cscs ? Flashcards

1
Q

The deltoid is primarily responsible for which sagittal plane motion?

Extension
or
Flexion

A

Flexion

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2
Q

What macronutrient leads to the most dominant thermic effect of food intake?

Carbohydrates
or
Fats
or 
Protein
A

Protein

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3
Q

An athlete tenses and relaxes specific muscle groups and cycles through each body area while taking deep, controlled inhalations and exhalations. This is known as:

A

Progressive muscular relaxation

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4
Q

A coach informs his athlete on the time the athlete took to complete the T-drill. What category best describes this ?

A

Knowledge of results

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5
Q

A coach calling a time-out in-game before the opposing team kicks a field goal is attempting to manipulate what?

A

Selective attention

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6
Q

The process of gas exchange in the alveolar-capillary membrane is known as:

A

Diffusion

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7
Q

Exchange of nutrients between blood and tissues occurs in which of the following structures?

A

Capillaries

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8
Q

Which of the following muscles assists in elbow flexion?

A

Biceps brachii (short and long heads)

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9
Q

Suggests that optimal performance occurs at an intermediate level of arousal while both low and high levels of arousal will result in impaired performance

A

The Inverted U

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10
Q

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in?

A

Increased heart rate

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11
Q

Which connective tissue within a muscle pulls on the tendon during contraction?

A

Perimysium

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12
Q

Which muscle stabilizes the hip in the frontal plane during squatting movements?

A

Gluteus medius

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13
Q

Which muscle is the prime mover for flexion of the humerus during sagittal plane horizontal pushing?

A

Pectoralis major

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14
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction that occurs during the contraction phase?

A

Myosin ATPase

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15
Q

MyPlate’s weekly recommendation for dark green vegetables is what for females?

A

1.5 cups

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16
Q

Goals that are specific actions of performing. For example, aiming to study for 2 hours after dinner every day . These goals are 100% controllable by the individual.

A

Process goals

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17
Q

What feedback timing impairs learning but enhances immediate performance?

A

Feedback provided concurrent (simultaneously) to the task.

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18
Q

The majority of sporting movements involve which type of joint?

A

Synovial joints

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19
Q

On an ECG, which of the following represents ventricular repolarization?

A

T-wave

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20
Q

What goal is not considered an arousal control technique?

A

Process goals

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21
Q

most often found at the proximal end of a muscle
directly affixed to the bone
usually over a wide area so that force is distributed rather than localized.

A

fleshy attachments

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22
Q

An athlete is told to squat to a specific depth without further direction. This is known as:

A

Discovery

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23
Q

Which type of phosphorylation occurs in the electron transport chain?

A

Oxidative

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24
Q

The replenishment of ATP is accomplished through which of the following processes?

A

Phosphorylation

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25
Q

What nutrients is not typically deficient in most populations?

A

Unsaturated fat

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26
Q

Instructing an athlete on the overall movement goal and important prompts, without specific instruction for task completion is known as:

A

Guided discovery

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27
Q

What tendon insertion to the joint provides an advantage in speed-dependent sports… closer or further?

A

Insertion closer to the joint

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28
Q

Breaking down tasks into subcomponents with clear breaks between each is known as:

A

Segmentation

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29
Q

Rotational work is a function of what two factors?

A

Angular displacement & Torque

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30
Q

What levers by definition operates at a mechanical disadvantage?

A

Third-class

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31
Q

It occurs in glycolysis when sufficient O2 is available?

A

Pyruvate shuttled to mitochondria

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32
Q

Most muscles operate at a mechanical advantage of which of the following?

A

Less than 1.0

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33
Q

What isomer of glucose is typically found in candy and sports drinks?

A

Dextrose

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34
Q

What chemical is rapidly depleted during anaerobic exercise?

A

Creatine phosphate

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35
Q

What muscle acts as a synergist during deep squatting to counteract hip flexion?

A

Gluteus maximus

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36
Q

Which compound produces more net ATP during substate-level phosphorylation?

A

Glycogen

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37
Q

A first-class lever has what characteristics?

A

mechanical advantage or disadvantage

acts on the opposite side of fulcrum as the resistive force

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38
Q

Which PRACTICE structure is best for challenging tasks with low interrelatedness of the subcomponents?

A

Part practice

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39
Q

In the power clean, an athlete practices the first pull, then adds the transition and practices both together, then the second pull, and finally adds the catch. Only the first pull is practiced in isolation. This is known as what type of training

Progressive-part training
or 
Pure-part training
or
Repetitive part training
A

Repetitive part training

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40
Q

Practicing the power clean by doing:
the first pull and transition seperately, combining them, then practicing the second pull seperately and combining the three, then practicing the catch seperately before combining all components is known as:

A

Progressive-part training

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41
Q

Practicing variations of the same skill within a single practice is known as:

A

Variable practice

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42
Q

What is the definition of power?

A

Work/time

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43
Q

The LT and OBLA may be caused by ?

A

Increased recruitment of large motor units

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44
Q

What factors are used to calculate torque?

A

Length of the moment arm & the magnitude of applied force

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45
Q

Early gains in an athlete’s strength are due primarily to what 2 factors?

A

Faster rate coding
&
Greater recruitment

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46
Q

Muscles with a greater pennation angle tend to have what characteristics?

A

Greater maximum force, lower maximal shortening velocity

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47
Q

How do you Calculate the positive work performed and the power output when lifting a barbell straight upwards using the following numbers:
Local Gravity: 9.8 m/s2
Barbell weight = 50kg
Vertical Displacement = 1.5 meters
Desired Acceleration rate = 1 m/s2
Time needed to fully lift bar = 2 seconds

A

Work = 540 J, power = 270 W

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48
Q

What hormones is permissive?

A

Thyroid

permissive (optional)

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49
Q

Nonbinding hormone blocking a receptor’s primary binding site… is an ex of what type of binding?

A

Allosteric binding

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50
Q

What event will be most limited by drop in cellular pH?

A

400m dash

pg. 58

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51
Q

What can lead to downregulation?

A

Maximum muscle protein added to muscle fiber

Pg. 69

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52
Q

Give a true statement about hormonal adaptations?

A

Only activated fibers are subject to adaptations

84-85

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53
Q

Is Progesterone an anabolic hormone?

Yes or No

A

No

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54
Q

Which is true?
I. Testosterone binding to receptor key to stimulating anabolic function
II. Growth hormone has a synergistic effect with testosterone
III. Testosterone binds to receptors inside the cell and on the cell surface

A

All of them

74-75

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55
Q

Athletes should consume how many carbs following post-workout to ensure muscle glycogen repletion?

A

0.7-3.0g carbohydrate per kilo of body weight every 2-3 hours

56

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56
Q

Glycogen depletion during moderate and high-intensity exercise primarily occurs in what type of tissue :

A

Muscle tissue

56

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57
Q

Adding sprints at the end of practice due to lack of hustle during practice… is an example of what type of punishment ?

A

positive punishment

163

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58
Q

Calcification of blood vessels and heart tissue is associated with excess consumption of what vitamin?

A

Vitamin D

192-193

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59
Q

An athlete with normal IGF levels will see what:

A

IGF level unchanged

80-81

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60
Q

Which chemicals prevent hormone-degradation during transit?

A

Binding proteins

69

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61
Q

What level does not typically drop during high-intensity exercise?

A

Blood glucose

56

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62
Q

“Assessing the environment and the elements within it” is a characteristic of WHAT TYPE OF FOCUS:

A

Broad External Focus

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63
Q

What vitamins is associated with liver damage when taken in excess amounts?

A

Vitamin A

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64
Q

Steroid hormones are primarily produced in which organs

A

Adrenal cortex & Gonads

70-71

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65
Q

Give an example of an activity that results in the greatest EPOC?

A

10 total sets @ 80-90% 1RM

58

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66
Q

What substance begins the process of producing steroid-promoted proteins?

A

mRNA

70-71

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67
Q

What 2 types of reinforcement are the most effective ways for encouraging a desired behavior:

A

Positive & Negative reinforcement

163

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68
Q

Focusing on the task with less focus on the details of movement characterizes what stage?

A

Associative Stage

164

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69
Q

What nutrients is the most energy-dense?

A

Intramuscular fatty acids

186-190

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70
Q

An athlete recovering from a traumatic injury during play would benefit from ______________ ______________.

A

Systematic desensitization

165

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71
Q

During aerobic exercise, EPOC is most affected by:

A

Intensity

57-58

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72
Q

What hormone relies on secondary messengers to initiate DNA transcription?

growth hormone
or
IGFs
or
Thyroid hormones
A

Growth Hormone

77

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73
Q

What is the first step of General Adaptation Syndrome?

A

Alarm Reaction

66

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74
Q

What are the 3 processes that occurs during muscle tissue remodeling?

A

I. Damage to muscle fibers
II. Inflammation response
IV. Synthesis of new protein

66

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75
Q

Is Pica associated with anemia? Yes or No

A

Yes

194-195

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76
Q

Is Decreased BMD associated with anemia? Yes or No

A

No

194-195

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77
Q

What hormone is synthesized form amino acids?

A

Serotonin

72

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78
Q

The processes of hormone receptors becoming less responsive is known as what:

A

Downregulation

70

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79
Q

Elevated cortisol levels are cause by what:

A

Increased proteolytic enzyme levels

83

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80
Q

To increase iron absorption, athletes should consume plant-based iron with what:

A

Vitamin C

194

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81
Q

Immediate elevation of IGF occurs with acute anaerobic training?

True or False

A

False

102-103

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82
Q

Following anaerobic training, what adaptation should be expected?

A

Increased T-tubule density

90

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83
Q

Improved ventilation efficiency is shown in trained individuals. true or False

A

False

104

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84
Q

Resistance exercise is limited by ventilation rate. T/F

A

True

104

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85
Q

Approximately how long does it take for detraining to begin in terms of strength adaptations?

A

4 weeks

110-111

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86
Q

What 3 neural adaptations occur as a result of anaerobic training?

A

I. Increased AGONIST recruitment
III. Increased FIRING RATE
IV. Decreased INHIBITORY mechanisms

88-90

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87
Q

What theory says that “arousal’s effect on performance depends on the individual’s interpretation of arousal”?

A

Reversal theory

161

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88
Q

Low-moderate loads do not change the collagen content of connective tissue

T/F

A

True

101-102

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89
Q

Strenuous exercise causes degenerative disease when progressively overloaded
T/F

A

False

101-102

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90
Q

What is the connective tissue that converges with the tendons?

A

Fascia

99-100

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91
Q

What theory proposes that optimal performance occurs in a small range of arousal level depending on multiple psychological factors?

A

Individual zones of optimal functioning

161

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92
Q

What is the long-term effect of anaerobic training on resting hormone levels?

A

Resting hormone levels unaffected

103

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93
Q

What is the maximum increase in tidal volume associated with aerobic exercise?

A

3.0L

118

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94
Q

Give an example of variable practice?

A

Practicing a body punch then practicing a head punch

170-171

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95
Q

An athlete displaying decreased performance, increased resting heart rate, and altered immune function is likely suffering from :

functional overreaching
or
non-functional overreaching

A

Non-functional overreaching

107

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96
Q

Which of the following is the biggest contributor to TDEE?

A

BMR/RMR

216

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97
Q

What is the approximate amount of oxygen carrying capacity per 100mL of blood in men?

A

20mL

120

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98
Q

What formula represents the rate pressure product of oxygen consumption by the heart?

A

Heart rate * systolic blood pressure

117

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99
Q

Give 3 acute cardiovascular responses to aerobic training?

A

I. Increased cardiac output
II. Increased stroke volume
III. Increased heart rate

116

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100
Q

What biomarker of hydration status is most practical for acute hydration status?

A

Body weight

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101
Q

What protein is responsible for allowing some stretch to occur in the ligaments?

A

Elastin

100

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102
Q

personality disposition towards perceiving an environment as threatening is known as:

A

Trait anxiety

158

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103
Q

What best describes a sudden drop in performance due to cognitive anxiety and physical arousal?

A

Catastrophe theory

161

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104
Q

How is the majority of CO2 removed from cells transported for exhalation?

A

Bicarbonate ions

120

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105
Q

Acute cardiovascular responses to resistance training include what two things:

A

I. Elevated blood pressure
IV. Increased stroke volume

103-104

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106
Q

What adjustments occur after 3-6 weeks days at altitude (>1,200 m above sea-level)?

A

Increased hemoglobin formation

127

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107
Q

Which of the following endocrine adaptations does not occur from aerobic training?
A. Increased IGF
B. Decreased circulating testosterone in men

A

Decreased circulating testosterone in men

123

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108
Q

Which of the following is not a muscle structure adaptation to anaerobic training?

  • Decreased cytoplasmic density
  • Larger pennation angle
A

Decreased cytoplasmic density

90

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109
Q

Where does gas exchange occur in the pulmonary system?

A

Alveoli

118

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110
Q

Which of the following is most negatively affected by aerobic training?

Hypertrophy

Maximum power

A

Maximum power

105

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111
Q

What is the maximal cardiac output possible in liters during intense activity?

A

20-22L/min

116

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112
Q

What TDEE EQUATION accounts for LEAN BODY MASS?

A

Cunningham

216-217

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113
Q

refers to increased end-diastolic volume stretching the myocardial fibers resulting in increased systolic injection?

A

Frank-Starling mechanism

117-118

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114
Q

What is the maximum possible % proportion of cardiac output to muscle tissue during exercise?

A

90 %

118

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115
Q

Calculate the BMI for an individual weighing 80kg with a height of 200cm.

A

20

219

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116
Q

A boxer practicing a jab, then a jab-cross, followed by a jab-cross-hook is an example of what type of training?

A

Progressive-part training

170-171

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117
Q

Use the Fick Equation to calculate the oxygen uptake in mLkg-1min-1 using the following numbers:
Fick Equation = Q * a-vO2
HR = 80 bpm
Stroke volume = 65mL
Arteriovenous difference = 6mL O2/100mL blood
Weight = 85kg

A

3.67

117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Anaerobic training enhancement of the elastic properties of muscle and connective tissue to increase force is known as what type of activation :

A

Increased myotatic reflex activation

92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Which of the following carbohydrate intakes is optimal during prolonged endurance exercise?

50g glucose-fructose mixture per hour

20g sucrose-fructose per hour

A

50g glucose-fructose mixture per hour

120
Q

Specificity of loading
High-impact activities
Progressive overload

should be followed to increase what ?

A

Bone remodeling

99

121
Q

What is the timeframe for bone remodeling and BMD increases?

A

6 months or more

98-99

122
Q

How much fluid should a 132-pound adolescent drink during training to ensure adequate hydration status?

A

9oz every 20 minutes

198-199

123
Q

The area of the respiratory tract not functional for gas exchange

A

Anatomical dead space

118

124
Q

What 3 neural adaptations occur with chronic resistance training?

A

Increased efficiency

Delayed fatigue in contractile mechanisms

Improved synchronization of agonist, synergist, and antagonist muscles

121

125
Q

Is a metric for measuring arousal?

A

Catecholamine levels

157

126
Q

Does the ventilatory equivalent parallel the rise in blood lactate? Yes or No

A

Yes

118

127
Q

The cells responsible for collagen secretion are known as:

A

Osteroblasts

97-98

128
Q

The majority of blood oxygen is carried in :

A

Hemoglobin

120

129
Q

What is the proper USG to ensure adequate hydration?

less than 1.020
or
more than 1.020

A

Less than 1.020

197

130
Q

Is characterized by the desire to challenge oneself and evaluate one’s abilities:

A

Motive to achieve success

162

131
Q

proposes a linear relationship between arousal and performance?

A

Drive Theory

161

132
Q

Asking an athlete how they believe they are doing is a component of what type of practice?

A

Self-controlled practice

162

133
Q

What amino acids is most important as part of post-training protein intake?

A

Leucine

210-212

134
Q

The size-principle refers to which of the following?

Motor units are recruited in selective order based on recruitment threshold and firing rate

Larger motor units have higher force production

A

Motor units are recruited in selective order based on recruitment threshold and firing rate

91

135
Q

Fear of consequences of failure may lead to what type of anxiety?

A

Trait Anxiety

136
Q

Progressive muscular relaxation is characterized by which of the following?

Maximally tensing and consciously relaxing a muscle

Focusing on a sense of warmth and heaviness in a muscle group

A

Maximally tensing and consciously relaxing a muscle

165

137
Q

Which body type do late-maturing adolescents typically have?

A

Ectomorphic

139

138
Q

At what age does peak height velocity typically occur?

9-11
or
12-14
or
15-18
A

Ages 12 to 14

137

139
Q

An athlete displaying sleep disturbances, performance degradation, and mood disturbances may be suffering from:

A

OTS (Overtraining Syndrome)

130

140
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the potentiation of concentric muscle action during plyometric exercise?

Tendons & Ligaments

Muscle Spindles

A

Muscle Spindles

473

141
Q

Anxiety manifested through physical symptoms such as elevated heart rate and tense muscles is known as what type of anxiety:

A

Somatic anxiety

158

142
Q

Amenorrhea is biologically caused by having an insufficiency in what hormone :

A

Luteinizing hormone

146

143
Q

What substances would most likely be used to increase muscle strength?

A

Trenbolone acetate

232-233

144
Q

Maximal arousal is needed for optimal performance

T/F

A

False

157

145
Q

Athletes must learn mental skills to accompany physical skills

T/F

A

True

157

146
Q

During advanced stages of detraining, highly trained athletes may see a decrease in VO2 max of:

6% - 20%

10% - 15%

A

6% -20%

131

147
Q

What substances does not appear on random drug tests?

A

HGH

234-235

148
Q

A football coach waiving sprints due to substantial effort displayed in practice is an example of

A

Negative reinforcement

162-163

149
Q

What substance may only enhance recovery in previously untrained athletes or experienced athletes on a novel training program?

A

HMB

239-240

150
Q

What are the most useful GOALS for a specific practice session?

A

Process goals

168-169

151
Q

At what point in adolescence do peak strength gains typically appear?

A

1.2 years after peak height velocity

137

152
Q

The storage of potential energy occurs during which phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

A

Eccentric phase

473

153
Q

term refers to the product of the time force is applied to the ground and the amount of force applied:

A

Impulse

524

154
Q

substance enhances performance during high-intensity exercise lasting longer than 60 seconds and shorter than 6 minutes?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

241-242

155
Q

I. Absence of fear of failure
II. No thinking about or analysis of performance
III. Narrow focus of attention concentrated on the activity itself
IV. Sense of effortlessness

The _____ _______ state

A

Ideal performance state

156

156
Q

is the most accurate method of measuring intensity?

A

Blood lactate concentration

561

157
Q

Theoretically, supercompensation occurs during which phase of the GAS?

A

Resistance phase

584-585

158
Q

What theory states: “As an individual’s arousal or state anxiety increases, the performance also increases”

A

Drive theory

159

159
Q

Sarcopenia is associated with :

A

Decreased muscle cross-section area

148

160
Q

best predicts aerobic performance?

A

Maximal lactic steady state

161
Q

Which is not a likely a reason for aerobic power differences in men and women?

Larger heart size in men

Decreased testosterone in women

A

Decreased testosterone in women

129

162
Q

At what point is motor unit myelination complete?

A

Following puberty

141

163
Q

measures can be used to determine if an athlete has the proper timing of force production?

Stride angle or Stride length

A

Stide angle

543

164
Q

According to the Karvonen method, a 25-year-old athlete with a resting HR of 60BPM exercising at 70-80% intensity should have a heart rate between:

A

154-168

pg 564

165
Q

What range of lumens should the facility lighting be?

A

50-100

166
Q

Which of the following training goals is appropriate for phase one of short-distance sprint development?

Exposure to speed endurance

Develop accelerative ability

A

Develop accelerative ability

pg 541

167
Q

A workout including 2 sets of 10 reps of Romanian deadlift at 60% 5RM should occur during which training phase?

A

Hypertrophy phase 1

590

168
Q

The Margaria-Kalamen test measures which of the following?

Anaerobic capacity
or
Maximum power

A

Maximum power

pg 260-261

169
Q

Which of the following seasons involves the greatest intensity of training?

Preseason or Offseason

A

Preseason

570-571

170
Q

Regarding max velocity accelerating and sprinting, which of these two stride phases is common in both?

Support & Flight
or
Ground-contact and impulse

A

Support & Flight

527

171
Q

What testing parameter refers to the maximal rate of energy production from combined phosphagen and anaerobic glycolysis?

Maximum power or Anaerobic capacity

A

Anaerobic capacity

pg 261

172
Q

Which of the following methods may be most beneficial for utilizing the adaptations associated with being at altitude?

Living at altitude and training at sea level

or

Spending several months living and training at altitude

A

Living at altitude and training at sea level

572

173
Q

Which of the following training methods is least recommended for improving sprint time?

Loaded depth drops

or

Overspeed training

A

Overspeed training

537

174
Q

When performing a front plank, how far apart should the feet be?

