CV 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Respiratory Anatomy and Physiology

Please study the Airway Diagram, Larynx and Vocal Cords, and the Table 27-1 The Nine Cartilages of Larynx

Nerve supply to the larynx
- Superior and inferior laryngeal nerves (branches of the cranial nerve X)
- The superior laryngeal nerve arises from the ganglion of the _______(1) and divides into 2 branches, the external and the internal.
- ______(a) segment gives a branch to the inferior constrictor muscle of the pharynx & the cricothyroid muscle. It lengthens or increases tension of vocal cords. Damage results in _______(2).
- ______(b) segment enters the larynx, provides sensation from the laryngeal side of the epiglottis down to the true vocal cords. Damage = difficulty _______(3).

Nerve supply
- The inferior or recurrent laryngeal nerves – arise from the _______(4) nerve at 2 different levels.
- ______(c) nerve descends with the vagus and loops around the arch of the aorta to the neck.
- ______(d) nerve travels with the vagus to the subclavian artery, loops around the subclavian up to the neck.
- Damage to the ______(e) during surgery can lead to unilateral or bilateral vocal cord paralysis with hoarseness or _______(5).
- Blood supply to the larynx is from the _______(6) (branch of the external carotid artery) and also the ______(f) (branch of the thyrocervical trunk).

Trachea
- Lined with ______(g) epithelium and extends from the inferior larynx to the carina.
- Distance from your incisors to the carina is 26 cm (or roughly 10.4 inches)
- Very tall patients may need longer _______(7)
- Diameter is _______(8)
- Not a fixed structure
- Bifurcates into 2 main bronchi
- Blood supply is from the _______(9)

A

Answers:
1. vagus
a. External
2. hoarseness
b. Internal
3. phonating
4. vagus
c. Left
d. Right
e. recurrent laryngeal nerve
5. dyspnea
6. superior thyroid artery
f. inferior thyroid artery
g. pseudo stratified ciliated columnar
7. ETT (endotracheal tube)
8. 2.5 cm
9. inferior thyroid artery

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2
Q

Bronchi
- Cellular structure begins to change at this level
- From columnar to _______(1) epithelium
- From the carina, the bronchi branches off slightly at different angles.

Right Bronchus
- Takes off at _______(2) degrees from trachea
- Mainstem is ______(a) (2cm) than the left.
- Nearly vertical as compared to the left
- Which side is Likely to be intubated: _______(3)
- Divides into _______(4) lobar bronchi
- Mainstem bronchus ends 2 - 2.5 cm from the carina and gives rise to the _______(5) bronchus
- After the RUL takeoff, main bronchus continues into 3 cm as the bronchus intermedius then divides into the middle and lower lobes

Left Bronchus
- Takes off at _______(6) degrees
- Left mainstem is _______(7) cm
- Divides into _______(8) lobar bronchi
- The left main bronchus is ______(b) cm long and terminates by bifurcation into the:
- _______(9) lobe bronchus
- _______(10) lobe bronchus
- The left upper lobe bronchus divides into halves, and upper half and a lower half (______(c) branch)

  • Each division is referred to as a ______(d). Mainstem bronchi is the ______(e) generation.
  • Third generation is called the segmental bronchi.
    • Delivery of ventilation to the various bronchopulmonary segments of the lung.
  • Bronchopulmonary segments create distinct units.
  • ______(f) generations before the alveoli
  • Terminal bronchioles are the last structure perfused by the bronchial circulation and are at the end of the conducting airways.
    • ______(g) lead to respiratory bronchioles that are perfused by pulmonary circulation .

Please study Lung lobes and segments

A

Answers:

  1. cuboidal
  2. 25
    a. wider and shorter
  3. Right Mainstem
  4. 3
  5. RUL (right upper lobe)
  6. 45
  7. 4
  8. 2
    b. 4
  9. left upper
  10. left lower
    c. lingular
    d. generation
    e. first
    f. 20-25
    g. Terminal
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3
Q

Conducting Zone

  • All parts of the airway from the nose to the terminal bronchioles conduct gas without exchanging gas with the blood (i.e. “gas exchange”) and are referred to as the _______(1).
  • It is imperative to exceed _______(2) to ensure gas exchange occurs.
  • _______(2) is typically 2 ml per kg of body weight.

Transitional airways

  • The _______(3) bronchiole follows the terminal bronchiole and is the first site where gas exchange occurs.
  • In adults, _______(4) generations of respiratory bronchioles lead to alveolar ducts, of which 4 - 5 generations, each with multiple openings into alveolar sacs.
  • The final divisions of alveolar ducts terminate in alveolar sacs that open into alveolar clusters.
  • Section of lung showing many alveoli and a small bronchiole. The pulmonary capillaries run in the walls of the alveoli.
    • The holes in the alveolar walls are the pores of _______(5).
      • They function as a means of collateral ventilation; that is, if the lung is partially deflated, ventilation can occur to some extent through these pores.
      • They also allow air to pass through, this provides collateral ventilation and even distribution of air to the _______(6) despite the pressure in adjacent alveoli thus allowing the preservation of lung collapse.
A

Answers:
1. conducting zone
2. Dead Space
3. respiratory
4. 2 - 3
5. Kohn
6. alveoli

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4
Q

Respiratory airways and alveolar-capillary membrane
- Two primary functions:
1. Transport of respiratory gases (oxygen & carbon dioxide).
2. Production of a wide variety of local and humoral substances.

