cscs ? Flashcards
The deltoid is primarily responsible for which sagittal plane motion?
Extension
or
Flexion
Flexion
What macronutrient leads to the most dominant thermic effect of food intake?
Carbohydrates or Fats or Protein
Protein
An athlete tenses and relaxes specific muscle groups and cycles through each body area while taking deep, controlled inhalations and exhalations. This is known as:
Progressive muscular relaxation
A coach informs his athlete on the time the athlete took to complete the T-drill. What category best describes this ?
Knowledge of results
A coach calling a time-out in-game before the opposing team kicks a field goal is attempting to manipulate what?
Selective attention
The process of gas exchange in the alveolar-capillary membrane is known as:
Diffusion
Exchange of nutrients between blood and tissues occurs in which of the following structures?
Capillaries
Which of the following muscles assists in elbow flexion?
Biceps brachii (short and long heads)
Suggests that optimal performance occurs at an intermediate level of arousal while both low and high levels of arousal will result in impaired performance
The Inverted U
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in?
Increased heart rate
Which connective tissue within a muscle pulls on the tendon during contraction?
Perimysium
Which muscle stabilizes the hip in the frontal plane during squatting movements?
Gluteus medius
Which muscle is the prime mover for flexion of the humerus during sagittal plane horizontal pushing?
Pectoralis major
Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction that occurs during the contraction phase?
Myosin ATPase
MyPlate’s weekly recommendation for dark green vegetables is what for females?
1.5 cups
Goals that are specific actions of performing. For example, aiming to study for 2 hours after dinner every day . These goals are 100% controllable by the individual.
Process goals
What feedback timing impairs learning but enhances immediate performance?
Feedback provided concurrent (simultaneously) to the task.
The majority of sporting movements involve which type of joint?
Synovial joints
On an ECG, which of the following represents ventricular repolarization?
T-wave
What goal is not considered an arousal control technique?
Process goals
most often found at the proximal end of a muscle
directly affixed to the bone
usually over a wide area so that force is distributed rather than localized.
fleshy attachments
An athlete is told to squat to a specific depth without further direction. This is known as:
Discovery
Which type of phosphorylation occurs in the electron transport chain?
Oxidative
The replenishment of ATP is accomplished through which of the following processes?
Phosphorylation
What nutrients is not typically deficient in most populations?
Unsaturated fat
Instructing an athlete on the overall movement goal and important prompts, without specific instruction for task completion is known as:
Guided discovery
What tendon insertion to the joint provides an advantage in speed-dependent sports… closer or further?
Insertion closer to the joint
Breaking down tasks into subcomponents with clear breaks between each is known as:
Segmentation
Rotational work is a function of what two factors?
Angular displacement & Torque
What levers by definition operates at a mechanical disadvantage?
Third-class
It occurs in glycolysis when sufficient O2 is available?
Pyruvate shuttled to mitochondria
Most muscles operate at a mechanical advantage of which of the following?
Less than 1.0
What isomer of glucose is typically found in candy and sports drinks?
Dextrose
What chemical is rapidly depleted during anaerobic exercise?
Creatine phosphate
What muscle acts as a synergist during deep squatting to counteract hip flexion?
Gluteus maximus
Which compound produces more net ATP during substate-level phosphorylation?
Glycogen
A first-class lever has what characteristics?
mechanical advantage or disadvantage
acts on the opposite side of fulcrum as the resistive force
Which PRACTICE structure is best for challenging tasks with low interrelatedness of the subcomponents?
Part practice
In the power clean, an athlete practices the first pull, then adds the transition and practices both together, then the second pull, and finally adds the catch. Only the first pull is practiced in isolation. This is known as what type of training
Progressive-part training or Pure-part training or Repetitive part training
Repetitive part training
Practicing the power clean by doing:
the first pull and transition seperately, combining them, then practicing the second pull seperately and combining the three, then practicing the catch seperately before combining all components is known as:
Progressive-part training
Practicing variations of the same skill within a single practice is known as:
Variable practice
What is the definition of power?
Work/time
The LT and OBLA may be caused by ?
Increased recruitment of large motor units
What factors are used to calculate torque?
Length of the moment arm & the magnitude of applied force
Early gains in an athlete’s strength are due primarily to what 2 factors?
Faster rate coding
&
Greater recruitment
Muscles with a greater pennation angle tend to have what characteristics?
Greater maximum force, lower maximal shortening velocity
How do you Calculate the positive work performed and the power output when lifting a barbell straight upwards using the following numbers:
Local Gravity: 9.8 m/s2
Barbell weight = 50kg
Vertical Displacement = 1.5 meters
Desired Acceleration rate = 1 m/s2
Time needed to fully lift bar = 2 seconds
Work = 540 J, power = 270 W
What hormones is permissive?
