cumulative quizzes and cases Flashcards
our client, Alice, owns the following four different diversified mutual funds:
Growth fund $45,000
Emerging market fund$14,000
Government bond fund $50,000
Corporate bond fund$35,000
Alice is concerned about overall portfolio risk. She is concerned about standard deviation and other factors. Due to a recent inheritance, she has additional money to invest. To which among her currently held mutual funds do you suggest she add money?
The emerging market fund currently represents is the smallest percentage of the portfolio allocation and likely has the lowest correlation coefficient relative to the other funds. Reducing correlation coefficient would reduce the portfolio’s overall risk. The correlation coefficient to be highly important for the exam. (Somewhat subjective.)
When, if ever, can a corporation that issues qualified stock options (ISOs) receive a tax deduction for the ISOs?
A.Never
B. Always
C. Yes, if the ISO is disqualified
D. Yes, if the ISO is qualified
E. Yes, if no more than $100,000 worth of ISO stock is granted that vests in a specific year
Yes, if the ISO is disqualified
The correct answer is C.
If the stock that was acquired under the option (right to buy) is sold before the two year /one year holding period, the excess of the fair market value of the shares at the time of exercise over the exercise price is treated as compensation to the option holder. That creates a corresponding deduction for the issuing corporation
ou are a CFP ® certificant. Your client, Sam Watson is confused by the menu of “K plan” alternatives [401(k) type plans] offered by his employer, Fleopatra Medicated Dog Shampoos, Inc. Which of the following can you accurately share with Sam about differences between these plans?
I. For traditional and safe harbor 401(k) plans, elective deferral contributions are limited to $20,500 in 2022; for SIMPLE 401(k) arrangement, the maximum elective deferral is $14,000.
II. Traditional 401(k) plans must pass both the ADP and ACP tests; Alternatively, SIMPLE or safe harbor 401(k) plans require contributions at a level that is deemed to satisfy the nondiscrimination requirement.
III. In Traditional 401(k) plans the employer has the option of not providing matching contributions; safe harbor 401(k) plans are generally required to provide a matching contribution that is equivalent to 4% of participant compensation; SIMPLE 401(k) plans can satisfy requirements with a 3% match.
IV. Traditional 401(k) plans can permit a vesting schedule for matching contributions; SIMPLE and safe harbor plans must provide 100 % immediately.
All the statements are true. Where does the 4% safe harbor come from? The statutory contribution using a match is $1/$1 on the first 3% employee deferral and $.50/$1 on the next 2% employee deferral 3% + 1/2 of 2% is 4%. Please reference the prestudy for information. It’s a picky question - answer.
Following the death of the grantor (trustmaker) which of the following strategies should be the most effective to reduce GSTT?
A. An irrevocable trust
B. A revocable trust
C. A reverse QTIP
D. A dynasty trust
C
The decedent can still use the GSTT exemption when the reverse QTIP is elected by the executor (after death). The dynasty trust is generally implemented before death.
The CFP Board urges certificants to avoid the practice of borrowing from or lending to clients. Which of the following factors would generally be considered by the Board of Professional Review?
I. Whether the CFP® certificant is a financial planning practitioner
II. Whether the client is a family member of the planner or a financial institution
III. Whether the terms and conditions of the loan are reasonable and fair to the client
IV. Whether the client lent from his/her own account
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. II, III
D. III, IV
E. All of the above
B. II, III, IV
Borrowing and lending between the planner and clients who are not family members can compromise the financial planning relationship.
Todd wants to defer the distributions from the money purchase plan in which he participates for as long as possible. He works for RJ, Inc. RJ wants him to continue working for it beyond the plan’s stated retirement age 65. If he continues to work beyond 72 and contribute to the plan, what is the latest time when he can take his first distribution and not be penalized?
A. When he attains age 72
B. By April 1st of the year after he turns 72
C. When he retires from his job with RJ, Inc.
D. By April 1st of the year following the year when he retires from his job with RJ, Inc.
D. By April 1st of the year following the year when he retires from his job with RJ, Inc.
Todd is a rank-and file-participant in the money purchase plan and clearly not a 5% owner. Thus, he may delay his required beginning date (RBD) from the plan until April 1 of the year following the year when he retires from service with this employer.
When you met with John and Jodi Adams for your regular monitoring meeting, they provided you with information about new developments in their lives. After you congratulate them they ask you to help them prioritize the reasons for making changes to the original financial plan that you wrote for them. How would you rank the changes listed below in order of importance from highest to lowest?
- They inherited money from Jody’s mother
- Jody is expecting a second child in 2 months
- John just received new job promotion which entails a move to an adjacent state (50 miles away).