Respiratory Zone
- The respiratory zone is comprised of the:
- Respiratory bronchioles
- Alveolar ducts
- Sacs
- Alveoli
- The respiratory zone is where _______(1) occurs.

A

Answers:
1. gas exchange

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5
Q

Respiratory airways
- Gas transport is facilitated by the _______(1).

  • These are the densest capillary networks in the body.
  • There are 3 types of alveolar cells – Type I, II, and III.
    • ______(a) – flattened, squamous cells, which covers ~80% of the alveolar surface
      • Most likely to be _______(2)
    • ______(b) – polygonal cells have vast metabolic and enzymatic activity and _______(3).
    • ______(c) – alveolar macrophages, which are important to immunologic lung defense. Permit ingestion of foreign materials within alveolar spaces.

Pulmonary vascular system Two major circulatory systems supply blood to the lungs:
1. Pulmonary vascular networks
2. Bronchial vascular networks
- Delivers mixed venous blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary capillary bed via two _______(4).
- After gas exchange occurs, oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium via four _______(5).
- Pulmonary veins run independently along the intra-lobar connective tissue planes, _______(6) the pulmonary capillary system adequately provides the metabolic and oxygen needs of the pulmonary parenchyma.

A

Answers:
1. pulmonary capillary beds
a. Type I
2. injured
b. Type II
3. manufacture surfactant
c. Type III
4. pulmonary arteries
5. pulmonary veins
6. ensuring

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6
Q

Bronchial Vascular System

  • Provides oxygen to the conductive airways and pulmonary vessels.
  • Anatomic connections between the bronchial and pulmonary venous circulations create an absolute shunt of ~2 – 5% of the total cardiac output, and represents a “normal” shunt.

M E D I A S T I N U M
Subdivision | Location | Contents
Superior | Above level of the sternal angle, extending superior to the thoracic inlet | Thymus, esophagus, trachea, great vessels
Anterior | Between sternum and pericardium | Thymus
Posterior | Between vertebral column & posterior pericardium | Esophagus, thoracic aorta, thoracic duct
Middle | Between anterior and posterior divisions, bounded laterally by the parietal pleura | Heart, distal trachea, mainstem bronchi, and great vessels

Pleura
- Serous membrane lines the thoracic wall and lungs.
- The parietal pleura attaches to the chest wall, diaphragm and mediastinum.
- Reflected back to cover the lungs and thereafter referred to as the _______(1).
- Closely opposed with a thin layer of pleural fluid in between them, a potential space, known as the _______(2).

Pleura
- An accumulation of air in the pleural space is referred to as a _______(3).
- Tension pneumothorax – inspired air accumulates in the pleural space and is not expelled.
- The elastic recoil of the lung tends to favor lung collapse once the negative pressure of the pleural space is disrupted by the breach.

Study the Conditions that affect the Pleural Space Table 27-2

A

Answers:
1. visceral pleura
2. pleural space
3. pneumothorax

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7
Q

Lung Mechanics

  • The diaphragm and external intercostals are the muscles that contract during normal breathing (eupnea).
  • Contraction of the muscles of inspiration ↓ intrathoracic pressure → the volume of thoracic cavity to ↑
  • Boyle’s law: ↑ volume creates ↓ pressure.
  • This causes air to enter the atmosphere.
  • Spontaneous respiration is passive movement of gas.
  • Pressure of -20 is a good indicator that patient is moving their _______(1) and is ready to _______(2).

Mechanics of Breathing

  • Each half of the diaphragm is innervated by a branch of the phrenic nerve arising from C 3, 4 and 5 (“keeps me alive!”)
    • Deep Cervical Plexus block in a patient with a respiratory condition could _______(3) their diaphragm strength
  • Eupneic expiration results from passive recoil of the chest wall. Internal intercostal muscles may be used to augment exhalation. (Signs of respiratory distress)
  • During forced exhalation (coughing), the abdominal muscles may be used.
  • Sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles contract in conjunction with the diaphragm and intercostal muscles for forceful exhalation. (Alternatively, they can be used for forceful inhalation, per your textbook!)

Answers:
1. diaphragm
2. extubate
3. obliterate

A

Answers:
1. diaphragm
2. extubate
3. obliterate

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8
Q

Lung mechanics
- Lung movement occurs secondary to external forces.
- During spontaneous ventilation, external forces are produced by the ventilatory muscles.
- The response to the lungs to these forces is governed by:
1. ease of elastic recoil of the chest wall
2. resistance to gas flow within the airways

Mechanics of Ventilation: Elastic Resistance
- Chest has a tendency to expand outward.
- Lungs have a tendency to collapse.
- As a result, intrapleural pressure is negative.
- Because the outward force of the thoracic cage exceeds the inward force of the lung, the overall tendency is for the lungs to remain inflated.

Elastic work
- FRC (functional residual capacity) represents the gas volume in the lungs when the outward and inward forces on the lung are equal.
- FRC is defined as the volume of air remaining in the lung at the _______(1).
- Gravitational forces create a more sub-atmospheric pressure in the _______(2) areas of the lung than the dependent areas of the lung.
- A pneumothorax allows lung to collapse and thorax to spring out.

A

Answers:
1. end of a normal expiration
2. nondependent

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9
Q

Mechanics of Ventilation
- Surface tension forces occur at an air-fluid interface
- Produces forces that reduce the area of the interface
- Favor alveolar collapse
- Gas-fluid interface lining the alveoli behave like bubbles. For a bubble to remain inflated, the gas pressure within a bubble, which is contained by surface tension must be _______(1) than surrounding gas pressure.

Mechanics of Ventilation
- Unlike a bubble, alveolar gas communicates with the atmosphere via airways
- As alveolar radius decreases during exhalation, Law of Laplace’s (P = ______(a)) is satisfied and the alveoli do not collapse.
- Pressure = ______(b)
- Pressure = inside the bubble (alveolus)
- Alveolar collapse
- ______(c) proportional to surface tension
- ______(d) proportional to alveolar size

A

Answers:
1. higher
a. 2T/r
b. 2 x Surface Tension of the liquid/ Radius of the bubble
c. directly
d. inversely

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10
Q

Mechanics of Ventilation: Elastic Resistance
- Surface tension of the liquid in the lung
- Increases during _______(1)
- Decreases during _______(2)
- Unlike a bubble, pressure within the alveolus decreases as the radius decreases
- Creates gas flow from larger to smaller alveoli
- Maintains structural stability and prevents lung collapse

  • ______(a): decreases alveolar surface tension; directly proportional to its concentration within the alveolus
  • The smaller the alveolus, the more concentrated the surfactant, and the more effectively surface tension is reduced.
  • Over distended alveoli surfactant is less concentrated and surface tension increases
    • If you have emphysema- would you expect more production of surfactant or less? Another _______(3)
  • Net effect is to stabilize alveoli. Small ones prevented from collapsing and large ones prevented from getting larger.

Physiologic Work of Breathing
- ______(b) work is defined as the work required to overcome the elastic recoil of the pulmonary system. This occurs during inspiration as expiration is passive during normal breathing.
- ______(c) work is defined as work to overcome resistance to gas flow in the airway and includes _______(4)-imposed resistance such as the endotracheal tube (ETT).

A

Answers:
1. inspiration
2. expiration
a. Pulmonary Surfactant
3. unanswered question
b. Elastic
c. Resistive
4. equipment

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11
Q

Mechanics of Ventilation: Compliance (CL)
- Defined as the change in volume divided by the change in pressure V/P
- ______(a) compliance – is the pressure-volume relationship for a lung when the air is not moving. (e.g., fibrosis, obesity, vascular engorgement, edema, ARDS, external compression, etc.)
- Static compliance can be increased by emphysema which destroys the elasticity of lung tissue (e.g., problem with deflation, not inflation).
- Compliance changes as lung volume changes. It is volume dependent. Less compliant at both very high or very low volumes.

Mechanics of Ventilation: Compliance (CL): Factors
- Sum of the pressure-volume relationships of the thorax and lung (ΔV/ΔP)
- Results in a sigmoidal pressure-volume curve (compliance curve)
- Vertical line at end expiration _______(1).
- Normally breathe on the steepest part of sigmoidal curve
- Where compliance (ΔV/ΔP) or slope is highest
- Restrictive pulmonary disease (↓ compliance)
- curve shifts to the _______(2).
- decreased ______(b),
- or both
- Results in smaller FRC

  • ↓ Compliance
    • Larger changes in intrapleural pressure needed to create the same TV
    • Tend to breathe more rapid and shallow
    • CPAP will increase TV and slow RR
A

Answers:
a. Static
1. FRC (Functional Residual Capacity)
2. right
b. slope

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12
Q

Mechanics of Ventilation: Compliance
- _______(1) compliance
o Increase in fibrous tissue in the lung (pulmonary fibrosis)
o Alveolar edema (prevents inflation of some alveoli)
o Unventilated lung for a long period
o Increased pulmonary venous pressure
- _______(2) compliance
o Pulmonary emphysema
o Normal aging lung

Mechanics of Ventilation: Elastic Resistance - Compliance
- Chest Wall Compliance (~______(a) ml/cm H2O)
- CW = change in chest volume / change in trans-thoracic pressure
- Total compliance of lung and chest wall together ~_______(3) ml/cm H2O
- When the patient lies supine, then chest wall compliance is reduced and the weight of abdominal contents against the diaphragm.