Thyroid
permissive (optional)
Nonbinding hormone blocking a receptor’s primary binding site… is an ex of what type of binding?
Allosteric binding
What event will be most limited by drop in cellular pH?
400m dash
pg. 58
What can lead to downregulation?
Maximum muscle protein added to muscle fiber
Pg. 69
Give a true statement about hormonal adaptations?
Only activated fibers are subject to adaptations
84-85
Is Progesterone an anabolic hormone?
Yes or No
No
Which is true?
I. Testosterone binding to receptor key to stimulating anabolic function
II. Growth hormone has a synergistic effect with testosterone
III. Testosterone binds to receptors inside the cell and on the cell surface
All of them
74-75
Athletes should consume how many carbs following post-workout to ensure muscle glycogen repletion?
0.7-3.0g carbohydrate per kilo of body weight every 2-3 hours
56
Glycogen depletion during moderate and high-intensity exercise primarily occurs in what type of tissue :
Muscle tissue
56
Adding sprints at the end of practice due to lack of hustle during practice… is an example of what type of punishment ?
positive punishment
163
Calcification of blood vessels and heart tissue is associated with excess consumption of what vitamin?
Vitamin D
192-193
An athlete with normal IGF levels will see what:
IGF level unchanged
80-81
Which chemicals prevent hormone-degradation during transit?
Binding proteins
69
What level does not typically drop during high-intensity exercise?
Blood glucose
56
“Assessing the environment and the elements within it” is a characteristic of WHAT TYPE OF FOCUS:
Broad External Focus
What vitamins is associated with liver damage when taken in excess amounts?
Vitamin A
Steroid hormones are primarily produced in which organs
Adrenal cortex & Gonads
70-71
Give an example of an activity that results in the greatest EPOC?
10 total sets @ 80-90% 1RM
58
What substance begins the process of producing steroid-promoted proteins?
mRNA
70-71
What 2 types of reinforcement are the most effective ways for encouraging a desired behavior:
Positive & Negative reinforcement
163
Focusing on the task with less focus on the details of movement characterizes what stage?
Associative Stage
164
What nutrients is the most energy-dense?
Intramuscular fatty acids
186-190
An athlete recovering from a traumatic injury during play would benefit from ______________ ______________.
Systematic desensitization
165
During aerobic exercise, EPOC is most affected by:
Intensity
57-58
What hormone relies on secondary messengers to initiate DNA transcription?
growth hormone or IGFs or Thyroid hormones
Growth Hormone
77
What is the first step of General Adaptation Syndrome?
Alarm Reaction
66
What are the 3 processes that occurs during muscle tissue remodeling?
I. Damage to muscle fibers
II. Inflammation response
IV. Synthesis of new protein
66
Is Pica associated with anemia? Yes or No
Yes
194-195
Is Decreased BMD associated with anemia? Yes or No
No
194-195
What hormone is synthesized form amino acids?
Serotonin
72
The processes of hormone receptors becoming less responsive is known as what:
Downregulation
70
Elevated cortisol levels are cause by what:
Increased proteolytic enzyme levels
83
To increase iron absorption, athletes should consume plant-based iron with what:
Vitamin C
194
Immediate elevation of IGF occurs with acute anaerobic training?
True or False
False
102-103
Following anaerobic training, what adaptation should be expected?
Increased T-tubule density
90
Improved ventilation efficiency is shown in trained individuals. true or False
False
104
Resistance exercise is limited by ventilation rate. T/F
True
104
Approximately how long does it take for detraining to begin in terms of strength adaptations?
4 weeks
110-111
What 3 neural adaptations occur as a result of anaerobic training?
I. Increased AGONIST recruitment
III. Increased FIRING RATE
IV. Decreased INHIBITORY mechanisms
88-90
What theory says that “arousal’s effect on performance depends on the individual’s interpretation of arousal”?
Reversal theory
161
Low-moderate loads do not change the collagen content of connective tissue
T/F
True
101-102
Strenuous exercise causes degenerative disease when progressively overloaded
T/F
False
101-102
What is the connective tissue that converges with the tendons?
Fascia
99-100
What theory proposes that optimal performance occurs in a small range of arousal level depending on multiple psychological factors?
Individual zones of optimal functioning
161
What is the long-term effect of anaerobic training on resting hormone levels?
Resting hormone levels unaffected
103
What is the maximum increase in tidal volume associated with aerobic exercise?
3.0L
118
Give an example of variable practice?
Practicing a body punch then practicing a head punch
170-171
An athlete displaying decreased performance, increased resting heart rate, and altered immune function is likely suffering from :
functional overreaching
or
non-functional overreaching
Non-functional overreaching
107
Which of the following is the biggest contributor to TDEE?
