because the enterance to these are right about the aortic valve

they get LESS blood!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

explain the difference between dyspnea and orthopnea?

A

dyspnea: shortness of breath
orthopnea: SOB while laying down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

what is the equation used to calculate cardiac output?

A

Cardiac output (CO)= HR x strove volume

143
Q

what is the equation used to calculate someones maximum heart rate?

how can you use this to determine maximum stroke volume?

A

220-age=maximum heart rate

cardiac output (total volume out)= stroke volume x HR

144
Q

what are the two physiologic variables that influence cardiac output?

A

1. heart rate

2. stroke volume

145
Q

what are the three ways you can effect heart rate to increase cardiac output?

A

1. decrease parasympathetic stimulation

2. icnrease sympathetic tone

3. Bainbridge reflex

(this is atrial reflex, increase blood flow back to the heart by moving feet or jumping around a little, this increases venous return back to the heart, get increase blood volume in right atria which is sensed by baroreceptors in the atria, relays information back to the brain staying there is too much volume, so it increases the HR)

146
Q

what are the three ways you can increase cardiac output from stroke volume?

A
  1. increase sympathetic tone
  2. increase preload (venous return) leading to increased contractility
  3. decreased arterial resistance (afterload, or how hard the heart has to work to pump the blood out)
147
Q

what are three ways you can increase venous return?

why is this important?

A

1. skeletal pump-jumping around

  1. respiratory and abdominal pump: breathing in and out espectially while lying down, decrease pressure in chest so blood comes back to chest rather than pooling in legs

3. venoconstriction sympathetic tone-constricts throughout the body and pushes blood back to the heart

**all of these allow you to increase your cardiac output!!**

148
Q

varicose veins

what is this caused by? what does this look like? what makes this better, what makes this worse? what are 4 RF? what are the two main influencing factors for this? what is the two most common treatments for this? what about three surgical interventions?

A

superficial venous insufficiency and valvular incompetency

tortuous veins green blue “spider veins”, dilated in lower extermity

worsened with prolonged standing and relieved with elevation, can be related to valves or vein walls

RF: women who are pregnant, obescity, family, prolonged sitting or standing

  1. intrinsic weakness of vein wall and increase intraluminal pressure leads to reversal blood flow
  2. exposure to high pressures cause superficial veins to dilate bceause superficial veins lack support and thing walled compared to deep veins
    tx: elastic stockings, leg elevation

can do laser ablation, sclerotherapy, surgical stripping

149
Q

varicose veins

which vein is most common?

what are 5 things that can happen as result of having varicose veins? what test can you do?

A

most common is great saphenous vein

  1. chronic edema
  2. abnormal pigmentation
  3. fibrosis
  4. atrophy
  5. skin ulceration

brodie-tendelenburg tests: differentiates saphenofemoral valve incompetence from perforator vein incompetence (the ones that communicate between deep and superficial system)

150
Q

thrombophlebitis

what is this? which vein is this most common in? what might you feel? what is the triad that puts you at higher risk for this? what is trousseaus sigh you nwa to be aware of? how do you dx? what is the TX?

A

partial or complete occlusion of vein and inflammatory changes“inflammatory reaction with thrombus of a being under the skin” in deep or superficial veins

most occur in saphenous vein, cord may be palpable following resolution of acute symptoms, dull pain, tenderness, asymptomatic

VIRCHOWS TRIAT (predisposes pt to this):

  1. stasis: >4 hrs immobolized
  2. vascular injury: trauma, infection, inflammation
  3. hypercoagubility: Factor V lieden, OCP, pregnancy

trousseau’s sign: migratory thrombophlebitis ususally associated with malignancy and vasculitis

DX: venous duplex ultrasonography (noncompressible vein with clot and vein wall thickening)

tx: supportive! elevation, rest, compression stockings, NSAIDS

151
Q

where does thrombophlebitis commonly occur?

A

occurs frequently at the site of IV or periphreally inserted PICC lines

152
Q

what is the superficial venous system?

A

greater/lesser saphenous veins

153
Q

what is included in the deep venous system?

A

accompant major arteries and carry 90% of venous return, well supported

femoral, iliac, popliteal, posterior tibial, and superficial femoral

154
Q

what are the perforating veins?

A

communicated between the deep and superficial veins

155
Q

what is the general concept behind thrombophlebitis?

A

inflammation or swelling of a vein caused by a blood clot

2 main types:

  1. superficial thrombophlebitis
  2. deep vein throbosis
156
Q

atherosclerosis

what size arteries does this involve? what forms and where? what does this make and what is it made up of? what does it lead to? what are three example conditions that are caused by atherosclerosis?

A

medium and large artery

gradual plaque formation on the intima of the medium/large vessels of ATERIES, material grows under the endothelia layer creating plaques: fat cholesterol and calcium

leads to:

gradual reduction in aterial lumen that prevents oxygen rish blood from geting to the tissues causing ischemia

the location of the arteries determines the name of the disease AKA

  1. coronary heart disease (coronary artery disease)
  2. cartotid artery disease
  3. periphreal vascular disease
157
Q

what are 9 risk factors for atherosclerosis?

which two are the most important?

A
  1. smoking
  2. diabetes mellitus
  3. dyslipidemia
  4. elevated CRP
  5. hypertension
  6. family hx in 1st degree relative
  7. males
  8. inactivity
158
Q

what is the leading cause of CV disability and death in the US?

A

atherosclerosis!!!!

(category included CHD [CAD], PAD)

159
Q

periphreal vascular disease

what is this condition? what type of involvment, occuring where? what is it the leading cause of? what are the 3 MOST IMPORTANT RF? what are the four must important symptoms, which one is most important? when does this come on and when does it stop and where does it occur? in sever disease, what are four things that can happen?

A

atherosclerosis of the extremities, segmental involvement often at branching points!!!!

leading cause of occludive arterial disease in pts over 40

RF: DIABETES MELLITUS, SMOKING, >60YRS

claudication symptom most common (pain, aching, cramp, numbness or fatigue of muscle during exercise and relieved by rest!! claudication symptoms occur distal to stenosis), dimished distal pulses, hair loss with shiny skin appearance, with elevation of extremities get pallor of soles of feet and rubor (redness) in the leg, bruits in artery

in severe: pain at rest, ulceration, necrosis and gangrene from ischemia from lack of blood flow

160
Q

in periphreal arterial disease, if you have a clot in these areas, where will the claudication symptoms radiate?

aorti-iliac

femoral popliteal

A

aortoiliac: radiates to butt, hip, and thigh pain
femorapopliteal: radiates to calf

161
Q

claudication is…..

A

distal to the site of stenosis

Think about it. if you have a clot in your leg, your blocking the distal tissue from getting blood, so this is where the ishchemia happens and this is where the symptoms appear!

162
Q

periphreal arterial disease

what are the three tests you can do to help diagnose it?

A
  1. ankle/brachial index (higly sensitive and specific, compares systolic BP in brachial atery and posterior tibial artery) values less than .9 suggest PAD (ankle/arm) PRESSURE IN THE LEG DECREASES since isn’t being profused with blood

2. duplex US, pulse wave doppler

3. contrast angiography **GOLD STANDARD** and definitive, done before endocasulcar or surgical revascularization

163
Q

periphreal arterial disease

what are the 5 treatment options for PAD?

A

GOAL: prevent progression

1. lifestyle modification

-control glucose, BP, decrease BMI, stop smoking!!!

2. exercise: suprevised walking program

walk until pain comes on, stop, rest, and then begin again, creates collateral artery formation 30 mins 4x week PROVEN TO WORK BETTER THAN ANY DRUG!!

3. asprin/clopidigrel as secondary prevention to prevent against MI, STOKE, Death

  1. cilostozol: only drug shown to help improve the symptoms of PAD other than a walking program, but not great, increased walking distance by 35%, this is PDE inhibitor, increases cAMP and prevent platelet aggregation and promotes flow by vasodilation

5. revascularization

164
Q

how much can a supervised walking program increase pain free walking by?

A

150%….most important because it has shown to work better than any drugs!!

165
Q

periphreal arterial disease

explain in extreme cases what the two options are for revascularization? Who is it appropriate for?

A

improves quality of life for pts with DISABLING CLAUDICATION ALREADY ON MAXIMUM THERAPY AND HAVE REST PAIN. PRESERVE LIMB VIATALITY AND PREVENTS AGAINST AMPUTATION

1. endovascular revascularization: angioplasty with a stent to restore blood flow, decreased complications over surgery

2. surgery to bypass: fancy plumbing, anticoagulation with heparin to prevent propogration of the thrombus

166
Q

what percent of patients with PAD have CHD?

what percent of pts with PAD with die of MI or suddent death?

A

50% so always want to look into this if patient is complain of angina or have reason to suspect this

50% will die from MI or suddden death

167
Q

what percent of pts with PAD will develop pain with rest or skin ulceration?

A

25%

168
Q

what percent of people with PAD will progress to amputation?