Hip width apart
or
Directly next to each other

A

Hip width apart

423

175
Q

Compared to sprinting, change of direction and agility have increased:

Cognitive-perceptual demands
or
Eccentric force production demands

A

Eccentric force production demands

533

176
Q

What muscle tissue property allows it to take on a new length after performance of a passive stretch?

elasticity or plasticity

A

plasticity

321

177
Q

What is the preferred hand placement for a spotter during a flat dumbbell fly?

On the elbows
or
Adjacent to the forearms of the lifter

A

Adjacent to the lifter

365

178
Q

Which of the following drills incorporates cognitive-perceptual demands with change-of-direction?

Illinois drill
or
Y-shaped agility drill

A

Y-shaped agility drill

556

179
Q

What is the maximum recommended sound system decibels?

A

90 decibels

628

180
Q

What is a general recommendation for frequency, duration, and intensity during week 2 of an aerobic endurance progression?

Four times per week at an intensity of 70% to 85% THR for 45 minutes, one time per week for 55 minutes at 60%-75% THR

or

Five times per week at an intensity of 70%-85% THR for 45 minutes

A

Five times per week at an intensity of 70%-85% THR for 45 minutes

567

181
Q

Which of the following is a sign of hyponatremia?

Lack of sweat
or
Dilute urine, bloated skin

A

dilute urine, bloated skin

pg 256

182
Q

How many fans should there be in a 2,400 square foot facility?

A

4-8 fans

628

183
Q

What is the ideal front knee angle at the beginning of the alternating bound flight phase?

60 or 90 degrees

A

90 degrees

500-501

184
Q

During the upward phase of a bent-over barbell row, what is a typical mistake?

Raising the torso
or
raising the bar too high

A

Raising the torso

pg 362

185
Q

Which of the following tests is appropriate for female athlete pulling endurance?

prone pullup test
or
standard pull-up test

A

prone pullup test

253

186
Q

What strength rehabilitation protocols involves 4 sets with progressively increased resistance and lower reps?

A

DAPRE

616-617

187
Q

Which phase should focus on rehabilitation of injuries?

General preparatory
or
Second transition

A

Second transition

591

188
Q

A barbell wrist extension requires what sort of grip?

closed supinated
or
closed pronated

A

closed pronated

378

189
Q

How much time between 1RM squat test attempts is warranted on near-max weight?

3 or 5 minutes

A

3 minutes

256

190
Q

What does the ankle do to absorb force in the support phase during the max velocity of a sprint?

Eccentric plantar flexion
or
Concentric dorsiflexion

A

Eccentric plantar flexion

473-474,531

191
Q

What is the recommended foot placement width while using a hip sled?

hip- width
or
shoulder width

A

Hip-width

379

192
Q

Which training phase typically includes base strength training?

General preparatory
or
Specific preparatory

A

Specific preparatory

589-590

193
Q

Where should the elbows be in relation to the bar during the preparation phase (the dip) of the push jerk?

Elbow alignment with mid point of lifters side
or
Elbows beneath or a bit in front of the barbell

A

Elbows beneath or a bit in front of the barbell

402-403

194
Q

Which of the following is an example of an open-chain exercise?

Deadlift
or
hamstring curl

A

Hamstring curl

pg. 615

195
Q

What is the typical duration of a mesocycle?

2-6 weeks
or 3-6 months

A

2-6 weeks

pg 587

196
Q

During which phase of injury rehabilitation should an athlete begin modalities such as balance boards and exercise balls specific to the injured area?

Fibroblastic repair
or
Maturation-remodeling

A

Fibroblastic repair

612-613

197
Q

Which of the following ordering of exercises is considered ideal when designing resistance training programs?

Power Clean, tricep press down, back squat
or
Power Clean, back squat, tricep press down

A

Power Clean, back squat, tricep press down

448-449

198
Q

hat is an appropriate load for assistance exercises in a training program focused on building maximal strength?

70-80% of 1 RM
or
85-95% of 1 RM

A

70-80% of 1 RM

454

199
Q

An indication is an acceptable activity for an athlete to perform during rehabilitation.
T or F

A

True

607

200
Q

Which is considered the proper exercise progression within a plyometric training program?

Single leg ankle hop, squat jump, cycled split squat jump
or
Squat jump, single leg ankle hop, cycled split squat jump

A

Squat jump, single leg ankle hop, cycled split squat jump

484-485, 487

201
Q

Which of the following tests can be used to find VO2 max?

12-minute run
or
Maximal aerobic speed

A

Maximal aerobic speed

279

202
Q

Which of these positive adaptations can result from high volume, medium intensity resistance training?

Increased muscle mass
or
Optimized strength

A

Increased muscle mass

106

203
Q

How much rest is needed between trials on the star excursion balance test?

15 or 30 sec

A

15sec

285

204
Q

What is the optimal hand placement spacing for an upright barbell row?

Wider than shoulder width hand placement
or
Shoulder width hand placement

A

Shoulder width hand placement

396

205
Q

When using PNF stretching with a client, you should perform a pre-stretch. How long should you hold this pre-stretch?

10 or 15 sec

A

10 seconds

325

206
Q

Which of the following statements about dynamic stretches is false?
Dynamic stretches and mobility drills are the same
or
Dynamic and ballistic stretches are the same

A

Dynamic and ballistic stretches are the same

323-324

207
Q

Which of the following athletes should generally avoid high-intensity plyometrics?