BMR/RMR
216
What is the approximate amount of oxygen carrying capacity per 100mL of blood in men?
20mL
120
What formula represents the rate pressure product of oxygen consumption by the heart?
Heart rate * systolic blood pressure
117
Give 3 acute cardiovascular responses to aerobic training?
I. Increased cardiac output
II. Increased stroke volume
III. Increased heart rate
116
What biomarker of hydration status is most practical for acute hydration status?
Body weight
What protein is responsible for allowing some stretch to occur in the ligaments?
Elastin
100
personality disposition towards perceiving an environment as threatening is known as:
Trait anxiety
158
What best describes a sudden drop in performance due to cognitive anxiety and physical arousal?
Catastrophe theory
161
How is the majority of CO2 removed from cells transported for exhalation?
Bicarbonate ions
120
Acute cardiovascular responses to resistance training include what two things:
I. Elevated blood pressure
IV. Increased stroke volume
103-104
What adjustments occur after 3-6 weeks days at altitude (>1,200 m above sea-level)?
Increased hemoglobin formation
127
Which of the following endocrine adaptations does not occur from aerobic training?
A. Increased IGF
B. Decreased circulating testosterone in men
Decreased circulating testosterone in men
123
Which of the following is not a muscle structure adaptation to anaerobic training?
- Decreased cytoplasmic density
- Larger pennation angle
Decreased cytoplasmic density
90
Where does gas exchange occur in the pulmonary system?
Alveoli
118
Which of the following is most negatively affected by aerobic training?
Hypertrophy
Maximum power
Maximum power
105
What is the maximal cardiac output possible in liters during intense activity?
20-22L/min
116
What TDEE EQUATION accounts for LEAN BODY MASS?
Cunningham
216-217
refers to increased end-diastolic volume stretching the myocardial fibers resulting in increased systolic injection?
Frank-Starling mechanism
117-118
What is the maximum possible % proportion of cardiac output to muscle tissue during exercise?
90 %
118
Calculate the BMI for an individual weighing 80kg with a height of 200cm.
20
219
A boxer practicing a jab, then a jab-cross, followed by a jab-cross-hook is an example of what type of training?
Progressive-part training
170-171
Use the Fick Equation to calculate the oxygen uptake in mLkg-1min-1 using the following numbers:
Fick Equation = Q * a-vO2
HR = 80 bpm
Stroke volume = 65mL
Arteriovenous difference = 6mL O2/100mL blood
Weight = 85kg
3.67
117
Anaerobic training enhancement of the elastic properties of muscle and connective tissue to increase force is known as what type of activation :
Increased myotatic reflex activation
92
Which of the following carbohydrate intakes is optimal during prolonged endurance exercise?
50g glucose-fructose mixture per hour
20g sucrose-fructose per hour
50g glucose-fructose mixture per hour
Specificity of loading
High-impact activities
Progressive overload
should be followed to increase what ?
Bone remodeling
99
What is the timeframe for bone remodeling and BMD increases?
6 months or more
98-99
How much fluid should a 132-pound adolescent drink during training to ensure adequate hydration status?
9oz every 20 minutes
198-199
The area of the respiratory tract not functional for gas exchange
Anatomical dead space
118
What 3 neural adaptations occur with chronic resistance training?
Increased efficiency
Delayed fatigue in contractile mechanisms
Improved synchronization of agonist, synergist, and antagonist muscles
121
Is a metric for measuring arousal?
Catecholamine levels
157
Does the ventilatory equivalent parallel the rise in blood lactate? Yes or No
Yes
118
The cells responsible for collagen secretion are known as:
Osteroblasts
97-98
The majority of blood oxygen is carried in :
Hemoglobin
120
What is the proper USG to ensure adequate hydration?
less than 1.020
or
more than 1.020
Less than 1.020
197
Is characterized by the desire to challenge oneself and evaluate one’s abilities:
Motive to achieve success
162
proposes a linear relationship between arousal and performance?
Drive Theory
161
Asking an athlete how they believe they are doing is a component of what type of practice?
Self-controlled practice
162
What amino acids is most important as part of post-training protein intake?
Leucine
210-212
The size-principle refers to which of the following?
Motor units are recruited in selective order based on recruitment threshold and firing rate
Larger motor units have higher force production
Motor units are recruited in selective order based on recruitment threshold and firing rate
91
Fear of consequences of failure may lead to what type of anxiety?
Trait Anxiety
Progressive muscular relaxation is characterized by which of the following?
Maximally tensing and consciously relaxing a muscle
Focusing on a sense of warmth and heaviness in a muscle group
Maximally tensing and consciously relaxing a muscle
165
Which body type do late-maturing adolescents typically have?
Ectomorphic
139
At what age does peak height velocity typically occur?
9-11 or 12-14 or 15-18
Ages 12 to 14
137
An athlete displaying sleep disturbances, performance degradation, and mood disturbances may be suffering from:
OTS (Overtraining Syndrome)
130
Which of the following is responsible for the potentiation of concentric muscle action during plyometric exercise?
Tendons & Ligaments
Muscle Spindles
Muscle Spindles
473
Anxiety manifested through physical symptoms such as elevated heart rate and tense muscles is known as what type of anxiety:
Somatic anxiety
158
Amenorrhea is biologically caused by having an insufficiency in what hormone :
Luteinizing hormone
146
What substances would most likely be used to increase muscle strength?
Trenbolone acetate
232-233
Maximal arousal is needed for optimal performance
T/F
False
157
Athletes must learn mental skills to accompany physical skills
T/F
True
157
During advanced stages of detraining, highly trained athletes may see a decrease in VO2 max of:
6% - 20%
10% - 15%
6% -20%
131
What substances does not appear on random drug tests?
HGH
234-235
A football coach waiving sprints due to substantial effort displayed in practice is an example of
Negative reinforcement
162-163
What substance may only enhance recovery in previously untrained athletes or experienced athletes on a novel training program?
HMB
239-240
What are the most useful GOALS for a specific practice session?
Process goals
168-169
At what point in adolescence do peak strength gains typically appear?
1.2 years after peak height velocity
137
The storage of potential energy occurs during which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Eccentric phase
473
term refers to the product of the time force is applied to the ground and the amount of force applied:
Impulse
524
substance enhances performance during high-intensity exercise lasting longer than 60 seconds and shorter than 6 minutes?
Sodium bicarbonate
241-242
I. Absence of fear of failure
II. No thinking about or analysis of performance
III. Narrow focus of attention concentrated on the activity itself
IV. Sense of effortlessness
The _____ _______ state
Ideal performance state
156
is the most accurate method of measuring intensity?
Blood lactate concentration
561
Theoretically, supercompensation occurs during which phase of the GAS?
Resistance phase
584-585
What theory states: “As an individual’s arousal or state anxiety increases, the performance also increases”
Drive theory
159
Sarcopenia is associated with :
Decreased muscle cross-section area
148
best predicts aerobic performance?
Maximal lactic steady state
Which is not a likely a reason for aerobic power differences in men and women?
Larger heart size in men
Decreased testosterone in women
Decreased testosterone in women
129
At what point is motor unit myelination complete?
Following puberty
141
measures can be used to determine if an athlete has the proper timing of force production?
Stride angle or Stride length
Stide angle
543
According to the Karvonen method, a 25-year-old athlete with a resting HR of 60BPM exercising at 70-80% intensity should have a heart rate between:
154-168
pg 564
What range of lumens should the facility lighting be?
50-100
Which of the following training goals is appropriate for phase one of short-distance sprint development?
Exposure to speed endurance
Develop accelerative ability
Develop accelerative ability
pg 541
A workout including 2 sets of 10 reps of Romanian deadlift at 60% 5RM should occur during which training phase?
Hypertrophy phase 1
590
The Margaria-Kalamen test measures which of the following?
Anaerobic capacity
or
Maximum power
Maximum power
pg 260-261
Which of the following seasons involves the greatest intensity of training?
Preseason or Offseason
Preseason
570-571
Regarding max velocity accelerating and sprinting, which of these two stride phases is common in both?
Support & Flight
or
Ground-contact and impulse
Support & Flight
527
What testing parameter refers to the maximal rate of energy production from combined phosphagen and anaerobic glycolysis?
Maximum power or Anaerobic capacity
Anaerobic capacity
pg 261
Which of the following methods may be most beneficial for utilizing the adaptations associated with being at altitude?
Living at altitude and training at sea level
or
Spending several months living and training at altitude
Living at altitude and training at sea level
572
Which of the following training methods is least recommended for improving sprint time?
Loaded depth drops
or
Overspeed training
Overspeed training
537
When performing a front plank, how far apart should the feet be?
Hip width apart
or
Directly next to each other
Hip width apart
423
Compared to sprinting, change of direction and agility have increased:
Cognitive-perceptual demands
or
Eccentric force production demands
Eccentric force production demands
533
What muscle tissue property allows it to take on a new length after performance of a passive stretch?
elasticity or plasticity
plasticity
321
What is the preferred hand placement for a spotter during a flat dumbbell fly?
On the elbows
or
Adjacent to the forearms of the lifter
Adjacent to the lifter
365
Which of the following drills incorporates cognitive-perceptual demands with change-of-direction?
Illinois drill
or
Y-shaped agility drill
Y-shaped agility drill
556
What is the maximum recommended sound system decibels?
90 decibels
628
What is a general recommendation for frequency, duration, and intensity during week 2 of an aerobic endurance progression?
Four times per week at an intensity of 70% to 85% THR for 45 minutes, one time per week for 55 minutes at 60%-75% THR
or
Five times per week at an intensity of 70%-85% THR for 45 minutes
Five times per week at an intensity of 70%-85% THR for 45 minutes
567
Which of the following is a sign of hyponatremia?
Lack of sweat
or
Dilute urine, bloated skin
dilute urine, bloated skin
pg 256
How many fans should there be in a 2,400 square foot facility?
4-8 fans
628
What is the ideal front knee angle at the beginning of the alternating bound flight phase?
60 or 90 degrees
90 degrees
500-501
During the upward phase of a bent-over barbell row, what is a typical mistake?
Raising the torso
or
raising the bar too high
Raising the torso
pg 362
Which of the following tests is appropriate for female athlete pulling endurance?
prone pullup test
or
standard pull-up test
prone pullup test
253
What strength rehabilitation protocols involves 4 sets with progressively increased resistance and lower reps?
DAPRE
616-617
Which phase should focus on rehabilitation of injuries?
General preparatory
or
Second transition
Second transition
591
A barbell wrist extension requires what sort of grip?
closed supinated
or
closed pronated
closed pronated
378
How much time between 1RM squat test attempts is warranted on near-max weight?
3 or 5 minutes
3 minutes
256
What does the ankle do to absorb force in the support phase during the max velocity of a sprint?
Eccentric plantar flexion
or
Concentric dorsiflexion
Eccentric plantar flexion
473-474,531
What is the recommended foot placement width while using a hip sled?
hip- width
or
shoulder width
Hip-width
379
Which training phase typically includes base strength training?
General preparatory
or
Specific preparatory
Specific preparatory
589-590
Where should the elbows be in relation to the bar during the preparation phase (the dip) of the push jerk?
Elbow alignment with mid point of lifters side
or
Elbows beneath or a bit in front of the barbell
Elbows beneath or a bit in front of the barbell
402-403
Which of the following is an example of an open-chain exercise?
Deadlift
or
hamstring curl
Hamstring curl
pg. 615
What is the typical duration of a mesocycle?
2-6 weeks
or 3-6 months
2-6 weeks
pg 587
During which phase of injury rehabilitation should an athlete begin modalities such as balance boards and exercise balls specific to the injured area?
Fibroblastic repair
or
Maturation-remodeling
Fibroblastic repair
612-613
Which of the following ordering of exercises is considered ideal when designing resistance training programs?
Power Clean, tricep press down, back squat
or
Power Clean, back squat, tricep press down
Power Clean, back squat, tricep press down
448-449
hat is an appropriate load for assistance exercises in a training program focused on building maximal strength?
70-80% of 1 RM
or
85-95% of 1 RM
70-80% of 1 RM
454
An indication is an acceptable activity for an athlete to perform during rehabilitation.
T or F
True
607
Which is considered the proper exercise progression within a plyometric training program?
Single leg ankle hop, squat jump, cycled split squat jump
or
Squat jump, single leg ankle hop, cycled split squat jump
Squat jump, single leg ankle hop, cycled split squat jump
484-485, 487
Which of the following tests can be used to find VO2 max?
12-minute run
or
Maximal aerobic speed
Maximal aerobic speed
279
Which of these positive adaptations can result from high volume, medium intensity resistance training?
Increased muscle mass
or
Optimized strength
Increased muscle mass
106
How much rest is needed between trials on the star excursion balance test?
15 or 30 sec
15sec
285
What is the optimal hand placement spacing for an upright barbell row?
Wider than shoulder width hand placement
or
Shoulder width hand placement
Shoulder width hand placement
396
When using PNF stretching with a client, you should perform a pre-stretch. How long should you hold this pre-stretch?
10 or 15 sec
10 seconds
325
Which of the following statements about dynamic stretches is false?
Dynamic stretches and mobility drills are the same
or
Dynamic and ballistic stretches are the same
Dynamic and ballistic stretches are the same
323-324
Which of the following athletes should generally avoid high-intensity plyometrics?
Prepubescent soccer forward
Master’s division track and field competitor
(young & old)
478-480
What is the first step that should be completed when designing a strength and conditioning facility?
Forming a panel of experts
or
doing an impact analysis
Forming a panel of experts
624
An interset rest period of 90 seconds is most appropriate for which of the following training goals?
Hypertrophy
or
Anaerobic capacity
Hypertrophy
465
Bob asks Dan to assist as he thinks he might need help while performing his last bench press rep. Which of these is not true for Dan’s role as a spotter?
In case of failure by the lifter, the spotter should be able to take on the entire load
or
Spotters are not required to bear the entire load for the completion of a rep
Spotters are not required to bear the entire load for the completion of a rep
356
Who is responsible for guiding correct exercise execution with the aim of injury prevention?
Spotter
or
Strength & Conditioner director
Spotter
354-355
Which of these requires the most floor space?
Rower or Treadmill
Treadmill
630
What ability can be improved by resisted sprints?
Acceleration or Maximal speed
Acceleration
536-537
During a power skip, what type of arm movement takes place?
Alternating arm movement
or
Double arm movement
Double arm movement
497
What is the minimum recommended work-rest ratio for plyometrics?
1:5
477
While performing a power clean, Jason catches the barbell on his shoulders, resulting in this position:
The bar sits on top of his anterior deltoids and clavicles (collar bones)
He has a flat, shoulder-width foot placement
His upper arms and the floor are parallel
His hips and knees are in a quarter squat bend
His shoulders are slightly behind his hips
Does this describe the correct position for this phase of the lift. if not, what needs to change?
Jason’s hips need to be slightly behind the shoulder position
or
Jason has the correct position
Jason’s hips need to be slightly behind the shoulder position
404-405
Which of these documents details the correct process of injury management?
Medical clearance forms
or
Emergency action plan
Emergency action plan
653
Which of these joints experience flexion during the stability ball pike movement?
Shoulders
or
Hips
Hips
426
Which of these is the best training protocol for the off-season phase of an aerobic endurance athlete’s program?
Long, slow distance training
or
Fartlek training
Long, slow distance training
571
Which of the following is not a cause for failure on the BESS?
Lifting hands from hips
or
Not lifting forefoot or heel
Not lifting forefoot or heel
284
Which of the following training goals likely entails the highest volume-load?
Muscular endurance
or
Hypertrophy
Hypertrophy
463-464
Which of the following balance requirements should be met before performing plyometrics with nontraditional movement patterns?
30-second single-leg balance with no corrections
or
Passing Star Excursion score
30-second single-leg balance with no corrections
481
How many BPM should the metronome be set for the partial curl-up test?
30BPM or 40BPM
40 BPM
274
A quick, forceful pull of a barbell off the floor directly into an overhead position describes which lifting exercise?
Clean & Jerk
or
Snatch
Snatch
402, 404-407
Which of the following tests eliminates the effect of the stretch-shortening cycle?
Countermovement jump
or
Static squat jump
Static squat jump
474
The following equipment is specifically needed for obtaining a stretch tolerance profile:
Boxes of various heights
or
Flat floor with proper traction
Boxes of various heights
271
What is an ideal height to set a box for an athlete executing their first ever single-leg push-off box drill?
6” or 10”
6”
502
A female athlete squats 150lb on her 1RM back squat test, which of the following numbers best estimates her 5RM?
125.5lb or 130.5lb
130.5lb
452
Which of the following refers to performing plyometric training immediately following high-intensity resistance training?
Combination training
or
Complex training
Complex training
480
6
Which of the following training loads is most appropriate for improving sport-specific power in basketball players?
Jump-squat - 10 repetitions at 30% 1RM
or
Power clean - 3-5 repetitions at 75-85% 1RM
Power clean - 3-5 repetitions at 75-85% 1RM
460
Which of these factors combine to influence running velocity?
power and ground contact time
or
stride rate and stride length
Stride length
527-528
Which flexibility type is defined by available ROM during active, voluntary movement?
Dynamic flexibility
or
Passive flexibility
Dynamic flexibility
320
What aspect of a program is described by the following?
“To create programs across all pillars of fitness that mitigate risk of injury risk and optimize athletic performance”
Objectives
or
Program goals
Objectives
642
After the downward phase of a good-morning, Josh assumes this position:
Upper back and delts bear the load on the bar
Feet ahead of hips
Neutral spine and just above parallel
Legs locked straight
Feet flat on floor
Is this the ideal stance? what should change otherwise?
Andre should have a degree of flexion in the knees instead of full extension
or
This is the ideal stance
Andre should have a degree of flexion in the knees instead of full extension
388
What is the reason for an intra-training test administration?
To confirm the viability of the program in achieving training goals
or
To evaluate progress of the athlete and make any necessary changes for optimized results
To evaluate progress of the athlete and make any necessary changes for optimized results
250
When performing the seated lean-back stretch for the deltoids and chest, the hands are placed on the floor behind the body. What direction should the fingers point?
