Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Conrad Notes > CTE > Flashcards

CTE Flashcards

1
Q

APU auto fire protection?

A 
APU can run without supervision, When a/c is on
the ground.
In case of fire on the ground.
- APU fire warning occurs
- Horn in nose gear sounds
- AVAIL light goes out
- FAULT light on master pb
- APU shuts down
- Automatic fire extinguisher discharges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the RVSM contingency

procedure in PRC airspace?

A
  • Turn right, 30 deg and parallel 5nm off-set from
    track, descend to new level.
  • When appropriate return to original route
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the effect of failed or
downgraded equipment on the
approach?

A
  • If failures of ground aids are announced after
    passing 1000” AAL, the approach can continue at
    commanders discretion.
  • If failure is announced before passing 1000” AAL
    then approach cannot continue <1000” unless the
    RVR is at or above the required minima in table
    OMA for downgraded equipment.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Post dispatch, is LVO acceptable

at the alternate?

A

Yes, as long as it’s above the landing minima and both crews are qualified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should you declare

minimum fuel?

A

“Minimum fuel”,
After committing to land at a specific airport,
and any change to the last ATC clearance may
result in landing with less than reserve fuel.
- Estimated fuel on landing is approaching reserve
fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is it possible to do over-wing

fuelling?

A

Yes, but not with pax onboard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are your actions for engine

failure in the cruise?

A
  1. SET TL from CL to MCT
  2. A/THR disconnect
  3. SET HDG AND PULL
  4. ALT (REC MAX EO - “LRC - anti ice off”
  5. ATC Notify
  6. SPEED: SET M0.78/300KT PULL
  7. SET ALT AND PULL
  8. ECAM Actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
SMS RTOW - you are in PEK,
ACARS is u/s and you obtain a
SMS RTOW but you notice that
there are no Take Off Data Forms
in the aircraft document bag, what
do you do?
A

Record the data on CFP page 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is maximum demonstrated
crosswind for landing (gust
included)?

A

38kts

- Dry, Damp and Wet up to 3mm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the definition of dispatch?

A

At the time the park brake is release prior to

commencing push back for taxi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Negative differential Pressure?

A

-1.0psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the maximum number of

seats on a?

A

A320: 164 (8J) / 158 (8J) / 168 (Y)
A321: 172 (24J) /

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Door opening policy?

A

Under normal circumstances cabin doors opened

from outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Only one destination alternate
selected, the destination forecast
must be?

A
  • Visibility at or above the landing minima.
    TEMPO / PROB not limiting for ILS but ceiling
    must be above the NPA minima if in use.
  • LVO minima can be used providing the a/c crew and runway are qualified.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Can you do an Automatic roll out

on snow or icy runway?

A

No. It has only been demonstrated on DRY and

WET.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Max Crosswind for engine start?

A

35 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When does anti skid stop

working?

A

Deactivated < 20 kts ground speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do the AC Generators

provide?

A

90KVA (Kilo volt amps) of three phase 115v
400Hz power.
- Controlled by the GCU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

At take off, what is the maximum
pitch attitude in wind shear
conditions?

A

17.5deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The sum of alternate, mandatory
and rec extra fuel should not be
less than?

A

Final Reserve fuel, thus ensuring at least 1hr fuel approx on arrival at destination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When does the cabin altitude

appear in red on the ECAM?

A

Cabin altitude >9550”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Can the APU be started an
Operated if the LOW OIL LEVEL
ECAM is displayed?

A

Yes. But maintenance action is required within the

next 10hrs of APU operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When does APU GEN load

becoming limiting in flight?

A

> 25,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the max normal cabin

altitude?

A

8000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If the destination is LVO, what is

the requirement for the alternate

A

Destination alternate which permits Cat 1 operations should be selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the destination alternate

airport minima requirements?

A

At or above the minima for filing as an alternate.
This is the higher of company calculated or state
minima whichever is higher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Validity of CAT B competency?

A

13 months (re-validated by PE physical entry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Standard weight for crew member

is?

A

81kg (including 6kg baggage) [both flight crew and

cabin crew]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When can you drop the alternate?

A 
En-route and prior to TOD:
- 2 independent parallel approaches
- Actual and forecast weather above NPA
planning minima
- No known or probable ATC delays
- Fuel remaining, enough to continue to
destination with 5% cont. from the last
suitable ERA, approach, landing and hold for
30mins @1500”AAL.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RNP accuracy with GPS primary
or radio updating has been
demonstrated to be?

A 
En-route / 1nm
Terminal area/ 0.5nm
Approach/ 0.3nm
-Also valid with just NAV ACC HIGH, provided
appropriate RNO value is checked on MCDU
BHSO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the serve turbulence
speeds?
What are the best rate of climb
speeds?

A 
A320s all:
FL200 - 250kts
FL200 - FL330: 275kts
FL330 M0.76.
A321s Old:
FL200 - 270kts
FL200 - FL290: 300kts
FL290 - M0.76
A321s: New: HTK, HTJ,
FL200: 275kts
FL200 - FL290: 305kts
FL290: M0.76
*At the transition FL use the higher figure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Inside the APU start envelope, in
how many attempts is the APU
guaranteed to start?

A

Guaranteed to start in 3 consecutive attempts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the maximum fuel
imbalance outer tanks (inner
tanks balanced)?

A

370kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Max difference between Speed/M

indications on ground?

A

6kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
Planning minima for destination
airport, weather forecast contains
a PROB during the planned time
of arrival below the minima for
approach, can you depart?
A

PROB forecast vis can be ignored.

- ceiling is limiting if required by state for NPA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Can you use REV THRUST with
one engine inoperative or one
REV THR inoperative during an
Autoland roll out for A321?

A

Yes but only IDLE REV used. Cross wind does not

exceed 15kts. (A321)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is VFE CONF 3?

A 
A320 - 185kts
A321 - 195kts
A320 230 / 215 / 200 / 185 / 177
A321 230 / 215 / 215 / 195 / 190
*HTJ/K 235 / 225 / 215 / 195 / 190
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is MMO for A320/21?

A

0.82 / 350kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Take off is not recommended on

the following surfaces?

A
  • Wet Ice
  • Water on top of compacted snow
  • Dry or wet snow over ice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the required take off

minima?

A

Commander may not commence a take-ff when the RVR, or cloud ceiling where required, is below the minima specified for take-off. If multiple RVRs are reported, all must be at or above the minima.
If no RVR reported, Commander may assess the RVR by noting number for runway edge lighting (60m spacing).

Must be above Company LVO or state minima. If not minima published, then should be obtained from appropriate authority. If cannot be obtained, refer to OMA.

200m (HREDL + RCLL + RCL)
400m (HREDL or RCLL or RCL)
800m (none)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens if you get the APU
Low Oil Level ECAM, departing
HKG and at an unmanned
station?

A

APU can be used for 10hrs of operation
provided no oil leak.
- Leaving HKG, call engineer if doors still open,
enter in AML.
- Out station with no engineer can enter into AML
and self dispatch because no MEL limitation,
Practically, can dispatch safety if no oil leak. Write
up in HKG. QRH indicates operate “normally”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When are cold weather

corrections carried out?

A
  • MSA then the temp is lower than -15deg ISA
  • DA/MDA/IF/IAF/FAF, Missed app, circling minima,
    GS check altitudes when ambient surface temp is
    0deg or below.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the normal operating

pressure for the hydraulics?

A

3000psi (2500PSI when powered by RAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the cockpit window open

max speed?

A

200kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Dispatch defined as?

A

2 types:
Flight Planning Dispatch: the point at which the park
brake is released prior to commencing push back or
taxi
MEL dispatch: the point at which the aircraft first
moves under its own power for the purpose of
commencing a flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When can you reset a CB in flight

and on the ground?

A

In-flight:
- Must not be reset unless procedure in QRH.
- Unless Capt. judges it is necessary to do so for the safe continuation of the flight.
On ground:
- DO NOT reset any CB of the fuel pumps of any
tank. For all other CBs can re set in co-ordination
with maintenance, provided that the cause has been
identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the alert height in relation

to an automatic landing?

A

Height above runway based on the
characteristics of the aeroplane and its fail
operational auto land system (CATIII Dual).
Failure above AH in redundant system - missed
approach
Failure below AH - continue unless AUTOLAND
warning light is triggered.
Relevant when CATIII Dual is displayed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the requirements for a
take off alternate airport prior to
dispatch?

A
  • within 340nm for 2 engine a/c
  • Weather conditions at or above CAT 1 landing
    minima (or approach in use).
  • Pre dispatch serviceability taken into account
  • T/O alternate on CFP
  • Operation to the alternate based on OEI
    performance
  • Consideration given to en-route terrain and wx
  • must have a least one non-GPS approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many fire extinguisher

bottles for each engine?

A

2 Bottles equipped with electrically operated

squibs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the maximum wing fuel
imbalance, inner tanks full
(heavier tank), and outer tanks
balanced at take off?

A

500kg (A320)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In non-precision approach using FINAL APP, NAV FPA, NAV V/S, TRK FPA, HDG V/S, LOC V/S, LOC FPA the AP can be used with the following minimum height?

A

250 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Validity of CAT C competency?

A

12 months (re-validated by PE physical entry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Acceleration limits in clean config

is?

A

-1.0 to 2.5g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the min. DH for LVO

approaches?

A

CAT 2: 100 DH / RVR 300 / 150 / Adv.
- Vis. Ref. (approach environment and threshold)
CAT3A: 50 DH / RVR 200 / 150 / Adv.
- Vis. Ref. (3 centre line lights)
- MID can be temp. inop. RO required above MID
CAT3B: 0 DH / RVR 75 / 75 / 75
- Vis Ref. (not required)
- 3 transmissometers are required, but if one temp.
inop. use the 2 remaining, both controlling.
Note: MID point for CAT I if given - ≥200m or 150m
if autoland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When do you select packs off for

the take off?

A

When about to line up for take off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When should you carry out an

manual engine start abort?

A

N2 High engine vibrations N2>6.5 units.
Loss of ECAM DUs, motor engine for 30s (eng
ventilation in PRO SUP or FCOM PRO ABN)
Mode sel crank / ENG MAN START pb push. Time
30s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Ceiling Required Symbol?

A

When ceiling or vertical visibility is required to
commence the approach. - Shown next to the MDA
for applicable a/c type.
(Applies to approach ban)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Planning minima for destination
airport, weather forecast contains
FZRA for your time of arrival, can
you legally depart?

A

Yes, but nominated alternate (+/- 1 hour, incl prob/temp/inter) must not have any
freezing precipitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Can you fly an RNAV GNSS

approach without GPS primary?

A

No. GPS PRIMARY required on at least one ND.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Landing on a surface covered
with volcanic ash, what is it
equivalent to?

A

Dry ash = wet

Wet ash = slush runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q 
Planning minima for destination
airport, ILS is unserviceable and
you will be carrying out a VOR
approach, forecast cloud
base for your time of arrival is
below the ceiling for the VOR
approach, can you legally depart?
A

Yes but 2 alternates required and must be on flight

plan with fuel carried for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does the GEN 1 Line pb

do?

A

Comes on amber with an ECAM when smoke is
detected in the avionics ventilation duct.
- SMOKE CONFIG - Main bus bars are shed,
same as EMER ELEC CONFIG, but FUEL
PUMPS are connected up stream of the GEN 1
line connector.
- Sheds approx. 75% of electrical equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the max and min

temperature for take off?

A

-39 deg (OAT)

+55 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the max brake

temperature for take off?

A

300deg (FANS not stipulated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Landing Recency?

A

Commanders: 1 take offs and landings within 35
days
Pilots General (FO): 3 take offs and landings
within 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the max EGT for TOGA?

A

A320: 635deg
A321: 650deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is GRID MORA?

A

Minimum off route altitude.
Provides clearance within an area defined by long
and lat, for flying off route. Maximum of terrain or
obstacles whichever is highest.
Lowest indicated is 2000ft.
1500 clearance up to 5000 AMSL,
2000 clearance >5000 AMSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

CAT 1 approach and Mid point

RVR given?

A

A320/21: 200m required. or 150m auto land.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The APU can be started how
many times without cool down?
and then how long is the cool
down period for?

A

3 consecutive starts, cool down period 60mins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Minimal Visual Reference for
precision straight in approach,
approach lights available?

A

CATIIIA Autoland:
3 Centre line lights
Precision straight-in approach (with approach
lights):
Sufficient approach or runway lights plus one row
of crossbar lights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

NWS steering angle is limited
to_? and under push back is
limited to_?

A

Handwheel can turn the nose wheel +/- 75 deg
NWS normal limit: +/-85 deg
Pushback limit: +/-95 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Documents required to satisfy

requirements of AN (HK) O?

A
    1. Radio station Licence
    1. CoA
    1. AoC
    1. Cert of Maint. Review
    1. CoReg
    1. AML
    1. Ops Manual
    1. MEL
    1. Loadsheet
    1. Flight crew licences
    1. Interception procedures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Actions after a light bounce on

landing?

A

Maintain pitch and thrust at idle, do not allow pitch

to increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ILS approach min AP use height?

A

160ft AGL (when CAT 2 or 3 not displayed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is a suitable airport?

A

An airport is suitable if it is adequate for operations and the meteorological conditions meet the planning minima for the relevant time period, taking into account the approach, runway, aircraft and crew capabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

“Advise ADS-B capability?”

A

“ADS B transmitter ten ninety datalink”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the maximum airport

elevation for automatic landing?

A

A320(most): 6500ft elevation
A320 HSD, E, G and I: 2500ft
A321 HTD, TE, TF: 2500ft
A321(most): 5750ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Is the cross wind limited on a

narrow runway?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

In relation to the APU LOW OIL
LEVEL ECAM, is maintenance
action required?

A

Yes, but can operate for 10hrs, provided no oil

leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the max fuel discrepancy

allowed after fueling?

A

+- 400kg up to 6T
+- 500kg 6 - 12T
+- 600kg >12T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Who should apply cold weather

corrections under radar control?

A

ATC should apply corrections but captain remains
responsible for considering the effect of cold
temperature on minimum and reference altitudes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

AUTOBRK Decel for MED and LO?

A

MED
- 2seconds after ground spoilers deploy, 3m/s(sq)
LO
- 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy, 1.7m/s(sq)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Can the captain reduce the fuel

as detailed on the flight plan?

A

Can reduce the REC extra if very familiar with route

based on his local knowledge and experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

LAND ASAP Red?

A

Land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a safe landing can be made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When is the Brace Brace call

given?

A

500 AAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Can you taxi with damaged tyres?

A

If damage is suspected, inspection is required. If

just deflation then taxi permitted with speed limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the minimum turning

altitude?

A

400ft AAL OMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the max N2 for A320/21?

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What should you do if landing with

less than final reserve fuel?

A

MAYDAY x 3, Fuel.
Fuel emergency when useable calculated fuel predicted to be remaining on landing at nearest suitable airport is less than final reserve fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

When do you select TERR on

ND?

A

FCOM - DESCENT PREPARATION
- In Mountainous areas consider displaying on ND
- If use of radar is required, consider TERR ND on
PM side and WX on PF side.

NOTE: IF NAV ACC LOW, DO NOT USE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Minimum Midpoint RVR for CAT 1 approaches?

A

200 metres (150 metres for autoland)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the max cabin differential

pressure?

A

Max Differential 9psi
Max Negative -1psi
Safety Relief 8.6psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

ACARS RTOW, how do you find

out the declared distance, slope?

A

Enter LST to the ACARS RTOW as runway code.

  • length
  • slope
  • line up allowance in (deg)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Can a visual approach be flown at

night?

A

Yes, but only if the commander is familiar with the

terrain surrounding the airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Can you fly in the terminal area
on an RNP-1 arrival without GPS
primary?

A

Yes. Provided:
- GPS PRIMARY AVAIL or
- HIGH ACC is displayed and RNP value checked
or entered or
- FMS navigation cross checked with nav-aid raw
data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the alert height for a

CATIII approach?

A

100ft AGL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is additional (mandatory) fuel?

A

Cater for en-route depressurisation and/or engine failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the max number of

deflated tyres you can taxi with?

A

If deflated but NOT damaged:
- Max of 3 tyres in total
- Speed 7kts when one tyre deflated on one gear
- 2 tyres ons on MLG but no other flat tyres, max
3kts and +/- 30deg steering.
In addition, if tire damage suspected, but perform a/c inspection prior to vacating runway or taxi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

When do you need EAI during

climb and cruise?

A

When in icing conditions (visible moisture) +10 TAT

to -40 SAT EAI on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the max APU altitude for

bleed and electrical useage?

A

20,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the max EGT for APU

running?

A

Most a/c:
682deg with 5s confirmation for shutdown
HSQ/SR:
675deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

If the predicted tailwind on landing

is greater than 10kts?

A
  • De-accelerated approach is not permitted.
  • Any unexpected tailwind - use REV
  • CONF FULL recommended
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the different Engine

Failure in the CRZ scenarios?

A

As soon as the ENG FAIL is recognised
- Set all THR LVRs to MCT and DISCONNECT A/
THR (otherwise you will get THR IDLE when in
OP DES!)
- Select Speed - according to the strategy
- Select HDG - off airway / EDG
- Select (OP DES) the OEI altitude from MCDU
PROG [EO MAX ALT @ LRC speed]
- ECAM actions
(Note: time available, a/c will generally descent
<800fpm do not rush, Time to descend from FL350
to FL250 @ 66T is 41m = 250fpm)
Obstacle strategy:
- Target Speed is GD.
- When clear of obstacles resume the LRC Altitude
and CRZ Speed from QRH PER/MCDU PROG
Standard strategy:
- M0.78 / 300kts
- LRC ceiling and LRC speed on reaching level.
Fixed Speed strategy:
Related to ETOPS only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Can you factor visibility to obtain

an RVR?

A

Yes as per the table in OMA but only at the planning
stage, prior to dispatch. ONLY for destination
visibility, cannot for Alternate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does the emergency GEN

provide?

A

5 KVA of three phase 115 V 400HZ power.
Supplied by the blue hydraulic circuit, that drives an
emergency generator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the maximum positive

cabin differential pressure?

A

9.0psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the conditions for take
off minima when using the figures
in parentheses?

A

If take off minima is based on parentheses figures
then all RVR readings must be available (TD / MID /
RO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the min temperature for

JET A?

A

-36deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Minimal Visual Reference: for non-precision straight in approach?

A

(with approach lights)
At least 7 consecutive lights which may be approach lights, runway lights or combo of both.

Precision and Non-precision straight-in approach
(without approach lights)
Runway threshold and touch down zone must be visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

7 Factors effecting tail strike on

take off?

A
  • Early rotation
  • CONF
  • Technique
  • Trim setting
  • Crosswind
  • Oleo inflation
  • Incorrect V speeds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the go around climb

gradient requirement for CAT II and 3 approach OEI?

A

Based on 2.5% CONF 2 or 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the min temperature for

JET A1?

A

-43deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Are PAR approaches approved in

the USA?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the minimum height for

AP use on a circling approach?

A

600 ft AGL for CAT D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the max speed for

windshield wiper operation?

A

230kts. No limit if no sweeping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Actions for tail strike on take off?

A
  • Do not pressurise the a/c
  • Apply the QRH check list
  • LAND ASAP RED
  • RoC +500fpm RoD -1000fpm max
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

When can you continue an
approach below the approach ban
altitude?

A
  • When the reported RVR is above the published
    minima
  • If the RVR is not reported the visibility is >_800m
  • The reported ceiling (if required by state (c) is at or above the published minima
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Cargo Smoke Detection?

A

Old A320s and A321s. HSD - HSN and HTD - HTI
Use SDCU - Smoke Detection Control Unit, dual
loop system.
New A320s and A321s HSO- HSU and HTK, HTJ
Use CIDS Cabin Intercommunication Data System,
dual loop principle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Brakes HOT along with
associated ECAM comes on
when one brake temperature
exceeds?

A

Triggered when one brake temp is higher than

300°C and goes away when below 290°C

120
Q

When should you divert to a

runway at least 45m wide?

A
  • Rudder jam
  • Rudder pedal jam
  • yaw damper system fault
  • rudder travel limiter fault
  • all failures leading to the loss of nose wheel
    steering
121
Q

A320/21 planned contingency fuel

will never be less than?

A

Not less than 5% of the Trip Fuel from overhead of abeam the last ERA to destination. Shall not be less than amount required to fly for five minutes at holding speed at 1,500ft AAL.
250kg

122
Q

When must you disable the

autobrake?

A

Before 20kts

123
Q

When should you release park

brake after parking?

A

If brake temp exceeds >150deg FANS on or >300
FANS off. - confirm chocks in release brakes
If temp >350 FANS on or >500 FANS off, avoid
setting the park brake unless operationally
necessary.

124
Q

Define approach ban altitude?

A

Not below 1000ft AAL or the published minima

whichever is higher

125
Q

What is the maximum fuel
imbalance in flight and at landing
(heavy tank full) and outers
balanced?

A

1500kg

126
Q

Max Altitude for flaps / slats

extended?

A

20,000ft

127
Q

What are the predictive data for

alternate in MCDU based on?

A
  • A/C weight equal to landing weight at DEST
  • SIGNIFICANT: <100nm - FL100 and 100NM to
    200NM assumes FL220, >200nm FL310.
  • Cost Index 0
  • Constant Wind (ALTN wind from INIT B)
  • Constant ISA (from dest)
  • Airway distance from company route, otherwise
    DIR DIST.
128
Q

What is the go around

climb gradient requirement OEI?

A

2.1% for CONF 2 or 3 at a speed not exceeding 1.4Vs.

129
Q

What is the minimum autopilot
height for straight in non precision
approach?

A

250ft AGL

130
Q

How many fire extinguisher

bottles for APU?

A

1 bottle, 2 electrically operated squibs.

131
Q

Cabin pressure safety relief valve

setting is?

A

8.6psi

132
Q

If the dispatch message is not

available?

A

Commander shall send an ACARS FREE TEXT message to acknowledge acceptance in the format. FPLN/ FLIGHT PLAN NUMBER / ERN / ACCEPT e.g.

OPS
FLPN/B19118180/337700J/ACCEPT

133
Q

What is minimum diversion fuel?

A

Alternate fuel + final reserve fuel

134
Q

Thrust reduction should not
exceed how many % of full rated
take off?

A

25%

135
Q

What is the minimum take off

fuel?

A

1500kg and WING TK LOW LVL must not be

displayed at take off

136
Q

“Stop ADS B altitude

transmission?”

A

“Unable” - turning off ALT RPT turns off TCAS

137
Q

What is the max engine EGT for

start?

A

635deg (all)

CAUTION: 650deg for A321 is for TOGA.

138
Q

When do you need to check the

crew o2 is sufficient for flight?

A

If he OXY indicator on the ECAM is half boxed in
amber.
- Check o2 is sufficient for intended flight in
LIMITATIONS
- (If >1000psi - no limit)

139
Q

If ATC report an altitude selection

error?

A

When STD is set on the EFIS, transponder
transmits last QNH to ATC (rather than 1013). To fix,
push alt setting, set 1013, and pull for STD again.

140
Q

Can you start the APU during

refuel?

A

APU starts and shutdowns permitted during refuel/
defuel procedures.
Limits:
a. APU start not permitted when it has previously
failed to start or had an AUTO shutdown.
b. A Normal APU shutdown must be completed if a
fuel spill occurs during refuel / de-fuel

141
Q

What is the maximum take off

weight?

A

A320s: 75,500kg
HSQ, R, T and U - 77,000kg
A321s: 89,000kg

142
Q

Do you need A/THR for CAT3A/B

approaches?

A

Yes it is mandatory. CAT2 is possible without A/THR

143
Q

Altitude Tolerances on the STBY

Altimeter at ground check?

A

300ft STBY Altimeter

60ft ISIS

144
Q

When is a new load sheet

required?

A

A320/21

+/- 200kg +/- 1.0% MACTOW

145
Q

Auto-land wind limits

A

A320
30kts HWC
20kts XWC
10kts TWC

A321
40kts HWC
25kts XWC
10kts TWC 
(30 HWC / 20 X/W for CAT 3)
146
Q

What is the sum of contingency,
mandatory and rec extra fuel for
A320? And A321?

A

Not less than:
A320: 600kg
A321: 800kg

147
Q

When is RVR reported by tower?

A

Generally below 800m.
Changes given in 50m increments in 30s intervals
When below 400m.
Changes given in 25m increments in 15s intervals

148
Q

When does the PTU operate?

A

PTU runs automatically when the differential
pressure between the green and yellow systems is
> 500psi.
- PTU is inhibited during first engine start and is
automatically tested during second engine start.