A

5-10%

169
Q

iliac stenosis endovascular revascularization has a ________ 3 year patency rate

A

iliac stenosis endovascular revascularization has a 70-80% 3 year patency rate

170
Q

distal disease endovascular revascularization has a ______ 3 year patency rate for PAD

A

distal disease endovascular revascularization has a 55-60% 3 year patency rate for PAD

better changes if more proximal to the body

171
Q

PAD is associated with ______ and _____

A

PAD is associated with premature coronary and periphreal vascular morbidity and mortatliy!

172
Q

acute aterial occlusion

what is this caused by and why is it acute? what are the 5 common causes of this? what are the four risk factors that you want to control? what are the 5 symptoms? what are the three things you use to diagnose it and which is the gold standard? what is the treatment option? and what are the 2 tx options if it is severe?

A

caused by embolism since happens quickly, something travels and blocks the artery , thrombus in situ

most common causes: afib, ventricular aneurysm, anterior MI, prostetic valve, thrombis at site of stenosis

RF: smoking, control of DM, HTN, hyperlipidemia so NEED TO CONTROL THESE!!!

rapid onset of pain, parenthesia, numbness, coldness in involed extremity, loss of distal pulses

DX: doppler US (DO FIRST), ABI, angiography gold standard

Tx:

1. anticoagulation with heparin to prevent propogation of the thrombus

2. if severe: reprofusion

  • embolectomy
  • streptokinase, urokinase, tPA
173
Q

what are the symptoms that suggest an acute arterial occlusion is an emergency?

A

6 p’s

  1. pain
  2. pallor
  3. pulselessness

4. parenthesia

5. poikilothemia

6. paraylysis

these indicate tissue could die and threatens limb vitality so what to get vascular on board stat to hopefully prevent amputation

174
Q

Deep venous thrombosis

what do you worry about as a complication from this? what percent of these are asymptomatic? what are the 5 symptoms and tests you can find if this person is asymptomatic? what do you use to score them? what are the 3 dx options and when do you use each?

A

worry about PE!!!

50% are asymptomatic

dull ache in legs/tightness in extremity that gets worse with walking unilateral leg swelling that is warm and tender, homans sign pain in the calf with dorsi flextion moes sign pain on the compression of the calf can be completely asymptomatic

to determine risk: score with Wells!! >3 is high likelihood, 1-2 is moderate likely hood, <1 is not likely

DX:

  1. if low suspiscion: plasma D-dimer >300-500

2. if medium suspision: duplex ultrasonography (compression ultrasongraphy 2D) perferred method for DVT, if positive treat DVT here, only move on if this is negative and there is still high suspiscion

3. venography is the most definitive test for DVT but associated with increased risk!! so not done untill last chance

175
Q

what are the 3 main risk factors for DVT and what examples fall under those cateogories?

4

3

1

A

1. stasis

  • immobalization
  • post trauma
  • post orthopedic surgery
  • post open abdominal and thoracic sugery

2. hypercoagulbiltiy

  • neoplasms
  • factor V leidin
  • estrogen use

3. 3rd trimester pregnancy

176
Q

DVT

what is the standard tx? which as been approved for outpatient treatment? if you don’t want to use these what other two can you use…and whats their downside?

A

anticoagulation-prevent new thrombus and prevent PE

length of tx depends on proximal or distal DVT

a. IV low molecular weight heparin (need PTT), lovenox for outpatient only FDA approved (don’t need PTT)

use 5-7 days while transitioning to warfarin

b. warfarin continue up to 6 months
c. if complete contraindication to anticoagulation, then can use a filter or umbrella device

**newer drugs like dabigatran, rivaroxaban don’t need heparin first, and can just be started, these are newer drugs and look promising, downside NO ANTIDOTE!!!!***

177
Q

if patient has factor V liden, they will be….

A

on anticoagulation for life!!!

178
Q

when treating a DVT, the goal is to get the pt initatied on warfarin within ______, and a PTINR between_____

A

when treating a DVT, the goal is to get the pt initiatied on warfarin within 3 days of heparin, and a PTINR between 2-3 INR

179
Q

what is the difference in time that a patient needs to be on warfarin for treatment of

  1. proximal DVT
  2. calf DVT
  3. reccurent DVT
  4. factor v leiden DVT
A

Proximal DVT: FULL ANTICOAGULATION, warfarin for 3-6 months, but should really go towards 6!! femoral, iliac, popliteal veins

calf DVT: warfarin up to 3 months

reccurrent DVT: 6-12 months

factor v leiden DVT: LIFETIME!!

180
Q

what is the risk of PE if the DVT isn’t treated?!

A

50%

181
Q

DVT prophylaxsis:

when do you do this?

what is the protocol?

what drug was recently approved for hip and knee arthroplasty?

A

used when there is high risk of DVT like surgeries, not enough to make them bleed, but enough to prevent a clot

  1. low dose LMW heparin + warfarin used in all prophylaxis
  2. rivaroxaban just approved for hip and knee arthroplasty, begun 6-10 hours post surgery
182
Q

chronic venous insufficiency

what does this most commonly come from? what four other things can cause it? what are the 2 contributing factors to this? what are the 6 symptoms/exam findings you will see? when is it the worse? what can it lead to? what are the three tx options?

A

can result as consequence of both DVT (75% of the time) and superficial venous insufficiency

other causes: varicose veins, trauma, neoplastic venous obstruction

veins become functionally inadequate due to damage of the valves which results in bidirecitonal flow, and loss of venous wall tension that results in stasis

gradual progression of leg edema from ANKLE TO CALF!! OFTEN PAINFUL!!! NORMAL LIMB TEMP! pools at the bottom. shiny skin, skin ulcers, cyanotic aching when standing, edema worse at the end of the day, and best in the morning, secondary skin changes ulcers above the ankle on medial aspect leads to stasis dermatitis with brownish pigmentation and stippling

Tx: ruduce swelling and prevent breakdown

  1. intermittent leg elevation
  2. compression stockings
  3. calf exercise
183
Q

if chronic venous insufficiency transitions into stasis dermatitis, how do you treat it?

A

wet compresses

hydrocortisone cream

possibly zinc if chronic

184
Q

if someone develops ulcers on their feet from chronic venous insuffiency, what do you treat with? 3

A
  1. debridement
  2. medicated boots
  3. living cell grafts
185
Q

aortic aneurysm

what is the problem with this condition? what is the pathophys? what are three things that can cause it? what are the four symptoms you see? what are the two diagnostics you wanna do, which is the one of choice?

A

dilation of a segment of blood vessel, thoracic or abdominal

most are asymptomatic until they rupture which is the issue, so goal is to identify them before they get to this point

weakness in vessel wall and subsequent dilation of vessel caused by genetics, atherosclerosis, medial cystic necrosis or damnage to intima

suddent onset, “ripping or tearing” abdominal, flank (abdominal), or back pain (thoracic), hypotension, shock, pulsatile mass

DX:

  1. abdominal US **study of choice**

2. CT angiography or MRA (magnetic resonance angiography) prior to intervention OR for thoracic

186
Q

what percent are abdominal vs thoracic aortic aneurysm?

A

abdominal 90%

thoracic 10%

187
Q

what is the classic picture for someone with an aortic aneurysm?

A

elderly male smoker with CAD emphysema and renal impairment

188
Q

what percent of abdominal aneurysms occur below the renal arteries?

A

75%

189
Q

what does aortic aneurysm have a close relationship with?

A

renal failure and periphreal occlusive disorder

190
Q

who is important to screen for aortic aneurysm? 3

A
  1. male
  2. smoker
  3. >6o years old with PAD and family history of AAA
191
Q

explain the risk of rupture for aortic aneurysm based on the size and what are the tx reccomendations at each stage?

A
  1. <5cm: watch it and monitor it
  2. >5cm: 20-40% over 5 years rupture, surgical to remove ELECTIVE SURGERY ADVISED!!
  3. >6cm: 15% risk it will rupture annually, ALWAYS SURGERY, REMOVE IT!!!!

Tx:

  1. open surgical repair (open with graft placement)
  2. endovascular (no surgical candidates, stents placed to reduce risk of rupture
192
Q

prognosis of aortic aneursym is related to what two things?

A
  1. size of aneurysm
  2. CAD
193
Q

what is the mortality rate of ruptured aortic aneurysm?

A

90%!!!!!

thats why its important to try to monitor it and find it early!!!!

194
Q

raynauds

what is this caused by? what does it look like? what is it associated with? what is the treatment?

A

“VASOMOTOR DISORDER”

spasm of the digital arteries to a variety of stimulus including cold weather

paroxysmal palor and cyanosis folowed by rubor

progressive and symmetric dz

associated with autoimmune like CREST

Tx: calcium channel blockers

195
Q

coronary heart disease/

coronary artery disease

what does this include?

A

gradual process of atherosclerosis in the coronary arteries involving 3 major coronary arteries and their branches with a focal point

gradual reduction in lumen resulting in ischemia due to reduced O2 and leading to ANGINA

includes:

stable angina, the abrupt atrial occlusion or thromosis that can come later from atheriosclerosis is what causes a MI

****this process includes the arteriosclerosis, the narrowing, and then the ischmemia that causes CP and wil have to cover many flastcards***

196
Q

explain the pathogenisis of atherosclerosis 6 steps

A
  1. endothelial dysfunction/injury that can be caused by smoking, high LDL, immune response, or mechanical stress
  2. macrophage infiltration to site of injury to try to clear it
  3. LDL oxidation (activation) by a oxidative byproduct of macrophage activation
  4. oxidized LDL is then aggreassively eaten by macrophages become activated to foam cells the main component of atherosclerotic lesions
  5. release of chemotaxins and growth factors from macrophages
  6. growth factors cause proliferation of smooth muscle cells and deposition of tissue, forms fibros cap, but if ruptured it can cause thrombis formation
197
Q

explain the timeline of atherosclerosis in terms of a persons age?

A

up through most of our third decade: plaque growth mainly by lipid accumulation

end of third decade to early fourth decade: thrombosis and hematoma

mid fourth decade on: smooth muscle and collagen

198
Q

explain the timeline of plaque formation from the prespective of the plaque formation.

A
  1. foam cells
  2. fatty streak
  3. intermediate lesion
  4. atheroma
  5. complicated lesion/rupture
  6. fibrous plaque
199
Q

what are the risk factors for atherosclerosis as it pertains to CHD? 10

A

-LDL, HDL, total cholesteral

-hypertension

-cigarette smoking

-Diabetes mellitus-coronary risk equivalent (treat this like you have CAD already)

  • family history for CAD or 1st relative
  • central obescity
  • risk increases with age
  • Men
  • physical inactivity
  • elevated plasma homocystine

-elevated CRP

200
Q

explain how CRP is a RF for atherosclerosis? (2)

what are the values for this that might indicate higher risk?

A

1. independent risk factor for CHD if elevated (pt doesn’t need to have high LDL)

  1. inflammation may be involved in development of plaque rupture and unstable coronary lesions

<1 mcl/mg low risk

1-3 mcg/ml intermediate risk

3 mcg/ml high risk

201
Q

explain how these can contribute to endothelial dysfunction and increase persons risk of atherosclerosis:

  1. chemial causes
  2. hemodynamic causes
  3. biologic
  4. nitric oxide
A

chemical causes: LDL, homocysteine, glucose

hemodynamic causes: hypertension with disturbed flow patterns

biologic: viral/immune complexes

Nitric oxide: made by endothelial cells and is protective and causes vasodilation! this production goes down in smoking, HTN, and diabetes, which means that the endothelial lining is less protected

202
Q

what is primary prevention and how does this apply to atherosclerosis seen in CHD?

what are 6 things you want to consider as ways to initiate primary prevention?

A

want to stop them from getting it!!

PRIMARY PREVENTION TECHNIQUES:

1. RISK FACTOR MODIFICATIONS

  • STOP SMOKING
  • antihypertensives
  • TX dyslipidemia
  • estrogen replacement
  • REGULATE BLOOD SUGARS
  • aspirin prophylaxis in high risk grousp
203
Q

explain how aspirin is used as primary prevention in CHD athlerosclerosis?

what does this prevent in men and women? how do you determine if they qualify to be on asprin;what two requirements must they meet? what must you weigh in these patients?

A

prevents against MI in men

prevents against stroke in women

TO determine if men 45-80 or women 55-80 qualify:

must have two risk factors + 10 year risk for MI/death according to framingham risk score

-RF: smoking, HTN, hypercholesterolemia, family history

**must weigh gain of ASA against risk of bleeding**

204
Q

what does LDL do and why is this important in primary prevention of atherlosclerosis CHD?

what three things does it increase your risk for?

A

LDL increase the risk of CAD, stroke, and PAD

by treating the LDL in patients who haven’t had an event yet, you can reduce their risk of development of the disease….so it is important to use this as a primary prevention in combination with ASA

205
Q

myocardial ischemia

what is this and what is it caused by (3)? what determiens the severity? what are 3 contributatory factors? what how does it present as symptoms? what causes these symptoms in each?

A

temporary reduction of blood flow to an organ, potentially reversible, caused by mechanical, electrical, and valvular dysfunction

can be reversible or peremanent depending how long it has been happen for, can lead to infarction

this can cause angina when there is increased activity

Contributory factors: significant LVH, aortic stenosis, tachyarrythmias like afib/aflutter

symptomatic:

1. angina pectoris

1. O2 demand in the presence of fixed stenosis

  • VASOSPAM and significant narrowing

1. prolonged decreaed O2=unstable angina or infarction

-acute thrombis likely present

206
Q

sudden cardiac death in CHD

how soon does the pt die? what most likely causes it? when does this happen?

A

1. death within 1 hour after onset of symptoms usually within minutes

2. malignant arrhytmia commonly present

common presenting manifestation of CHD, frequent end point in patients with CHD propr to MI and imparied LV function

207
Q

why are women often misdiagnosed when they have CHD? (3)

A

1. atypical symptoms: pain radiating to right arm, arm pain along

  1. many women produce false negative stress tests since single vessel disease more common

3. elderly or diabetic womeon complain of general malaise, loss of appetite, vague abdominal pain so if they have RF, GET EKG!!

208
Q

stable angina pectoris

what does this pain feel like? is it reproducible? what are 3 things that make it better? what is the pattern? what are 6 things that can cause this? what are 4 things you might see to clue you into this?

A

chest discomfort described as

tightness, pressure, aching, choking that is often REPRODUCIBLE WITH ACTIVITY that resolve after cessation of activity, relaxation, or NTG

positive levine sign substernal to left sternum, with crescendo/decresendo pattern 1-5 mins, less likely to happen in AM (lower threshold)

can be brought on by: exertion, exercise, emotional stress,cold weather, cigarettes, sex

physical exam may be normal between episodes, may see xanthomas from hyperlidemia, AV nicking from HTN/DM, s4 gallop during angina, changes in BP

209
Q

what are the 3 tests you can do to help identify stable pectoris for CAD? what do they show?

A

1. EKG:

normal between episodes

ST segment depression/T wave change during angina then normalize after angina passes

2. Stress EKG: most helpful non invasive tool

-increase workload with meds or exercise, compare resing and stress EKG for ischemia, may consider adding image to make it more specific, ability to detect dermines the amoutn of vessel involvment

3. coronary angiography- Gold standard for CAD

-tells which vessels are involved, degree of stenosis, and LV function

210
Q

what is the drug you give for acute angina pectoris? or for prophylaxsis if the pt is going to be doing exercise?

A

sublingual NTG

reduces LV volume preload and decreasing O2 consumption

does this by causing venodilation, so that it decreases the amount of blood heading back to the heart, decreasing the volume and decreasing O2 demands

211
Q

what are the 7 drugs you put someone on to help with chronic stable angina?

A

1. beta blockers ATENOLOL, METOROLOL: decreases HR, contractility, and BP improving exercise tolerance

*****REDUCE MORTALITY IN POST MI AND HF PATIENTS***

2. long acting nitrates isosorbide dinitrate

****DONT TAKE THIS WITH VIAGRA!!!!*****

****can develope nitrate tolerance so need to dose in intervals!!****

3. Non dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers dilate ARTERIES, decreasing afterload, decrease myocardial O2 consumption

4. dyhydropyridine calcium channel blockersamlodipine, nifedipine dilate ARTERIES, decrease afterload and myocardial O2 consumption

***best used in combination with a BB, reduce risk of HYPOTENSION**

5. diltiazem and verapamil used with nitrates, dilates arterioles decreasing afterload, decrease HR, and O2 consumption

***don’t use in HF patients!!***

6. ranolazine chronic angina that isn’t controled with the above

**increase QT interval, but won’t cause arrythmia**

7. antiplatelet drugs USED IN ALL PTS WITH CHD, PAD, AND CAROTID, DECREASES INCIDENCE OF CARDIAC DEATH AND MI, low dose asprin

212
Q

when treating CHD patients, which drug do you not want to use in HF patients?

A

diltiazem and verapamil

213
Q

when treating angina with a long term drug, which one do you NOT want to combine with viagra?

A

NITRO

isosorbide dinitrate

214
Q

what drug do you not want to use in CHD in a patient that has asthma/COPD because it can cause bronchospasm?

A

nonselective beta blockers

Use selective beta blocker!!

215
Q

what two drugs decrease the mortality post MI and in HF patients?

A

Beta blockers

Atenolol and metoprolol

216
Q

what 4 groups of patients with CHD qualitfy for revascularization?

A

1. patients with unacceptable symptoms controlled with meds

2. 3 vessel CAD with LV dysfunction OR left main coronary stenosis that compromises Left anterior descending (LAD) LEFT main artery consider CABG!!

3. patients post MI with ongoing ischemia

4. acute MI

217
Q

when should percutaneous coronary revascularization/catherterization be used for CHD?

what are the rates of restenosis with angioplasty, stent, and drug eluting stent? what do you do to compensate for this?