Pointing rearward away from the athlete’s body
or
Pointing towards the athlete’s body
Pointing rearward away from the athlete’s body
331
What phase of the chin-up exercise is best for inhalation?
Concentric
or
Eccentric
Eccentric
353
Low speed force production is measured by which of these tests?
Maximal muscular strength tests
or
Maximal muscular power tests
Maximal muscular strength tests
260
What’s the best way for a strength and conditioning facility to be designed for optimal functionality and appearance?
Based on the experience of the strength and conditioning professionals
or
By the type of equipment
By the type of equipment
628-629
Regarding a training protocol designed for maximizing strength, which of these can be considered an appropriate load application?
70-80% 1RM
or
80-90% 1RM
80-90% 1RM
454
What is the best seat height selection protocol for use of a stationary bike?
The seat should be adjusted to allow the bottom leg 25-30 degrees of flexion in the knee
or
The seat should be high enough for the athlete to fully straighten the leg at the bottom of each pedal cycle
The seat should be adjusted to allow the bottom leg 25-30 degrees of flexion in the knee
576
Increasing intensity and decreasing volume of training assists in attaining maximal strength and power during which period?
Competitive period
or
Pre-season
Competitive period
591
After a maximal anaerobic capacity test, how long does the glycolytic system take to recover back to an optimal level?
1 hour or more
or
3-5 minutes
1 hour or more
256
Regarding the design phase, which of these is false?
Master plan development occurs during this phase
or
Selection of the architect occurs during this phase
Master plan development occurs during this phase
624
What do you call the active stretch where palms and feet are place flat on the floor as the weight is shifted backwards?
Downward dog
or
Inchworm
Inchworm
342
What is the ideal spotter hand position during a step up?
Close to the hips or torso
or
Thumbs crossed under the end of the bar
Close to the hips or torso
386-387
Regarding an individual’s testing results, which of these describes the comparison of those scores to a group average in terms of standard deviations?
Percentile rank
or
Z-score
Z-score
291-292
When beginning a new program, which of these defines an athletes condition or level of preparedness?
Training experience
or
Training status
Training status
442-447
The second pull of a snatch employs explosive action of which muscles?
Ankles, knees and hips
or
Shoulders, elbows, hips
Ankles, knees and hips
406-407
In the neurophysiological model of plyometrics, which term refers to the change in force-velocity characteristics caused by the stretch reflex?
Potentiation
or
Series elastic component
Potentiation
472
What muscle is stretched in the straddle but not in the semi-straddle?
Hip adductors
or
Quadriceps
Hip adductors
338-339
Which factor has the ultimate control of flexibility?
Central and peripheral nervous system
or
Joint structure
Central and peripheral nervous system
322
During a partial curl up test, how many curl-ups per minute should be executed?
20 or 30
20
pg.274
Which stretching exercise targets the hamstrings?
Pigeon or Straddle
Straddle
339-340
Motor unit recruitment and recovery between sets can be optimized by alternating which of these?
Pull and Push exercises
or
Upper and lower body exercises
Push and pull exercises
449
Which of the following non-temperature related effects occurs through a proper warm-up?
Enhanced neural function
or
Post activation potentiation
Post activation potentiation
318-320
What is the suggested step depth, as adjusted by the user, during use of the stair stepper for aerobic training?
4-8” or 7-10”
4-8”
pg.578
Which PNF stretch involves concentric muscle action of the stretched muscle?
Contract-relax
325-327
Which of these abdominal muscles is tasked with pulling the ribs towards the waist during the crunch exercise?
Intercostal muscles
or
Rectus abdominis
Rectus abdominis
359
Which of the following would not be a component of the feasibility study?
Comparing architectural bids
or
Determining projected return on investment
Comparing architectural bids
624-625
Which of these tests offers a measure of flexibility?
Partial-curl test
or
Overhead squat
Overhead squat
278,281,287
Which of these is not one of an emergency team’s four primary roles?
Document the injury event in a formal report
or
Make way for EMS evacuation
Document the injury event in a formal report
655
A high metabolic demand of the phosphagen system is encountered in which of these sports?
Marathon running
or
Olympic lifting
Olympic lifting
88-89
Who is responsible for the day-to-day health of the athletes?
Athletic trainer
or
Strength and conditioning professional
Athletic trainer
606
Which PNF stretch takes advantage of autogenic and reciprocal inhibition?
Hold-relax with agonist contraction
327
Which of these exercises makes sense to superset for a female physique athlete looking to efficiently stimulate hypertrophy?
Chin-ups and front squats
or
Seated rows and Dumbbell bench press
Seated rows and Dumbbell bench press
449-451
Which of the following stretching types is most likely to activate the stretch reflex?
Ballistic stretching
or
Static stretching
Ballistic stretching
323-324
Which of these stretches targets the prime mover of the pull-up exercise?
Cross arm behind back
or
Pillar stretch
Pillar stretch
331,333
What is the proper finish position for the power clean?
Bar overhead with arms fully extended
or
Front clavicle and anterior deltoids with upper arms horizontal
Front clavicle and anterior deltoids with upper arms horizontal
404-405
How many steps are needed for deceleration from full speed when performing deceleration drills?
6 or 7
6
553
For a middle school weight room, what is the maximum number of athletes per strength and conditioning professional?
10 or 20
10
652
Which grip is recommended for heavy weightlifting derivative movements (i.e. power clean)?
Pronated closed grip
or
Pronated hooked grip
Pronated hooked grip
352
Where should the barbell be at the beginning of the second pull of the power clean?
Just above the knees
or
Mid-chest
Just above the knees
404-405
Whose responsibility is it to communicate regarding spotting during liftoff and planned number of reps?
The athlete
or
The athlete & the spotter
The athlete & the spotter
355-356
When using the shoulders-against-the-tire technique, during the initial upward movement phase of a tire flip, in what direction should the main drive occur?
Forward until the body reaches a 45-degree angle
or
Upward until the athlete is vertical
Forward until the body reaches a 45-degree angle
428-429
Which of these tests is not metabolically specific for a gymnast?
Margaria-Kalamen test
or
Yo-yo intermittent recovery test
Margaria-Kalamen test
253,268,272,278
In terms of exercise economy, compared to novices, better runners tend to have:
Longer stride length
or
Shorter stride length
Shorter stride length
561
With regards to criterion referenced validity, what are the three relevant types?
Concurrent, predictive, and discriminant
or
Construct, external, convergent
Concurrent, predictive, and discriminant
251-252
What analysis is being made by determining that the primary movements of a particular sport include hip and knee extension?
Movement analysis
or
Sport viability analysis
Movement analysis
441
Muscular endurance exercises ideally require how much recovery time?
Up to 30 seconds
or
1 minute
Up to 30 seconds
466-467
In general, what is the proper foot position using ground-based nontraditional exercises?
Feet hip-width apart
or
Feet wider than shoulder-width apart
Feet wider than shoulder-width apart
410
What practical limitations are presented by the Karvonen method for assigning heart rate training zones
It does indicate a measure of lactate threshold
or
It does not account for nutrient influence on heart rate
It does indicate a measure of lactate threshold
536-564
For the movement of kicking a ball, which of these is the most appropriate exercise?
Clean & Jerk
or
Single Leg Squat
Single Leg Squat
445
What is the proper hand position when spotting the barbell bench press during a standard repetition?
Alternated grip position near the bar following the range of motion
or
Closed, alternated grip on the bar between the athlete’s hands
Alternated grip position near the bar following the range of motion
354
Of the following tests, which sequence would provide the most reliable results? Wingate test, 12-minute run, Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press
1 RM bench press, vertical jump, Wingate test, 12-minute run
or
Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, Wingate test, 12-minute run
Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, Wingate test, 12-minute run
256-257
Which of the following is not generally a component of the mission statement?
The aspects of the facility that are unique
or
The guidelines for maintenance of the facility
The guidelines for maintenance of the facility
642
The following is not a contact point for the five-point body contact position:
Buttocks evenly placed on bench or seat
or
Low back firmly flat against bench or pad
Low back firmly flat against bench or pad
353
The following can be used to calculate the overall load of resistance bands or chains added to a barbell:
Calculate the average load between the top and bottom positions
or
Subtract the average resistance between the top and bottom positions from the barbell
Subtract the average resistance between the top and bottom positions from the barbell
414-415
Who is ultimately responsible for approving an athlete to begin training?
Director of strength and conditioning
or
Sports medicine personnel
Sports medicine personnel
647
Which of the following determines who is allowed to use the facility?
Assumption of risk
or
Eligibility criteria
Eligibility criteria
648
What is the primary difference between a push press and push jerk?
Push press is caught overhead with slightly flexed elbows and pressed to the top
or
Push jerk is caught in a lunge position
Push press is caught overhead with slightly flexed elbows and pressed to the top
400-402
How many reps is an athlete predicted to perform at 85% 1RM load?
6 or 7
6
452
At what point should the shrug occur during a power snatch?
When the lower body joints reach full extension in the first pull
or
When the lower body joints reach full extension in the second pull
When the lower body joints reach full extension in the second pull
406-407
Testosterone binding to receptor key to stimulating anabolic function
T or F
True
Growth hormone has a synergistic effect with testosterone
T or F
True
Testosterone binds to receptors inside the cell and on the cell surface
T or F
True