149
Q

Maximum angle of bank?

A

Normal AoB in manual flight is 25deg

Max AoB should not exceed 30deg

150
Q

Performance Assessment? (approach ban)

A

An approach to land shall not continue below 1,000ft AAL, unless the PIC is satisfied with runway surface condition, aeroplane performance information indicates that a safe landing can be made. (crosswind not a factor).

151
Q

Twin engine aircraft are to remain
within how many minutes_ flying
time of an adequate airport,
unless operating with ETOPS?

A

60 mins

152
Q

What is minimum reserve fuel?

A

The minimum fuel with which the aircraft shall land at an ERA after a depressurisation and/or engine failure.
Equal to 15 mins holding at 1500 AAL, based on planned landing weight at ERA.

153
Q

Min height for AP use after take

off?

A

100ft AGL (5s after lift off)

154
Q

What is MRA depicted on CFP?

A

Minimum Route Altitude,
Charted Grid MORA increased by 1000ft to satisfy
CAD requirements. Corrected for wind speeds
up to 30kts.
Wind Speeds Corrections:
70kts add 1500ft

155
Q

What is the minimum take off

weight?

A

A320 - 37,230kg

A321 - 47,500kg

156
Q

Take off alternate weather?

A
  • Must be at or above CAT1 landing minima or the
    approach in use if not ILS
  • within 340nm
157
Q

What is the max continuous load

per TR?

A

200 A

158
Q

Planning minima for the
destination airport, destination
currently forecast weather below
minima, can you depart?

A

Yes. Take two alternates nominated on the flight

plan and fuel for the furthest one. (i.e. both covered)

159
Q

What is the max continuous load

per generator IDG?

A

100% 90 KVA

160
Q

What if the destination or
departure airfield has a QNH
>1050?

A

Use PRO SPO 65. “Operations at QNH >1050HPA”

  • Ensure the a/c remains inside the flight envelope
  • 1000”.
  • A/C instruments are good for 1100hPa.
  • FMGS can only select 1050 max.
161
Q

How long does the crew 02 last

for under min. bottle pressure?

A 
Normal:
13 mins for descent
107 mins FL100
100% in case of smoke: 15 mins @ 8000” cabin
altitude
162
Q

What is the maximum ZFW?

A

A320: 61,000kg
HSQ, R, T and U: 62,500kg
A321s: 71,500kg
HTJ, K: 73,800kg

163
Q

LAND ASAP Amber?

A

Consider landing at the nearest suitable airport.

164
Q

APU may be started up to?

A

41,000ft

165
Q

A NOTAM referring to an ILS or
other related nav-aid facility as
“waiting flight check” may be used
for operational purposes?

A

Yes.

166
Q

If there is a discrepancy between
the CFP and the FMS data or the
en-route data then?

A

Definitive reference for navigation is the CFP

167
Q

Max elevation for autoland?

A

(most) A320 - 6500 ft
HSD, E, G, I - 2500 ft
(most) A321 - 2500 ft
HTG, H, I, J, K - 5750 ft

168
Q

What is the MEA? (Black figure

on HL airways chart on airway)

A

MEA is the Minimum En-route Altitude for that

exclusive route, displayed without direction.

169
Q

What is the minimum runway

width?

A

30m

170
Q

APU Max Rotor Speed?

A

107%

- APU auto shuts down at 107% N Speed

171
Q

What is the max fuel temperature

for JET A and JET A1 fuel?

A

+54deg

172
Q

What is the wake turbulence
separation between MED and
SUPER for departure?

A

7nm and 3m(180s) (same for arrival)

Add 1min for intersection departures.

173
Q

When can you de-fuel?

A

Not when pax boarding / on board or disembarking

174
Q

When is “Attention cabin crew at

stations” used?

A
  • 2000ft AAL Emergency landing
  • After RTO
  • on Ground emergency or any abnormal
    situation which requires the cabin crew to return to their seats
175
Q

ACARS RTOW, you are departing
with TOGA, do you need to
recalculate a new RTOW if the
temperature changes?

A

Yes. A rise in OAT requires a recalculation for a

TOGA take off

176
Q

If an instrument approach is not
coded in the WGS-84 coordinate
system?

A

GPS must be de-selected

177
Q

When is auto brake activated?

A
  • With the pb armed and, command for ground
    spoilers active.
  • Speed above 40kts.
  • Not activated below 72kts for RTO (because spoilers not
    activated).
178
Q

Acceleration limits with slats and

flaps extended?

A

0 to 2.0g

179
Q

Take off alternate planning minima

should be?

A

At or above CAT1 minima or the approach in use if

no ILS

180
Q

What is the maximum

demonstrated cross wind?

A

38kts (gusts included)

- Dry, Damp and Wet up to 3mm.

181
Q

Altitude Tolerances at ground

check PFD 1 and 2

A

+/- 20ft

182
Q

Max Altitude for bleed air and

elec? 2 packs and 1 pack?

A

1 pack - 20,000”

2 packs - 15,000”

183
Q

APU air bleed extraction for WAI

allowed?

A

No

184
Q

When should you correct the MSA?

A

When the ambient surface temp is lower than ISA - 15 deg c

185
Q

When is a mandatory missed
approach required? (Approach
ban question)

A
  • Cannot descend <1000AAL or MDA whichever
    is higher unless:
  • RVR at or greater than published minima
  • RVR not reported, then Vis >800m or required
    minima
  • Reported ceiling at or above required minima
    (NPA)
186
Q

Minimum oil temperature for take

off?

A 
50deg
Remember:
-40 (start)
-10 (Idle)
50 (Take off)
155 (MCont.)
165 (trans.)
187
Q

Can CONF 3 be used for

autoland?

A

Yes. CAT I, II, III approved for CONF 3 or FULL

188
Q

A destination airport is considered

isolated if?

A

No alternate within 1hr45m.

189
Q

What are the visual references

required for a CATIIIA approach?

A

3 centre line lights

190
Q

When does the PRE-LIM LS and

the FINAL LS arrive?

A

PRELIM approx. -20mins ETD

FINAL approx. -6mins ETD

191
Q

Planning minima for alternate, do
you need to make any additions
to minima for alternate airports?