A

Prepubescent soccer forward
Master’s division track and field competitor
(young & old)

478-480

208
Q

What is the first step that should be completed when designing a strength and conditioning facility?

Forming a panel of experts
or
doing an impact analysis

A

Forming a panel of experts

624

209
Q

An interset rest period of 90 seconds is most appropriate for which of the following training goals?

Hypertrophy
or
Anaerobic capacity

A

Hypertrophy

465

210
Q

Bob asks Dan to assist as he thinks he might need help while performing his last bench press rep. Which of these is not true for Dan’s role as a spotter?

In case of failure by the lifter, the spotter should be able to take on the entire load
or
Spotters are not required to bear the entire load for the completion of a rep

A

Spotters are not required to bear the entire load for the completion of a rep

356

211
Q

Who is responsible for guiding correct exercise execution with the aim of injury prevention?

Spotter
or
Strength & Conditioner director

A

Spotter

354-355

212
Q

Which of these requires the most floor space?

Rower or Treadmill

A

Treadmill

630

213
Q

What ability can be improved by resisted sprints?

Acceleration or Maximal speed

A

Acceleration

536-537

214
Q

During a power skip, what type of arm movement takes place?

Alternating arm movement
or
Double arm movement

A

Double arm movement

497

215
Q

What is the minimum recommended work-rest ratio for plyometrics?

A

1:5

477

216
Q

While performing a power clean, Jason catches the barbell on his shoulders, resulting in this position:
The bar sits on top of his anterior deltoids and clavicles (collar bones)
He has a flat, shoulder-width foot placement
His upper arms and the floor are parallel
His hips and knees are in a quarter squat bend
His shoulders are slightly behind his hips
Does this describe the correct position for this phase of the lift. if not, what needs to change?

Jason’s hips need to be slightly behind the shoulder position
or
Jason has the correct position

A

Jason’s hips need to be slightly behind the shoulder position

404-405

217
Q

Which of these documents details the correct process of injury management?

Medical clearance forms
or
Emergency action plan

A

Emergency action plan

653

218
Q

Which of these joints experience flexion during the stability ball pike movement?

Shoulders
or
Hips

A

Hips

426

219
Q

Which of these is the best training protocol for the off-season phase of an aerobic endurance athlete’s program?

Long, slow distance training
or
Fartlek training

A

Long, slow distance training

571

220
Q

Which of the following is not a cause for failure on the BESS?

Lifting hands from hips
or
Not lifting forefoot or heel

A

Not lifting forefoot or heel

284

221
Q

Which of the following training goals likely entails the highest volume-load?

Muscular endurance
or
Hypertrophy

A

Hypertrophy

463-464

222
Q

Which of the following balance requirements should be met before performing plyometrics with nontraditional movement patterns?

30-second single-leg balance with no corrections
or
Passing Star Excursion score

A

30-second single-leg balance with no corrections

481

223
Q

How many BPM should the metronome be set for the partial curl-up test?

30BPM or 40BPM

A

40 BPM

274

224
Q

A quick, forceful pull of a barbell off the floor directly into an overhead position describes which lifting exercise?

Clean & Jerk
or
Snatch

A

Snatch

402, 404-407

225
Q

Which of the following tests eliminates the effect of the stretch-shortening cycle?

Countermovement jump
or
Static squat jump

A

Static squat jump

474

226
Q

The following equipment is specifically needed for obtaining a stretch tolerance profile:

Boxes of various heights
or
Flat floor with proper traction

A

Boxes of various heights

271

227
Q

What is an ideal height to set a box for an athlete executing their first ever single-leg push-off box drill?

6” or 10”

A

6”

502

228
Q

A female athlete squats 150lb on her 1RM back squat test, which of the following numbers best estimates her 5RM?

125.5lb or 130.5lb

A

130.5lb

452

229
Q

Which of the following refers to performing plyometric training immediately following high-intensity resistance training?

Combination training
or
Complex training

A

Complex training

480

230
Q

6
Which of the following training loads is most appropriate for improving sport-specific power in basketball players?

Jump-squat - 10 repetitions at 30% 1RM
or
Power clean - 3-5 repetitions at 75-85% 1RM

A

Power clean - 3-5 repetitions at 75-85% 1RM

460

231
Q

Which of these factors combine to influence running velocity?

power and ground contact time
or
stride rate and stride length

A

Stride length

527-528

232
Q

Which flexibility type is defined by available ROM during active, voluntary movement?

Dynamic flexibility
or
Passive flexibility

A

Dynamic flexibility

320

233
Q

What aspect of a program is described by the following?
“To create programs across all pillars of fitness that mitigate risk of injury risk and optimize athletic performance”

Objectives
or
Program goals

A

Objectives

642

234
Q

After the downward phase of a good-morning, Josh assumes this position:
Upper back and delts bear the load on the bar
Feet ahead of hips
Neutral spine and just above parallel
Legs locked straight
Feet flat on floor
Is this the ideal stance? what should change otherwise?

Andre should have a degree of flexion in the knees instead of full extension
or
This is the ideal stance

A

Andre should have a degree of flexion in the knees instead of full extension

388

235
Q

What is the reason for an intra-training test administration?