Resistance to Gas Flow
- Patterns of gas flow in the respiratory tract
o _______(4) (distal to small bronchioles)
o _______(5) (large airways)
o Mixed
- Resistance
o Increases in proportion to gas flow
o Directly proportional to gas density
o Inversely proportional to the _______(6)
- If radius is ______(b), resistance ↑ 16-fold
- _______(7) the length only doubles the resistance

A

Answers:
1. Reduced
2. Increased
a. 200
3. 100
4. Laminar
5. Turbulent
6. radius
b. halved
7. Doubling

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13
Q

Turbulent Gas Flow

  • Laminar flow:
    o occurs when low flow rates move through a straight tube resulting in a series of concentric cylinders of gas flowing at different velocities.
  • _______(1) flow:
    o They are parallel to the sides of the tube and have a velocity of zero at the cylinder wall. The maximum velocity at the center of the advancing “cone.”
    o Viscosity is relevant under laminar flow.
  • _______(2) flow:
    o Occurs when resistance to gas flow is significant.
    o Random movement of gas molecules down air passages. It is very loud and audible.
  • Four conditions that will change laminar flow to _______(3) flow:
    o _______(4) gas flows
    o sharp angles within the tube
    o branching in the tube
    o decrease in the tube’s diameter

At low flow rates, stream lines are )_____(a) to the sides of the tube.

As the flow rate ______(b), unsteadiness develops, especially at branches and separation of stream lines occurs with formation of local eddies.

At ______(c) flow rates, there is complete disorganization of the stream lines.

A

Answers:
1. Laminar
2. Turbulent
3. turbulent
4. high
a. parallel
b. increases
c. Higher

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14
Q

Volume-Related Airway Collapse
- Low lung volumes and loss of radial traction ______(a) contribution of small airways to total resistance.
- Airway resistance becomes ______(b) proportional to lung volume.
- Increasing lung volume up to normal with PEEP can reduce airway resistance.

Flow-Related Airway Collapse
- Forced exhalation causes a ______(c) of normal transmural pressure and can cause dynamic airway compression, which limits air flow during a forced expiration. This results in a large pressure drop across intrathoracic airways.

  • Equal Pressure Point is defined as the point along the airways where dynamic compression occurs.
  • ______(d): destroys elastic tissues that support smaller airways
  • ______(e): bronchoconstriction and edema intensify airway collapse
  • Pursed-lip breathing or premature termination of exhalation helps to prevent reversal of transmural pressure gradients and trapping of air.

Ventilation
- ______(f) are the gases in non-respiratory airways.
- ______(g) involves alveoli that are not perfused.
- Physiologic dead space = the sum of the two .
- ______(h) refers to areas of the lung that are ventilated but poorly perfused.
- Dead space
o normally about 2 ml/Kg
o nearly all _______(1)

A

Answers:
a. increases
b. inversely
c. reversal
d. Emphysema
e. Asthma
f. Anatomic Dead Space
g. Alveolar dead space
h. Physiologic dead space
1. anatomic

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15
Q

Distribution of Ventilation
- Alveolar ventilation is unevenly distributed
o Right receives more than left
- Dependent areas tend to be better ventilated
o Alveoli in upper lung areas are nearly maximally inflated and relatively noncompliant
o Smaller alveoli in dependent areas are more compliant and undergo greater expansion

Pulmonary Perfusion
- Blood flow 5 L/min (Cardiac Output)
o ~ _______(1) ml at any one time in pulmonary capillaries undergoing gas exchange
- Supine to erect position _______(2) pulmonary blood volume up to 27%.
o Trendelenburg has the opposite effect.
- Pulmonary vascular tone → _______(3)
o ______(a) is the most powerful stimulus.
o Pulmonary arterial and alveolar hypoxia reduces pulmonary blood flow from non-dependent areas to dependent areas and prevents hypoxemia.

Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction
- ______(b) allow the lungs:
o To maintain optimal V/Q matching
o Stimulated by alveolar hypoxia
o Severely decreases blood flow
o Decreased regional pulmonary blood flow results in bronchoconstriction and diminishes the degree of dead space ventilation.
- ______(b) protect the lungs, particularly during one-lung ventilation.
o When either a shunt or dead space occurs, the unit of the lung effectively becomes a “silent” unit in which little ventilation or perfusion occurs.