A

Yes.
1 available approach to a suitable runway = +400ft to
DA/MDA and +1500m to published vis/RVR.
2 (or more) available approaches to separate suitable runways = +200ft to DA/MDA and +800m Vis/RVR

192
Q

Bank Angle protection in normal

law?

A

67deg Normal
40deg in High speed protection
45deg in High AoA protection

193
Q

What is the min wake turbulence

separation behind a 777? (A320)

A

5nm and 2 mins (120s)

For take off - intersection departure add 1min

194
Q

What is the minimum oil

pressure?

A

60psi

195
Q

How do you discontinue an

approach?

A
  • Below FCU altitude - GO AROUND
  • Above FCU altitude - Discontinue
  • Announce - “Cancel approach”
  • Disarm the APPR Mode
  • Select, lateral, vertical and speed

If F-PLN has no destination anymore:

  • Perform lateral revision, new dest.
  • FMS does not sequence and approach phase still active.
196
Q

When can you open the RAM AIR

inlet?

A

When the differential pressure is <1.0psi

197
Q

What is the company minimum
altitude requirements except take
off and landing?

A

1000ft above terrain/obs for heights up to 5000ft
2000ft above terrain/obs for hieghts above 5000ft
- Where a route is defined by two separate Navaids,
10nm either side of track and beyond
reporting points
- Elsewhere, 20nm either side of track and
beyond reporting / check points

198
Q

Can you fuel and board?

A

Yes:
- One crew member stays on FD and informs FA1
- FA1 briefs pax
- No smoking On, EMER lights armed, Seat belts
off
- No overwing fuelling or de-fueling

199
Q

What is the wake turbulence
separation between MED and
HEAVY?

A

5nm and 2m(120s)

200
Q

Definition of severe ice?

A

approx 5mm ice accretion on airframe

201
Q

Trip fuel is based on?

A

Take-off, climb, departure manoeuvring, cruise, descent, destination manoeuvring, approach and landing, an allowance for carrying rec extra.

Considers the following:
- Planned landing weight at destination
- Assumes cont. used en-route
- Assumed the CFP default runway for
departure and arrival
202
Q

What is the line up allowance?

A

A320: 90deg = 23.6m / 180deg = 29 m
A321: 90deg = 29 / 180deg = 37.8m

203
Q

With only one destination
alternate available, pre dispatch,
the weather for the destination at
ETA must be?

A

At or above the published minima, however any
TEMP / PROB can be ignored. (unless NPA and
ceiling limited)

204
Q

APU EGT Limits

A

900deg <25,000ft
982deg >25,000ft
682deg running (5 s confirmation for shutdown)
700-742deg running (immediate shutdown)

HSQ/HSR
1090deg <35,000ft1
1120deg >35,000ft
675deg running

205
Q

Who needs to be informed in case

of article 11 dispatch?

A

DOM and consult CX engineering

206
Q

Can you factor visibility to obtain

an RVR for the alternate?

A

No. Only factor for the destination.

207
Q

Can you cancel an IFR flight

plan?

A

No. All KA flights must remain under IFR rules even

in VMC.

208
Q

What CONF can an auto land be

done in?

A

A320/21: 3 or Full

209
Q

What are the requirements to

make a visual approach?

A

Cannot be at night unless familiar
a. Visual contact with the runway and threshold
environment
b. Visibility along intended flight path >_5000m
c. When a thin layer of ground FG/BR present
RVR >_800m or NPA minima

210
Q

What is minimum engine oil

pressure?

A

60psi

211
Q

GO-Around Min AP use height?

A

100ft AGL (same as take off)

212
Q

Stabilization Criteria?

A

1000ft AAL or 500ft AAL for visual or circling (3 legs):

  • aircraft is on correct vertical and lateral flight path
  • aircraft is in the desired landing configuration
  • thrust is stabilized, above idle, aircraft is at target speed
  • flight crew does not detect any excessive flight parameter deviation.

if one of the above conditions not satisfied, must go-around, unless only small corrections are required to recover due to prevailing conditions.

If published or ATC speed constraints are not compatible with the speed and thrust stabilization at 1000ft AAL, then speed must be reducing to VAPP passing 1000AAL and speed and thrust must be stable no later than 500AAL.

213
Q

Engine starter maximum

continuous operation is?

A

5 mins continuous cranking.

Other limites:
3 cycles
15s between attempts
2 mins max for a manual start
30 mins cooling period, following 3 starts or 5 mins
of cranking.
214
Q

Minimal Visual Reference: Circling and Visual approaches?

A

Continuous sight of the ground to ensure aircraft position is maintained within manoeuvring (circling) area such that aircraft can be positioned on the approach for the runway in use.

215
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight?

A

A320: 75,900kg
HSQ, R, T and U: 77,400kg
A321: 89,400kg

216
Q

Acceleration limits with slats

extended flaps retracted?

A

0g to 2.0g

217
Q

A fuel spill occurs during
refuelling, at present the APU is
running, you should?

A

APU shutdown considered if ground power

available.

218
Q

After commencing descent, when

can you drop the alternate?

A

Arriving at destination with less than MDF is
permitted after a delay or unforeseen situation
happens, providing that landing fuel is not less
than reserve fuel.
Must consider all relevant factors
- reason for delay
- Weather conditions (Dest/Alt)
- runway availability

219
Q

What is the Max EGT for start on

the ground?

A

635deg

220
Q

What is a suitable runway?

A

Runway where a safe landing can be made taking

into account the forecast weather conditions.

221
Q

Min decision height for CAT II

approach?

A

100ft DH

222
Q

What are the prevailing

conditions? (regarding stabilisation criteria)

A
  1. Momentary rapid wind changes

2. Turbulence

223
Q

What does the magenta figure
mean on an en-route chart next to
an airway?

A

MOCA - Min Obstacle Clearance Altitude

  • Valid within 10nm either side of track
  • Clearance, 1500ft obstacles
224
Q

What is maximum runway altitude

that can be operated from?

A

9200ft

225
Q

What are the limitations for
passenger and cargo door
operation?

A

Max wind for pax door: 65kts
Max wind for FWD and AFT: 40kts (50kts into or leeward of wind).
Cargo doors closed before 65kts

226
Q

When can you stow REV from

REV IDLE?

A
  • 30kts (taxi speed)

- 25kts snow covered runway

227
Q

Auto brake can be disengaged

by?

A 
Manual brakes or pushing pb.
Disarmed:
- After take off or go around
- Losses and arming condition
- (Green pressure, anti skid, BSCU, one ADIRU must be available, 2 SECs operative)
228
Q

Destination Alternate pre dispatch
has -FZRA, the destination must
have?

A

-FZRA or None

229
Q

Pitch attitude protection in normal

law?

A

+30deg to -15deg

230
Q

Air Conditioning with LP ground

unit?

A

Do not use packs and LP ground unit at same time,
avoid chattering of the non return valves.
- Air supplied should not exceed 1.2kg/s

231
Q

When should the fuel quality

check be carried out?

A

After 1000l have been delivered, if a fuel uplift is
1000l or less then fuel check carried out after re
fuelling.
- additional checks for hydrants / tankers are the
responsibility of the re fuller.
- if engineer carries out re-fuelling it is sufficient to
ask if quality check has been carried out.

232
Q

Minimum RFF Category for A320?

A 
A320s:
Departure / Destination 6 (4)
Alternate: 4
A321s:
Departure / Destination 7 (5)
Alternate: 5
ETOPS 4.
Figures in brackets may be used for temp downgrade for 72hrs.
Not less than 4.
In flight, can disregard and land if needed.
233
Q

Minimum circle to land altitude

and visibility?

A

1000ft AAL and 5000m or published minima if

higher.

234
Q

Actions in case you have a

microburst alert?

A

Delay take off, delay landing, or divert.

235
Q

What is the max EGT for APU

start?

A 
Most a/c:
>25,000ft = 982deg
<25,000ft = 900deg
HSQ/SR
>35,000ft - 1120deg
<35,000ft - 1090deg
236
Q

What is the max N1 for A320/21

A

100%

237
Q

Captain call during RTO

A 
Stop
Set park brake
Attention cabin crew at stations
ECAM actions
Emergency evacuation check list
“Evacuate Evacuate” - press EVAC command pb.
238
Q

ECAM for Rejected Take-off? Above 100kt and approaching V1

A 
ANY RED ECAM or following AMBER:
F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT
ENG FAIL
ENG REVERSER FAULT
EVEN REVERSE UNLOCK
ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT
239
Q 
If the aircraft or airport system
failure necessities a reversion to a
degraded approach category
during approach? (i.e. FMA
downgrade)
A

Approach cannot commence below 1000AAL or
continue if already below 1000AAL, unless the RVR
readings are at or above the minima for the
degraded approach category.

240
Q

What is reserve fuel?

A

30 mins holding at 1500ft AAL
Approx.
A320: 1200kg
A321: 1500kg
Reserve fuel is the company defined min fuel for
landing.
Based on planned landing weight at the alternate.

241
Q

What is VLE? (Landing gear)

A

Landing Gear extension
280kts/ M0.67 - extended
250kts /M0.60 - to extend
220kts/ M0.54 - retract

242
Q

When can you do a practise LVO

approach and landing?

A 
At least one practise between PCs.
Vis ≥5000m Cloud base ≥1000”
ILS must be autoland approved in the port page.
MCDU PERF APPR minima - enter actual LVO
minima from port page or 100 / 50 / NO.
243
Q

What is the maximum tailwind?

A

Take off and landing 15kts

Auto land 10kts

244
Q

What CONF can you land in with

OEI on a A320 CATII or CATIIIA?

A

A320: CONF Full only.
A321: 3 or Full.
OEI procedures completed before reaching 1000”

245
Q

Planning minima for destination
airport, visibility is being reported
as met vis, can you factor this to
RVR?

A

Yes, as per table in Part A

246
Q

How many fire extinguishing
bottles for FWD and AFT cargo
holds?

A

A320:
2 Fire bottles supplies 3 nozzles (1 FWD and 2
AFT)
60 mins after AGENT 1 discharge. AGENT 2 DISCH
light appears.
AGENT 1 - 60s DISCH
AGENT 2 - 90 mins
Total: 205 mins.
A321: HTJ, HTK
60 mins after AGENT 1 discharge, AGENT 2 DISCH
light appears.
AGENT 1 - 60s
AGENT 2 60 mins
Total: 150mins
CAUTION: Old A321s: HTD - HTI
ONE fire bottle supplies 3 nozzles. NO TIME
specified.
Note when the agent has fully discharged, the
DISCH light comes on.

247
Q

What is the maximum slope

permitted ?

A

+-2% (mean)

248
Q

What is the approximate increase
in fuel consumption with OEI
compared with both engines?

A

33%

249
Q

Fuel required for dispatch?

A 
Sum of:
Taxi 
Trip
Contingency
Additional (Mandatory)
Alternate
Final Reserve
250
Q 
If there is a conflict between
published operations information
and KA produced operational
information, which is
controlling?
A 
KA Material (aerodrome operating minima)
i.e. LVO
251
Q

What are the slope angle limits for

auto land?

A

-2.5 to +3.15 (slope angle within)

252
Q

What is the wing span?

A

34.1m

253
Q

A320/21 60 min flying time rule?

A
  • 424nm A320

- 404nm A321

254
Q

Can you auto land up to max

landing weight?

A

Yes. Autoland is permitted. No weight limitation.

255
Q

What is the minimum pavement

width for 180 deg turn?

A 
A320: 13 m
A321: 17 m
A320: MIN RWY WIDTH FOR 180 DEG TURN IS
30M
A321: 32m
256
Q

What is the max speed for

window open?

A

200kts

257
Q

Can you fly a conventional NPA

without GPS primary?

A

Yes. provided the reference Nav-aid is tuned and

identified and displayed throughout the approach

258
Q

How many smoke detectors in

FWD and AFT cargo hold?

A 
A320:
2 in FWD
4 in AFT
A321:
4 FWD
6 AFT
259
Q

What is the RVSM contingency

procedures in other areas?

A
  • Turn at least 45 deg left or right.
  • When at least 10nm off set, descend +-500ft
  • turn to parallel track at 25nm offset from route
  • When appropriate return to original
260
Q

When can you start the ENG with

APU in flight?

A

QRH ENG DUAL FAILURE

Below FL200 - APU BLEED ON

261
Q

What is the maximum wind for

landing?

A

55kts (should not land where frequent gusts exceed

55kts due to risk of FOD)

262
Q

Alternate fuel is planned at CI?

