CSI Case 3 & 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 links in the chain of infection?

A

Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, a susceptible host.

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2
Q

What are the direct modes of transmission?

A

Contact and droplets.

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3
Q

What are the indirect modes of transmission?

A

Airborne, Vehicle-borne and vector-borne.

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4
Q

Two types of vector-borne transmission?

A

Biological and mechanical.

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5
Q

What is the difference between biological and mechanical vector borne transmission?

A

Biological the infectious agent is modified within the organism (e.g malaria). Mechanical the infectious agent has been physically been transferred onto the organism and can therefore be spread (e.g from faeces).

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6
Q

What part of penicillin prevents peptidoglycan synthesis?

A

Beta lactam ring.

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7
Q

How does penicillin prevent peptidoglycan synthesis and how can this lead to cell death?

A

Blocks active site of penicillin binding protein. Cross links in peptidoglycan can’t be made. Lack of cell wall formation can lead to lysis due to osmotic pressure.

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8
Q

How is MRSA resistant to antibiotics?

A

Has a gene that produces a pencillin binding protein (PBP2a) with low affinity for β-lactam antibiotics.

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9
Q

What does beta lactamase do?

A

Destroys beta lactam ring allowing substrates to bind to pencillin binding protein.

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10
Q

What are the bacterial mechanisms for antibiotic resistance?

A

E flux pumps (pumps drug out of cell), Inactivating enzymes (inactivates drug), Alternative enzyme (drug doesn’t bind to new enzyme), decreased uptake of drug, target alterations.

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11
Q

In a patient why can amoxiclav work but not amoxicillin?

A

Amoxiclav contains clavulanic acid which inhibits beta lactamase. This prevents beta lactamase from blocking amoxicillin and allows amoxicillin to bind to pencillin binding protein and inhibit peptidoglycan.

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12
Q

What is the reservoir of an infectious agent?

A

The habitat in which the agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies.

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13
Q

What part of the chain of infection allowed smallpox to be eradicated?

A

Humans were the only reservoir for the smallpox virus.

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14
Q

What are asymptomatic carriers?

A

Those who never experience symptoms despite being infected.

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15
Q

What are incubatory carriers?

A

Those who can transmit the agent during the incubation period before clinical illness begins.

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16
Q

What are convalescent carriers?

A

Those who have recovered from their illness but remain capable of transmitting to others.

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17
Q

What are chronic carriers?

A

Those who continue to have a pathogen for months or even years after their initial infection.

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18
Q

What is a zoonotic disease?

A

A zoonotic disease is a disease or infection that can be transmitted naturally from vertebrate animals to humans.

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19
Q

What makes a host susceptible?

A

Genetic or constitutional factors, specific immunity, and nonspecific factors.

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20
Q

Factors that may increase susceptibility to infection?

A

Malnutrition, alcoholism, and disease or therapy that impairs the nonspecific immune response.

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21
Q

What part of the chain of infection does herd immunity target?

A

Susceptible host.

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22
Q

Three places in which antibiotic resistance genes are stored?

A

Plasmids, transposons and phages.

23
Q

Three ways in which antibiotic genes are spread?

A

Transduction, conjugation and transformation.

24
Q

What is transduction?

A

When a virus transfers genetic material from one bacterium to another.

25
Q

What is conjugation?

A

One bacterium transfers genetic material to another through direct contact.

26
Q

What is transformation?

A

genetic material from the environment is directly taken up and incorporated by a cell through its cell membrane

27
Q

What is penicillin V compared to penicillin?

A

Penicillin V is an enhancement of the original penicillin discovered and was developed so that it could withstand stomach acid and be able to be taken orally.

28
Q

What amino acid does pencillin bind to?

A

Serine.

29
Q

What is dementia?

A

Deterioration in cognitive function beyond what might be expected from the usual consequences of biological ageing.

30
Q

Most common form of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s.

31
Q

What does dementia not affect?

A

Consciousness.

32
Q

Dementia early stage symptoms?

A

Forgetfulness, losing track of the time and becoming lost in familiar places.

33
Q

Dementia middle stage symptoms?

A

Becoming forgetful of recent events and people’s names. Experiencing behaviour changes, including wandering and repeated questioning. Having increasing difficulty with communication

34
Q

Dementia late stage symptoms?

A

Having difficulty recognising relatives and friends. Having difficulty walking. Experiencing behaviour changes that may escalate and include aggression.

35
Q

Difference between MCI and dementia?

A

Symptoms are not severe enough to interfere significantly with daily life, and so are not defined as dementia.

36
Q

5 criteria for MCI?

A

Memory, reasoning (planning or problem solving), attention, language and visual depth perception.

37
Q

How does alzheimers progress?

A

Gradual decline.

38
Q

How does vascular dementia progress?

A

Stepwise progression.

39
Q

Lewy body dementia symptoms?

A

Visual hallucinations, tremors.

40
Q

Fronto temporal dementia symptoms?

A

Personality and behaviour changes. Disinhibition (loss of cognitive control - thinking out loud).

41
Q

Score for 6 CIT for mild cognitive impairment?

A

8-9.

42
Q

Key things present in alzheimer’s disease?

A

Extracellular amyloid plaques, intracellular neurofibrillary tangles, synaptic deterioration and neuronal death and macroscopic cerebro-cortical atrophy.

43
Q

What results in an excessive amount of amyloid-beta peptides?

A

Cleaved improperly by beta and gamma secretases.

44
Q

What do amyloid-beta peptides result in?

A

AB peptides form oligomers and fibrils with beta-pleated sheet structures. These fibrils become deposited in insoluble plaques outside neurons (extracellular).

45
Q

What is tau protein?

A

Tau is a protein involved in the formation of microtubules.

46
Q

What are microtubules responsible for in neurones?

A

Microtubules are important in neurone shape, development, transport of molecules within the cell and communication between neurones.

47
Q

What causes neurofibrillary tangles?

A

Tau is hyperphosphorylated, it forms oligomers.
The oligomers aggregate into filamentous neurofibrillary tangles (NFTs) inside the neurones.

48
Q

Where do neurofibrillary tangles tend to deposit?

A
  • Hippocampus
  • Medial temporal lobe
  • Frontal cortices (covers frontal lobe)
  • Lateral parietotemporal region
49
Q

Advance statement vs advance decision?

A

Advance decision is legally binded while advance statement is a guide.

50
Q

What is the posterior cingulate cortex associated with?

A

Orientation.

51
Q

What is the hippocampus associated with?

A

Short term memory.

52
Q

What is the thalamus associated with?

A

Attention.

53
Q

Where is there a particular loss of neurones?

A

Nucleus basalis of meynert.

54
Q

Loss of neurones in basalis of meynert can lead to what?

A

Deficiency in acetylcholine.