A

Answers:
1. 70 to 100
2. decreases
3. vasoconstriction
a. Hypoxia
b. HPV and Bronchoconstriction

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16
Q

Factors that reduce effectiveness of HPV
- Hypervolemia
- Hypovolemia
- Excessive tidal volume or PEEP
- Hypocapnia
- Acidosis
- Hypothermia
- Volatile agents > _______(1) MAC
- Vasoactive medications
- Calcium channel blockers (may)
- Vasodilators (may)

Distribution of Pulmonary Perfusion
- Pulmonary blood flow is not uniform. The dependent portions receive greater flow than the upper portions.
o Gravity exerts a significant influence on blood flow.
- 3 lung zones based on:
o Alveolar pressures
o Arterial pressures
o Venous pressures

Zones of West
- The zones of the lung divide the lung into four vertical regions, based upon the relationship between the pressure in the alveoli (PA), in the arteries (Pa), in the veins (Pv) and the pulmonary interstitial pressure (Pi) :
o Zone 1: PA > Pa > _______(2)
o Zone 2: Pa > PA > _______(3)
o Zone 3: Pa > Pv > _______(4)
o Zone 4: Pa > Pi > _______(5)

A

Answers:
1. 1.5
2. Pv
3. Pv
4. PA
5. PA

17
Q

Distribution of Pulmonary Perfusion

  • Zone ______(a) (upper zone)
    o Alveolar dead space
    o Alveolar pressure continually occludes the pulmonary capillaries
  • Zone ______(b) (middle zone)
    o Varies during respiration
    o According to arterial-alveolar pressure gradient
    o Pulmonary capillary flow is intermittent and _______(1)
  • Zone ______(c) (lower zone)
    o Pulmonary capillary flow is continuous
    o Proportional to the arterial-venous pressure gradient

Study Barash, Figure 11.5

A

Answers:
a. 1
b. 2
1. varies
c. 3

18
Q

Ventilation/Perfusion Ratios

  • (V) Alveolar ventilation ~ _______(1) L/min
  • (Q) Pulmonary capillary perfusion ~ _______(2) L/min
  • Overall V/Q ratio ~ _______(3)
  • No ventilation intrapulmonary shunt
  • No perfusion alveolar dead space
  • Throughout the lungs, V/Q
    o normally ranges from _______(4) to 3
    o Majority are close to _______(5)
  • Pulmonary venous blood from areas with low V/Q ratios
    o has ______(a) O2 tension and ______(b) CO2 tension.
    o tends to depress arterial O2 tension more profoundly than CO2 tension.
  • Compensatory increase in O2 uptake cannot take place where V/Q is normal
    o Pulmonary end-capillary blood usually already maximally saturated with O2.
A

Answers:
1. 4
2. 5
3. 0.8
4. 0.3
5. 1
a. low
b. high

19
Q

Shunts
- Desaturated, mixed venous blood from the right heart returns to the left heart without being re-saturated with O2 in the lungs.
- Overall effect dilutes arterial O2 content.
- Absolute shunt are
o anatomic shunts
o lung units where V/Q is “_______(a)”
o cannot partially correct with increased FIO2
- Relative shunt
o low but finite V/Q ratio
o can partially correct with increased FIO2

Effects of Anesthesia on Gas Exchange
- Increased dead space
- Hypoventilation
- Increased intrapulmonary shunting
- Increased scatter of V/Q ratios
- Atelectasis and airway collapse increases venous admixture (physiologic shunt) 5 to _______(1) %.
- Inhalation agents can inhibit hypoxic vasoconstriction in high doses (_______(2) MAC)
- Prolonged high FIO2 (> _______(3)) increases the absolute shunt and can result in “absorption atelectasis,” a complete collapse of alveoli with previously low V/Q once all O2 within the alveoli is absorbed.
- There is no other gas left in the alveoli to keep it open (ie nitrogen)

A

Answers:

a. 0
1. 10
2. 2
3. 0.5

20
Q

Central Respiratory Centers
- ______(a) = origin of basic breathing rhythm
o Dorsal respiratory group
- Primarily active during _______(1)
- ______(b) respiratory group
- Active during _______(2)
- Respiratory rate and rhythm are “fine tuned” by 2 pontine areas (i.e., “pons” in the brainstem)
o Influence _______(3) medullary center
o Lower pontine (amnestic)center is considered “_______(4).”
o Upper pontine (pneumotaxic)center is considered “_______(5).”

Central Sensors
- Central chemoreceptors located on the surface of the medulla
o Respond primarily to changes in CSF H+
o Elevated PCO2 elevates CSF H+ and
- activates the chemoreceptors
o Secondary stimulation of the adjacent respiratory medullary centers increases alveolar ventilation
- Very high PCO2 tension depresses the ventilatory response (“CO2 narcosis”)
- Apneic threshold
o PCO2 at which ventilation is zero
- Awake state, cortical influences prevent apnea
- Hypoxia depresses central chemoreceptor activity.