To confirm the viability of the program in achieving training goals
or
To evaluate progress of the athlete and make any necessary changes for optimized results

A

To evaluate progress of the athlete and make any necessary changes for optimized results

250

236
Q

When performing the seated lean-back stretch for the deltoids and chest, the hands are placed on the floor behind the body. What direction should the fingers point?

Pointing rearward away from the athlete’s body
or
Pointing towards the athlete’s body

A

Pointing rearward away from the athlete’s body

331

237
Q

What phase of the chin-up exercise is best for inhalation?

Concentric
or
Eccentric

A

Eccentric

353

238
Q

Low speed force production is measured by which of these tests?

Maximal muscular strength tests
or
Maximal muscular power tests

A

Maximal muscular strength tests

260

239
Q

What’s the best way for a strength and conditioning facility to be designed for optimal functionality and appearance?

Based on the experience of the strength and conditioning professionals
or
By the type of equipment

A

By the type of equipment

628-629

240
Q

Regarding a training protocol designed for maximizing strength, which of these can be considered an appropriate load application?

70-80% 1RM
or
80-90% 1RM

A

80-90% 1RM

454

241
Q

What is the best seat height selection protocol for use of a stationary bike?

The seat should be adjusted to allow the bottom leg 25-30 degrees of flexion in the knee
or
The seat should be high enough for the athlete to fully straighten the leg at the bottom of each pedal cycle

A

The seat should be adjusted to allow the bottom leg 25-30 degrees of flexion in the knee

576

242
Q

Increasing intensity and decreasing volume of training assists in attaining maximal strength and power during which period?

Competitive period
or
Pre-season

A

Competitive period

591

243
Q

After a maximal anaerobic capacity test, how long does the glycolytic system take to recover back to an optimal level?

1 hour or more
or
3-5 minutes

A

1 hour or more

256

244
Q

Regarding the design phase, which of these is false?

Master plan development occurs during this phase
or
Selection of the architect occurs during this phase

A

Master plan development occurs during this phase

624

245
Q

What do you call the active stretch where palms and feet are place flat on the floor as the weight is shifted backwards?

Downward dog
or
Inchworm

A

Inchworm

342

246
Q

What is the ideal spotter hand position during a step up?

Close to the hips or torso
or
Thumbs crossed under the end of the bar

A

Close to the hips or torso

386-387

247
Q

Regarding an individual’s testing results, which of these describes the comparison of those scores to a group average in terms of standard deviations?

Percentile rank
or
Z-score

A

Z-score

291-292

248
Q

When beginning a new program, which of these defines an athletes condition or level of preparedness?

Training experience
or
Training status

A

Training status

442-447

249
Q

The second pull of a snatch employs explosive action of which muscles?

Ankles, knees and hips
or
Shoulders, elbows, hips

A

Ankles, knees and hips

406-407

250
Q

In the neurophysiological model of plyometrics, which term refers to the change in force-velocity characteristics caused by the stretch reflex?

Potentiation
or
Series elastic component

A

Potentiation

472

251
Q

What muscle is stretched in the straddle but not in the semi-straddle?

Hip adductors
or
Quadriceps

A

Hip adductors

338-339

252
Q

Which factor has the ultimate control of flexibility?

Central and peripheral nervous system
or
Joint structure

A

Central and peripheral nervous system

322

253
Q

During a partial curl up test, how many curl-ups per minute should be executed?

20 or 30

A

20

pg.274

254
Q

Which stretching exercise targets the hamstrings?

Pigeon or Straddle

A

Straddle

339-340

255
Q

Motor unit recruitment and recovery between sets can be optimized by alternating which of these?

Pull and Push exercises
or
Upper and lower body exercises

A

Push and pull exercises

449

256
Q

Which of the following non-temperature related effects occurs through a proper warm-up?

Enhanced neural function
or
Post activation potentiation

A

Post activation potentiation

318-320

257
Q

What is the suggested step depth, as adjusted by the user, during use of the stair stepper for aerobic training?

4-8” or 7-10”

A

4-8”

pg.578

258
Q

Which PNF stretch involves concentric muscle action of the stretched muscle?

A

Contract-relax

325-327

259
Q

Which of these abdominal muscles is tasked with pulling the ribs towards the waist during the crunch exercise?

Intercostal muscles
or
Rectus abdominis

A

Rectus abdominis

359

260
Q

Which of the following would not be a component of the feasibility study?

Comparing architectural bids
or
Determining projected return on investment

A

Comparing architectural bids

624-625

261
Q

Which of these tests offers a measure of flexibility?

Partial-curl test
or
Overhead squat

A

Overhead squat

278,281,287

262
Q

Which of these is not one of an emergency team’s four primary roles?

Document the injury event in a formal report
or
Make way for EMS evacuation

A

Document the injury event in a formal report

655

263
Q

A high metabolic demand of the phosphagen system is encountered in which of these sports?

Marathon running
or
Olympic lifting

A

Olympic lifting

88-89

264
Q

Who is responsible for the day-to-day health of the athletes?

Athletic trainer
or
Strength and conditioning professional

A

Athletic trainer

606

265
Q

Which PNF stretch takes advantage of autogenic and reciprocal inhibition?

A

Hold-relax with agonist contraction

327

266
Q

Which of these exercises makes sense to superset for a female physique athlete looking to efficiently stimulate hypertrophy?

Chin-ups and front squats
or
Seated rows and Dumbbell bench press

A

Seated rows and Dumbbell bench press

449-451

267
Q

Which of the following stretching types is most likely to activate the stretch reflex?

Ballistic stretching
or
Static stretching

A

Ballistic stretching

323-324

268
Q

Which of these stretches targets the prime mover of the pull-up exercise?

Cross arm behind back
or
Pillar stretch

A

Pillar stretch

331,333

269
Q

What is the proper finish position for the power clean?

Bar overhead with arms fully extended
or
Front clavicle and anterior deltoids with upper arms horizontal

A

Front clavicle and anterior deltoids with upper arms horizontal

404-405

270
Q

How many steps are needed for deceleration from full speed when performing deceleration drills?

6 or 7

A

6

553

271
Q

For a middle school weight room, what is the maximum number of athletes per strength and conditioning professional?

10 or 20

A

10

652

272
Q

Which grip is recommended for heavy weightlifting derivative movements (i.e. power clean)?

Pronated closed grip
or
Pronated hooked grip

A

Pronated hooked grip

352

273
Q

Where should the barbell be at the beginning of the second pull of the power clean?

Just above the knees
or
Mid-chest

A

Just above the knees

404-405

274
Q

Whose responsibility is it to communicate regarding spotting during liftoff and planned number of reps?

The athlete
or
The athlete & the spotter

A

The athlete & the spotter

355-356

275
Q

When using the shoulders-against-the-tire technique, during the initial upward movement phase of a tire flip, in what direction should the main drive occur?

Forward until the body reaches a 45-degree angle
or
Upward until the athlete is vertical

A

Forward until the body reaches a 45-degree angle

428-429

276
Q

Which of these tests is not metabolically specific for a gymnast?

Margaria-Kalamen test
or
Yo-yo intermittent recovery test

A

Margaria-Kalamen test

253,268,272,278

277
Q

In terms of exercise economy, compared to novices, better runners tend to have:

Longer stride length
or
Shorter stride length

A

Shorter stride length

561

278
Q

With regards to criterion referenced validity, what are the three relevant types?

Concurrent, predictive, and discriminant
or
Construct, external, convergent

A

Concurrent, predictive, and discriminant

251-252

279
Q

What analysis is being made by determining that the primary movements of a particular sport include hip and knee extension?

Movement analysis
or
Sport viability analysis

A

Movement analysis

441

280
Q

Muscular endurance exercises ideally require how much recovery time?

Up to 30 seconds
or
1 minute

A

Up to 30 seconds

466-467

281
Q

In general, what is the proper foot position using ground-based nontraditional exercises?

Feet hip-width apart
or
Feet wider than shoulder-width apart

A

Feet wider than shoulder-width apart

410

282
Q

What practical limitations are presented by the Karvonen method for assigning heart rate training zones

It does indicate a measure of lactate threshold
or
It does not account for nutrient influence on heart rate

A

It does indicate a measure of lactate threshold

536-564

283
Q

For the movement of kicking a ball, which of these is the most appropriate exercise?

Clean & Jerk
or
Single Leg Squat

A

Single Leg Squat

445

284
Q

What is the proper hand position when spotting the barbell bench press during a standard repetition?

Alternated grip position near the bar following the range of motion
or
Closed, alternated grip on the bar between the athlete’s hands

A

Alternated grip position near the bar following the range of motion

354

285
Q
Of the following tests, which sequence would provide the most reliable results?
Wingate test,
12-minute run,
Vertical jump,
1 RM bench press

1 RM bench press, vertical jump, Wingate test, 12-minute run
or
Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, Wingate test, 12-minute run

A

Vertical jump, 1 RM bench press, Wingate test, 12-minute run

256-257

286
Q

Which of the following is not generally a component of the mission statement?

The aspects of the facility that are unique
or
The guidelines for maintenance of the facility

A

The guidelines for maintenance of the facility

642

287
Q

The following is not a contact point for the five-point body contact position:

Buttocks evenly placed on bench or seat
or
Low back firmly flat against bench or pad

A

Low back firmly flat against bench or pad

353

288
Q

The following can be used to calculate the overall load of resistance bands or chains added to a barbell:

Calculate the average load between the top and bottom positions
or
Subtract the average resistance between the top and bottom positions from the barbell

A

Subtract the average resistance between the top and bottom positions from the barbell

414-415

289
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for approving an athlete to begin training?

Director of strength and conditioning
or
Sports medicine personnel

A

Sports medicine personnel

647

290
Q

Which of the following determines who is allowed to use the facility?

Assumption of risk
or
Eligibility criteria

A

Eligibility criteria

648

291
Q

What is the primary difference between a push press and push jerk?

Push press is caught overhead with slightly flexed elbows and pressed to the top
or
Push jerk is caught in a lunge position

A

Push press is caught overhead with slightly flexed elbows and pressed to the top

400-402

292
Q

How many reps is an athlete predicted to perform at 85% 1RM load?

6 or 7

A

6

452

293
Q

At what point should the shrug occur during a power snatch?

When the lower body joints reach full extension in the first pull
or
When the lower body joints reach full extension in the second pull

A

When the lower body joints reach full extension in the second pull

406-407

294
Q

Testosterone binding to receptor key to stimulating anabolic function

T or F

A

True

295
Q

Growth hormone has a synergistic effect with testosterone

T or F

A

True

296
Q

Testosterone binds to receptors inside the cell and on the cell surface

T or F

A

True