CTE Flashcards

1
Q

APU auto fire protection?

A
APU can run without supervision, When a/c is on
the ground.
In case of fire on the ground.
- APU fire warning occurs
- Horn in nose gear sounds
- AVAIL light goes out
- FAULT light on master pb
- APU shuts down
- Automatic fire extinguisher discharges
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2
Q

What is the RVSM contingency

procedure in PRC airspace?

A
  • Turn right, 30 deg and parallel 5nm off-set from
    track, descend to new level.
  • When appropriate return to original route
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3
Q

What is the effect of failed or
downgraded equipment on the
approach?

A
  • If failures of ground aids are announced after
    passing 1000” AAL, the approach can continue at
    commanders discretion.
  • If failure is announced before passing 1000” AAL
    then approach cannot continue <1000” unless the
    RVR is at or above the required minima in table
    OMA for downgraded equipment.
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4
Q

Post dispatch, is LVO acceptable

at the alternate?

A

Yes, as long as it’s above the landing minima and both crews are qualified.

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5
Q

When should you declare

minimum fuel?

A

“Minimum fuel”,
After committing to land at a specific airport,
and any change to the last ATC clearance may
result in landing with less than reserve fuel.
- Estimated fuel on landing is approaching reserve
fuel

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6
Q

Is it possible to do over-wing

fuelling?

A

Yes, but not with pax onboard.

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7
Q

What are your actions for engine

failure in the cruise?

A
  1. SET TL from CL to MCT
  2. A/THR disconnect
  3. SET HDG AND PULL
  4. ALT (REC MAX EO - “LRC - anti ice off”
  5. ATC Notify
  6. SPEED: SET M0.78/300KT PULL
  7. SET ALT AND PULL
  8. ECAM Actions
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8
Q
SMS RTOW - you are in PEK,
ACARS is u/s and you obtain a
SMS RTOW but you notice that
there are no Take Off Data Forms
in the aircraft document bag, what
do you do?
A

Record the data on CFP page 2

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9
Q

What is maximum demonstrated
crosswind for landing (gust
included)?

A

38kts

- Dry, Damp and Wet up to 3mm.

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10
Q

What is the definition of dispatch?

A

At the time the park brake is release prior to

commencing push back for taxi.

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11
Q

Negative differential Pressure?

A

-1.0psi

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12
Q

What is the maximum number of

seats on a?

A

A320: 164 (8J) / 158 (8J) / 168 (Y)
A321: 172 (24J) /

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13
Q

Door opening policy?

A

Under normal circumstances cabin doors opened

from outside

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14
Q

Only one destination alternate
selected, the destination forecast
must be?

A
  • Visibility at or above the landing minima.
    TEMPO / PROB not limiting for ILS but ceiling
    must be above the NPA minima if in use.
  • LVO minima can be used providing the a/c crew and runway are qualified.
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15
Q

Can you do an Automatic roll out

on snow or icy runway?

A

No. It has only been demonstrated on DRY and

WET.

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16
Q

Max Crosswind for engine start?

A

35 knots

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17
Q

When does anti skid stop

working?

A

Deactivated < 20 kts ground speed

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18
Q

What do the AC Generators

provide?

A

90KVA (Kilo volt amps) of three phase 115v
400Hz power.
- Controlled by the GCU

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19
Q

At take off, what is the maximum
pitch attitude in wind shear
conditions?

A

17.5deg

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20
Q

The sum of alternate, mandatory
and rec extra fuel should not be
less than?

A

Final Reserve fuel, thus ensuring at least 1hr fuel approx on arrival at destination.

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21
Q

When does the cabin altitude

appear in red on the ECAM?

A

Cabin altitude >9550”

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22
Q

Can the APU be started an
Operated if the LOW OIL LEVEL
ECAM is displayed?

A

Yes. But maintenance action is required within the

next 10hrs of APU operation

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23
Q

When does APU GEN load

becoming limiting in flight?

A

> 25,000ft

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24
Q

What is the max normal cabin

altitude?

A

8000ft

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25
If the destination is LVO, what is | the requirement for the alternate
Destination alternate which permits Cat 1 operations should be selected
26
What is the destination alternate | airport minima requirements?
At or above the minima for filing as an alternate. This is the higher of company calculated or state minima whichever is higher.
27
Validity of CAT B competency?
13 months (re-validated by PE physical entry)
28
Standard weight for crew member | is?
81kg (including 6kg baggage) [both flight crew and | cabin crew]
29
When can you drop the alternate?
``` En-route and prior to TOD: - 2 independent parallel approaches - Actual and forecast weather above NPA planning minima - No known or probable ATC delays - Fuel remaining, enough to continue to destination with 5% cont. from the last suitable ERA, approach, landing and hold for 30mins @1500”AAL. ```
30
RNP accuracy with GPS primary or radio updating has been demonstrated to be?
``` En-route / 1nm Terminal area/ 0.5nm Approach/ 0.3nm -Also valid with just NAV ACC HIGH, provided appropriate RNO value is checked on MCDU BHSO ```
31
What are the serve turbulence speeds? What are the best rate of climb speeds?
``` A320s all: FL200 - 250kts FL200 - FL330: 275kts FL330 M0.76. A321s Old: FL200 - 270kts FL200 - FL290: 300kts FL290 - M0.76 A321s: New: HTK, HTJ, FL200: 275kts FL200 - FL290: 305kts FL290: M0.76 *At the transition FL use the higher figure ```
32
Inside the APU start envelope, in how many attempts is the APU guaranteed to start?
Guaranteed to start in 3 consecutive attempts
33
What is the maximum fuel imbalance outer tanks (inner tanks balanced)?
370kg
34
Max difference between Speed/M | indications on ground?
6kts
35
``` Planning minima for destination airport, weather forecast contains a PROB during the planned time of arrival below the minima for approach, can you depart? ```
PROB forecast vis can be ignored. | - ceiling is limiting if required by state for NPA.
36
Can you use REV THRUST with one engine inoperative or one REV THR inoperative during an Autoland roll out for A321?
Yes but only IDLE REV used. Cross wind does not | exceed 15kts. (A321)
37
What is VFE CONF 3?
``` A320 - 185kts A321 - 195kts A320 230 / 215 / 200 / 185 / 177 A321 230 / 215 / 215 / 195 / 190 *HTJ/K 235 / 225 / 215 / 195 / 190 ```
38
What is MMO for A320/21?
0.82 / 350kts
39
Take off is not recommended on | the following surfaces?
- Wet Ice - Water on top of compacted snow - Dry or wet snow over ice
40
What is the required take off | minima?
Commander may not commence a take-ff when the RVR, or cloud ceiling where required, is below the minima specified for take-off. If multiple RVRs are reported, all must be at or above the minima. If no RVR reported, Commander may assess the RVR by noting number for runway edge lighting (60m spacing). Must be above Company LVO or state minima. If not minima published, then should be obtained from appropriate authority. If cannot be obtained, refer to OMA. 200m (HREDL + RCLL + RCL) 400m (HREDL or RCLL or RCL) 800m (none)
41
What happens if you get the APU Low Oil Level ECAM, departing HKG and at an unmanned station?
APU can be used for 10hrs of operation provided no oil leak. - Leaving HKG, call engineer if doors still open, enter in AML. - Out station with no engineer can enter into AML and self dispatch because no MEL limitation, Practically, can dispatch safety if no oil leak. Write up in HKG. QRH indicates operate "normally".
42
When are cold weather | corrections carried out?
- MSA then the temp is lower than -15deg ISA - DA/MDA/IF/IAF/FAF, Missed app, circling minima, GS check altitudes when ambient surface temp is 0deg or below.
43
What is the normal operating | pressure for the hydraulics?
3000psi (2500PSI when powered by RAT)
44
What is the cockpit window open | max speed?
200kts
45
Dispatch defined as?
2 types: Flight Planning Dispatch: the point at which the park brake is released prior to commencing push back or taxi MEL dispatch: the point at which the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of commencing a flight.
46
When can you reset a CB in flight | and on the ground?
In-flight: - Must not be reset unless procedure in QRH. - Unless Capt. judges it is necessary to do so for the safe continuation of the flight. On ground: - DO NOT reset any CB of the fuel pumps of any tank. For all other CBs can re set in co-ordination with maintenance, provided that the cause has been identified.
47
What is the alert height in relation | to an automatic landing?
Height above runway based on the characteristics of the aeroplane and its fail operational auto land system (CATIII Dual). Failure above AH in redundant system - missed approach Failure below AH - continue unless AUTOLAND warning light is triggered. Relevant when CATIII Dual is displayed.
48
What are the requirements for a take off alternate airport prior to dispatch?
- within 340nm for 2 engine a/c - Weather conditions at or above CAT 1 landing minima (or approach in use). - Pre dispatch serviceability taken into account - T/O alternate on CFP - Operation to the alternate based on OEI performance - Consideration given to en-route terrain and wx - must have a least one non-GPS approach
49
How many fire extinguisher | bottles for each engine?
2 Bottles equipped with electrically operated | squibs.
50
What is the maximum wing fuel imbalance, inner tanks full (heavier tank), and outer tanks balanced at take off?
500kg (A320)
51
In non-precision approach using FINAL APP, NAV FPA, NAV V/S, TRK FPA, HDG V/S, LOC V/S, LOC FPA the AP can be used with the following minimum height?
250 ft AGL
52
Validity of CAT C competency?
12 months (re-validated by PE physical entry)
53
Acceleration limits in clean config | is?
-1.0 to 2.5g
54
What is the min. DH for LVO | approaches?
CAT 2: 100 DH / RVR 300 / 150 / Adv. - Vis. Ref. (approach environment and threshold) CAT3A: 50 DH / RVR 200 / 150 / Adv. - Vis. Ref. (3 centre line lights) - MID can be temp. inop. RO required above MID CAT3B: 0 DH / RVR 75 / 75 / 75 - Vis Ref. (not required) - 3 transmissometers are required, but if one temp. inop. use the 2 remaining, both controlling. Note: MID point for CAT I if given - ≥200m or 150m if autoland.
55
When do you select packs off for | the take off?
When about to line up for take off.
56
When should you carry out an | manual engine start abort?
N2 High engine vibrations N2>6.5 units. Loss of ECAM DUs, motor engine for 30s (eng ventilation in PRO SUP or FCOM PRO ABN) Mode sel crank / ENG MAN START pb push. Time 30s
57
Ceiling Required Symbol?
When ceiling or vertical visibility is required to commence the approach. - Shown next to the MDA for applicable a/c type. (Applies to approach ban)
58
Planning minima for destination airport, weather forecast contains FZRA for your time of arrival, can you legally depart?
Yes, but nominated alternate (+/- 1 hour, incl prob/temp/inter) must not have any freezing precipitation.
59
Can you fly an RNAV GNSS | approach without GPS primary?
No. GPS PRIMARY required on at least one ND.
60
Landing on a surface covered with volcanic ash, what is it equivalent to?
Dry ash = wet | Wet ash = slush runway
61
``` Planning minima for destination airport, ILS is unserviceable and you will be carrying out a VOR approach, forecast cloud base for your time of arrival is below the ceiling for the VOR approach, can you legally depart? ```
Yes but 2 alternates required and must be on flight | plan with fuel carried for both
62
What does the GEN 1 Line pb | do?
Comes on amber with an ECAM when smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct. - SMOKE CONFIG - Main bus bars are shed, same as EMER ELEC CONFIG, but FUEL PUMPS are connected up stream of the GEN 1 line connector. - Sheds approx. 75% of electrical equipment
63
What is the max and min | temperature for take off?
-39 deg (OAT) | +55 deg
64
What is the max brake | temperature for take off?
300deg (FANS not stipulated)
65
Landing Recency?
Commanders: 1 take offs and landings within 35 days Pilots General (FO): 3 take offs and landings within 3 months
66
What is the max EGT for TOGA?
A320: 635deg A321: 650deg
67
What is GRID MORA?
Minimum off route altitude. Provides clearance within an area defined by long and lat, for flying off route. Maximum of terrain or obstacles whichever is highest. Lowest indicated is 2000ft. 1500 clearance up to 5000 AMSL, 2000 clearance >5000 AMSL
68
CAT 1 approach and Mid point | RVR given?
A320/21: 200m required. or 150m auto land.
69
The APU can be started how many times without cool down? and then how long is the cool down period for?
3 consecutive starts, cool down period 60mins.
70
Minimal Visual Reference for precision straight in approach, approach lights available?
CATIIIA Autoland: 3 Centre line lights Precision straight-in approach (with approach lights): Sufficient approach or runway lights plus one row of crossbar lights.
71
NWS steering angle is limited to_? and under push back is limited to_?
Handwheel can turn the nose wheel +/- 75 deg NWS normal limit: +/-85 deg Pushback limit: +/-95 deg
72
Documents required to satisfy | requirements of AN (HK) O?
- 1. Radio station Licence - 2. CoA - 3. AoC - 4. Cert of Maint. Review - 5. CoReg - 5. AML - 6. Ops Manual - 7. MEL - 8. Loadsheet - 9. Flight crew licences - 10. Interception procedures
73
Actions after a light bounce on | landing?
Maintain pitch and thrust at idle, do not allow pitch | to increase
74
ILS approach min AP use height?
160ft AGL (when CAT 2 or 3 not displayed)
75
What is a suitable airport?
An airport is suitable if it is adequate for operations and the meteorological conditions meet the planning minima for the relevant time period, taking into account the approach, runway, aircraft and crew capabilities.
76
“Advise ADS-B capability?”
“ADS B transmitter ten ninety datalink”
77
What is the maximum airport | elevation for automatic landing?
A320(most): 6500ft elevation A320 HSD, E, G and I: 2500ft A321 HTD, TE, TF: 2500ft A321(most): 5750ft
78
Is the cross wind limited on a | narrow runway?
No
79
In relation to the APU LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM, is maintenance action required?
Yes, but can operate for 10hrs, provided no oil | leak
80
What is the max fuel discrepancy | allowed after fueling?
+- 400kg up to 6T +- 500kg 6 - 12T +- 600kg >12T
81
Who should apply cold weather | corrections under radar control?
ATC should apply corrections but captain remains responsible for considering the effect of cold temperature on minimum and reference altitudes.
82
AUTOBRK Decel for MED and LO?
MED - 2seconds after ground spoilers deploy, 3m/s(sq) LO - 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy, 1.7m/s(sq)
83
Can the captain reduce the fuel | as detailed on the flight plan?
Can reduce the REC extra if very familiar with route | based on his local knowledge and experience
84
LAND ASAP Red?
Land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a safe landing can be made.
85
When is the Brace Brace call | given?
500 AAL
86
Can you taxi with damaged tyres?
If damage is suspected, inspection is required. If | just deflation then taxi permitted with speed limits.
87
What is the minimum turning | altitude?
400ft AAL OMA
88
What is the max N2 for A320/21?
100%
89
What should you do if landing with | less than final reserve fuel?
MAYDAY x 3, Fuel. Fuel emergency when useable calculated fuel predicted to be remaining on landing at nearest suitable airport is less than final reserve fuel
90
When do you select TERR on | ND?
FCOM - DESCENT PREPARATION - In Mountainous areas consider displaying on ND - If use of radar is required, consider TERR ND on PM side and WX on PF side. NOTE: IF NAV ACC LOW, DO NOT USE.
91
Minimum Midpoint RVR for CAT 1 approaches?
200 metres (150 metres for autoland)
92
What is the max cabin differential | pressure?
Max Differential 9psi Max Negative -1psi Safety Relief 8.6psi
93
ACARS RTOW, how do you find | out the declared distance, slope?
Enter LST to the ACARS RTOW as runway code. - length - slope - line up allowance in (deg)
94
Can a visual approach be flown at | night?
Yes, but only if the commander is familiar with the | terrain surrounding the airport
95
Can you fly in the terminal area on an RNP-1 arrival without GPS primary?
Yes. Provided: - GPS PRIMARY AVAIL or - HIGH ACC is displayed and RNP value checked or entered or - FMS navigation cross checked with nav-aid raw data
96
What is the alert height for a | CATIII approach?
100ft AGL.
97
What is additional (mandatory) fuel?
Cater for en-route depressurisation and/or engine failure.
98
What is the max number of | deflated tyres you can taxi with?
If deflated but NOT damaged: - Max of 3 tyres in total - Speed 7kts when one tyre deflated on one gear - 2 tyres ons on MLG but no other flat tyres, max 3kts and +/- 30deg steering. In addition, if tire damage suspected, but perform a/c inspection prior to vacating runway or taxi.
99
When do you need EAI during | climb and cruise?
When in icing conditions (visible moisture) +10 TAT | to -40 SAT EAI on.
100
What is the max APU altitude for | bleed and electrical useage?
20,000ft
101
What is the max EGT for APU | running?
Most a/c: 682deg with 5s confirmation for shutdown HSQ/SR: 675deg
102
If the predicted tailwind on landing | is greater than 10kts?
- De-accelerated approach is not permitted. - Any unexpected tailwind - use REV - CONF FULL recommended
103
What are the different Engine | Failure in the CRZ scenarios?
As soon as the ENG FAIL is recognised - Set all THR LVRs to MCT and DISCONNECT A/ THR (otherwise you will get THR IDLE when in OP DES!) - Select Speed - according to the strategy - Select HDG - off airway / EDG - Select (OP DES) the OEI altitude from MCDU PROG [EO MAX ALT @ LRC speed] - ECAM actions (Note: time available, a/c will generally descent <800fpm do not rush, Time to descend from FL350 to FL250 @ 66T is 41m = 250fpm) Obstacle strategy: - Target Speed is GD. - When clear of obstacles resume the LRC Altitude and CRZ Speed from QRH PER/MCDU PROG Standard strategy: - M0.78 / 300kts - LRC ceiling and LRC speed on reaching level. Fixed Speed strategy: Related to ETOPS only.
104
Can you factor visibility to obtain | an RVR?
Yes as per the table in OMA but only at the planning stage, prior to dispatch. ONLY for destination visibility, cannot for Alternate.
105
What does the emergency GEN | provide?
5 KVA of three phase 115 V 400HZ power. Supplied by the blue hydraulic circuit, that drives an emergency generator.
106
What is the maximum positive | cabin differential pressure?
9.0psi
107
What are the conditions for take off minima when using the figures in parentheses?
If take off minima is based on parentheses figures then all RVR readings must be available (TD / MID / RO)
108
What is the min temperature for | JET A?
-36deg
109
Minimal Visual Reference: for non-precision straight in approach?
(with approach lights) At least 7 consecutive lights which may be approach lights, runway lights or combo of both. Precision and Non-precision straight-in approach (without approach lights) Runway threshold and touch down zone must be visible
110
7 Factors effecting tail strike on | take off?
- Early rotation - CONF - Technique - Trim setting - Crosswind - Oleo inflation - Incorrect V speeds
111
What is the go around climb | gradient requirement for CAT II and 3 approach OEI?
Based on 2.5% CONF 2 or 3
112
What is the min temperature for | JET A1?
-43deg
113
Are PAR approaches approved in | the USA?
No
114
What is the minimum height for | AP use on a circling approach?
600 ft AGL for CAT D
115
What is the max speed for | windshield wiper operation?
230kts. No limit if no sweeping.
116
Actions for tail strike on take off?
- Do not pressurise the a/c - Apply the QRH check list - LAND ASAP RED - RoC +500fpm RoD -1000fpm max
117
When can you continue an approach below the approach ban altitude?
- When the reported RVR is above the published minima - If the RVR is not reported the visibility is >_800m - The reported ceiling (if required by state (c) is at or above the published minima
118
Cargo Smoke Detection?
Old A320s and A321s. HSD - HSN and HTD - HTI Use SDCU - Smoke Detection Control Unit, dual loop system. New A320s and A321s HSO- HSU and HTK, HTJ Use CIDS Cabin Intercommunication Data System, dual loop principle.
119
Brakes HOT along with associated ECAM comes on when one brake temperature exceeds?
Triggered when one brake temp is higher than | 300°C and goes away when below 290°C
120
When should you divert to a | runway at least 45m wide?
- Rudder jam - Rudder pedal jam - yaw damper system fault - rudder travel limiter fault - all failures leading to the loss of nose wheel steering
121
A320/21 planned contingency fuel | will never be less than?
Not less than 5% of the Trip Fuel from overhead of abeam the last ERA to destination. Shall not be less than amount required to fly for five minutes at holding speed at 1,500ft AAL. 250kg
122
When must you disable the | autobrake?
Before 20kts
123
When should you release park | brake after parking?
If brake temp exceeds >150deg FANS on or >300 FANS off. - confirm chocks in release brakes If temp >350 FANS on or >500 FANS off, avoid setting the park brake unless operationally necessary.
124
Define approach ban altitude?
Not below 1000ft AAL or the published minima | whichever is higher
125
What is the maximum fuel imbalance in flight and at landing (heavy tank full) and outers balanced?
1500kg
126
Max Altitude for flaps / slats | extended?
20,000ft
127
What are the predictive data for | alternate in MCDU based on?
- A/C weight equal to landing weight at DEST - SIGNIFICANT: <100nm - FL100 and 100NM to 200NM assumes FL220, >200nm FL310. - Cost Index 0 - Constant Wind (ALTN wind from INIT B) - Constant ISA (from dest) - Airway distance from company route, otherwise DIR DIST.
128
What is the go around | climb gradient requirement OEI?
2.1% for CONF 2 or 3 at a speed not exceeding 1.4Vs.
129
What is the minimum autopilot height for straight in non precision approach?
250ft AGL
130
How many fire extinguisher | bottles for APU?
1 bottle, 2 electrically operated squibs.
131
Cabin pressure safety relief valve | setting is?
8.6psi
132
If the dispatch message is not | available?
Commander shall send an ACARS FREE TEXT message to acknowledge acceptance in the format. FPLN/ FLIGHT PLAN NUMBER / ERN / ACCEPT e.g. OPS FLPN/B19118180/337700J/ACCEPT
133
What is minimum diversion fuel?
Alternate fuel + final reserve fuel
134
Thrust reduction should not exceed how many % of full rated take off?
25%
135
What is the minimum take off | fuel?
1500kg and WING TK LOW LVL must not be | displayed at take off
136
“Stop ADS B altitude | transmission?”
“Unable” - turning off ALT RPT turns off TCAS
137
What is the max engine EGT for | start?
635deg (all) | CAUTION: 650deg for A321 is for TOGA.
138
When do you need to check the | crew o2 is sufficient for flight?
If he OXY indicator on the ECAM is half boxed in amber. - Check o2 is sufficient for intended flight in LIMITATIONS - (If >1000psi - no limit)
139
If ATC report an altitude selection | error?
When STD is set on the EFIS, transponder transmits last QNH to ATC (rather than 1013). To fix, push alt setting, set 1013, and pull for STD again.
140
Can you start the APU during | refuel?
APU starts and shutdowns permitted during refuel/ defuel procedures. Limits: a. APU start not permitted when it has previously failed to start or had an AUTO shutdown. b. A Normal APU shutdown must be completed if a fuel spill occurs during refuel / de-fuel
141
What is the maximum take off | weight?
A320s: 75,500kg HSQ, R, T and U - 77,000kg A321s: 89,000kg
142
Do you need A/THR for CAT3A/B | approaches?
Yes it is mandatory. CAT2 is possible without A/THR
143
Altitude Tolerances on the STBY | Altimeter at ground check?
300ft STBY Altimeter | 60ft ISIS
144
When is a new load sheet | required?
A320/21 | +/- 200kg +/- 1.0% MACTOW
145
Auto-land wind limits
A320 30kts HWC 20kts XWC 10kts TWC ``` A321 40kts HWC 25kts XWC 10kts TWC (30 HWC / 20 X/W for CAT 3) ```
146
What is the sum of contingency, mandatory and rec extra fuel for A320? And A321?
Not less than: A320: 600kg A321: 800kg
147
When is RVR reported by tower?
Generally below 800m. Changes given in 50m increments in 30s intervals When below 400m. Changes given in 25m increments in 15s intervals
148
When does the PTU operate?
PTU runs automatically when the differential pressure between the green and yellow systems is > 500psi. - PTU is inhibited during first engine start and is automatically tested during second engine start.
149
Maximum angle of bank?
Normal AoB in manual flight is 25deg | Max AoB should not exceed 30deg
150
Performance Assessment? (approach ban)
An approach to land shall not continue below 1,000ft AAL, unless the PIC is satisfied with runway surface condition, aeroplane performance information indicates that a safe landing can be made. (crosswind not a factor).
151
Twin engine aircraft are to remain within how many minutes_ flying time of an adequate airport, unless operating with ETOPS?
60 mins
152
What is minimum reserve fuel?
The minimum fuel with which the aircraft shall land at an ERA after a depressurisation and/or engine failure. Equal to 15 mins holding at 1500 AAL, based on planned landing weight at ERA.
153
Min height for AP use after take | off?
100ft AGL (5s after lift off)
154
What is MRA depicted on CFP?
Minimum Route Altitude, Charted Grid MORA increased by 1000ft to satisfy CAD requirements. Corrected for wind speeds up to 30kts. Wind Speeds Corrections: 70kts add 1500ft
155
What is the minimum take off | weight?
A320 - 37,230kg | A321 - 47,500kg
156
Take off alternate weather?
- Must be at or above CAT1 landing minima or the approach in use if not ILS - within 340nm
157
What is the max continuous load | per TR?
200 A
158
Planning minima for the destination airport, destination currently forecast weather below minima, can you depart?
Yes. Take two alternates nominated on the flight | plan and fuel for the furthest one. (i.e. both covered)
159
What is the max continuous load | per generator IDG?
100% 90 KVA
160
What if the destination or departure airfield has a QNH >1050?
Use PRO SPO 65. “Operations at QNH >1050HPA” - Ensure the a/c remains inside the flight envelope - 1000”. - A/C instruments are good for 1100hPa. - FMGS can only select 1050 max.
161
How long does the crew 02 last | for under min. bottle pressure?
``` Normal: 13 mins for descent 107 mins FL100 100% in case of smoke: 15 mins @ 8000” cabin altitude ```
162
What is the maximum ZFW?
A320: 61,000kg HSQ, R, T and U: 62,500kg A321s: 71,500kg HTJ, K: 73,800kg
163
LAND ASAP Amber?
Consider landing at the nearest suitable airport.
164
APU may be started up to?
41,000ft
165
A NOTAM referring to an ILS or other related nav-aid facility as “waiting flight check” may be used for operational purposes?
Yes.
166
If there is a discrepancy between the CFP and the FMS data or the en-route data then?
Definitive reference for navigation is the CFP
167
Max elevation for autoland?
(most) A320 - 6500 ft HSD, E, G, I - 2500 ft (most) A321 - 2500 ft HTG, H, I, J, K - 5750 ft
168
What is the MEA? (Black figure | on HL airways chart on airway)
MEA is the Minimum En-route Altitude for that | exclusive route, displayed without direction.
169
What is the minimum runway | width?
30m
170
APU Max Rotor Speed?
107% | - APU auto shuts down at 107% N Speed
171
What is the max fuel temperature | for JET A and JET A1 fuel?
+54deg
172
What is the wake turbulence separation between MED and SUPER for departure?
7nm and 3m(180s) (same for arrival) | Add 1min for intersection departures.
173
When can you de-fuel?
Not when pax boarding / on board or disembarking
174
When is “Attention cabin crew at | stations” used?
- 2000ft AAL Emergency landing - After RTO - on Ground emergency or any abnormal situation which requires the cabin crew to return to their seats
175
ACARS RTOW, you are departing with TOGA, do you need to recalculate a new RTOW if the temperature changes?
Yes. A rise in OAT requires a recalculation for a | TOGA take off
176
If an instrument approach is not coded in the WGS-84 coordinate system?
GPS must be de-selected
177
When is auto brake activated?
- With the pb armed and, command for ground spoilers active. - Speed above 40kts. - Not activated below 72kts for RTO (because spoilers not activated).
178
Acceleration limits with slats and | flaps extended?
0 to 2.0g
179
Take off alternate planning minima | should be?
At or above CAT1 minima or the approach in use if | no ILS
180
What is the maximum | demonstrated cross wind?
38kts (gusts included) | - Dry, Damp and Wet up to 3mm.
181
Altitude Tolerances at ground | check PFD 1 and 2
+/- 20ft
182
Max Altitude for bleed air and | elec? 2 packs and 1 pack?
1 pack - 20,000” | 2 packs - 15,000”
183
APU air bleed extraction for WAI | allowed?
No
184
When should you correct the MSA?
When the ambient surface temp is lower than ISA - 15 deg c
185
When is a mandatory missed approach required? (Approach ban question)
- Cannot descend <1000AAL or MDA whichever is higher unless: - RVR at or greater than published minima - RVR not reported, then Vis >800m or required minima - Reported ceiling at or above required minima (NPA)
186
Minimum oil temperature for take | off?
``` 50deg Remember: -40 (start) -10 (Idle) 50 (Take off) 155 (MCont.) 165 (trans.) ```
187
Can CONF 3 be used for | autoland?
Yes. CAT I, II, III approved for CONF 3 or FULL
188
A destination airport is considered | isolated if?
No alternate within 1hr45m.
189
What are the visual references | required for a CATIIIA approach?
3 centre line lights
190
When does the PRE-LIM LS and | the FINAL LS arrive?
PRELIM approx. -20mins ETD | FINAL approx. -6mins ETD
191
Planning minima for alternate, do you need to make any additions to minima for alternate airports?
Yes. 1 available approach to a suitable runway = +400ft to DA/MDA and +1500m to published vis/RVR. 2 (or more) available approaches to separate suitable runways = +200ft to DA/MDA and +800m Vis/RVR
192
Bank Angle protection in normal | law?
67deg Normal 40deg in High speed protection 45deg in High AoA protection
193
What is the min wake turbulence | separation behind a 777? (A320)
5nm and 2 mins (120s) | For take off - intersection departure add 1min
194
What is the minimum oil | pressure?
60psi
195
How do you discontinue an | approach?
- Below FCU altitude - GO AROUND - Above FCU altitude - Discontinue - Announce - "Cancel approach" - Disarm the APPR Mode - Select, lateral, vertical and speed If F-PLN has no destination anymore: - Perform lateral revision, new dest. - FMS does not sequence and approach phase still active.
196
When can you open the RAM AIR | inlet?
When the differential pressure is <1.0psi
197
What is the company minimum altitude requirements except take off and landing?
1000ft above terrain/obs for heights up to 5000ft 2000ft above terrain/obs for hieghts above 5000ft - Where a route is defined by two separate Navaids, 10nm either side of track and beyond reporting points - Elsewhere, 20nm either side of track and beyond reporting / check points
198
Can you fuel and board?
Yes: - One crew member stays on FD and informs FA1 - FA1 briefs pax - No smoking On, EMER lights armed, Seat belts off - No overwing fuelling or de-fueling
199
What is the wake turbulence separation between MED and HEAVY?
5nm and 2m(120s)
200
Definition of severe ice?
approx 5mm ice accretion on airframe
201
Trip fuel is based on?
Take-off, climb, departure manoeuvring, cruise, descent, destination manoeuvring, approach and landing, an allowance for carrying rec extra. ``` Considers the following: - Planned landing weight at destination - Assumes cont. used en-route - Assumed the CFP default runway for departure and arrival ```
202
What is the line up allowance?
A320: 90deg = 23.6m / 180deg = 29 m A321: 90deg = 29 / 180deg = 37.8m
203
With only one destination alternate available, pre dispatch, the weather for the destination at ETA must be?
At or above the published minima, however any TEMP / PROB can be ignored. (unless NPA and ceiling limited)
204
APU EGT Limits
900deg <25,000ft 982deg >25,000ft 682deg running (5 s confirmation for shutdown) 700-742deg running (immediate shutdown) HSQ/HSR 1090deg <35,000ft1 1120deg >35,000ft 675deg running
205
Who needs to be informed in case | of article 11 dispatch?
DOM and consult CX engineering
206
Can you factor visibility to obtain | an RVR for the alternate?
No. Only factor for the destination.
207
Can you cancel an IFR flight | plan?
No. All KA flights must remain under IFR rules even | in VMC.
208
What CONF can an auto land be | done in?
A320/21: 3 or Full
209
What are the requirements to | make a visual approach?
Cannot be at night unless familiar a. Visual contact with the runway and threshold environment b. Visibility along intended flight path >_5000m c. When a thin layer of ground FG/BR present RVR >_800m or NPA minima
210
What is minimum engine oil | pressure?
60psi
211
GO-Around Min AP use height?
100ft AGL (same as take off)
212
Stabilization Criteria?
1000ft AAL or 500ft AAL for visual or circling (3 legs): - aircraft is on correct vertical and lateral flight path - aircraft is in the desired landing configuration - thrust is stabilized, above idle, aircraft is at target speed - flight crew does not detect any excessive flight parameter deviation. if one of the above conditions not satisfied, must go-around, unless only small corrections are required to recover due to prevailing conditions. If published or ATC speed constraints are not compatible with the speed and thrust stabilization at 1000ft AAL, then speed must be reducing to VAPP passing 1000AAL and speed and thrust must be stable no later than 500AAL.
213
Engine starter maximum | continuous operation is?
5 mins continuous cranking. ``` Other limites: 3 cycles 15s between attempts 2 mins max for a manual start 30 mins cooling period, following 3 starts or 5 mins of cranking. ```
214
Minimal Visual Reference: Circling and Visual approaches?
Continuous sight of the ground to ensure aircraft position is maintained within manoeuvring (circling) area such that aircraft can be positioned on the approach for the runway in use.
215
What is the maximum taxi weight?
A320: 75,900kg HSQ, R, T and U: 77,400kg A321: 89,400kg
216
Acceleration limits with slats | extended flaps retracted?
0g to 2.0g
217
A fuel spill occurs during refuelling, at present the APU is running, you should?
APU shutdown considered if ground power | available.
218
After commencing descent, when | can you drop the alternate?
Arriving at destination with less than MDF is permitted after a delay or unforeseen situation happens, providing that landing fuel is not less than reserve fuel. Must consider all relevant factors - reason for delay - Weather conditions (Dest/Alt) - runway availability
219
What is the Max EGT for start on | the ground?
635deg
220
What is a suitable runway?
Runway where a safe landing can be made taking | into account the forecast weather conditions.
221
Min decision height for CAT II | approach?
100ft DH
222
What are the prevailing | conditions? (regarding stabilisation criteria)
1. Momentary rapid wind changes | 2. Turbulence
223
What does the magenta figure mean on an en-route chart next to an airway?
MOCA - Min Obstacle Clearance Altitude - Valid within 10nm either side of track - Clearance, 1500ft obstacles
224
What is maximum runway altitude | that can be operated from?
9200ft
225
What are the limitations for passenger and cargo door operation?
Max wind for pax door: 65kts Max wind for FWD and AFT: 40kts (50kts into or leeward of wind). Cargo doors closed before 65kts
226
When can you stow REV from | REV IDLE?
- 30kts (taxi speed) | - 25kts snow covered runway
227
Auto brake can be disengaged | by?
``` Manual brakes or pushing pb. Disarmed: - After take off or go around - Losses and arming condition - (Green pressure, anti skid, BSCU, one ADIRU must be available, 2 SECs operative) ```
228
Destination Alternate pre dispatch has -FZRA, the destination must have?
-FZRA or None
229
Pitch attitude protection in normal | law?
+30deg to -15deg
230
Air Conditioning with LP ground | unit?
Do not use packs and LP ground unit at same time, avoid chattering of the non return valves. - Air supplied should not exceed 1.2kg/s
231
When should the fuel quality | check be carried out?
After 1000l have been delivered, if a fuel uplift is 1000l or less then fuel check carried out after re fuelling. - additional checks for hydrants / tankers are the responsibility of the re fuller. - if engineer carries out re-fuelling it is sufficient to ask if quality check has been carried out.
232
Minimum RFF Category for A320?
``` A320s: Departure / Destination 6 (4) Alternate: 4 A321s: Departure / Destination 7 (5) Alternate: 5 ETOPS 4. Figures in brackets may be used for temp downgrade for 72hrs. Not less than 4. In flight, can disregard and land if needed. ```
233
Minimum circle to land altitude | and visibility?
1000ft AAL and 5000m or published minima if | higher.
234
Actions in case you have a | microburst alert?
Delay take off, delay landing, or divert.
235
What is the max EGT for APU | start?
``` Most a/c: >25,000ft = 982deg <25,000ft = 900deg HSQ/SR >35,000ft - 1120deg <35,000ft - 1090deg ```
236
What is the max N1 for A320/21
100%
237
Captain call during RTO
``` Stop Set park brake Attention cabin crew at stations ECAM actions Emergency evacuation check list “Evacuate Evacuate” - press EVAC command pb. ```
238
ECAM for Rejected Take-off? Above 100kt and approaching V1
``` ANY RED ECAM or following AMBER: F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT ENG FAIL ENG REVERSER FAULT EVEN REVERSE UNLOCK ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT ```
239
``` If the aircraft or airport system failure necessities a reversion to a degraded approach category during approach? (i.e. FMA downgrade) ```
Approach cannot commence below 1000AAL or continue if already below 1000AAL, unless the RVR readings are at or above the minima for the degraded approach category.
240
What is reserve fuel?
30 mins holding at 1500ft AAL Approx. A320: 1200kg A321: 1500kg Reserve fuel is the company defined min fuel for landing. Based on planned landing weight at the alternate.
241
What is VLE? (Landing gear)
Landing Gear extension 280kts/ M0.67 - extended 250kts /M0.60 - to extend 220kts/ M0.54 - retract
242
When can you do a practise LVO | approach and landing?
``` At least one practise between PCs. Vis ≥5000m Cloud base ≥1000” ILS must be autoland approved in the port page. MCDU PERF APPR minima - enter actual LVO minima from port page or 100 / 50 / NO. ```
243
What is the maximum tailwind?
Take off and landing 15kts | Auto land 10kts
244
What CONF can you land in with | OEI on a A320 CATII or CATIIIA?
A320: CONF Full only. A321: 3 or Full. OEI procedures completed before reaching 1000”
245
Planning minima for destination airport, visibility is being reported as met vis, can you factor this to RVR?
Yes, as per table in Part A
246
How many fire extinguishing bottles for FWD and AFT cargo holds?
A320: 2 Fire bottles supplies 3 nozzles (1 FWD and 2 AFT) 60 mins after AGENT 1 discharge. AGENT 2 DISCH light appears. AGENT 1 - 60s DISCH AGENT 2 - 90 mins Total: 205 mins. A321: HTJ, HTK 60 mins after AGENT 1 discharge, AGENT 2 DISCH light appears. AGENT 1 - 60s AGENT 2 60 mins Total: 150mins CAUTION: Old A321s: HTD - HTI ONE fire bottle supplies 3 nozzles. NO TIME specified. Note when the agent has fully discharged, the DISCH light comes on.
247
What is the maximum slope | permitted ?
+\-2% (mean)
248
What is the approximate increase in fuel consumption with OEI compared with both engines?
33%
249
Fuel required for dispatch?
``` Sum of: Taxi Trip Contingency Additional (Mandatory) Alternate Final Reserve ```
250
``` If there is a conflict between published operations information and KA produced operational information, which is controlling? ```
``` KA Material (aerodrome operating minima) i.e. LVO ```
251
What are the slope angle limits for | auto land?
-2.5 to +3.15 (slope angle within)
252
What is the wing span?
34.1m
253
A320/21 60 min flying time rule?
- 424nm A320 | - 404nm A321
254
Can you auto land up to max | landing weight?
Yes. Autoland is permitted. No weight limitation.
255
What is the minimum pavement | width for 180 deg turn?
``` A320: 13 m A321: 17 m A320: MIN RWY WIDTH FOR 180 DEG TURN IS 30M A321: 32m ```
256
What is the max speed for | window open?
200kts
257
Can you fly a conventional NPA | without GPS primary?
Yes. provided the reference Nav-aid is tuned and | identified and displayed throughout the approach
258
How many smoke detectors in | FWD and AFT cargo hold?
``` A320: 2 in FWD 4 in AFT A321: 4 FWD 6 AFT ```
259
What is the RVSM contingency | procedures in other areas?
- Turn at least 45 deg left or right. - When at least 10nm off set, descend +-500ft - turn to parallel track at 25nm offset from route - When appropriate return to original
260
When can you start the ENG with | APU in flight?
QRH ENG DUAL FAILURE | Below FL200 - APU BLEED ON
261
What is the maximum wind for | landing?
55kts (should not land where frequent gusts exceed | 55kts due to risk of FOD)
262
Alternate fuel is planned at CI?
CI-0. Including 5% Cont.
263
What does pushing the ENG | FIRE pb do?
- silences the warning - Arms the fire extinguisher squibs - Closes the LP fuel valve - Closes HYD fire shutoff valve - Closes ENG Bleed valve - Closes pack flow control valve - Cuts off FADEC - Deactivates IDG
264
Can you use the PROG or Fix page to select an MSA based on a nav-aid?
Yes. Provided you have NAV ACC HIGH.
265
What is the min wake turbulence | separation behind a A380 (A320)?
7nm and 3mins (180s) | For take off - intersection departure add 1m min
266
When do you turn on the packs | after a packs off take off?
After moving the TLs to CL detent (thrust reduction). Select Pack 1 on first. wait 10s before selecting pack 2 on.
267
Min. AP height usage during auto | approach without auto land?
80ft AGL (i.e. CATII)
268
What is the max tyre speed?
195kts
269
What is an adequate airport | defined as?
``` An airport which is considered satisfactory taking account of performance and runway characteristics. At the ETA: 1. Airport Available 2. ATS 3. Sufficient Lighting 4. Communications 5. Weather Reporting 6. At least one serviceable nav aid or suitable RNAV/GPS Approach. 7. Adequate emergency services ```
270
Can you fly a NPA with the AP | engaged with an engine out?
``` For: FINAL APP, NAV V/S, NAV FPA: Yes with HSO> A320s. No with all A321s and HSD-HSN - only FD use permitted. Note: TRK / FPA is not mentioned. ```
271
Can USSR RT GOST 12308-66 | fuel be used?
Yes it’s in the table in OMA 8.2.2.6, it’s a JP1 fuel. | but JP1 not mentioned in FCOM -LIM
272
Can you plan to arrive at destination in periods of FZDZ / FZRA?
Yes you can plan to arrive, but alternate must have | none. including temp / prob. at ETA +/- 1hr.
273
T Max Flex is?
``` A320: 70deg (ISA+55) A321: 57deg (ISA+42) HTK, J: 69deg (ISA+54) Not less than 25% of full rated take off thrust - above figures related to this. ```
274
How much frost is permitted on | the lower surface of the wing?
3mm (frost)
275
Planning minima for destination airport is currently LVO, can you plan a CAT II approach to allow you to depart?
Yes. Provided - aircraft and crew are LVO qualified - alternate is CAT I or better.
276
How fast can you taxi on a RET?
60kts DRY | 50kts WET
277
5 Factors effecting tail strike on | landing?
- Speed below VAPP. - Prolonged flare - Too high flare - High sink rate - Bounce at touch down
278
“Stop ADS B transmission?”
“Unable” - Turning off transponder turns off TCAS.
279
What is the pitch attitude for tail | strike?
A320: 13.5deg and 11deg A321: 11deg and 9.5deg
280
Aircraft not operating under | ETOPS must remain within?
A320: 424nm A321: 404nm (60 mins flying time)
281
What is the maximum landing | weight?
A320s: 64,500kg HSQ, R, T and U - 66,000kg A321s: 75,500kg HTK and J - 77,800kg
282
What is the max EGT for MCT?
All a/c : 610deg
283
What is the max allowable fuel | imbalance before take off?
A320: 500kg with heavier tank full. A321: 600kg with heavier tank full HTK, HTJ: 400kg with heavier tank full.
284
Max and Min altitudes for take | off?
9200 ft | -1000 ft
285
What is considered an excessive | rate of descent?
V/S >2500fpm below 2500ft RA and >1500fpm below 1000ft RA - is considered excessive and shall be immediately corrected
286
What is the call for pitch attitude | on landing?
A320: +10deg and -2.5deg A321: +7.5deg and -2.5deg Associated with A320: 11.7 and A321: 9.7 (MLG comp.)
287
Max APU start EGT?
900deg <25,000ft | 982 > 25,000ft
288
Definition of contaminated runway?
Braking coefficient at or less than 0.25 MU (poor braking)
289
Max APU EGT with APU running?
682deg - with 5s confirmation time for shutdown
290
What is the effect of changing idle | Perf factor on MCDU?
Positive idle factor - shallower descent, earlier TOD. Negative idle factor - steeper descent, later TOD. (Impacts FMGC guidance in DES mode)
291
Contingency fuel is?
Allow errors in forecast wind, temperatures, extended taxi, minor route change for ATC or WX. - 5% of trip fuel origin to destination - not less than 250kg - min planned cont. is not less than 5% from abeam last ERA to dest.
292
Pushing the APU fire pb does?
- shuts down the APU - Silences the warning - arms the squib - Closes LP fuel valve - Closes APU fuel pump - Closes APU Bleed valve and x Bleed - Deactivates APU GEN
293
Max difference between headings | on the ND on ground?
4 deg
294
HP ground unit supplying air?
Do not use HP ground unit and APU bleed at same | time to avoid system damage.
295
At 10,000ft AAL Climb, PM | action?
- Landing Lights - Seatbelts - EFIS Option - Airports - ECAM memo - NAVAIDS - SEC F-PLN - OPT/MAX ALT check
296
Traffic separation on visual | approach?
If traffic not in sight, ATC responsible for separation. If traffic in sight, then crew are responsible for traffic and wake separation.
297
Actions for severe turbulence?
*Seat belts on, select 0.76, shoulder harness, seat cabin crew, then refer to: QRH - ABN - SEVERE TURBULENCE SEAT BELTS - ON SPEED AND THRUST - ADJUST KEEP A/P ON If excessive thrust variations: Disconnect A/THR Descent to or below opt fl - Consider (increase buffet margin) For approach: A/THR - ON USE MANAGED SPEED