A

Answers:
a. Medulla
1. inspiration
b. Ventral
2. expiration
3. dorsal
4. excitatory
5. inhibitory

21
Q

Peripheral Chemoreceptors
- Carotid bodies
- Aortic bodies (surrounding the aortic arch)
- Bifurcation of the common carotid arteries
o Principal peripheral chemoreceptors
o Sensitive to changes in PO2, PCO2, pH, and arterial perfusion pressure
o Interact with central respiratory centers via the glossopharyngeal nerves
o Reflex increases in alveolar ventilation in response to
- reduction in PO2, arterial perfusion
- Elevations in H+ and PCO2
o Most sensitive to _______(1)
o Receptor activity does not increase until PO2 < _______(2) mmHg

A

Answers:
1. PO2
2. 50

22
Q

Lung Receptors
- Impulses carried centrally by the _______(1) nerve
- Stretch receptors
o Distributed in smooth muscle of airways
o (Hering-Breuer inflation reflex)
- Inhibit inspiration when lung is inflated to excessive volumes
o Deflation reflex
- Shortening of exhalation when lung is deflated
- Normally plays a minor role
- Irritant receptors
o Tracheobronchial mucosa
o React to noxious gases, smoke, dust, and cold gases
o Reflex increase in RR, bronchoconstriction, coughing
- J (juxtacapillary) receptors
o Located in interstitial space within alveolar walls
o Induce dyspnea in response to expansion of interstitial space volume and various chemical mediators following tissue damage
- Other Receptors
o Muscle and joint receptors
- _______(2) muscles and chest wall
- Input particularly important during exercise
- Pathological conditions associated with decreased compliance

A

Answers:
1. vagus
2. pulmonary

23
Q

Effects of Anesthesia
- General anesthesia
o Promotes hypoventilation
- Dual mechanism
o Central depression of the _______(1)
o Depression of external intercostal muscle activity
- Increased anesthetic depth
o Apneic threshold _______(2) and slope of minute ventilation curve _______(3)
o This is partially reversed by surgical stimulation
- The peripheral response to hypoxemia is _______(4) sensitive than the central CO2 response.
- The peripheral response is nearly abolished by even sub-anesthetic doses of most inhalation agents, including N2O, and many IV induction agents.
- Pulmonary Mechanics and Induction of anesthesia
o Additional 15 to 20% reduction in FRC beyond that which occurs in the supine position alone (~_______(5) ml).
o Dorsal (dependent) part of the diaphragm moves cephalad when lying in the supine position.
o Rib cage moves inward due to loss of muscle tone.
o Change in intrathoracic volume secondary to increased blood volume in the lung.
- Changes in chest wall shape
o Decrease lung volume
o Decreased FRC
o Not related to anesthetic depth
o May persist for several hours
- Steep Trendelenburg > 30 degrees
o may reduce FRC even further as intrathoracic blood volume increases
- Airway Resistance
o The bronchodilating properties of inhaled agents tend to overcome increased resistance due to _______(6).
- Pathological factors
o Tongue
o Laryngospasm
o Bronchoconstriction
o Secretions
- Equipment
o Small ETT/connectors
o Malfunction of valves
o Obstruction of breathing circuit

A

Answers:
1. chemoreceptor
2. increases
3. decreases
4. more
5. 400
6. decreased FRC

24
Q

Oxygen
- Carried in the blood in two forms:
o dissolved and combined with Hb
- Henry’s Law (dissolved O2)
o The amount dissolved is proportional to the partial pressure
o For each mmHg of PO2 0.003 ml O2/ 100 ml blood
o Arterial PO2 of 100 mmHg = 0.3 ml O2 / 100 ml blood

Hemoglobin
- Heme:
o Iron-porphyrin compound joined to the protein globin
o Consists of 4 polypeptide chains
o Alpha and beta chains
- Amino acid sequence gives rise to various types of human Hb
o A: normal adult
o F: fetal, which is gradually replaced over the first year of postnatal life
o S: sickle, which has a reduced O2 affinity (shift in O2 dissociation curve to the _______(1))
o Deoxygenated form, which is poorly soluble and crystallizes within the RBC; cell changes from biconcave to sickle shape.

Oxyhemoglobin Dissociation Curve
- The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve describes the non-linear tendency for oxygen to bind to hemoglobin. At an SaO2 of 90% or less, small differences in hemoglobin saturation reflect large changes in PaO2.
- At pressures above 60 mmHg, the standard dissociation curve is relatively flat, which means that the oxygen content of the blood does not change significantly even with large increases in the oxygen partial pressure.
- This can be correlated clinically. When the SaO2 decreases to ______(a) (or 60mmHg pp of O2) the curve becomes very steep.
o You will have a very sudden dramatic _______(2).

Study the graph of O2 Dissociation Curve and Oxyhemoglobin Dissociation Curve

A

Answers:
1. right
a. 90%
2. decrease

25
Q

Oxyhemoglobin Dissociation Curve
- Shift to the right more unloading of O2 at a given PO2 into the tissue capillary
o ↓ O2 affinity of Hb
o ↑ H+ ion concentration
o ↑ PCO2
o ↑ Temperature

  • ↑ Concentration of 2,3-DPG, which is the end product of RBC metabolism (hypoxia, high altitude chronic lung disease); may be depleted in bank blood (impaired unloading).
  • Shift to the left will have the opposite effect

Shifts of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

Factors that cause shift left
- Decreased temperature
- Decreased H+ concentration (increased pH)
- Decreased PCO2
- Decreased concentration of (2,3 DPG) Diphosphoglycerate
- Fetal hemoglobin (hemoglobin F)
- Carboxyhemoglobin
- Methemoglobin
- Anything that _______(1) metabolism

Factors that cause shift right
- Increased temperature
- Increased H+ concentration (decreased pH)
- Increased PCO2
- Increased concentration 2,3 DPG
- Sickle cell
- Anything that _______(2) metabolism

A

Answers:
1. decreases
2. increases

26
Q

Oxygen - Hemoglobin Affinity
- It is common to use the concept of P50 to describe the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
o The P50 is the PO2 at which the hemoglobin becomes 50% saturated with oxygen.
o As the P50 decreases, oxygen affinity increases and visa verse.
o The normal P50 is _______(1) mmHg
o Anything greater than _______(2) referred to as a shift to the right.
o Anything less than _______(3) is referred to as a shift to the left.

Carbon Dioxide
- CO2 is ~ ______(a) x more soluble than O2
- Carried in the blood in 3 forms
o As bicarbonate (~60%)
o In combination with proteins (~30%)
- carbamino compounds (most important is carbaminohemoglobin)
o Dissolved (~10%)
- ______(b) Effect
o deoxygenation of blood increases its ability to carry CO2
o Reduced Hb is less acidic than the oxygenated form
- Proton ______(c)
- Presence of reduced Hb in the peripheral blood (deoxyhemoglobin) helps with the loading of CO2
- Oxygenation in the pulmonary capillary (oxyhemoglobin)assists in the unloading

A

Answers:
1. 26-27
2. 27
3. 26
a. 20
b. Haldane
c. acceptor

27
Q

Oxygen Stores
- O2 consumption ~ ______(a) ml/min with cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min
- During apnea, the patient relies on the O2 remaining in the lungs, dissolved in body fluids and bound to hemoglobin.
- Most important source O2 contained in the lungs at FRC
o O2 content = _______(1) x FIO2
- Room air —
o 0.21 x 2300 ml = ~ 480 ml of O2 in the lungs
o Hypoxemia in ~ 90 seconds
- Increase FIO2 prior to apnea
o FIO2 1.0 x 2300 ml = 2300 ml of O2
o Delays hypoxemia for 4 – 5 minutes

Physiologic changes in respiratory function associated with aging
- ______(b) of alveoli
- ______(c) of the airspaces
- ______(d) in exchange surface area
- Loss of supporting tissue
- Decreased lung recoil leads to an _______(2) in residual volume and FRC.

Pulmonary Function Testing

Central chemoreceptors
- Located in the medulla and brainstem
- Respond to changes in ______(e) concentration.
o CO2 + H2O <-> H+ and HCO3
o Increases in PaCO2 elevate CSF H+ concentrations and activate the chemoreceptors
o Secondary activation of respiratory centers increases alveolar ventilation and decreases PaCO2 to normal levels

Peripheral chemoreceptors
- Located primarily in the carotid bodies but also found in the aortic body
- Respond to reductions in PaO2, arterial perfusion and elevations in H+ concentrations and PaCO2 levels.
- Most sensitive to ______(f), but not until it drops to around 50mmHg
- ______(g) nerve is the afferent pathway to respiratory centers.
o Stimulation causes increases in alveolar ventilation.

A

Answers:
a. 250
1. FRC
b. Dilation
c. Enlargement
d. Decrease
2. increase
e. hydrogen ion (H+)
f. PaO2
g. Glossopharyngeal

28
Q

Physiologic Dead Space:
- The part of the tidal volume not participating in alveolar gas exchange is known as physiologic dead space.
o Composed of:
- Anatomic Deadspace: gases in non-respiratory airways
- Alveolar Deadspace: non-perfused alveoli
o Approximately _______(1) mL/kg or 1 mL/lb

Intrapleural pressure:
- Between the parietal pleura of chest wall and visceral pleura covering the lung
o Usually slightly subambient (______(a)) because lungs recoil inward and chest wall recoils outward
- Inward and outward forces are equal at FRC
o During inspiration: intrapleural pressures become more negative as the chest wall expands
- Intrapulmonary pressure
o Zero at end-expiration; negative at start of inspiration (air enters lungs because intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure).

Lung Volumes
- Tidal Volume (TV). The amount of gas inspired or expired with each breath.
- Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV). Maximum amount of additional air that can be inspired from the end of a normal inspiration.
- Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV). The maximum volume of additional air that can be expired from the end of a normal expiration.
- Closing Volume (CV) denotes the lung volume from the beginning of airway closure to the end of maximum expiration, the residual volume.
- Residual Volume (RV). The volume of air remaining in the lung after a maximal expiration. This is the only lung volume which cannot be measured with a spirometer.

Study Lung Volume Sub Divisions

A

Answers:
1. 2
a. -2 to -3 mmHg

29
Q

Lung Capacities

  1. Lung capacities are subdivisions of total volume that include two or more of the 4 basic lung volumes.
    Two or more volumes represent a _______(1).
  2. Total Lung Capacity (TLC). The volume of air contained in the lungs at the end of a maximal inspiration.
    Called a capacity because it is the sum of the 4 basic lung volumes.
    • TLC = _______(2).
  3. Vital Capacity (VC). The maximum volume of air that can be forcefully expelled from the lungs following a maximal inspiration. Called a capacity because it is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
    • VC = _______(3).
  4. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC). The volume of air remaining in the lung at the end of a normal expiration. Called a capacity because it equals residual volume plus expiratory reserve volume.
    • FRC = _______(4).
  5. Inspiratory Capacity (IC). Maximum volume of air that can be inspired from end expiratory position.
    Called a capacity because it is the sum of tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume. This capacity is of less clinical significance than the other three.
    • IC = _______(5).

Closing Capacity

  1. Closing capacity (CC) is the lung volume at which the small airways in dependent parts (i.e., small airways lacking cartilaginous support) of the lung begin to close.
    • CC is the sum of closing volume and residual volume.
      It is normally well below FRC, but rises steadily with _______(6).
  2. Unlike FRC, closing capacity is unaffected by _______(7).
  3. When closing capacity (CC) exceeds FRC, there will be airway closure even during normal tidal _______(8).
  4. CC ______(a) FRC in a person with normal lungs beyond age 45 when _______(9) and beyond age 65 when _______(10).
  5. As a result, there is airway closure during part of normal tidal breathing resulting in VQ mismatching and decreased arterial PaO2 in _______(11).
A

Answers:
1. capacity
2. RV+TV+IRV+ERV
3. IRV+TV+ERV
4. RV+ERV
5. TV+IRV
6. age
7. posture
8. breathing
a. exceeds
9. supine
10. standing
11. elderly

30
Q

Pulmonary Function Test (PFTs)

  1. FEV1 - forced expiratory volume 1 - the volume of air that is forcefully exhaled in one second.
  2. FVC - forced vital capacity - the volume of air that can be maximally forcefully exhaled
  3. FEV1/FVC - ratio of FEV1 to FVC, expressed as a _______(1)
  4. FEF25 - 75 - forced expiratory flow - the average forced expiratory flow during the mid (25 - 75%) portion of the FVC
  5. PEF - peak expiratory flow rate - the peak flow rate during _______(2)

Normal values:

  1. FVC = _______(3)
  2. FEV1 = _______(4)
  3. Ratio = _______(5)
  4. Normal = you get 80% of the capacity out in _______(6)
A

Answers:
1. %
2. expiration
3. 5L
4. 4L/sec
5. 0.8
6. 1 second

31
Q

Restrictive

  1. FVC: _______(1)
  2. FEV1: _______(2)
  3. FEV1/FVC: _______(3)
  4. FEF 25-75: _______(4)
  5. FRC: _______(5)
  6. TLC: _______(6)
    • Mechanical ventilation is better tolerated with smaller tidal volumes and higher respiratory rates

Obstructive

  1. FVC: _______(7)
  2. FEV1: _______(8)
  3. FEV1/FVC: _______(9)
  4. FEF 25-75: _______(10)
  5. FRC: _______(11)
  6. TLC: _______(12)
    • Mechanical ventilation requires higher volumes and lower rates to allow time for exhalation. Be cautious of barotrauma.

High index of suspicion for markedly impaired pulmonary function

  1. Any chronic disease involving _______(13)
  2. _______(14)
  3. Chest wall or spinal deformities
  4. Morbid obesity
  5. Persistent cough or _______(15)
  6. Neuromuscular diseases
  7. Requirement for one-lung ventilation or lung resection
  8. Thoracic or upper abdominal surgery
  9. Age > _______(16)

Flow Volume Loops

Flow–volume loops were formerly useful in the diagnosis of large airway and extrathoracic airway _______(17) prior to the availability of precise imaging techniques.

Imaging techniques such as MRI give more precise and useful information in the diagnosis of upper airway and extrathoracic obstruction and superseded the use of flow–volume loops for diagnosis of these conditions.

Therefore, it is rare that flow–volume loops are useful for preoperative pulmonary evaluation in the modern era of imaging.

A

Answers:
1. very low
2. very low
3. normal
4. normal
5. very decreased
6. very decreased
7. norm. to slight low
8. normal to low
9. very low
10. very low
11. Normal or increased
12. normal or increased
13. lungs
14. Smokers
15. wheeze
16. 60
17. obstruction

32
Q

Airway obstructions:

  1. Fixed: both inspiration and expiration are affected
  2. Variable:
    • Extrathoracic: problems with _______(1)
    • Intrathoracic: problems with _______(2)

Final points to remember…

  1. Patients who smoke should be advised to stop smoking at least 2 months prior to an elective procedure to decrease the risk of postoperative pulmonary complications (PPC).
  2. The operative site is one of the most important determinations of the risk of PPC.
    • The highest risk is associated with ______(a) cases followed by lower abdominal and intrathoracic operations.
  3. Early _______(3) is the single most important consideration to prevent PPC.
A

Answers:
1. inspiration
2. expiration
a. non-laparoscopic upper abdominal
3. ambulation