A

angioplasty restenosis rate: 30-40%

angioplasty with stent placement: 15-20%

drug eluting stents restenosis: 5-8%

  1. single or 2 vessel disease
  2. 3 vessels disease in pt that doens’t qualify for operative

drug eluting stents helped decrease rates of restenosis a lot, however probles with late thrombosis so requires intense anti-platelet RX of ASA and clopidogrel

218
Q

coronary artery bypass for CHD

what happens during this procedure? which two vessels are most commonly used? which one is the best one to use and why? what two factors increase mortality rates?

A

coronary arteries are bypassed using arteries or veins, low mortality if LV preserved

saphenous veins and mammary arteries most commonly used

internal mammary artery graft has highest patency rate over time**BEST OPTION WHEN POSSIBLE because arteries last longer than veins**

mortality increase with age and EF <.35

219
Q

coronary vasospasm

what can bring this on? what does the spasms cause? what will the pt feel and what will you see on the EKG? what can happen if this doesn’t resolve?

A

can be in normal cornary arteries or superimposed o atherosclerotic ones, the spasms cause the artery to close

often induced by cold, emotional stress, meds, and cocaine

angina at rest with ST elevation

**can progress to MI if symptoms don’t resolve**

220
Q

prinzmetals angina

what is this caused by? when do you get symptoms? who is it more common int? what does arteriography show? what are the two treatment options?

A

coronary ishchemia from vasospasms

symptoms at rest, usually in AM

women> men

ateriography shows normal looking arteries

Tx: nitrates and calcium channel blockers (dihyrdopyridines)

221
Q

what percent of people with unstable angina remain unstable and need revascularization?

what percent improve medically? and what do you need to do before allowing them to leave?

A

20% will remain unstable and need revascularization

80% will get better clinicallly and need to get stress test once stable, if they produce a positive test then it might be an indication for revascularization

222
Q

unstable angina

what is this? what are you at high risk for? how do you differentiate between this and a NSTEMI? what are the two presentations of this? what are two things you do to diagnose this? what are the two things you need to do for tx and the three drugs they need to be on?

A

angina at rest with minimal activity >10 minutes

GET VERY CLOSE TO HAVING A MI BUT DONT, RIGHT AT THE BRINK OF CELL NECROSIS BUT TISSUE HASN’T DIED YET, high risk for developing MI in following days/weeks so much treat aggressively and quickly

VERY SIMULAR TO NSTEMI, except in unstable angina negative cardiac markers

new onset: angina <4 weeks with progressive symptoms and severe pain

accerating or cresendo angina in pt with previously stable angina (gets worse doing less activity)

DX:

NEGATIVE CARDIAC ENZYMES

EKG: ST depression, T wave inversion

Tx:

  1. HOSPITALIZE THEM!! BEDREST!!
  2. full anticoagulation and antiplatelet therapy

-HEPARIN +ASA+

prasurgrel/ticagrelor/clopidigrel OR glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

3. nitrates, Beta blockers, and Ca-blockers to decrease MVO2

223
Q

what percent of people with unstable angina will have abnormal EKG?

A

50%

so worry about the 50% that have a normal one, still might need to work them up

224
Q

since the pathology of unstable angina and NSTEMI are the same….what is the only thing that you use to tell them apart?

A

cardiac enzymes

ck-creatine kinase

MB

troponins

these indicate cell death and that the scale has tipped over the point of unstable angina and cell death is occuring, this is a myocardial infarction

225
Q

non-stemi acute myocardial infarction

what is this caused by? what is this nickname for these? relate to morality? why must we treat aggressively? how do you differentiate between that and unstable angina?

A

infarcts caused by prolonged ischemia

CAD to plaque rupture to platelets to clotting to thrombus

small infarcts that are unstable and could go on to cause a bigger infarct so that is why we treat aggressively

“incomplete infarcts” with lower initial mortality but high risk of re-infarction with HIGH MORTALITY

DX: like unstable angine with POSITIVE CARDIAC ENZYMES

226
Q

for someone who has had a STEMI (infarct), what do you need to get before they leave the hospital?

A

stress test!! low level

then maximal stress 6 weeks post MI

want to make sure they can saftely return home

227
Q

what is really important to know about the use of NSAIDS in MI patients (NSTEMI OR STEMI)

A

increase risk of reccurent MI by 50% post 1st MI.

includes ALL nsaids, short and long term use!!

228
Q

what is the in hospital mortality rate of MI?

A

10-15% determined by the size of the MI

229
Q

what is 5 things a patient is at risk for post MI?

A
  1. recurrent ischemic pattern
  2. nonSTEMI infarct
  3. HF
  4. low level stress test causing ishcemia
  5. high grade ventricular arrythmia
230
Q

acute myocardial infarction

STEMI

what is the cause of this? what does it lead to? what does patient complain of? what does this most likely occur? how does the patient appeare (3)? what often accompanies this? what are 6 signts of this? what are the 5 things you use to diagnose this?

A

prolonged ischemia resulting from inadequate tissue profusion leading to cell death and necrosis

total occulsion CAD to plaque to rupture to platelets to clotting, to occlusive thrombus

“elephant sitting on my chest and the worst pain I have felt in my life”

often early in the AM since coronary tone, SEVERE PAIN, anxious, diaphoretic, and distress, LV dysfunction

variable pulse and BP, S4 gallop, apical mitral regurgitation, cold, cyanotic, low CO, ST elevation

DX:

  1. Creatinine kinase (CK) ALWAYS ELEVATED!

check CK-MB, specific to damanged heart muscle

2. troponins cTnl represents muscle breakdown, sensitive to small infarcts

3. leukocytosis

4. EKG ELEVATED ST

5. echo left ventricular function, identify mitral regurge

231
Q

what are the treatments for a acute STEMI? (3)

1

1

2

A

1. percutaneous coronary intervention to reprofuse tissue (CATH)

  • goal: open artery within 3 hours of onset of symptoms

goal: open atery within 90 mins presenting to hospital

***If within hour and a half of hospital that does this, consider transfer!!! Must also have CABG CAPABILITY****

2. thrombolytic (finbrinolytic) therapy: done if no access to cath lab, t-PA (altepase)

-done when ST elevation >1 mm in tow or more adjacent leads

50% reduction in mortality if given withint 1-3 hrs of symptoms

3. post thrombolytic management

a. ASA ongoing

b. heparin 24 hours

232
Q

what are 3 drugs taht might be used to try to help in a actue MI early on pre hospital or in the ED?

A
  1. morphine sulfaste
  2. aspirin in ED
  3. nitro IV
233
Q

what are the contraindications (4) and realtive contraindications (1) for thromboltic therapy for a STEMI?

A

absolute contraindications:

  1. uncontrolled HTN
  2. stroke within 1 year

3. cerebral hemmorahage

4. recent head trauma

relative contraindications:

  1. abdominal or thoracic surgery within 3 weeks
234
Q

what are three indications of rapid REPROFUSION seen in MI post thromboltic therapy administration?

A
  1. rapid resolution of pain
  2. ventricular arrythmia (PVCs, VT, AVIR)
  3. rapid evolution of EFG (often q waves)
235
Q

what percent of infarct related vessels with reocclude during hospitalization post STEMI?

A

10-20%

236
Q

what is the preferred method to treat a STEMI in elderly?

A

percutaneous coronary intervention….CATH

237
Q

if you are within 1.5 hours of a hospital that does acute angioplasty….what should you think about with a STEMI?

A

transferring them!! instead of giving them thrombolytics!

238
Q

what 5 medications is a person who had a STEMI put on after intervention or thrombolytic therapy?

A

1. BETA BLOCKERS: decreases wall tension preventing MI complications, decreases morality!

2. nitrates

2.5 heparin

3. asprin/clopidigrel

4. ACE inhibitors: i_mprove short and long term survival, decrease LV remodeling post MI,_** great for **large infarcts

5. alosterone blockers

6. statins LDL goal <100

239
Q

what are 5 complications of an acute MI?

A
  1. atrial and ventricular arrythmias
  2. left ventricular dysfunction

3. mitral regurgitation, murmer from papillary muscle dysfunction

4. hyptension and shock

  1. ventricular aneurysm formation
240
Q

explain the pathway for some with a suspected MI?

A
241
Q

what are the drugs that you use to treat unstable angina or NSTEMI?

A
  1. full anticoagulation and antiplatelet therapy

-HEPARIN +ASA+

prasurgrel/ticagrelor/clopidigrel OR glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

  1. nitrates

3. Beta blockers

4. Ca-blockers

242
Q

what is the TIMI test?

A

allows you to score the risk of a patient who you think is having a ACS

scores of >3 are high risk

243
Q

explain when the CK MB isoenzymes rise, peak, and fall?

A

rise: 4-6 hours
peak: 16-24 hours
fall: 2-3 days

244
Q

explain when the troponin cTnI rise, fall, and stay elevated? what is diagnostic? what is good about this test?

A

rise: 4-6
peak: 8-12

remains elevated: 5-7 days

dianostic if >.1, abornal if >.05

This test is the most specific and sensitve, can test for small MI

245
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy

who is this most common in? what does this reduce? what part of the heart does this effect? what is the biggest hint to this? what are two things you might hear? what might you see on examinatin of the neck? what are four causes of this? what do you do to diagnose? tx?

A

MOST commony type of cardiomyopathy, esp in black men

reduced strength of ventricular contraction, causing dilation of left ventricle, left or biventricular failure causing dyspnea, s3 gallop, pulmonary crackles, increase JVP

causes: genetic abnormalities (25-30%), alcohol consumption, postpartum, idiopathic

DX:

  • do echo
  • EKG, nonspecific changes

Tx:

  • no alcohol
  • underlying cause should be treated
246
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

what does the patient present with? what might be the first presentation? what are four things you might find on exam? what are the two DX and what is most important? what are the four treatment options?

A

massive hypertrophy, usually of septum, left ventricle

patients present with dyspnea and angina, syncope and arrythmias common, sudden death may be the first presentation

on exam: sustained PMI, loud s4, variable systolic murmer, jugular venous pulsations

DX:

EKG: might show LVH

echo: key!! show LVH, asymmetrical septal hypetrophy and small left ventricle, and diastolic dysfunction

tx:

  1. Beta blockers, calcium channel blockers
  2. ablation
  3. defib, pacers and mitral valve replacements as needed
247
Q

restrictive cardiomyopathies

what is this caused by? what three things might you see this in? how does the pt present and what else do they often have? what is the Dx and what might you need to get? what is the tx?

A

fibrosis/infiltration of the ventricular wall because of collagen defects like amyloidosis, diabetes, endomyocardial fibrosis

pts present with dereased exercise tolerance, in sever get right sided HF, pulomary hypertension usually present

DX:

echo!!! may need endomyocardial biopsy

tx: diuretics and cardiac transplant in extreme

248
Q

giant cell arteritis

what is this an inflammation of? what two types of people does it most commonly effect? what does it frequently involve, what might this cause? what might happen in 15% of patients? what are the 5 symptoms a pt might complain of? what two labs and test do you want to do? what is the two tx and when should they begin?

A

medium and large vessels inflammation

>50 years old, often with polymyalgia rheumatica, 50% experience shoulder and pelvic girdle pain who have this

frequently involves temporal artery, if not treated aggressively wil cause blindness, in larger arteries can cause thoracic aortic aneurysm in 15% of pts

pts complain of: unilateral temporal headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, diplopia

dx: increased ESR, CRP, but do temporal artery biopsy to confirm
tx: high dose prednisone 1-2 months and low dose aspirin, BEGIN TX IMMEDIATELY!!!!!!!

249
Q

what is cardiac reserve?

what four factors does it depend on?

A

cardiac reserve: the maximum percentage in cardiac output that can be achieved above normal resting level, most people 300-400%

depends on:

1. preload

2. afterload

3. cardiac contractility

4. heart rate

250
Q

explain what preload is?

A

the work or load imposed on the heart before contraction begins, it is the amount of blood that the heart must pump with each beat, based on venous return and the amount of blood left in the heart after systole

represented by: volume of blood stretching the ventricular muscle fibers at the end of diasole

deteremined by end diastolic volume in ventricle

251
Q

frank starling mechanism

how does this work? what is it related to?

A

the mechanism that increases contraction when there is increased end diastolic volume, allows the heart to adjust how hard it contracts based on the amount of blood

actin and myosin filaments tension force (think of balloon blown up and wants to contract) is optimal when the distance between them is streched 2.5 times normal resting length

allows the heart to adjust pumping ability to accomodate varios levels of venous return, if not being filled enough or overstretched

as the myocardial fiber length increases in diastole, the force of contraction increases (untill stretched too far). related to preload. See pic

252
Q

explain the intrinsic controls influencing stroke volume?

A
  1. increased venous return stimulates intrinsic bainbridge relex where the baroreceptors in atria sense increase pressure and increase the HR
  2. this increases the end diastolic volume, which stimulates the intrinsic control of frank starling mechanism and increases the strength contractility

these two together increase the stroke volume of the heart!!

253
Q

explain the extrinsic controls of increase stroke volume?

A

the increase in venous return stimulates

sympathetic actvitiy and epinephrine, increasing the strength of the cardiac contraction

254
Q

explain how the intrinsic and extrinsic factors work to increase cardiac output relative to HR and stroke volume?

A
255
Q

what is the ejection fraction? how do you calculate it? how do you assess it?

A

ejection fraction: % of blood that is being ejected from the ventricle

Know:

end diastole pressure

end systolic pressure

EF=(EDV-ESV/EDV)x100

get these numbers by doing MRI, ECHO, CT, cardiac cath

256
Q

how do you determine how extensive a persons MI was? what are the ranges for this?

A

calculate their ejection fraction, will tell you how much they are able to get out of their heart!

257
Q

what happens if a pt goes into a sudden accelerated rate of 220 bpm? what can you to do try to help this?

A

lightheadedness, dizzy, start to pass out

this is because the stroke volume decreases and so does the cardiac output it doesn’t allow time for the atria to fill!!

**try carotid massage to get the carotid baroreceptors to have parasympathetic tone and decrease the HR***

258
Q

what is afterload?

A

the tension or stressed developed in the wall of the left ventricle during ejection

the forces that the heart must work against to push the blood out of the heart

1. systemic arterial pressure is the main source of afterload for the heart for the left side of the heart, also influenced by aortic stenosis

2. pulmonary arterial pressure is the main source of afterload for the right side of the heart

working against afterload or having a lot of afterload causes HYPERTROPHY!!

259
Q

explain what happens to the blood that is delivered to the heart?

A

uses almost ALL of the oxygen in the blood because it is a slow twitch fiber

if the hearts O2 demand goes up, must increase the HR to get more blood and vasodilation of the coronary arteries

260
Q

since myocardial oxygen extraction is maximal at rest, how does the heart increase oxygen demand to meet metabolic demand? 5 steps

A
  1. increase in metabolic demand, needs more O2 at the heart
  2. local decrease in O2 levels, increase in adenosine, Co2, K, H+, lactic acid
  3. RELEASE OF ENDOTHELIA DERIVED RELEASING FACTOR NO from endothelia cells causing vasodilation of arteries and arterioles related to NE, decreased O2, and increased stress on the wall, SYMPATHETIC CHOLINERGIC REFLEX RESPOSE
  4. dilation causes increase in blood flow to cardiam muscle
  5. increase oxygen supply!
261
Q

when oxygen is needed at the heart, how many fold can a heathly person increase their coronary blood fold?

A

4-6 fold increase in blood supply to the heart to meet demands

262
Q

what is endothelia dysfunction? what is diminished here? what is an example?

A

endothelium (the inner lining of blood vessels) and can be broadly defined as an imbalance between vasodilating and vasoconstricting substances produced by (or acting on) the endothelium.

NO is diminished in these situations so you don’t get dilation

ex: atherosclerosis inhiibts NO release so vasodilation doens’t occur as easily

263
Q

just a visual to think about the blood vessels

A
264
Q

in a failing heart you get________

so the body tries to compensate by increasing ______

A

in a failing heart you get decreased stroke volume

so the body tries to compensate the decreased cardiac output by increasing sympathetic control to increase contractility, but the volume it is pumping out still isn’t as much as a normal heart

265
Q

in HF, how doese the body attempt to increase cardiac output?

A
  1. if cardiac output is low and can’t support normal circulatory function, body stimulates sympathetic stimulation to increase vasoconstriction and venous return
  2. causes increase in RA pressure and fluid retention at kidneys because of decreased filtration rates from decreased cardiact output
  3. cardiac output rises a little from fluid retention and increased venous return
  4. continue to increase right atrial pressure, fluid retention accelerates this causes overstretching of the heart of edema of the heart muscle
  5. cardiac output drastically decreases and the pt dies of DECOMPENSATION
266
Q

what drives blood towards arterioles during diastole? what is this measured by?

A

elastic recoil of arteries

the healthier they are the more they can push them forward

measured by the pulse pressure: Systolic BP-Diastolic BP

267
Q

what is the mean arterial pressure? how do you calculate it?

A

diastolic pressure+ 1/3(pulse pressure=SBP-DBP)

MAP is the driving force of blood flow through the arterioles/caillaries

268
Q

what percent of your time do you spend in systole and what percent in diastole?

A

1/3 systole

2/3 diastole

269
Q

what is the artieral pulse pressure? what are three things it is influenced by?

A

systolic BP-diastolic BP

influenced by elasticity, regidity, and resistance

IF YOUR INCREASE RESISTANCE YOU DECREASE PULSE PRESSURE, or the pressure pushing the blood through the arteries to arterioles

pulse pressures also decrease as you move farther away from the heart

270
Q

describe the difference between lamenallar and turbulent flow?

A

lamellar flow:

Laminar flow is parabolic, highest velocity in center (least resistance), lowest adjacent to vessel walls, most efficient

turbulent flow:

Turbulent flow is disoriented, no longer parabolic, energy wasted, thus more pressure required to drive blood flow. DETECHED WITH STETHOSCOPE, like bruits or valve dysfunction

271
Q

explain how arterioles help to control BP? what are the 5 factors that contibute to arterial constriction and dilation?

A

this is where the majority of the smooth muscle is, so the dilation/contriction of these and letting blood into the capillaries help to determine the overal BP

vasoconstriction: lets less blood into the capillaries, increasing BP

caused by increase O2

increase myogenic activity

decreased CO2

sympathetic stimulation vasopressin and angtiotensin II

cold

angiotensin II

vasodilation: lets more blood into the capilarries decreasing bp

decrease myogenic activity

decreased O2

increase CO2

sympathetic release histamine

heat

272
Q

which part of the arterial system provides the most resistance to help control BP?

A

arterioles, these are resistance vessels that help control BP by controlling the distribution of the blood into the capillaries

273
Q

explain what korotkoff sounds are and what the sounds are you hear when taking the BP

A

korotkoff sounds are the turbulent flow you hear through the stethoscope with each ventricular contraction, when it goes silent that is when the flow has become lamellar

the first sound: systolic BP, the amount of pressure needed to push the blood out of the ventricles

the last sound: diastolic BP, point at whic disastole occurs and the ventricles relax as blood is continuring through aorta and into periphrealy circulation

274
Q

why is local control of the arterioles important to bp?

A

because if there is more resitance (vasconstriction) it increases BP so you get moderate flow into the capillaries

if there is less resistance (vasodilation) it decreases BP and you get large flow into the capillaries

275
Q

when under sympathetic control…explain what happens systemically and locally to blood system?

2

3

A

systemic vasoconstriction

  • of larger arterioles (visceral organs

inactive skel. Muscle) vasocontrict

-circulating catecholamines

local dilation from metabolic activity

- increased temp, CO2, K+, H+,

adenosine, decreased O 2

  • Endothelial derived releasing factors
  • Nitrous oxide (shear stress)

-Sympathetic cholinergic reflex

276
Q

what is a major venodilator naturally occurin in the body that is released by endothelia cells? what three things stimulate it? if you dont have this what do you have?

A

nitric oxide, potent smooth muscle vasodilator produced by endothelia cells and stimulated to relase by autonomic neurons, viagra, nitro

if this doesn’t work, then you get endothelia dysfunction

277
Q

what 3 variables cause resistance to flow?

if you double the radius, how much does the flow increase by??

A
  1. viscosity of the blood (thickness)
  2. length of the vessel
  3. diameter of blood vessel

double the flow, 16x greater flow which means venodilation has major impact!!!

278
Q

when do you find the majority of the blood? what does this mean they have?

A

in the venous system 65%

this means veins have high capacitance

279
Q

explain vascular

1. distensibility

2. compliance/capacitance

A

distensibility:

ability for a blood vessel to be stretched and accomodate an increase volume of blood

vascular compliance/capacitance

TOTAL QUANTITY of blood that can be stored in a given portion of circulation, compliance and capacitance is a measure of distensibility (the more you can stretch, the more blood you can hold)

***THINK: compliance and distensibility are quite different. A highly distensible vessel with low volume may have far less compliance than a much less distensible vessel that has a large volume, because
compliance = distensibility x volume**

280
Q

sympathetic stimulation causes the _____ of veins to increase so more blood can get back to the heart

A

sympathetic stimulation causes the decrease capitance of LARGE veins (volume of blood it contains) to increase venous return to heart

281
Q

what are 5 factors that increase venous return to the heart?

A
  1. venous valves
  2. sympathetic venoconstriction (decrease capitance of large veins…not venules)
  3. skeletal muscle pump
  4. respiratory pump
  5. increased blood volume
282
Q

what are 3 factors that decrease venous return to the heart?

A
  1. hydrostatic pressure due to gravity
  2. imcompetent venous valves
  3. decrease pressure gradient
283
Q

explain blood flow velocity across a capillary? explain how cross section influences velocity? what does this look like from flow of blood through vascular system?

A

velocity across capillary is slow to allow exchange…lake like cross section

TOTAL FLOW IS CONSTANT!!

velocity is dependent on cross sectional area if this is smaller it is like moving quickly down a river, if this is wide it is slower like moving down a lake

velocity decreases from aorta to capillaries and then increase from cappilaries back to heart!

284
Q

what can increase the capillary blood flow? (3)

A

increase tissue metabolic activity

  1. decrease O2
  2. increase CO2
  3. other metabolites

these all cause increase capillary blood flow

285
Q

oncotic or colloid osmotic pressure at capillaries

what does this favor? what is the most influential protein in the blood that causes this? what are the 2 mechniasm is this caused by?

A

“forces favoring reabsorption”…pulling fluid back into circulation

Most influential protein: ALBUMIN IN THE BLOOD

1. plasma oncotic pressure (water pulling)

2. interstital/tissue hydrostatic pressure (stagnant)

286
Q

interstitial colloid osmotic pressure at capillaries

what is this? what are the two mechanisms by which this occurs?

A

forces favoring filtration, or fluid moving out of the capillary

  1. capillary hydrostatic pressure, pushing out or stagnant
  2. intersitial/tissue oncotic pressure (water pulling)
287
Q

during isovlumic contraction both the AV and semilunar valves are closed? true or false

A

True

this the time after the AV valves have close and conraction begins but hasn’t had enough time to open the semilunar valves

at this point all valves are closed

288
Q

how do you determine between controlled and uncontrolled afib?

A

uncontrolled 100-180 bpm

controlled <100 bpm

289
Q

want to get the HR for afib to be controlled and between…

A

60-100 bpm

290
Q

what are the best leads to look at to analyze rythmn?

A

II, and V1

291
Q

what is the HIS DEBS pneumonic that can explain causes of arrythmia?

A

H-hypoxia

I-ischemia

S-sympathetic stimulation

D-drugs (quinine)

E-electrolyte imblance

B-bradycardia

S-stretch-hypertrophy/enlargment

292
Q

what is the measurement to make a QRS wide?

A

greater than 3 boxes!!!

293
Q

what is the term for two PVCs in a row?

what do you call 3 PVCs and rate >100 then called?

A

couplet

VT!

294
Q

how do you calculate HR when the beats are irregular?

A

count the number of beats in 6 second strip (30 small boxes) and multiply by 10

295
Q

sinus rythmn

rate?

rythmn?

p waves?

QRS?

A

rate 60-100

rythmn regular

p waves yes and upright

QRS narrow

296
Q

sinus tachycardia

rate?

rythmn?

p waves?

QRS?

causes?

A

rate >100 bpm

rythmn regular

p waves yes

QRS narrow

causes:

1. normal, seen with exercise

2. changes in SA node firing seen with CHF, lung disease, hyperthyroidism in eldery

297
Q

sinus bradycardia

rate?

rythmn?

p waves?

QRS?

causes?

A

rate? <60

rythmn? regular

p waves? yes

QRS? narrow

causes? common rythmn seen in early stage of acute MI

298
Q

sinus arrythmia

rate?

rythmn?

p waves?

QRS?

causes?

A

rate? slight irregularity of sinus rythmn

rythmn? slightly irregular

p waves? yes

QRS? narrow

1. phasic speeding up with inspiration and slowing down with expiration

2. variation in vagal tone as result of herring breuer reflex

299
Q

what is the most common escape beat?

A

junctional escape beat, heppen if the SA node stops working these pacemakers jump in to help

300
Q

explain the 3 pacemakers of the heart?

A
  1. atrial pacemaker at SA node 60-70 bpm
  2. junctional pacemaker at AV node 40-60 bpm no p wave
  3. ventricular pacemaker 30-45 bpm
301
Q

what is this

A

junctional escape rythmn, no p waves

302
Q

what is an ectopic rythmn?

A

one that evolves outside of the SA node

303
Q

explain how reentry works works?

A
  1. impulse formation other than SA node, creating a new focus
  2. two adjacent pathways that are connected proximally and distally
  3. first step: get unilateral block from premature AP that causes prolonged refractory or prolonged repolarization, basically it can’t accept new stimuli
  4. if path B becomes slowed, currrent A can travel up it and make a reentry loop, can hapen at specific site like AV node or entire chamber
304
Q

what are the three requirements for reentry loop? this accounts for what percent of arrythmias? where can this occur and what can this cause for arythmias?

A

requirements:

1. loop circuit

2. unidirectional block

3. zone of slowed conduction

accounts for 90% of arrythmias!!!

in atria causes: afib, aflutter, PACs

in AV nodal reentry causes: supraventricular tachycardia (polarizes from below) and vtach

305
Q

explain what happens in AV nodal reentry and what can this cause for arrythmia?

A
  1. an atrial extrasytole blocks conduction in one limb of the AV node, blocking conduction in that pathway
  2. normal impulses travels retrograde up the blocked limb, if recoverd allows for transmision, purpetuating the arrythmia
  3. atria are polarized from below

ex arrythmias: supraventricular tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia

306
Q

what are the four questions you want to keep in mind when analyzing an arrythmia?

A
  1. is the rythmn regular/irregular, fast or slow?
  2. are normal p waves present?
  3. are QRS wide >.12 or narrow <.12?
  4. what is the relationship between p waves and QRS complext? (1:1)
307
Q

premature atrial contractions

rate?

rythmn?

p waves?

