CSI Y2 Flashcards

1
Q

Maintenance agent

A

Volatile liquid that saturates oxygen to a controlled level

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2
Q

Induction agent

A

Usually via iv injection, Ultra-short acting for safety, Anaethesia is then usually maintained by saturating oxygen with an appropriate level of an inhalational agent

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3
Q

What are the five components of anaesthetic machines?

A
  • Fresh gas supply (oxygen)
  • Flow meter with bypass valve (delivers fresh oxygen without inhalational agent direct to the patient)
  • Vaporiser (mixes inhalational agent with oxygen)
  • Breathing circuit + pressure relief valve
  • Scavenging system (remove exhaled gases)
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4
Q

What are the five components of breathing circuits?

A
  • Adapter to ET tube
  • Expiratory valve (Adjustable Pressure-Limiting valve),
  • Reservoir bag (IPPV)
  • Fresh gas tubing
  • Expired gas tubing
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5
Q

What is the function of the soda lime cannister in a rebreathing circuit?

A

Removes CO2 from expired gas allowing it to be rebreathed

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6
Q

Approximate minute volume.

A

200 ms/kg/min

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7
Q

Flow rate for non-rebreathing circuits A, D and F.

A
  • mA = 1 x MV (High efficiency)
  • mD = 2-2.5 x MV (Medium efficiency)
  • mF = 2.5-3 X MV (Low efficiency)
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8
Q

Which non-rebreathing circuit does this diagram represent?

A

Mapleson A

Maghill

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9
Q

Which non-rebreathing circuit does this diagram represent?

A

Mapleson B

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10
Q

Which non-rebreathing circuit does this diagram represent?

A

Mapleson C

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11
Q

Which non-rebreathing circuit does this diagram represent?

A

Mapleson D

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12
Q

Which non-rebreathing circuit does this diagram represent?

A

Mapleson E

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13
Q

Which non-rebreathing circuit does this diagram represent?

A

Mapleson F

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14
Q

Which non-rebreathing circuit does this diagram represent?

Which original circuit is it a modification of?

A

Parallel Lack

Modification of Mapleson A

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15
Q

Which non-rebreathing circuit does this diagram represent?

Which original circuit is it a modification of?

A

Coaxial Bain

Modification of Mapleson D

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16
Q

Which type of anaesthetic circuit is seen here?

A

Rebreathing circuit

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17
Q

Describe the difference between the cardiac pump and thoracic pump theories of chest compressions.

A
  1. Cardiac pump - Ventricles directly compressed between sternum and spine (dorsal) or ribs (lateral), blood forced from heart to lungs/ periphery. Relaxation of ventricles returns blood to heart.
  2. Thoracic pump - Intra-thoracic pressure increased. Compresses aorta & collapses vena cava, leads to blood flow out of thorax. During elastic recoil decreased intra-thoracic pressure causes blood flow from the periphery back to thorax/ lungs
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18
Q

ABC plus brief description.

A
  • Airway
    • Patent - ET tube
  • Breathing
    • Watch & feel
  • Circulation
    • Pulse

If in any doubt start CPR immediately

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19
Q

How would CPR chest compressions differ between round, narrow and barrel chested dogs and with small dogs/cats?

A
  1. Round - Lateral recumbency, thoracic pump over widest part of chest
  2. Narrow - Lateral recumbency, cardiac pump directly over heart
  3. Barrel - Dorsal recumbency, cardiac pump directly over heart
  4. Small/cats - Lateral recumbency, use one hand around level of heart
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20
Q

Describe how chest compressions should be used in CPR.

A

At a rate of 100-120 per minute (though 150 is best), should be deep (1/3 to 1/2 the width of the thorax), and allow full elastic recoil of the chest (don’t lean on the chest)

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21
Q

How should ventilation breaths be applied during CPR?

A
  • 10 breaths / minute
  • 10 ml / kg tidal volume
  • Short inspiratory time of 1 second
  • Insert ET tube and inflate cuff
  • Use pure O2 + breathing circuit with reservoir bag (Can be blown down ET tube)
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22
Q

Chest compression: ventilation ratio

A

30:2
Uninterrupted cycles of 2 minutes

23
Q

What is the significance of interposed abdominal compressions during CPR?

A
  • Double blood flow during CPR and success rate
  • Potential tp lacerate liver / spleen
    • Apply during elastic recoil phase of chest compressions minimises this
  • Use overlapping hands just cranial to the umbilicus
    • Hand position, depth, rhythm and rate similar to chest
24
Q

What are the three main types of fluid we use?

A
  • Crystalloids
    • Water + NaCl +
  • Colloids
    • Water + NaCl + Starch +
  • Protein-based solutions
    • Non-oxygen carriers (e.g. plasma)
    • Oxygen carriers (e.g whole blood)
25
Q

How does cell movement differ between isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic solutions?

A
  • Isotonic (e.g. 0.4% saline) = no net movement
  • Hypotonic (e.g. 0.9% saline) = net movement from intravascular space to interstitial space
  • Hypertonic (e.g. 7.5% saline) = net movement from interstitial space to intravascular space
26
Q

What are the difference in distribution of fluids of replacement, maintenance and voume expansion fluids?

A
  • Replacement Fluids
    • e.g. Isotonic crystalloids
    • Distribute amongst intravascular and interstitial space
    • Shock and dehydration
  • Maintenance Fluids
    • E.g. Hypotonic crystalloids (+glucose)
    • Distributes equally amongst intravascular, interstitial and intracellular space
    • Not eating / drinking but not dehydrated
  • Volume Expansion Fluids
    • E.g. Hypertonic crystalloids
    • From interstitial space to intravascular space
    • Used in shock / trauma patients
27
Q

Bolus fluid technique

A

10 ml/kg over 15-30 minutes

28
Q

Outline how to calculate the fluid volume over 24hrs.

A
  1. Maintenance - 2 ml / kg / h (replaces fluid lost via normal mechanisms)
  2. Deficit - Estimate % dehydrated - Volume in mls = % dehydration (0.05 – 0.12) x body weight (kg) x 1000
  3. Ongoing losses - Estimate ml lost (v&d) often underestimate so x 2. Volume in mls = volume of loss (ml) x frequency of loss over 24 hrs x 2
29
Q

What 4 stages of dehydration do we use?

A
  1. 5% = Normal demeanour, normal skin turgor, sticky to dry mucous membranes, normal globe position
  2. 7% = Mildly depressed demeanour, mildly decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, normal globe position
  3. 10% = Moderately depressed demeanour, moderately decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, slightly sunken globe
  4. 12% = Moribund, skin tent, dry mucous membranes, deeply sunken globe
30
Q

Outline the differences between rectalling a cow and a mare.

A
  1. Cow - Rectal tissues are more robust, maintain during contracitons, working around small volume of faeces
  2. Mare - Rectal tissues are prone to tears, Remove hand with contraction, remove faeces
31
Q

FNB

A

Fine needle aspirate

  1. Secure the mass
  2. Insert 22G needle
  3. Don’t remove needle from skin & redirect several times
  4. Remove the needle & apply pressure
  5. Draw up 5ml of air in the 5ml syringe
  6. Connect it to the sample needle
  7. Hold the needle, bevel down, above slide
  8. Vigorously expel air onto surface
  9. Take another slide, lay atop one another
  10. Slide them one over the other
  11. Air dry.
32
Q

FNAB

A

Fine needle aspirate biopsy - Tissues which don’t exfoliate well (muscle/ spindle cell masses)

  1. 2.5ml syringe + 22g Needle
  2. Insert needle into mass and draw back
  3. Maintain pressure and redirect needle
  4. Remove needle and apply pressure
  5. Remove syringe, draw back, reinsert needle and expel needle onto slide
33
Q

impression smear

A

Ulcerated masses

Blot sample onto slide and allow to dry.

34
Q

Tape strip

A

Skin cytology

  1. Attach sellotape to slide
  2. Press the centre of the tape to the area of interest
  3. Bring tape round the other side of the slide and attach it about halfway down
  4. Stain in the RED (Solution B) and BLUE (Solution C) components of the Diff-Quik stain ONLY. No fixing solution (A)
  5. Unstick the tape & stick to slide
  6. Blot and air dry
35
Q

Swabbing

A

Useful for surface cytology

  1. Dampen a dry swab using 0.9% NaCl (x cell lysis)
  2. Roll swab on the area of interest
  3. Roll swab along slide
  4. Heat-fix slide a greasy sample - melts wax
  5. Stain
36
Q

Labelling samples for submission.

