Cv exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following conditions would cause a reduction in ventricular preload?

a. decreased ventricular compliance
b. increased venous return
c. cardiac tamponade
d. hypovolemia

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What clinical condition is most likely to cause the PAWP to be elevated?

a. ARDS

b. Left heart failure

c. Cor pulmonale

d. Pneumonia

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The RT would recommend immediate defibrillation for which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias?

a. ventricular asystole

b. ventricular fibrillation

c. atrial fibrillation

d. atrioventricular block

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient has a cardiac output of 5.6 L/min and a HR of 80 bpm. What is the patient’s stroke volume?

a. 58 ml

b. 64 ml

c. 70 ml

d. 75 ml

A

C
5.6/ 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The QRS interval should normally be ________________ or less.

a. 0.20 seconds

b. 0.12 seconds

c. .08 seconds

d. .36 seconds

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vagal maneuvers are performed to:

a. slow the HR

b. dilate the coronary arteries

c. reduce ventricular irritability

d.improve conduction through the AV node

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The electrocardiogram is used to:

a. determine pulse rate

b. detect valvular dysfunction

c. evaluate electrical activity in the heart

d. determine whether the heart is beating

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rhythms that are ______________________ develop above the ventricles.

a. superventricular

b. idioventricular

c. supraventricular

d. retroventricular

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management of left heart failure is aimed at:

a. decreasing myocardial oxygen demand

b. improving myocardial contractility

c. improving oxygenation and ventilation

d. all of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When treating Torsades de Pointes, the drug most commonly used is:

a. Atropine

b. Procainamide

c. Lidocaine

d. Magnesium

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

After measuring the PAP and PCWP, the RT observes a minimally fluctuating pattern with a mean value of 10 mmHg on the patient’s pulmonary artery tracing. The therapist should do which of the following?

a. take no action

b. deflate the balloon

c. recalibrate the system

d. recommend a fluid challenge

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At which point in the respiratory cycle should the PA and the PCWP pressure be read when a patient is receiving mechanical ventilation?

a. mid inspiration

b. end-exhalation

c. during a plateau breath

d. at peak inspiration

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient in the ICU with an arterial catheter has a disparity between the blood pressure measured directly by the arterial catheter and indirectly with a blood pressure cuff. Which of the following are possible causes of this disparity?

I. Improper blood pressure cuff size or placement

II. Air bubbles in the arterial catheter transducer dome

III. Mechanical occlusion of the catheter or tubing

IV. Infection at the arterial catheter site

a. I, II, III

b. I, II, IV

c. I, III, IV

d. I, IV

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The use of PEEP during mechanical ventilation can produce which of the following effects?

I. increased ICP

II. a decrease in venous return

III. an increase in cardiac output

IV. a decrease in systemic blood pressure

a. I, II, IV

b. II, III, IV

c. I, II, III

d. I, II, III, IV

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

From which of the following devices can a true mixed venous blood sample be obtained under most clinical circumstances?

a. central venous catheter

b. pulmonary venous catheter

c. subclavian artery

d. pulmonary artery catheter

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An early, widened QRS complex with an inverted T wave and no associated P wave is consistent with which of the following?

a. PVC

b. Ventricular tachycardia

c. Ventricular fibrillation

d. Ventricular asystole

A

A

17
Q

Most atrial fibrillation waves are not followed by a QRS complex because the:

a. impulses are initiated in the left ventricle

b. stimuli are not enough to be conducted

c. ventricle can receive only 120 stimuli in 1 minute

d. AV junction is unable to conduct all the excitation impulses

A

D

18
Q

It may be difficult to distinguish asystole from very fine Vfib; therefore you must always check __________ different leads in order to confirm asystole.

a. four

b. three

c. two

d. five

A

C

19
Q

When an ECG shows there is no relationship between the P wave and the QRS complex, you should suspect:

a. First-degree heart block

b. Second-degree heart block

c. Third-degree heart block

d. Electromechanical dissociation

A

c

20
Q

The primary goal of management of the patient with symptomatic chest pain is to:

a. Interrupt the infarction process

b. Augment the infarction process

c. Institute fibrinolytic therapy

d. Increase myocardial oxygen consumption

A

A

21
Q

A hypovolemic patient is being mechanically ventilated and monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz). If PEEP is added, which of the following will increase?

a. urinary output

b. stroke volume

c. pulmonary artery pressure

d. arterial blood pressure

A

C

22
Q

A flow directed pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter is used for which of the following purposes?

I. to determine pulmonary artery capillary wedge pressure

II. to determine pulmonary artery pressure

III. to estimate left ventricular end-diastolic pressures

IV. to sample mixed venous blood

a. I, II

b. II, III

c. III, IV

d. I, II, III

e. I, II, III, IV

A

E

23
Q

A patient’s CXR shows diffuse alveolar infiltrates. The PCWP is 2 mmHg, CVP is 7mmHg, mean PAP is 16 mmHg, RAP is 7mmHg, and the cardiac index is 3.5L/min/m3. Which of the following should be used to differentiate between cardiogenic and noncardiogenic etiology?

a. right atrial pressure

b. central venous pressure

c. pulmonary vascular resistance

d. pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

A

D

24
Q

You put a small amount of air into the bubble of a pulmonary artery catheter and you see a small amount of amplitude change on the reading at 2 points below the PA end-diastolic pressure. Based on this information, you would conclude:

a. there is a pressure dampening

b. the transducer is placed too high

c. there is an obstruction in the catheter

d. this is a normal wedge tracing

A

D

25
Q

what is normal value for PAP?
A. 50/25
B. 25/10
C.120/80
D.10/5

A

B

26
Q

normal range for central venous pressure in the adult?
A. less than 8 mmHg
b. 9 - 12 mmHg
C. 13-18 mmHg
D. 19 - 25 mmHg

A

A
WHICH IS THE SAME AS YOUR RAP

27
Q

MAP calculation

A

Systolic + Diastolic (2)/ 3

28
Q

Normal value of wedge pressure

A

6-12