A

CI-0. Including 5% Cont.

263
Q

What does pushing the ENG

FIRE pb do?

A
  • silences the warning
  • Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
  • Closes the LP fuel valve
  • Closes HYD fire shutoff valve
  • Closes ENG Bleed valve
  • Closes pack flow control valve
  • Cuts off FADEC
  • Deactivates IDG
264
Q

Can you use the PROG or Fix
page to select an MSA based on
a nav-aid?

A

Yes. Provided you have NAV ACC HIGH.

265
Q

What is the min wake turbulence

separation behind a A380 (A320)?

A

7nm and 3mins (180s)

For take off - intersection departure add 1m min

266
Q

When do you turn on the packs

after a packs off take off?

A

After moving the TLs to CL detent (thrust reduction).
Select Pack 1 on first. wait 10s before selecting
pack 2 on.

267
Q

Min. AP height usage during auto

approach without auto land?

A

80ft AGL (i.e. CATII)

268
Q

What is the max tyre speed?

A

195kts

269
Q

What is an adequate airport

defined as?

A 
An airport which is considered satisfactory
taking account of performance and runway
characteristics. At the ETA:
1. Airport Available
2. ATS
3. Sufficient Lighting
4. Communications
5. Weather Reporting
6. At least one serviceable nav aid or suitable RNAV/GPS Approach.
7. Adequate emergency services
270
Q

Can you fly a NPA with the AP

engaged with an engine out?

A 
For: FINAL APP, NAV V/S, NAV FPA:
Yes with HSO> A320s.
No with all A321s and HSD-HSN - only FD use
permitted.
Note: TRK / FPA is not mentioned.
271
Q

Can USSR RT GOST 12308-66

fuel be used?

A

Yes it’s in the table in OMA 8.2.2.6, it’s a JP1 fuel.

but JP1 not mentioned in FCOM -LIM

272
Q

Can you plan to arrive at
destination in periods of FZDZ /
FZRA?

A

Yes you can plan to arrive, but alternate must have

none. including temp / prob. at ETA +/- 1hr.

273
Q

T Max Flex is?

A 
A320: 70deg (ISA+55)
A321: 57deg (ISA+42)
HTK, J: 69deg (ISA+54)
Not less than 25% of full rated take off thrust -
above figures related to this.
274
Q

How much frost is permitted on

the lower surface of the wing?

A

3mm (frost)

275
Q

Planning minima for destination
airport is currently LVO, can you
plan a CAT II approach to allow
you to depart?

A

Yes. Provided

  • aircraft and crew are LVO qualified
  • alternate is CAT I or better.
276
Q

How fast can you taxi on a RET?

A

60kts DRY

50kts WET

277
Q

5 Factors effecting tail strike on

landing?

A
  • Speed below VAPP.
  • Prolonged flare
  • Too high flare
  • High sink rate
  • Bounce at touch down
278
Q

“Stop ADS B transmission?”

A

“Unable” - Turning off transponder turns off TCAS.

279
Q

What is the pitch attitude for tail

strike?

A

A320: 13.5deg and 11deg
A321: 11deg and 9.5deg

280
Q

Aircraft not operating under

ETOPS must remain within?

A

A320: 424nm
A321: 404nm
(60 mins flying time)

281
Q

What is the maximum landing

weight?

A

A320s: 64,500kg
HSQ, R, T and U - 66,000kg
A321s: 75,500kg
HTK and J - 77,800kg

282
Q

What is the max EGT for MCT?

A

All a/c : 610deg

283
Q

What is the max allowable fuel

imbalance before take off?

A

A320: 500kg with heavier tank full.
A321: 600kg with heavier tank full
HTK, HTJ: 400kg with heavier tank full.

284
Q

Max and Min altitudes for take

off?

A

9200 ft

-1000 ft

285
Q

What is considered an excessive

rate of descent?

A

V/S >2500fpm below 2500ft RA and >1500fpm
below 1000ft RA
- is considered excessive and shall be immediately corrected

286
Q

What is the call for pitch attitude

on landing?

A

A320: +10deg and -2.5deg
A321: +7.5deg and -2.5deg
Associated with A320: 11.7 and A321: 9.7 (MLG
comp.)

287
Q

Max APU start EGT?

A

900deg <25,000ft

982 > 25,000ft

288
Q

Definition of contaminated runway?

A

Braking coefficient at or less than 0.25 MU (poor braking)

289
Q

Max APU EGT with APU running?

A

682deg - with 5s confirmation time for shutdown

290
Q

What is the effect of changing idle

Perf factor on MCDU?

A

Positive idle factor - shallower descent, earlier TOD.
Negative idle factor - steeper descent, later TOD.
(Impacts FMGC guidance in DES mode)

291
Q

Contingency fuel is?

A

Allow errors in forecast wind, temperatures,
extended taxi, minor route change for ATC or WX.
- 5% of trip fuel origin to destination
- not less than 250kg
- min planned cont. is not less than 5% from
abeam last ERA to dest.

292
Q

Pushing the APU fire pb does?

A
  • shuts down the APU
  • Silences the warning
  • arms the squib
  • Closes LP fuel valve
  • Closes APU fuel pump
  • Closes APU Bleed valve and x Bleed
  • Deactivates APU GEN
293
Q

Max difference between headings

on the ND on ground?

A

4 deg

294
Q

HP ground unit supplying air?

A

Do not use HP ground unit and APU bleed at same

time to avoid system damage.

295
Q

At 10,000ft AAL Climb, PM

action?

A
  • Landing Lights
  • Seatbelts
  • EFIS Option - Airports
  • ECAM memo
  • NAVAIDS
  • SEC F-PLN
  • OPT/MAX ALT check
296
Q

Traffic separation on visual

approach?

A

If traffic not in sight, ATC responsible for separation.
If traffic in sight, then crew are responsible for traffic
and wake separation.

297
Q

Actions for severe turbulence?

A

*Seat belts on, select 0.76, shoulder harness, seat cabin crew, then refer to:
QRH - ABN - SEVERE TURBULENCE

SEAT BELTS - ON
SPEED AND THRUST - ADJUST
KEEP A/P ON
If excessive thrust variations: Disconnect A/THR
Descent to or below opt fl - Consider (increase buffet margin)

For approach:
A/THR - ON
USE MANAGED SPEED

Conrad Notes (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions