Current & Advanced Treatments for Sexually Transmitted Viral Infections Flashcards

1
Q

what do warts most commonly originate from

A

human papilloma virus (HPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does wart treatment focus on

A

removal of wart as opposed to removal of virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the first line treatments of warts

A

imiquimod

podophyllotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does imiquimod work

A

immunoenhancing drug

cytokines secreted by cells of immune system and have effect on other cells (aka interferons, interleukins, TNF-a)

imiquimod switches on cytokines aka innate immune system to clear wart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

imiquimod mechanism of action

A

binds to and activates toll-like receptors (TLR) 7 and 8

activates intracellular signalling pathways through NF-kB

NF-kB translocates to nucleus where it activates gene transcription

causes production of pro-inflammatory cytokines (e.g. TNF-alpha)

pro inflammatory proteins secreted from cell, then switch on immune cells e.g T cells

triggers immune response, wart cells removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is podophyllotoxin for warts administered

A

topically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

podophyllotoxin mechanism of action

A

internalises into wart cells

binds to microtubules, preventing mitotic division

inhibits topoisomerase 2

cells cannot undergo cell division, triggers apoptosis, wart regresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

other than warts, what does HPV cause

A

cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the high risk HPVs (2)

A

HPV 16
HPV 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the main types of cancer associated with HPV infection

A

Cervical cancer is the main cancer associated with HPV infection, but can also cause vaginal, vulval, penile, anal, mouth and throat cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what % of all cervical cancers are attributed to HPV 16

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what % of all cervical cancers are attributed to HPV 18

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what occurs when the body fails to clear the infection - causing precancerous lesions to develop

A

virus replicates in epithelial cells

can damage DNA

precancerous lesions can develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do the precancerous lesions undergo

A

many regress alone

but may undergo further transformation and become a cancerous tumour if infection persists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what vaccine is used by the NHS to protect against HPV 6, 11, 16, 18

A

gardasil (newer gardasil 9 protects against additional 5 HPV strains) - broader scope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mechanism of action of gardasil

A

contains purified L1 protein ( major capsid protein ) from each HPV strain

L1 proteins self assemble into HPV virus like particles (VLPs) which produce antibodies

reduces risk of viral infection developing into cancers

preventative/ inert vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the L1 protein

A

the major capsid protein, come together to form capsomere and then a pentamere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when was the HPV vaccine introduced

A

2008

initially for 16-21 aged females which have seen reduction in HPV by 86%

then in 2019, administering to males and females aged 12 and above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

4 examples of the 9 herpes virus types

A

herpes simplex virus 1 - HSV-1

herpes simplex virus 2 - HSV-2

varicella-zoster virus

epstein-barr virus (mononucleosis virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does herpes simplex-1 HSV-1 tend to cause

A

cold sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does herpes simplex-1 HSV-1 and HSV-2 tend to cause

A

genital herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the symptoms of herpes (4)

A

small blisters that burst to leave red open sores around gential, anus, thighs, buttocks

tingling, burning, itching around genitals

pain during urination

vaginal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

first like treatment of herpes

A

aciclovir (prodrug)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mechanism of action of aciclovir

A

ACV converted to ACV-monophosphate (ACV-MP)

via HSV-1 thymidine kinase

HSV-1 TK enzyme only expressed in infected cells aka virus cells - rate dependent step, relies on this virus

grants specificity to drug and reduces off-target side effects

ACV-MP undergoes further phosphorylation to ACV-disphosphate (ACV-DP)

via cellular guanylate kinase aka humans take over

ACV-DP converted to ACV-triphosphate (ACV-TP)

via disphosphate kinase

enzymes expressed by cells, not dependent on viral enzymes

ACV-TP misincorporated into viral DNA aka means to target guanine residue but oopsies

ACV-TP misrecognised by DNA polymerase as deoxyguanosine triphosphate (dGTP) - guanine precursor

ACV-TP lacks 3’ hydroxyl group of dGTP so prevents attachment of additional nucleosides into DNA chain

terminates growing viral DNA chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what does varicella-zoster virus cause

A

(chickenpox/ shingles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does epstein-barr virus cause

A

(mononucleosis virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when is oral aciclovir administered

A

shingles for systemic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

aciclovir mechanisms of resistance (3)

A

reduced or absent HSV-1 thymidine kinase (no monophosphorylation)

altered thymidine kinase activity resulting in decreased aciclovir phosphorylation

altered viral DNA polymerase with dec affinity for aciclovir triphosphate (no more misincorporation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) destroy human immune system gradually

A

Attacks a subtype of white blood cell called CD4 cells which protect the body from infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

mechanism of HIV

A

uses cell machinery of CD4 to make copies of itself and spread throughout body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

HIV life cycle - what are the 7 stages

A

1 - binding (HIV attaches to surface of CD4 cell)

2 - fusion (HIV can enter cells)

3 - reverse transcription (virus converts RNA to DNA (dsDNA) and degrades remaining viral RNA)

4 - integration (HIV DNA integrates with cells DNA and is referred to as proviral DNA)

5 -replication (virus uses cell machinery to make copies of HIV proteins and RNA)

6 - assembly (new HIV protein and RNA assemble into immature virus)

7 - budding (immature HIV pushes itself out of cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the two main methods of HIV prevention

A

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what medicines are involved in Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)

A

Emtricitabine & Tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what medicines are involved in Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

A

Emtricitabine, Tenofovir & Raltegravir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is PrEP (Pre-exposure prophylaxis)

A

commonly given as the combination therapy emtrictabine and tenofovir to HIV-negative patients

36
Q

how often is PrEP (Pre-exposure prophylaxis) administered

37
Q

how long for is PEP (Post-exposure prophylaxis) administered

A

28 day course after patient may have come into contact with HIV virus

38
Q

what is Emtricitabine (FTC)

A

Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

works in a mechanism similar to aciclovir

does not have an effect on already infected cells

39
Q

what does emitricitabine undergo phosphorylation to form

A

emtricitabine triphosphate (FTC-TP)

40
Q

emtricitabine mechanism of action

A

phosphorylation forming emtricitabine triphosphate (FTC-TP)

FTC-TP misrecognised by reverse transcriptase enzyme (which converts viral RNA to DNA)

misincorporated into DNA instead of cytosine nucleotides

FTC-TP lacks a 3’ hydroxyl group and so this stops the attachment of additional nucleosides into the chain preventing viral replications

terminates chain

41
Q

what is Tenofovir

A

also a reverse transcriptase inhibitor

similar to emticitabine but incorporated instead of adenine

does not have an effect on already infected cells

has a phosphate group so only requires disphosphorylation to become active aka 2 rounds

42
Q

Raltegravir mechanism of action

A

when reverse transcriptase enzymes converts viral RNA to DNA, virus tries to integrate this with host genome

viral integrase enzymes cut host genome

integrase incorporates HIV DNA into host genome, allowing production of new viral proteins

Raltegravir simply acts to inhibit the viral Integrase enzymes

43
Q

current phase 3 trials for HIV treatment

A

into long-acting antiretroviral therapies (LA-ART) with a single-dose every one to three months

One new LA-ART is cabotegravir, a highly potent integrase inhibitor, with a T1/2 of up to 54 days

44
Q

what is cabotegravir

A

long-acting antiretroviral therapy (LA-ART)

highly potent integrase inhibitor

T1/2 of up to 54 days

given as a nanosuspension injection

45
Q

what is a nanosuspension injection

A

A suspension of drugs within the nanoparticle size range which are normally poorly soluble in water

46
Q

what is Cabotegravir being trialled in combination with nanosuspension with

A

rilpivirine, a long-acting reverse transcriptase inhibitor

47
Q

what is rilpivirine

A

a long-acting reverse transcriptase inhibitor

48
Q

what is abacavir

A

used in combination with other antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection

reverse transcriptase inhibitor and so similar to emtricitabine and tenofovir

hypersensitivity reactions have been observed in 5-8% of abacavir-treated patients

49
Q

what are the symptoms of a hypersenstivity reaction (5)

A

Skin rash, fever, malaise, gastrointestinal symptoms and respiratory symptoms

50
Q

in hypersensitivity reactions, what does severe skin rash result in (3)

A

systemic lupus erthematosus
stevens-johnson syndrome
toxic epidermal necrolysis

51
Q

what is Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B*5701

A

an allele more common in those who are suspected to have a hypersensitivity reaction to abacavir compared to those who dont

52
Q

what allele is more common in those who are suspected to have a hypersensitivity reaction to abacavir compared to those who dont

A

Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B*5701

53
Q

what is HLA 3

A

gene complex encoding major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in humans

cell surface proteins

responsible for regulation of immune system

54
Q

what is the MHC major histocompatibility compex

A

Depending on the specific MHC, it may present antigens to the immune system

allows immune cells e.g. CD4 to hunt for and destroy these antigens

55
Q

how is HLA-B*5701 identified in patients

A

before treatment or if restarting treatment and HLA-B*5701 status not known

by taking a blood or saliva sample, PCR amplifying the gene and sequencing the HLA-B gene

56
Q

what is EBT-101

A

CRISPR-based therapeutic candidate in development as a potential functional cure for chronic HIV

57
Q

what is CRISPR (clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats)

A

is based on a system from bacteria which is used to protect them from viral infection

58
Q

EBT-101 mechanism of action

A

bacteria detects viral DNA

produces two short RNA strands called guide RNA

gRNA contains sequence that matches invading virus

two RNA strands then form complex with Cas9

nuclease, enzyme that cuts DNA

Cas9 cuts invading virus DNA and disables virus from replicating

59
Q

what is Cas9

60
Q

what is a nuclease

A

enzyme which cuts DNA

61
Q

how is EBT-101 administered

A

a one-time dose using an adeno-associated virus (AAV)

AAV delivers CRISPR-Cas9 and two gRNAs

targets 3 sites in HIV genome

excises large portions of HIV genome

removes HIV proviral DNA

62
Q

how many subtypes of HPV exist

63
Q

when does aciclovir work

A

before forming scab

64
Q

how many worldwide live with HIV/AIDS

A

33 million

65
Q

genital warts are also known as ___ ____

A

condylomata acuminata (CA)

66
Q

therapy for genital warts

A

pt specific, no definitive first line

67
Q

imiquimod is available as a cream in ___% and ___%

68
Q

imiquimod cream side effects include

A

ulceration, muscle aches

69
Q

imiquimod cream wart clearance rate at 5%

70
Q

interferons

A

last resort therapy as needs local anaesthesia and is expensive

systemic wart treatment, interferes with viral replication

recent development

injected, conflicting studies on effectiveness

71
Q

phodophyllotoxin is administered as a

A

cream/ gel/ solution

72
Q

phodophyllotoxin works within ____ days

A

3-5 post admin

73
Q

side effects of phodophyllotoxin

A

inflammation, erosion, itching

74
Q

gardasil vaccine is admin as

A

intramuscular injection

3 doses

75
Q

gardasil vaccine is ___% effective

A

99

no long term evidence of waning immunity over time

76
Q

cervarix vaccine

A

hpv 16,18 - responsible for 70% of cervical cancers

stimulates immune response as contains VLP virus like particles of HPV that mimic outer shell of virus, but do not contain viral DNA

body creates antiboidies that protect against VLPs, and if needed, actual HPV as immunity is long term built

3 injection dose

high efficacy esp, generally no side effects

77
Q

LA-ART - ___ in HIV-linked mortality rates

A

sig. reduction

78
Q

rilpivirine is administered at

A

oral dose of 25mg once daily

79
Q

rilpivirine animal studies

A

in rats and dogs, 100% bioavailability

80
Q

carbotegravir is a

A

HIV-1 integrase strand transfer inhibitor

81
Q

carbotegravir is administered at

A

200 mg/ml PrEP

82
Q

ibalizumab

A

in development trial phase 2

intravenous infusion every 2-4 weeks

83
Q

atazanivir

A

in pre clinical rodent/ mammal testing stage

protease inhibitor

84
Q

dapivirine PrEP study - antiretroviral therapy

A

vaginal ring, releases antiretroviral drug dapivirine over time to prevent HIV- long acting microbicide

well tolerated with a favourable safety profile and reduced HIV-1 incidence by 31% vs placebo in one study

mechanism:
dapivirine is an NNRTI non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, inhibits reverse transcriptase stage in HIV cycle

local protection via ring

designed to be replaced monthly

in clinical trials but approved for use in some countries - not UK

85
Q

shit to do with viral that u gots to treat (4)

A

HPV - wart treatment also HPV can cause cancer

Herpes - HSV- 1 , HSV-2 (both cause gential herpes), epstein barr, varicella-zoster

we dont care abt treating it but abacavir + HLAB701 allele - hypersensitivity reactions whihc can worsen to systemic lupus erthematosus, stevens-johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis

HIV

86
Q

all the old/ current meds (9)

A

HPV: imiquimod, podophyllotoxin (warts) gardasil vaccine

Herpes: aciclovir

HIV: Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) - Emtricitabine & Tenofovir

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) - Emtricitabine, Tenofovir & Raltegravir

87
Q

new/ developing shit - 6

A

HPV: cervarix vaccine

HIV: atazanivir, LA-ART carbotegravir with aciclovir or raltegravir, dapivirine, new but used EBT-101

Herpes: potentially EBT 101, charcoal drug delivery topical, vaccines not yet successful