- The adjacent state has a high state income tax
They are already in order :)
Identify the most important and the least important reasons to modify the original plan. The Adams’s will need a plan for the inherited money. The state level income tax differential is likely to be small. If the Adams’s itemize, it may produce an itemized deduction. Because the new baby is a second child, they have already considered the financial planning that accompanies parenting. (In ranking questions, identifying the “most” and “least” generally leads you to the answer: The middle choices are often too similar to differentiate.
John Jefferson has a current net worth of $10 million. When John’s wife died 5 years ago, on her death bed, she made John promise that he would cater to their son, John Jr.’s wants and needs under all circumstances. John is dismayed that Junior never made it past his sophomore year of college ultimately flunking out. Junior has not been able to keep a job. Now, at age 30, Junior has decided at to go back to that same college to complete his degree. Under its liberalized admissions policy, the school has agreed to his re-enrollment. At this point in time, which among the strategies below would you recommend that John Sr. implement for Junior’s education costs?
John Jefferson Sr. can l pay the full tuition (exempt gift) for Junior as long as the check is made out to the school. He may also gift $16,000 for other college expenses. John made a promise. There is not enough time to make the tax deferral associated with the 529 plan meaningful. The Coverdell ESA requires distribution when the beneficiary attains age 30 and Junior is already that age. A 2503(b) trust only distributes income, it may not be enough to cover Junior’s college costs.
Dennis Hart explains to you that he wants a reasonable level of income but also some long-term growth. If you believe that he can address both of his investment objectives, which of the following securities would you suggest to Dennis?
A. Convertible bonds
B. Preferred stocks
C. Blue chip stocks
D. Corporate commercial paper
A. Convertible bonds
Most logical investors will accept a lower interest rate in exchange for the potential price appreciation from converting the bond if the prices of the issuers’ stocks rise above the bond’s conversion price. Preferred stock is regarded as a fixed income investment with little growth potential. Many blue-chip stocks distribute small dividends and they can be skipped in a profit-less year.
Smokestack Inc. voluntarily terminated its defined benefit plan. Your client, Homer Connors, age 61, has been a long-time employee of Smokestack, Inc. and a participant in this pension. The “termination” has made Homer quite anxious. What might you tell Homer that may make him feel less anxious?
A. The 10% penalty (59½ year rule) will not apply to distributions.
B. The account balance must be rolled over into an IRA account.
C. Homer is 100% vested.
D. The plan is fully funded. There is no need to worry.
The correct answer is C.
The 10% penalty will not be imposed on Homer because he is over age 59½ and is a possible answer. The plan is fully funded at normal retirement age, not necessarily at a premature termination. Homer would get the account balance that is attributable to him and be fully vested.
Mrs. Smith, age 80, is comparing different investment portfolios. The thought of losing principal makes her very uncomfortable. While she would appreciate some income from her investments, that is a secondary concern. After listening to her carefully, which of the following portfolios would you suggest?
A. 10% money market mutual funds, 10% blue chip common stocks, 80% long-term bonds
B. 50% bank issued CDs, 50% long-term investment grade corporate bonds
C. 10% money market mutual funds, 10% blue chip common stocks, 80% investment grade short-term bonds
D. 10% money market mutual funds, 40% bank issued CDs, 50% investment grade long-term bonds
C. 10% money market mutual funds, 10% blue chip common stocks, 80% investment grade short-term bonds
Due to their high durations, the long-term bonds carry significant principal risk if interest rates rise. The short-term bonds (80%) along with only 10% in quality common stock seems reasonable given her fear of principal loss and desire for income.
Bill, a CPA, charges his clients a fee when he prepares their income tax returns. If the client is in a high tax bracket, he advises them to invest in municipal bonds and tax deferred annuities. Which of the following should Bill do?
A. Register as an investment advisor
B. Obtain a securities license (series 7)
C. Do both A and B
D. Continue to make investment suggestions when appropriate.
D. Continue to make investment suggestions when appropriate.
The advice is incidental to the CPA’s occupation. He isn’t selling any products (prepares taxes)
Te following irrevocable trusts are producing annual income. From which of the trusts below will the income not be taxable to the grantor?
A. Trust income is retained to discharge a legal obligation of the grantor.
B. Trust income is retained then used to pay premiums on life insurance on the life of the grantor.
C. Trust income is distributed to the grantor for 5 years, and then distributed to another trust beneficiary.
D. Trust income is distributed to the grantor until death, and then distributed to the other trust beneficiary(s).
E. Trust income is accumulated for later distribution to the other trust beneficiary(s).
E. Trust income is accumulated for later distribution to the other trust beneficiary(s).
The income will be taxed to the trust. The grantor has no beneficial enjoyment. The other answers violate the grantor trust rules that make the income taxable to the grantor.