QRS?

other? 3

A

ATRIAL RE-ENTRY or increase AUTOMATICITY, premature atrial depolarization

rate? single beat

rythmn? premature complex

p waves? yes, but looks different than a regular p wave

QRS? narrow

other?

1. if early coduction can be blocked at AV node

2. if there is no preceeding p wave then it is called junctional premature beat (only difference)

3. can appear as bigeminy, trigeminy

308
Q

atrial fib

rate?

rythmn?

p waves?

QRS?

other? 3

A

MULTIPLE REENTRANT CIRCUITS IN THE ATRIA

rate? 400-600 atrial contractions (blocked at AV by refractory period)

rythmn? irregullarly iregular supraventricular

p waves? NO!!! undulating baseline

QRS? narrow QRS

other:

  1. in new onset without med control: ventricular rate is very fast 120-180 bpm
  2. goal in ED: slow rate with meds
  3. Risk: BLOOD CLOT and stroke if they break off
309
Q

atrial flutter

rate?

rythmn?

p waves?

QRS?

other? 4 things!

A

RENTRY CIRCUIT around annulus of tricuspid valve

250-350 flutter waves

regular

no p waves, flutter waves

QRS narrow

  1. most common presentation is 2:1 AV block with QRS ~150 bpm
  2. SAW TOOTH APPEARANCE in II, III, aVF
  3. after meds given to slow AV conduction given, most common form of block is 4:1 with ventricular rate ~75
  4. carotid masage can help slow VR down, allowing flutter waves to be seen
310
Q

what is the most common arrythmia in the general public?

A

afib!

311
Q

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

rate?

rythmn?

p waves?

QRS?

who is it in? tx? 3 causes?

A

AV NODAL REENTRY!

abrupt onset and termination

carotid massage may help terminate

150-220

regular

not usually present

narrow QRS

  1. most in young healthy people without cardiac disease, can tell you the second it started and stopped. cardiovert with adenosine 90-95% of the time if carotid massage doesn’t work
  2. can be caused by coffee, alcohol, and excitement
312
Q

just some svt for you

A
313
Q

multifocal atrial tachycardia

what must be present?

rate?

rythmn?

cause?

what is it connected to?

A

enhanced automaticity

3 or more p wave morphologies present, irregullarly irregular, >100 bpm

usually underlying pulmonary pathology present

314
Q

junctional escape rythmn

what is this caused by?

when can it happen?

rate?

QRS?

p waves?

what can happen if sinus rate and AV rate are similar?

A

caused by the sinus slowing or sinus arrest so that the AV node takes over

**can occur during sleep due to increased vagal tone, if sinus rate slows during sleep, this takes over**

40-60 bpm

narrow QRS

no p waves usually seen

ususally well tolerated

may compete with sinus rythmn if rates similar

315
Q

junctional tachycardia

what is this chracterized by? what can it be confused with? what are two clinical connections?

A

very uncommon, but discussed for ACLS

NARROW QRS REGULAR TACHYCARDIA WITHOUT P WAVES

may be confused with PSVT but slower rate

clinical: digital toxicity, somtimes inferior wall MI

316
Q

premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)

what is this the most common of?

reentry or automaticity?

QRS? p waves? rythmn? after? shape? what type of hearts? pattern?

A

most common ventricular rythmn

reentry more than automaticity

premature QRS complex that is wide and biazarre

no p waves

WIDE QRS >.12

irregularlly iregular, or regularly irregular (trigeminiy)

often followed by a pause

uniform or multiform

healthy and diseased hearts

bigeminy and trigeminy

317
Q

when should you be concerned about PVCs and what signs can they show? (6)

A

i. frequent
ii. 3 or more PVCs in a row
iii. multiforme PVCs, their shape looks different
iv. “R on T” phenomenon, where the PVC falls on the previous beats T wave, the T wave is vulnerable so if you get a PVC here you are more likely to set of vtach
v. any PVC occuring after acute MI
vi. R on T phenomenon, sparking run of vtach

318
Q

ventricular tachycardia

what is this defined as?

what is sustained mean?

is the heart diseased?

hemodynamicaly stable?

what does it deteriorate into?

A

3 or more consective PVCs at rate >100

sustained: >30 seconds

more often uniform and regular, but can be irregular like torsades

seen in presence of structual cardiac pathology

rarely hemodynamically stable

deteriorates into vfib

319
Q

torsades de points

what type of vtach is this?

what is it associated with?

what does it turn into?

A

“twisting of the fingers”

polymorphic vtach, very fast, very dangerous, 200-300, pt unconcious

associated with prolonged QT interval

difficult to treat and turns into vfib

320
Q

ventricular fibrillation

what is this? does it contain any waves?

A

terminal arrhythmia associated with death

DEFIB ASAP (if you are outside the hospital pt will likely die but if happens at the hospital, the pt will likely live depending on how long it takes you to defib them)

UNDILATIONS ONLY, choatic oftren preceeded with vtach

rarely seen in pts with structually normal hearts

321
Q

what is the incidence of vfib in pts who go in for cath?

A

fairly common 1/200 incidence shock the patient and continue procedure during invasive cardiac procedures including coronary angiography, pt is rapidly defibbed in this situation

322
Q

supraventricular rythmn: associated with narrow QRS

ventricular rythms: assocaited with wide QRS

A

just a hint!

323
Q

what should you keep in mind about the pressures within the heart when talking about valvular disease?

A

Left atrial and left ventricular pressures are equal at 4-14

right ventricle is low pressure system

left higher pressure system

324
Q

mitral regurgitation

what happens in the pathophys for this? what can you get? what are the common 3 symptoms patient presents with? what are the five descriptors used to describe this? what are two things you might see on EKG? what will you see on echo?

A

most common valvular condition

left ventricle backs up into left atria, both dilate overt time

increase in LA pressure, and LVEDV

backup causes pulmonary sxs

sx: DOE, orthopnea, symptoms of left HF and eventually right HF if backs all the way up through the lungs

Holosystolic systolic murmer (heard throughout entire systole), THRILL, HIGH PITCHED BLOWING, S3 gallop if severe

DX:

EKG: LA enlargement, often Afib!

echo: LA and LV dilation but decrease in function

325
Q

In MOST murmers, what would you expect to see in results when squatting down and standing up quickly?

WHAT IS THE EXCEPTION OT THIS?!

A

squatting down: increases the volume of the heart and venous return making the murmer WORSE

standing up: decreases the venous return making the murmer less noticeable

mitral valve prolapse is opposit!! since large leaflets, making the heart bigger actually decreases the murmer (sqautting) because the leaflets fit better. Standing makes it worse because now you have the extra tissue!

326
Q

what are you concerned about with afib?

A

thrombus and emboli

327
Q

what are the tissue valves made of?

A

bovine pericardium

328
Q

what are the four tx options for mitral regurg? what must you consider regarding surgery?

A
  1. decrease activity
  2. ACE INhibitors esp in HTN or HF, decrease preload and after load
  3. diuretics decrease preload
  4. sugey!! if decreased EF or LV dysfunction with progressive sxs

***the timing of sugery is really important because need to do it before you get left ventricular failure from response to stress, otherwise the valve only helps to much****

repair better than replacement here

329
Q

what are the five most important descriptors for mitral regurg?

A
  1. Holosystolic systolic murmer (heard throughout entire systole), 2. THRILL
  2. HIGH PITCHED
  3. BLOWING
  4. S3 gallop if severe
330
Q

what are two random defomirites that are associated with mitral valve prolapse?

A

high arched palate

pectus excavatum!!

weird

331
Q

what can mirtal valve prolapse predispose a person for?

A

endocartitis

332
Q

mitral valve prolapse

What happens in this? what are the two causes of this? which is most common? and what two systemic conditions can cause this? what does this present with for symptoms? what else can be present? what are the 3 key PE things you see?

A

abnormal connective tissue growth causing the leaflets to buckle

caused by:

  1. familia hx, most common autosomal dominant (only get growth on valve)
  2. systemic connective tissue disease MARFANS, EHLERS danlos

SXS: ususally asymptomatic but in women presents as ATYPICAL CP thats “FLEETING” with palpitations, Arrythmias present

mid to late systolic click between s1 and s2 (tensing of chordae), high pitched late systolic murmer,

NOISE/MURMER SOFTENS WHEN SQUATTING KEY THIS MAKES HEART LARGER SO LEAFLETS FIT BETTER, OPPOSIT OF OTHER MURMERS

333
Q

mitral valve prolapse

what are the 3 PE things you might find to indicate this?

A
  1. mid to late systolic click between s1 and s2 (tensing of chordae)
  2. high pitched late systolic murmer
  3. NOISE/MURMER SOFTENS WHEN SQUATTING KEY THIS MAKES HEART LARGER SO LEAFLETS FIT BETTER, OPPOSIT OF OTHER MURMERS
334
Q

what are the 3 tx options for mitral valve prolapse?

A
  1. reassurance #1!!!!!

  1. Beta blocker if CP or arrythmia
  2. surgery if MR severe (VERY RARE!!))
335
Q

mitral stenosis

what condition cases this? what happens to the valve..what is the nickname for this appearance? does it effect the lungs? how wide does the opening need to be? what becomes the issue? what are the symptoms? hat rythmn is common? what would echo show? what are the four PE findings for this?

A

only caused by rheumatic fever

leaflets thicken and calcify narrowing the space cause “FISH MOUTH DEFORMITY”

can back up to the lungs

<1 cm2 opening

diastole becomes the issue because it can’t fill

SXS: DYSPNEA, orthorpnea, pulmonary edema, AFib common

DX: eco: abnormal valve motion, LAE

LA DILATION, LV NORMAL WITH LVEDP NORMAL!! s1 and s2 loud, opening snap after S2, diastolic rumble low pitch from slow blood flow into LV

336
Q

what are the 4 PE findings for mitral stenosis?

A
  1. LA DILATION, LV NORMAL WITH LVEDP NORMAL!! (just not getting blood)
  2. s1 and s2 loud
  3. opening snap after S2
  4. diastolic rumble low pitch from slow blood flow into LV
337
Q

what are the 4 treatment options for mitral stenosis?

A
  1. decrease Na consumption, direutics
  2. control afib if present
  3. preferred intervention: precutaneous balloon vulvoplasty (alternative to surgery, first option for most patients)
  4. surgery if repair by #3 doesn’t work/can’t work
338
Q

aortic stenosis

what are the 3 causes of this? which is most common? what the two many symptoms you see with this? what is the hallmark in pathology? what must it narrow to? what are the 6 characteristics of this condition?

A

Males!

three main causes:

  1. born with bicuspid valve
  2. rheumatic fever
  3. IDIPATHIC, wear and tear in eldery (sclerocacific), MOST COMMON
    sx: DOE, angina pectoris, syncope with exercise ( periphreal vasodilation with decrease CO)
    hallmark: left ventricular pressure higher than aortic pressure in systole, L sided heart failure, angina pectoralis (since heart has to work so hard to overcome increase in pressure, it requires more blood but the opening for coronary arteries is on the other side of this valve!) <.75 cm2

carotid pulses climb, apex displaced, s4 gallop, systolic murmer with cresendo/decresendo, sawing gratting sound during systole, harsh low pitch

339
Q

what are the 6 main things to remember about aortic stenosis sounds?

what two pt symptoms key?

A
  1. carotid pulses climb
  2. apex displaced
  3. s4 gallop
  4. systolic murmer with cresendo/decresendo
  5. sawing gratting sound during systole
  6. harsh low pitch

patient sxs: syncope, angina pectoris

340
Q

what must you determine aortic stenosis from? what do you do to determine between the two?

A

aortic sclerosis

thickening/calcification without fusing, don’t have symptoms

need to get echo to determine between the two?

341
Q

what do you need to do before surgery for aortic stenosis? what does this help you determine?

A

cath

identifies gradient between LV and aorta, and determines the presence/absence of CAD since these can opften go together.

**want to distinguish if pt gets angina pectoris from block in the coronary=CHD, or just no blood flow =aortic stenosis*

342
Q

what are the 3 surgery options for aortic stenosis?

A

if surgical candidate, get surgery

  1. mild w/o symptoms: monitor, ACE, ARBS
  2. SURGERY!!! replacement with tissue or mechanical valve
  3. balloon valvuloplasty/transcather aortic valve implant- palliative for those who aren’t surgical candidate…except in young adults
343
Q

where do you hear aortic stenosis? what can help make it easier to hear?

A

2nd RICS

patient sitting leaning foward

344
Q

what do you hear mitral stenosis and what can make it easier to hear?

A

apex

left lateral debiscus position

345
Q

tricuspid regurgitation

where do you hear it?

during what?

where does it radiate?

noise?

whats often elevated?

what can it icnrease slightly with?

A

heard: lower left sternal border

holosystolic, pansystolic

radiates: right sternum to xifoid area

blowing noise

JVP often elevated

increases slightly with respiration

346
Q

pulmonic stenosis

where do you hear this?

where does it radiate?

what might you hear?

when do you hear it?

A

heard: 2-3rd left intercostal spaces

readiates to: left shoulder and neck

early pulmonic edjection sound heard

timing: systolic

347
Q

lymphangitis

A

Lymphangitis most often results from an acute streptococcal infection of the skin. Less often, it is caused by a staphylococcal infection. The infection causes the lymph vessels to become inflamed.

Lymphangitis is an inflammation or an infection of the lymphatic channels[1] that occurs as a result of infection at a site distal to the channel. The most common cause of lymphangitis in humans is Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep), although it can also be caused by the fungus Sporothrix schenckii

Lymphangitis may be a sign that a skin infection is getting worse. The bacteria can spread into the blood, and cause life-threatening problems.

Chills

Enlarged and tender lymph nodes (glands) – usually in the elbow, armpit, or groin

Fever

General ill feeling (malaise)

Headache

Loss of appetite

Muscle aches

Red streaks from the infected area to the armpit or groin (may be faint or obvious)

Throbbing pain along the affected area

Bates: acute bacterial infection ususually streptococcal spreading up the lymphatic channels from a portal of entry such as an injured area or an ulcer. An arm or leg. acute episode lasting days or longer. red streaks on the skin with tenderness enlarged tender lymph nodes and fever

348
Q

lymphadenitits

A

Lymphadenitis is the inflammation of lymph nodes. It is often a complication of bacterial infections, although it can also be caused by viruses or other disease agents. Lymphadenitis may be either generalized, involving a number of lymph nodes, or limited to a few nodes in the area of a localized infection. Lymphadenitis is sometimes accompanied by lymphangitis, which is the inflammation of the lymphatic vessels that connect the lymph nodes.

most common is strep.

349
Q

lymphodema

A

Bates:

1. indurated, hard, and NONPITTING

2. NONPIGMENTATION

3. occurs when lymph channels are obstructed by TUMOR, FIBROSIS, and INFLAMMATION

4. axillary node dissection and radiation

350
Q

SICK SINUS SYNDROME

WHat does it encompass?

who do we see it in? why?

what can cause it or it be a result from?

is it reversible?

what is it characterized by and what are the three types?

CLinical presentaiton?

DX

TX

A
  • encompasses physiologically inappropriate sinus bradycardia, sinus pause, sinus, arrest, or episodes of alternating sinus tachy and brady.

most often in elderly: caused by scaring of the hearts conduction system

could occur in an infant who had heart surgery

  • may be causes of exacerbated by digitalis, calcium channel blockers, beta blockers… so on and so on.
  • also could result from underlying collagen vascular or metatastic disease or surgical injury

REVERSIBLE if caused by digitlalis, quinidine, beat blockers , or aerosol propellants

  • AV block is characterized by refractory conduction of impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node or bundle of HIS and divided into 1st degree, 2nd degree (Mobitz 1 or mobitz II) and complete 3rd block
    • FIRST degree heart block: all atrial beats conducted to the ventricles, PR interval is greater than 0.21 seconds
    • SECOND degree heart block: not all atrial beats are conducted to the ventricles
      • Mobitz type 1 (wenckebach) is has lengthening of PR interval with shortening of RR interval. All atrial impulses will not be conducted to the ventricles. Typical pattern is repeated cycle of: normal PR interval, long PR, longer PR, even longer PR, and dropped beat. This is due to abnormal conduction in AV node
      • Mobitz type II: non conducted atrial beats. block within HIS bundle system. secondary to organic disease involving infra nodal system. can progress to complete heart block
    • ​THIRD degree heart block: (complete) complete dislocation between atria and ventricles. due to lesion distal to the HIS bundle

Clinical Prenenstation:

most asymptomatic, but may have syncope, dizziness, confusion, HF, palpitations, or decreased exercise tolerance

  • 1st degree AV conduction block usually asymptomatic.
  • higher grade blocks may have weakness, fatigue, light headedness, syncope

DX: ECG changes (SEE PICTURE)

TX:

permiinnant pacing

1st degree AV conduction block require no tx

  • only effective long term tx for other AV conduction disorders is permanent cardiac pacing
  • temporary transthoracic or transvenous pacing should be followed by permanent pacing when Mobitz type II or complete heart block dx.
351
Q

what are the lub dub sounds realted to?

A

The “ lub” is the first heart sound, commonly termed S1, and is caused by turbulence caused by the closure of mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of systole.

The secondsound,” dub” or S2, is caused by the closure of aortic and pulmonic valves, marking the end of systole.

352
Q

sick sinus syndrome

A

sinus arrest with alternations of paroxysms or atrial tachycardia and bradyarrythmias

caused by sinoatrial disease

tx: permanent dual chamber pacer with auto ICD

353
Q

what are the monitoring guidelines for aortic aneurysm

if

>5.5

>4.5

4-4.5?

3-4?

A

>5.5 immediate removal

>4.5 vascualr

4-4.5: monitor every 6 months

3-4cm: monitor every 1 year

354
Q

chronic artieral insufficiency

A

BATES:

1. intermittent claudication, progressing to pain at rest

2. PALE ON ELEVATION, DUSTY red when laid down

3. ulceration on the toes or points of trauma

4. COOL temp of limb

5. thin, shiny, atrophic skin, loss of hair on legs