A
  • Unstained
  • Patient name, number and date
  • Package separately to histopathology formalin samples!
37
Q

How often should horses and rabbits have their teeth checked?

A

Horse - annually-6 monthly

Rabbits - 6monthly at a minimum

38
Q

Canines and woolf teeth?

A

Canines - “tushes”, 1/2 way along diastema

Wolf teeth - PM1, closed rooted, often fall out

39
Q

What is a cup vs a mark in equine incisors?

What is the dental star?

Which are found on the lingual/buccal side?

A

Cup - Infundibulum

Mark - Cementum in infundibulum (end of the cup)

Dental star - pulp cavity covered with secondary dentine

Cup/mark on the lingual side, dental star on the buccal side (moves lingually with age)

40
Q

How many pulp horns on each horse cheek tooth?

How do mandibular and maxillary cheek teeth differ in shape?

A

Five per tooth

Mandibular are more rectangular (max are square) and curved than maxillary teeth.

41
Q

What characteristic features are found of rabbits teeth?

A

The upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw and points are normal of cheek teeth as long as they are straight.

42
Q

Deciduous incisors are present in the horse from what ages? When do the adult teeth erupt?

How does the incisor angle differ with age?

A
  1. D - 1 wk. A - 2.5 yrs
  2. D - 4-6 wks. A - 3.5 yrs
  3. D - 6-9 wks. A - 4.5 yrs

From aged 10+yrs the angle decreases

43
Q

When do adult premolars and molars erupt?

Which of these teeth are present from birth?

A
  • PM1 - 2.5yrs
  • PM2 - 3yrs
  • PM3 - 4yrs
  • M1 - 1yrs
  • M2 - 2yrs
  • M3 - 3.5yrs

PM1-3 are present from birth

44
Q

Outline how the horses incisors change with age (cups, marks, dental star, white spots)

Why is galvaynes groove an unreliable predictor of a horses age?

A

I1/2/3

Cups disappear - 6-7/7-11/9-15

Marks disappear - 15/16/17

DS appears - 5/6/7

White spot appears - 8/9/9-15

GG - unpredictable, appears around 11yo, grows down and then back up again

45
Q

At what age do dogs teeth become permanent?

A

Around 3-6 months

46
Q

Describe the routine for the dental examination of the horse.

A
  1. Clinical History
  2. Outside examination (palpate buccal surface)
  3. Rasp maxillary cheek teeth - curved, straight long, straight short
  4. Insert gag, examine for spurs
  5. Probe teeth
  6. Rasp mandibular cheek teeth
  7. Close and remove gag and reassess findings
  8. CHART
47
Q

Where would you find cheek teeth spurs in the horse?

A

Buccal side of the maxillary teeth and the lingual side of the mandibular teeth.

48
Q

Dental forms abbreviations:

G C M P RT # GR Ca P(mm) X

A
  • Gingivitis + grade
  • Calculus + grade
  • Mobility + grade
  • Plaque
  • Retained Tooth
  • Fracture
  • Gingival Recession
  • Caries
  • Periodontal pocket (+measurement)
  • Extraction
49
Q

Triadan system for numbering teeth?

A

Dental arcades:

  1. Right max
  2. Left max
  3. Left mand
  4. Right mand
50
Q

Describe the grading of gingivitis

A
  1. Normal
  2. Mild: mild redness and oedema, no bleeding on probing
  3. Moderate: Redness and oedema, bleeds when probed
  4. Severe: Spontaneous/ profuse bleeding
51
Q

Scaling

A

Remove plaque deposited on teeth.

  1. Remove calculus with forceps
  2. Ultrasonic scaler
    1. Use side of scaler, not tip
    2. Subgingival scaling - for no more than 2 secs per go
    3. For periodontal pockets >2mm use a hand scaler
52
Q

How many places should the gingival sulcus of each tooth be examined?

A

6

53
Q

What can happen if you use a dental polisher with a fine grain polish on a tooth for too long?

A

Heat damage

54
Q

What should you remember to do once you have finished scaling and polishing?

A

Rinse the dogs mouth out with dilute chlorohexidine