CFP® certificant offers advice on specific mutual funds and charges a fee for this advice. Which of the following is true?
A. The CFP® certificant can distribute a business card printed with both CFP® and RIA following her name.
B. If the CFP® certificant is securities licensed (Series 7), the licensee will not have to register as a registered investment adviser.
C. If the CFP® certificant is an Investment Adviser Representative, then the licensee will not have to register individually.
D. The CFP® certificant will not have to complete additional registrations.
C. If the CFP® certificant is an Investment Adviser Representative, then the licensee will not have to register individually.
The CFP ®certificant will have to register individually as an adviser or as an Investment Adviser Associate through an advisory firm.
Harry and Pat Nelson (highest tax bracket, married, filing jointly) have a daughter, Pam age 12. As of today they have failed to save for Pam to attend a 4-year university. Under the circumstances, which of the following investments makes the most sense and why?
A.
A series of taxable zero coupon bonds owned by Pam (UTMA account) because they can provide the right amount of money when it will be needed and would be taxed at Pam’s tax rate
B. A S&P 500 Index fund owned by Pam (UTMA account) because it generally provides the highest inflation-adjusted return and is taxed at long-term capital gains rates
C. A series of laddered CDs owned by Harry and Pat because they can provide appropriate funds at correct times and have virtually no principal risk.
D. A single premium variable life insurance policy on Pam’s life because growth is tax-deferred and Pam can remove funds as needed for college through policy loans.
B. A S&P 500 Index fund owned by Pam (UTMA account) because it generally provides the highest inflation-adjusted return and is taxed at long-term capital gains rates
Consider the relatively short time horizon. The time horizon for this question could be 6-10 years. Also consider the advantage to paying low taxes. The S&P 500 index fund will be tax efficient and probably grow. Yes, kiddie tax could apply, but the ultimate tax rate would be a maximum of 20% (dividends and capital gains) rather than as ordinary income.
Answer A is wrong because the zero coupon bonds produce phantom income. You may have picked A as an answer. NOTE: I think that if the time horizon to college was 4 years, then A or C could have worked. This is the best answer and somewhat subjective.
Answer C is wrong because the CD earnings will be taxed at parents rates rather than Pam’s over $2,200.
Answer D is wrong because distributions will be taxable (MEC) and subject to a 10% penalty.
2:1 stock split
twice as many shares
Sally donates several bags of old clothes to the Salvation Army. Which statement below best reflects the documentation that Sally would need in order to claim a charitable income tax deduction?
A. Deduction of up to $250 does not require a receipt.
B. Deduction of $250 but less than $1,000 must be documented.
C. The deduction is the lesser of fair market value or the donor’s basis (substantiated).
D. The deduction is limited to basis (unsubstantiated).
C. The deduction is the lesser of fair market value or the donor’s basis (substantiated).
For charitable gifts of less than $250, a dated receipt is proof for purposes of an income tax deduction. The receipt should c include a description of the property. A written receipt would list the items donated with a corresponding value. Sally should keep records showing the fair market value and her cost basis. For charitable gifts exceeding $250 Sally must substantiate the deduction by written acknowledgement from the charity. Cash donations up to $300 single/$600 joint do not have to be documented for 2021 if you take the standard deduction.
IRA and AGI
deductible, but look at income phase out
Paul Harding, CFP® has been traveling often to see his elderly mother whose health is failing. With each trip, he is not sure how long he will be away. He recently completed writing a plan for Mr. and Mrs. Walters, who are new clients. The Walters are very eager to get their plan underway and call often for a presentation/recommendation appointment. After briefing an intern on the plan he wrote for the Walters, Harding tells the intern to set up an appointment with the Walters and tells the intern to present the plan. In this situation, which action applies to Harding?
A. Harding violated the Duty of Confidentiality under the CFP® Code of Ethics.
B. Harding violated the Duty of Professionalism under the CFP® Code of Ethics.
C. Harding violated the Duty to comply with the law under the CFP® Code of Ethics.
D. Harding Adhered to the CFP ®Code of Ethics.
B. Harding violated the Duty of Professionalism under the CFP® Code of Ethics.
Allowing an intern to present a plan to clients without supervision clearly violates the Duty of Professionalism. Sharing information within a firm generally does not violate the Confidentiality Principle if it is necessary for a business reason and all parties understand that client confidentiality is still honored beyond that the firm. For example, a planner assigning an assistant to enter client data into financial planning software would not violate confidentiality.
If a taxpayer is subject to AMT, which of the following could reduce the AMT payable?
I. Exercise nonqualified stock options
II. Take short-term capital gains
III. Delay until next year the payment of a property tax bill
IV. Exercise and sell an ISO in the year of exercise
all
Increasing taxable income (Answers I and II) for regular tax purposes until it reduces or eliminates AMT exposure. Delaying certain itemized deductions such as medical expenses, charitable gifts and local property tax creates more regular income. An ISO exercise adds to AMT income, but that addition is nullified by a disqualifying disposition such as a sale in the year of exercise).
odd is the CFO for a 20 person insurance company, XYZ Inc. Due to two employees who had to go out on medical leave, XYZ Inc. is considering disability benefits. XYZ, Inc. received two proposals from a disability insurance carrier. The first is that each employee will have an individual policy with a maximum benefit of 50% of salary capping at or $5,000 per month. The second is a group policy. The insurance company provided an explanation of the difference to the employees. Because the individual policies have more liberal definitions of total disability and base premiums on the age of the insured, XYZ management has indicated that there is a maximum premium they will pay per month. Todd’s illustration indicates he would have to pay about 30% of the premium for the individual policy. How would you analyze his situation and help him make a recommendation for XYZ?
I. Under the individual plan if he was disabled, 30% of the benefits would be tax-free. Under the group, all the benefits would be taxable. Thus, he should elect an individual plan.
II. Under the group insurance, XYZ would pay the entire premium. Although the benefits would be taxable, he has a low probability of being disabled. He should choose the group plan.
III. Under the individual plan he would get a more liberal definition of total disability. This is the most important consideration when buying a disability policy. He should elect an individual plan.
IV. The group plan would entail simpler underwriting. The individual plan would subject Todd to financial and medical underwriting. He should elect the group plan.
I, III
Although the premium for the individual policy would come from Todd’s pocket, the individual policy would provide a more generous definition of total disability and produce partially tax-free benefits.
Brad and Gloria Prior are married. Brad, age 71, and Gloria, age 69, have retired on his pension of $48,000 per year and their Social Security retirement payments. Brad is an adjunct instructor at the local community college and is paid $10,000 per year. How much can the Priors contribute to Roth IRAs in the current year?
A. $ -0-
B. $5,500
C. $6,500
D. $10,000
E. $13,000
D. $10,000
Dr. McGillicutty, a 50-year-old divorced dentist, has incorporated his practice as a personal service corporation. He is interested in increasing employee retention. He has approached you with the following for the new tax year. Dr. McGillicutty’s corporation currently provides a 401(k) plan. The practice only matches $.50 on a dollar of elective deferral up to 3% of eligible compensation. As a result of this formula and employee turnover, the doctor has been limited in the amount he can contribute as a key employee. If he elects to adopt a pension plan in lieu of the 401 (k), which of the statements is true regarding his benefits?
A. He will be able to contribute 25% of his salary if he elects a money purchase plan.
B. He will be able to deposit $230,000 (2021) if he elects a defined benefit pension plan.
C. The money purchase and defined benefit plan will be covered by the PBGC.
D. If he elects a defined benefit plan and becomes concerned about guaranteeing benefits, the practice could later switch to a cash balance plan.
E. Money purchase and profit-sharing plans are subject to the minimum funding standards.
D. If he elects a defined benefit plan and becomes concerned about guaranteeing benefits, the practice could later switch to a cash balance plan.
If the doctor adopts a defined benefit plan then has concerns about guaranteed benefits, the practice can switch to a cash balance plan. Profit sharing (401k) plans are not subject to the minimum funding standard. Money purchase has a contribution limit of $61,000 (2022). Without his salary being given this statement, this statement could be false. In answer B, the statement uses the word deposit rather than benefit. $245,000 is the maximum benefit (2022).
George Hallas owns 80% and his daughter, Georgina 20% of Hallas, Inc. (a corporation). Hallas, Inc. grosses approximately $20 million in a typical year. George and his daughter also own a general partnership worth $5 million. George owns a $3 million life insurance policy outright under which he is the named insured. He wants to remove the life insurance policy from his estate. What do you recommend?
A. Sell the policy to the corporation for buy-sell purposes.
B. Sell the policy to the partnership for buy-sell purposes.
C. Transfer the policy to the partnership for buy-sell purposes.
D. Gift the policy to his daughter.
D. Gift the policy to his daughter.
If the corporation owns the policy, the proceeds may be considered in valuing the decedent’s interest for federal estate tax purposes unless there is valid agreement fixing the price that would reflect an arms-length sale to an unrelated party (questionable because the buyer and seller are daughter and father, respectively. Answers B and C create a similar problem. When George dies the partnership dissolves. The ownership of the policy after that point would be uncertain and possibly flow through to George’s estate.