Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Endocrinology > Culture Generale > Flashcards

Culture Generale Flashcards

1
Q

What is used to reverse narcotics

A

Naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is used to reverse benzodiazepines

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the traetment of malignant hyperthermia

A

IV dantrolene, cooling body, discontinuation of anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the side effect of spinal anesthesia

A

Urinary retention

Hypotension (neurogenic shock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Triad of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Confusion
Ophtalmoplegia
Ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What treatment provides protection from Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Rally pack: thiamine, folate, magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What treatment provides protection from oral/esophagal fungal infection during IV antibiotic treatment

A

PO Nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What measures provide protection from postoperative atelectasis/pneumonia

A

Incentive spirometry, coughing, smoking cessation, ambulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the classic W’s of postoperative fever

A 
Wind: atelectasis
Water: UTI
Wound: wound infection
Walking: DVT/ trombophlebitis
Wonder drug: drug fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What isFitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

Right upper quadrant pain from gonococcal perihepatitis in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the signs of tetanus

A

Lockjaw, muscle spasm, laryngospasm, convulsions, respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis can be caused by any antibiotic, but especially

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins and clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis

A

PO Metronidazole or PO vancomycin, discontinuation of causative agent. Never give antiperistaltics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the acronym for treatment options for anaphylactic shock

A

BASE

Benadryl - Aminophylline - Steroids - Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of neurogenic

A

Hypotension and bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment of neurogenic shock

A

IV Fluids (vasopressors reserved for hypotension refractory to fluid ressucitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of patient does not mount a normal tachycardiac response to hypovolemic shock

A

Patient on B-Blockers, spinal shock, endurance athlete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Elevated a- fetoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common site of metastasis of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the name of the periumbilical bruit heard with caput medusae

A

Cruveilhier-Baumgarten bruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common site of AAA

A

Infrarenal (95%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Classic triad of rupture AAA

A

1- Abdominal pain
2- Pulsatile abdominal mass
3- Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the mean normal abdominal aortic diameter

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the signs of colonic ischemia

A

Heme positive stool
Or bright red blood per rectum (BRBPR)
Diarrhea
Abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is anterior spinal syndrome

A 
Classically
- Paraplegia
- Loss of bladder/bowel control
- Loss of pain / temperature sensation below level
   of involvement
- Sparing of proprioception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which artery is involved in anterior spinal cord syndrome?

A

Artery of Adamkiewicz - supply the anterior spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the most common bacteria involved in aortic graft infection

A 
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus epidermidis (late)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is a graft infection with an aortoenteric fistula is treated?

A

Perform an extra anatomic bypass with resection of the graft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which renal vein is longer

A

Left

30
Q

Which vein crosses the neck of the AAA proximally

A

Renal vein (left)

31
Q

What part of the small bowel crosses in front of the AAA

A

Duodenum

32
Q

What is the risk factor for splenic artery aneurysm rupture

A

Pregnancy

33
Q

Most common esophagal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is

A

Type C : proximal esophageal atresia with

distal TE fistula

34
Q

How to remember the position of the Bochdalek hernia

A

Boch Da Lek = back to the left

35
Q

What is the common inguinal hernia in children

A

Indirect

36
Q

What is the Hesselbach’s triangle

A

Triangle form by :
Epigastric vessels
Inguinal ligament
Lateral border of the rectus sheath

37
Q

What side is affected more by inguinal hernia

A

Right

38
Q

From what abdominal muscle layer is the inguinal ligament derived

A

External oblique

39
Q

How is the diagnosis of duodenal atresia made?

A

Plain abdominal film revealing a “double bubble”, ith one air bubble in the stomach and the other in the duodenum

40
Q

Hirschprung’s disease is also know as

A

Aganglionic megacolon

41
Q

What is the classic history of aganglionic megacolon?

A

Failure to pass meconium in the first 24hrs of life

42
Q

What organ is often found protuding from an omphalocele, but is almost never found with a gastroschisis

A

The liver

43
Q

What is the common bacterial cause of mesenteric lymphadenitis

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

44
Q

What is the most common site of intussusception?

A

Terminal ileum involving ileocaecal valve amd extending into ascending colon

45
Q

What is the most common cause of intussusception?

A

Hypertrophic Peyer’s patches, which act as a lead point; many patient have prior viral illness

46
Q

What is the traetment of intussusception

A

Air or barium enema

47
Q

What condition can mask abdominal pain

A

Steroids, diabetes, paraplegia

48
Q

What is the unique differential diagnosis for the patient with AIDS and abdominal pain

A 
In addition to allcommon abdominal conditions:
CMV (most common)
Kaposi's sarcoma
Lymphoma
TB
MAI (Mycobacterium avium intracellulare)
49
Q

Classically, what endocrine problem can cause abdominal pain

A

Addisonian crisis

DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis)

50
Q

Sliding hernia

A

Hernia sac partially formed by the wall of a viscus ( bladder/cecum )

51
Q

Littre’s hernia

A

Hernia involving a Meckel diverticulum

52
Q

Hesselbach’s hernia

A

Hernia under inguinal ligament lateral to femoral vessels

53
Q

Amyand’s hernia

A

Hernia sac containing a ruptured appendix

54
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for a mass in a healed C - section incision

A

Hernia

Endometrioma

55
Q

What is the first identifiable subcutaneous named layer

A

Scarpa’s fascia

56
Q

Which nerve travel in spermatic cord

A

Ilioinguinal nerve

57
Q

What type of hernia goes trough Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

Direct hernia due to a weak abdominal floor

58
Q

What factors are associated with femoral hernia

A

Pregnancy, women, exertion

59
Q

What is “Flail Chest” ?

A

Two separate fractures in three or more consecutive ribs

60
Q

What is the major cause of respiratory compromise with flail chest

A

Underlying pulmonary contusion

61
Q

Beck’s triad

A

Hypotension
Muffled heart sound
JVD

62
Q

Kussmaul’s sign

A

JVD with inspiration

63
Q

How is gastric decompression achieved with a maxillofacial fracture

A

Place an Oral Gastric tube, not a NG tube

64
Q

What are the goals during assess,ent of the airway

A

Securing the airway and protecting the spinal cord

65
Q

What are the life-threatening conditions that must be diagnosed and treat during the breathing step

A

Tension pneumothorax
Open pneumothorax
Massive hemothorax

66
Q

What are typical sign of basilar skull fractures

A

Raccoon eyes, Battle’s sign, clear otorrhea or rhinorrhea, hemotympanum

67
Q

What is the best way to diagnose or rule out artery injury

A

CT angiogram

68
Q

What is the brief ATLS history

A 
AMPLE history:
Allergies
Medication
PMH
Last meal (when)
Events (of injury)
69
Q

What labs test are used to look for intra abdominal injury in children?

A

Liver function tests :|^ AST or/and |^ ALT

70
Q

How is myoglobinuria treated in electrical burns

A

To avoid renal injury, think HAM:

  • Hydration with IV fluids
  • Alkalinization of urine with IV bicarbonate
  • Mannitol diuresis

Endocrinology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions