csat pyq fc - Sheet2 Flashcards

1
Q

Q 1,”Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage? (PASSAGE – 1)”,a. Political development is not a unilinear process for it involves both growth and decay.,b. Traditional societies succeed in resisting positive aspects of political development.,c. It is impossible for traditional societies to break away from lingering loyalties.,d. Sustenance of traditional loyalties is conducive to political development.

A

1,a,1,The passage discusses how political development involves both growth and decay, leading people to either show loyalty or break away from political groups, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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2
Q

Q 2,”Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage? (PASSAGE – 2)”,a. Emergence of powerful mass leaders is essential to create sub-national political entities and thus ensure successful devolution decentralisation.,b. The upper tier of government should impose devolution and decentralisation on the regional communities by law or otherwise.,c. Devolution, to be successful, requires a democracy in which there is free expression of the will of the people at lower level and their active participation at the grassroots level.,d. For devolution to take place, a strong feeling of regionalism in the masses is essential.

A

2,c,1,The passage emphasizes that successful devolution requires an atmosphere where people are free to express opinions and actively participate, rather than imposing it through law, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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3
Q

Q 3,”Which among the following is the most logical and essential message conveyed by the above passage? (PASSAGE – 3)”,a. All problems of governance can be solved by using digital technologies.,b. Speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our life and living.,c. Our creativity and imagination cannot be expressed without digital media.,d. Use of digital systems is imperative for the existence of mankind in future.

A

3,b,1,The passage highlights the pervasive influence of digitalization in contemporary life, suggesting that speaking of digital technologies is speaking of our lives and living, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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4
Q

Q 4,”Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage? (PASSAGE – 4)”,a. Once a country reaches middle-income stage, it runs the risk of falling productivity which leads to stagnant incomes.,b. Falling into middle-income trap is a general characteristic of fast-growing economies.,c. There is no hope at all for emerging Asian economies to sustain the growth momentum.,d. As regards growth of productivity, the performance of Asian economies is not satisfactory.

A

4,b,1,The passage discusses the potential susceptibility of emerging Asian economies to the “Middle Income Trap” due to weak growth of productivity, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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5
Q

Q 5,”Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage? (PASSAGE – 5)”,a. Innovation and R&D is the only way to reduce rural to urban migration.,b. Every rapidly growing country needs to minimise the divergence between productivity in agricultural and other sectors.,c. Inclusive innovation and R&D can help create an egalitarian society.,d. Rapid urbanisation takes place only when a country’s economic growth is rapid.

A

5,c,1,The passage advocates for inclusive innovation to address the needs of the poor, suggesting that bringing stakeholders together to focus on marginalized populations is essential, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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6
Q

Q 6,”Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage? (PASSAGE – 6)”,a. The world will not be able to cope with large-scale migration of climate refugees.,b. We must find the ways and means to stop further climate change.,c. Climate change will be the most important reason for the migration of people in the future.,d. Relation between climate change and migration is not yet properly understood.

A

6,d,1,The passage discusses the relationship between climate change and migration, emphasizing that the precise mechanism is still not fully understood by the international community, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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7
Q

Q 7,”On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Synthetic pesticides should never be used in modern agriculture. 2. One of the aims of sustainable agriculture ensure minimal ecological imbalance. 3. Botanical pesticides are more effective as compared to synthetic pesticides. Which of the assumptions given above is/ are correct? (PASSAGE – 7)”,a. 1 and 2 only,b. 2 only,c. 1 and 3 only,d. 1, 2 and 3

A

7,b,1,The assumption that one of the aims of sustainable agriculture should be to minimize ecological imbalance aligns with the discussion in the passage about the harmful effects of synthetic pesticides, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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8
Q

Q 8,”Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding biopesticides? 1. They are not hazardous to human health. 2. They are persistent in environment. 3.They are essential to maintain the biodiversity of any ecosystem. Select the correct answer using the code given below.”,a. 1 only,b. 1 and 2 only,c. 1 and 3 only,d. 1, 2 and 3

A

8,a,1,Option (1) provides a correct statement about biopesticides, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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9
Q

Q 9,”Certain 3-digit numbers have the following characteristics: 1. All the three digits are different. 2. The number is divisible by 7. 3. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7. How many such 3-digit numbers are there?”,a. 2,b. 4,c. 6,d. 8

A

9,b,1,The four numbers provided are 168, 861, 952, and 259, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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10
Q

Q 10,Examine the following statements: 1. All colours are pleasant. 2. Some colours are pleasant. 3. No colour is pleasant. 4. Some colours are not pleasant. Given that statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?,a. 1 and 2 are true,b. 3 is true,c. 2 is false,d. 1 is false

A

10,d,1,The statement “some colours are not pleasant” contradicts the assertion that “all colours are pleasant,” confirming Option (d) as correct.

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11
Q

Q 11,How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the units place?,a. 64,b. 80,c. 90,d. 104

A

11,c,1,By considering the possible combinations of digits for a 3-digit number, it’s determined that there are 90 such numbers between 99 and 1000, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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12
Q

Q 12,If for a sample data Mean < Median < Mode, then the distribution is,a. symmetric,b. skewed to the right,c. neither symmetric nor skewed,d. skewed to the left

A

12,d,1,If the mean is less than the median, and the median is less than the mode, then the distribution is skewed to the left, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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13
Q

Q 13,The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would be the cube of a number next year. What is the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again?,a. 42,b. 38,c. 25,d. 16

A

13,b,1,By solving the given equations, it’s determined that Mr. X’s present age is 26 years, and he will have to wait 38 years for his age to become the cube of a number again, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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14
Q

Q 14,P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what ratio should they share the earnings?,a. 3:1: 1,b. 3:2: 4,c. 4:3: 4,d. 3:1: 4

A

14,a,1,By analyzing the given shares, it’s concluded that the ratio of shares is 3:1:1, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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15
Q

Q 15,”Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F: 1. The number of males equals that of females. 2. A and E are sons of F. 3. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl. 4. B is the son of A. 5. There is only one married couple in the family at present. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?”,a. A, B and C are all females.,b. A is the husband of D.,c. E and F are children of D.,d. D is the daughter of F.

A

15,b,1,Given the relationships, A is identified as the husband of D, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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16
Q

Q 16,”A bag contains 20 balls, 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it) to be assured of picking at least one ball of each colour?”,a. 17,b. 16,c. 13,d. 11

A

16,b,1,After picking 15 balls, including 8 green and 7 white, the next ball must be red, ensuring that at least one ball of each color is picked, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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17
Q

Q 17,”If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many possible arrangements are there?”,a. 3,b. 6,c. 12,d. 24

A

17,c,1,The total possible arrangements of the 4 girls are 4!, but when two girls must sit together, their arrangement reduces to 3! * 2!, leaving 12 required arrangements, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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18
Q

Q 18,The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm cube is painted completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty-four 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have painted faces?,a. 8,b. 16,c. 24,d. 36

A

18,a,1,Using the formula provided, the total number of unpainted cubes in a (4 \times 4 \times 4) cube is calculated as 8, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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19
Q

Q 19,”Consider the following: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North B is not neighbour of G. F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. G is not at the extreme end. A is sixth to the left of E. H is sixth to the right of C. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above?”,a. C is to the immediate left of A.,b. D is immediate neighbour of B and F.,c. G is to the immediate right of D.,d. A and E are the extreme ends.

A

19,c,1,Following the given order of the arrangement, it’s evident that G is to the immediate right of D, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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20
Q

Q 20,”In a certain code, „256‟ means „red colour chalk‟, „589‟ means „green colour flower‟ and „254‟ means „white colour chalk‟. The digit in the code that indicates „white‟ is”,a. 2,b. 4,c. 5,d. 8

A

20,b,1,Interpreting the numbers as codes for color and chalk, it’s determined that 589 corresponds to green color, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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21
Q

Q 21,Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?,a. Our governments are not responsible enough to keep our cities pollution free.,b. There is absolutely no need for air quality indices in our country.,c. Air Quality Index is not helpful to the residents of many of our large cities.,d. In every city, public awareness about pollution problems should increase.

A

21,c,1,The passage discusses the limited effectiveness of the Air Quality Index (AQI) in Indian cities due to consistently high pollution levels, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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22
Q

Q 22,Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?,a. We must create conditions for the faster growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion.,b. We must shift the farm workers to the highly productive manufacturing and service sectors to ensure the economic growth and inclusion.,c. We must create conditions for the faster growth of productive jobs outside of agriculture even while improving the productivity of agriculture.,d. We must emphasize the cultivation of high-yielding hybrid varieties and genetically modified crops to increase the per capita income in agriculture.

A

22,a,1,The passage emphasizes the importance of creating conditions for the growth of highly productive service jobs to ensure employment growth and inclusion, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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23
Q

Q 23,Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?,a. Agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity can often increase farm output and reduce the vulnerability to disasters.,b. All the countries of the world should be encouraged to replace Eco agriculture with conventional agriculture.,c. Eco agriculture should be permitted in protected areas without destroying the biodiversity there.,d. The yield of food crops will be very high if Eco agricultural practices are adopted to cultivate them.

A

23,a,1,The passage advocates for agricultural practices that enhance biodiversity to increase farm output and reduce vulnerability to disasters, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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24
Q

Q 24,”Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?”,a. India‟s GDP displays high value-added and high productivity levels in medium tech and resource processing industries.,b. Promotion of capital and technology intensive manufacturing is not possible in India.,c. India should push up the public investments and encourage the private investments in research and development, technology upgradation and skill development.,d. India has already gained a great share in global markets in sectors showing a rising trend in demand.

A

24,a,1,The passage discusses the need for India to build a world-class and globally competitive high-technology industry to sustain growth and create high-value jobs, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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25
Q

Q 25,”Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?”,a. Increasing the efficiency of farm-to-fork value chain is necessary to reduce the poverty and malnutrition.,b. Increasing the agricultural productivity will automatically eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India.,c. India‟s agricultural productivity is already great and it is not necessary to increase it further.,d. Allocation of more funds for social welfare and poverty alleviation programmes will ultimately eliminate the poverty and malnutrition in India.

A

25,a,1,Given the paradox of plenty described in the passage, addressing India’s Public Distribution System to reduce poverty and malnutrition emerges as a logical corollary, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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26
Q

Q 26,”Which one of the following views corroborates the above statement?”,a. A strong Centre and strong States make the federation strong.,b. A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity.,c. A strong Centre is a hindrance to State autonomy.,d. State autonomy is a prerequisite for a federation.

A

26,b,1,The passage suggests that a strong Centre acts as a binding force for national integrity, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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27
Q

Q 27,The above statement argues for,a. distribution of wealth equally to all.,b. rule according to the consent of the governed.,c. rule of the poor.,d. expropriation of the rich.

A

27,b,1,The passage argues that good governance should be based on the consent of the governed, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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28
Q

Q 28,The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded to be 0.40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of 4: 3. The average of six days was 0.50 inch. What was the rainfall on the fifth day?,a. 0.60 inch,b. 0.70 inch,c. 0.80 inch,d. 0.90 inch

A

28,c,1,By solving the given equations, it’s determined that the rainfall on the fifth day is 0.80 inches, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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29
Q

Q 29,Who is specialized in Geography?,a. B,b. D,c. E,d. Cannot be determined as data are inadequate.

A

29,a,1,B is specialized in Geography, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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30
Q

Q 30,”To which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics belong?”,a. Hyderabad,b. Mumbai,c. Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai,d. Cannot be determined as data are inadequate.

A

30,b,1,The lecturer specialized in Economics belongs to Mumbai, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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31
Q

Q 31,Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad?,a. B,b. E,c. Neither B nor E,d. Cannot be determined as data are inadequate.

A

31,b,1,E belongs to Hyderabad, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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32
Q

Q 32,In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E. A and B teach Hindi and English, C and B teach English and Geography, D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi, E and B teach History and French. Who teaches maximum number of subjects?,a. A,b. B,c. D,d. E

A

32,b,1,B teaches the maximum number of subjects, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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33
Q

Q 33,A 2-digit number is reversed. The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?,a. 9,b. 27,c. 36,d. 45

A

33,d,1,By considering the given numbers and their reversals, it’s determined that the largest remainder is 45, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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34
Q

Q 34,The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4: 3 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3: 2. However, each saves Rs. 6000 per month. What is their total monthly income?,a. Rs. 28000,b. Rs. 42000,c. Rs. 56000,d. Rs. 84000

A

34,b,1,By solving the given equations, it’s determined that the total monthly income is Rs. 42,000, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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35
Q

Q 35,Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m from the point P. How many metres is the fly from the ceiling?,a. 4,b. 6,c. 12,d. 15

A

35,a,1,By applying the given formula, OB is calculated to be 4 meters, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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36
Q

Q 36,While travelling from C to H, which one of the following stations must be passed through?,G,E,B,F

A

36,b,1,While traveling from C to H, the path includes station E, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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37
Q

Q 37,In how many different ways can a train travel from F to A without passing through any station more than once?,1,2,3,4

A

37,a,1,Four different paths are possible for a train to travel from F to A, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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38
Q

Q 38,If the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following stations need not be passed through while travelling from H to C?,E,D,A,B

A

38,c,1,While traveling from H to C, station A is not necessarily required, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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39
Q

Q 39,There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the number and the one obtained on reversing it is always 27. How many such maximum 2-digit numbers are there?,3,4,5,None of these

A

39,d,1,By solving the given equation and considering the condition (x - y = 3), the required numbers are identified as 14, 25, 36, 47, 58, 69, 41, 52, 63, 74, 85, and 96, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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40
Q

Q 40,What is the total number of digits printed, if a book containing 150 pages is to be numbered from 1 to 150?,262,342,360,450

A

40,b,1,By counting the digits in the given ranges, the total number of digits is determined to be 342, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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41
Q

Q 41,The challenge the author of the above passage throws to the public is to achieve,a high standard of living, progress and privileges.,equal privileges, fulfilment of destiny and political tolerance.,spirit of adventure and economic parity.,hard work, brotherhood and national unity.

A

41,d,1,The passage discusses Nehru’s speech on the eve of India’s Independence, emphasizing the importance of hard work, tolerance in religion, and avoidance of communalism for achieving national unity, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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42
Q

Q 42,In the light of the above passage, the nature of General Will is best described as,the sum total of the private wills of the individuals.,what is articulated by the elected representatives of the individuals.,the collective good as distinct from private wills of the individuals.,the material interests of the community.

A

42,a,1,The passage discusses Jean Jacques Rousseau’s philosophy about General Will, defining it as the sum total of the private wills of individuals, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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43
Q

Q 43,What does the above passage imply?,In a democracy, force is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty.,In a mature democracy, force to a great extent is the main phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty.,In a mature democracy, use of force is irrelevant in the actual exercise of sovereignty.,In a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon in the actual exercise of sovereignty.

A

43,d,1,The passage highlights that in a mature democracy, force is narrowed down to a marginal phenomenon, implying that in such democracies, laws made for the benefit of the country are generally not opposed by the general public, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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44
Q

Q 44,This passage relates to,duty to vote.,right to vote.,freedom to vote.,right to participate in politics.

A

44,a,1,The passage emphasizes the duty of citizens to vote in a democracy, stressing its importance in shaping the future of the country, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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45
Q

Q 45,The passage seems to suggest that,a leader foresees his future position.,a leader is chosen only by a free country.,a leader must see that his country is free from despair.,despair in a country sometimes leads to dictatorship.

A

45,d,1,The passage discusses the circumstances that sometimes lead a person to become a dictator, highlighting despair in a country as one such factor, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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46
Q

Q 46,With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. People always see the leisure time as a gift and use it for acquiring more material possessions. 2. Use of leisure by some people to produce new and original things has been the chief source of human progress. Which of these assumptions is/ are valid?,1 only,2 only,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

A

46,b,1,Assumption (2) is valid as it aligns with the passage’s emphasis on the use of leisure time by some people to produce new and original things as the chief source of human progress, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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47
Q

Q 47,With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. A study of the famous battles of history would help us understand the modern warfare. 2. Studying the history is essential for anyone who aspires to be a leader. Which of these assumptions is/ are valid?,1 only,2 only,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

A

47,b,1,The passage advocates for the study of history as essential for anyone aspiring to be a leader, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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48
Q

Q 48,Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of the 5th person will be,45 kg,47.5 kg,50 kg,52.5 kg

A

48,c,1,By calculating the weights, it’s determined that the weight of the 5th person is 50 kg, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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49
Q

Q 49,In a group of six women, there are four tennis players, four postgraduates in Sociology, one postgraduate in Commerce and three bank employees. Vimala and Kamla are the bank employees while Amala and Komala are unemployed. Komala and Nirmala are among the tennis players. Amala, Kamla, Komala and Nirmala are postgraduates in Sociology of whom two are bank employees. If Shyamala is a postgraduate in Commerce, who among the following is both a tennis player and a bank employee?,Amala,Komala,Nirmala,Shyamala

A

49,c,1,From the given information, it’s deduced that Nirmala is both a tennis player and a bank employee, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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50
Q

Q 50,P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where A is greater than B. In this context, which of the following statements is correct?,P is greater than Q.,Q is greater than P.,P is equal to Q.,None of the above can be concluded with certainty.

A

50,d,1,By considering different values for A and B, it’s concluded that none of the given relationships between P and Q can be determined with certainty, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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51
Q

Q 51,A watch loses 2 min in every 24 hr. while another watch gains 2 min in every 24 hr. At a particular instant, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of the following statements is correct if 24 hr. clock is followed?,The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days.,The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 90 days.,The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 120 days.,None of the above statements is correct.

A

51,d,1,Since the time difference between the two clocks is 4 minutes in 1 day, they will show identical time again after 360 days, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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52
Q

Q 52,In a city, 12% of households earn less than Rs. 30000 per year, 6% households earn more than Rs. 200000 per year, 22% households earn more than Rs. 100000 per year and 990 house-holds earn between Rs. 30000 and Rs. 100000 per year. How many households earn between Rs.100000 and Rs. 200000 per year?,250,240,230,225

A

52,b,1,By calculating the percentage of households earning between Rs. 100,000 and Rs. 200,000 based on the given information, it’s determined that 240 households fall within this income range, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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53
Q

Q 53,A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock?,20 sec,24 sec,28 sec,30 sec

A

53,b,1,Using the given information, the time taken for the clock to strike 10 times at 10 O’clock is calculated to be 24 seconds, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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54
Q

Q 54,Consider the given statement and the two conclusions that follow: Statement: Morning walk is good for health. Conclusions: 1. All healthy people go for morning walk. 2. Morning walk is essential for maintaining good health. What is/ are the valid conclusion/ conclusions?,1 only,2 only,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

A

54,d,1,Neither of the given conclusions can be inferred from the statement, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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55
Q

Q 55,There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?,47,49,51,45

A

55,a,1,By solving the equation and finding the mean of the given consecutive odd numbers, the mean is calculated to be 47, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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56
Q

Q 56,Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B, while B gives 6 to D who passes on 1 to E. Then the number of cards possessed by D and E is equal to the number of cards possessed by,A, B and C,B, C and F,A, B and F,A, C and F

A

56,b,1,By calculating the number of cards possessed by each individual and determining the sum possessed by D and E, it’s found to be equal to the sum possessed by B, C, and F, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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57
Q

Q 57,There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal amount of pure milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to,25%,30%,35%,40%

A

57,a,1,Using the given information, the percentage of water in the new sample is calculated to be 25%, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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58
Q

Q 58,There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical line, parallel and equidistance to one another on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed?,16,24,36,42

A

58,c,1,By counting the total number of squares and rectangles, it’s determined that the maximum number of squares and rectangles that can be formed is 36, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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59
Q

Q 59,A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?,480 km,260 km,240 km,120 km

A

59,c,1,By solving the given equation for the distance covered by the freight and express trains, the required distance is found to be 240 km, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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60
Q

Q 60,In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar. Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained highest marks?,Randhir,Neha,Sonal,Data are inadequate

A

60,d,1,Based on the given information, no definitive conclusion can be drawn, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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61
Q

Q 61,What does the above passage imply?,Resource-based conflicts are always politically motivated.,There are no political solutions to resolve environmental and resource-based conflicts.,Environmental issues contribute to resource stresses and political conflict.,Political conflict based on identity or ideology cannot be resolved.

A

61,c,1,The passage discusses the impact of climate change on development trajectories, highlighting environmental issues contributing to resource stresses and political conflict, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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62
Q

Q 62,The keynote that seems to be emerging from the passage is that,we should first consult wisely and then resolve firmly.,we should reject suggestions of friends and remain unchanged.,we should always remain broad-minded.,we should be resolute and achievement-oriented.

A

62,a,1,The passage emphasizes the importance of firm resolution and dedication, suggesting that wavering decisions can hinder success, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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63
Q

Q 63,Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?,Climate change has caused Arctic summer to be short but temperature to be high.,Polar bears can be shifted to South Pole to ensure their survival.,Without the presence of polar bears, the food chains in Arctic region will disappear.,Climate change poses a threat to the survival of polar bears.

A

63,d,1,The passage discusses the threat of climate change to the survival of polar bears due to impacts on the Arctic region, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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64
Q

Q 64,Which among the following is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?,The ideas of purity and pollution are so deep-rooted that they cannot be removed from the minds of the people.,People have to perceive toilet use and pit-emptying as clean and not polluting.,People cannot change their old habits.,People have neither civic sense nor sense of privacy.

A

64,b,1,The passage addresses issues related to open defecation and non-utilization of existing toilets, advocating for education about health hazards and promoting cleanliness, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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65
Q

Q 65,Which of the following is the most crucial inference from the above passage?,More emphasis should be laid on the development of natural capital.,The growth driven by GDP only is neither desirable nor sustainable.,The economic performance of the countries of the world is not satisfactory.,The world needs more human capital under the present circumstances.

A

65,b,1,The passage critiques the reliance on GDP as a measure of economic growth, emphasizing the need for an inclusive approach to calculating wealth, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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66
Q

Q 66,Which of the following is the most rational inference from the above passage?,India must control its population growth so as to reduce its unemployment rate.,Labour reforms are required in India to make optimum use of its vast labour force productively.,India is poised to achieve the double-digit growth very soon.,India is capable of supplying the skilled young people to other countries.

A

66,b,1,The passage discusses India’s surplus youth population and the potential for achieving double-digit growth by channelizing their skills and innovation, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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67
Q

Q 67,The main idea of the passage is that,It is essential for human beings to work.,There should be a balance between work and leisure.,Working is a tyranny which we have to face.,Human’s understanding of the nature of work is essential.

A

67,b,1,The passage emphasizes the importance of work and the balance between work and leisure, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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68
Q

Q 68,The author suggests that habits,Add precision to our lives.,Make it easier for us to live.,Tend to make our lives difficult.,Tend to mechanize our lives.

A

68,c,1,The passage discusses how habits make life easier and more manageable, suggesting that habits become part of our routine and help us live comfortably, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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69
Q

Q 69,With reference to the above information, which one among the following statements must be true?,Some supporters of „party Y‟ did not agree for the alliance with the „party X‟.,There is at least one supporter of „party Y‟ who knew some supporters of „party X‟ as a friend.,No supporters of „party X‟ supported Z‟s campaign strategy.,No supporters of „party X‟ knew Z.

A

69,a,1,From the given information, it can be inferred that the supporter of party X knew Z and supported his campaign strategy but did not form an alliance with party Y, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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70
Q

Q 70,With reference to the above information, consider the following statements: 1. Some supporters of „party X‟ knew Z. 2. Some supporters of „party X‟, who opposed Z‟s campaign strategy, knew Z. 3. No supporters of „party X‟ supported Z‟s campaign strategy. Which of the statements is/ are not correct?,1 only,2 and 3 only,3 only,1, 2, and 3

A

70,b,1,Based on the given information, it’s clear that some supporters of party X knew Z and supported his campaign strategy, and party Y had some friends in party X, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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71
Q

Q 71,If second and fourth Saturday and all the Sundays are taken as only Holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?,23,22,21,20

A

71,b,1,February has a minimum number of working days, with a total of 22 working days considering the maximum number of Sundays and Saturdays off, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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72
Q

Q 72,If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from one place to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixty year, if there is no further growth in the population during this period?,16/243rd part of the population.,32/243rd part of the population.,32/729th part of the population.,64/729th part of the population.

A

72,d,1,By calculating the population growth and the part of the population remaining after 6 years, it’s determined that ( \frac{729}{64} )th part of the population is leftover, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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73
Q

Q 73,Four tests – Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after two tests are held. Which is the last test held?,Physics,Biology,Mathematics,Chemistry

A

73,c,1,Given the order of tests held, it’s determined that the last test held is Mathematics, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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74
Q

Q 74,The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and E is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. Whose income is the highest?,A,B,C,D

A

74,b,1,By comparing the incomes of pairs (A + B) and (C + D) and analyzing the given equations, it’s concluded that B’s income is the highest, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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75
Q

Q 75,Consider the following: Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music. Conclusions: I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care. II. Even though one‟s voice is not good; one can keep practising. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement and conclusion?,Only conclusion I follows from the statement.,Only conclusion II follows from the statement.,Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows from the statement.,Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement.

A

75,d,1,Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows from the statement, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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76
Q

Q 76,There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down 1 cm. B climbs on Y by 7 cm but slips down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but slips down 2 cm. If each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of the shortest pillar?,161 cm,163 cm,182 cm,210 cm

A

76,b,1,By calculating the heights of the pillars based on the climbing pattern of spider A, it’s determined that the shortest pillar is pillar Y with a height of 163 cm, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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77
Q

Q 77,“Rights are certain advantageous conditions of social well-being indispensable to the true development of the citizen.” In the light of this statement, which one of the following is the correct understanding of rights?,Rights aim at individual good only.,Rights aim at social good only.,Rights aim at both individual and social good.,Rights aim at individual good devoid of social well-being.

A

77,d,1,The duties associated with human rights often involve actions like respect, protection, facilitation, and provision for social good, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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78
Q

Q 78,15 students failed in a class of 52. After removing the names of failed students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of Ramesh is 22nd from the top. What is his position form the bottom?,18th,17th,16th,15th

A

78,c,1,By calculating the position of Ramesh from the bottom of the merit list, it’s determined to be 16th, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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79
Q

Q 79,Consider the following: A + B means A is the son of B A – B means A is the wife of B What does the expression P + R – Q mean?,Q is the son of P.,Q is the wife of P.,Q is the father of P.,None of the above.

A

79,c,1,From the given relationships, it’s inferred that Q is the father of P, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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80
Q

Q 80,Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit. Then, Ram wanted to sell it back to Gopal at 10% loss. What will be Gopal‟s position if he agreed?,Neither loss nor gain,Loss 1%,Gain 1%,Gain 0.5%

A

80,c,1,By calculating the selling price for Ram and the gain percentage, it’s determined to be 1%, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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81
Q

Q 1,Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?,Greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting the financial inclusion are needed at present,We should concentrate more on developing manufacturing sector than service sector,Efforts should be made to push up economic growth by other means and provide licences to the poor,Launching more welfare schemes and allocating more finances for the current schemes are urgently needed

A

1,c,1,By analyzing the passage, it’s evident that increasing transparency and promoting financial inclusion are the most suitable strategies to address the issues raised, making Option (c) the correct choice.

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82
Q

Q 2,What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?,Improving food security is a far more complex issue than climate adaptation,Every developmental activity is directly or indirectly linked to climate adaptation,Climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options,It is difficult to pursue climate adaptation in the developing countries

A

2,d,1,The passage emphasizes the need for climate adaptation policies to be designed in conjunction with other developmental concerns, as exemplified by policies aimed at improving agricultural productivity. Thus, Option (d) is the best inference.

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83
Q

Q 3,Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?,Biodiversity sustains the ability of nature to recycle water,We cannot get potable water without the existence of living organisms,Plants, animals and microorganisms continuously interact among themselves,Living organisms could not have come into existence without hydrological cycle

A

3,a,1,The passage highlights the interdependence between water and biodiversity, emphasizing the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle. Therefore, Option (a) is the most critical inference.

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84
Q

Q 4,Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?,Need to promote financial inclusion,Need for more automation and more products of banks,Need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system,Need to integrate banking and non-banking institutions

A

4,d,1,The passage calls for a shift in the banking sector towards catering to the common man, indicating a need for increased financial inclusion. Hence, Option (d) is the best-suited answer.

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85
Q

Q 5,With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: 1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only 2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?,Only 1,Only 2,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

A

5,b,1,The passage advocates for increased awareness and campaigns for safe sanitation, particularly focusing on the abolition of manual scavenging. Thus, Option (b) is the most appropriate choice.

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86
Q

Q 6,Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?,Nature has created a great diversity in human society,Any given human society is always short of its wants,Social life is a specific characteristic of man,Diverse natural wants forced man towards social system

A

6,d,1,After examining the passage, the most logical and rational inference is that the formation of society is driven by individuals’ wants, which necessitate their collaboration with society, making Option (d) the correct answer.

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87
Q

Q 7,The statement refers to,the antithesis of politics and economics,the interrelationship of politics and economics,the predominance of economics over politics,the predominance of politics over economics

A

7,b,1,The passage indicates that the legal imperatives of a state are influenced by the distribution of economic power in society, highlighting the interrelationship between politics and economics.

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88
Q

Q 8,Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?,Organic farming should immediately replace mechanised and chemical dependant agricultural practices all over the world,It is imperative for us to modify our land use practices in order to mitigate climate change,There are no technological solutions to the problem of greenhouse gas emissions,Tropical areas the chief sites of carbon sequestration

A

8,d,1,Analyzing the passage reveals that tropical areas are chief sites of carbon emission, indicating that large amounts of carbon are stored in these regions, making Option (d) the correct choice.

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89
Q

Q 9,A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point ‘O’ on the ground in the direction of North-East and reaches a point ‘A’ after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point ‘A’, he moves to point ‘B’ in the direction of North-West. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point ‘o’?,7 km,13 km,17 km,11 km

A

9,b,13,The distance OB is calculated to be 13 km, confirming Option (b) as the correct answer.

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90
Q

Q 10,An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X1 m and breadth X2 m (X1 and X2 are variables). If X1 + X2 = 40 m, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values?,400 sq m,300 sq m,200 sq m,80 sq m

A

10,a,13,By maximizing the area of the agricultural field, it’s determined that the area cannot exceed 400 sq. m, confirming Option (a) as the correct choice.

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91
Q

Q 11,The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 yr ago was 80 yr. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 yr ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?,6 months,1 yr,2 yr,2 yr and 6 months

A

11,b,13,After calculating the present average age and sum of ages of the five members, the age of the baby is determined to be 1 year, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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92
Q

Q 12,The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay the former to the basic pay of the latter is,16 : 13,5 : 4,7:5,12 : 11

A

12,d,13,By solving the equation for the basic pay of the first and second person, the ratio of their basic pays is found to be 12:11, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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93
Q

Q 13,A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps does the ladder have?,8,9,10,11

A

13,b,13,The required number of steps is calculated to be 9, confirming Option (b) as the correct answer.

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94
Q

Q 14,What is C’s surname?,Ribeiro,Kumar,Singh,Cannot be determined

A

14,a,13,According to the given information, C’s surname is Ribeiro, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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95
Q

Q 15,What is the colour of the tie?,Black,Blue,White,Cannot be determined

A

15,b,13,From the information provided, it’s inferred that the tie is blue in colour, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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96
Q

Q 16,Who wore the sweater?,A,B,C,Cannot be determined

A

16,a,13,Analyzing the given details, it’s determined that A wore the sweater, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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97
Q

Q 17,AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point, where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 m, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 m from A, then the original height of the trunk is,20 m,25 m,30 m,35 m

A

17,b,13,The original height of the trunk is calculated to be 25 m, confirming Option (b) as the correct answer.

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98
Q

Q 18,A person walks 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after that 19 km due West and then 15 km due South. How far is he from the starting point?,5 km,9 km,37 km,61 m

A

18,a,1,The distance AE is calculated using the Pythagorean theorem, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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99
Q

Q 19,A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted, is,32,24,16,8

A

19,b,13,By analyzing the number of smaller cubes and the number of painted cubes on the center of each face, the correct answer is determined to be Option (b).

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100
Q

Q 20,Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?,6 days,8 days,10 days,11 days

A

20,c,13,After solving the given problem, it’s found that Ram will take 10 days to complete the work, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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101
Q

Q 21,A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code, FRACTION can be written as,CARFTION,FRACNOIT,NOITCARF,CARFNOIT

A

21,d,13,The relationship between the given terms is established, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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102
Q

Q 22,If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily true?,R – S is divisible by 5,R + S is divisible by 10,R  S is divisible by 25,R2 + S2 is divisible by 5

A

22,b,13,By testing the values of R and S, it’s concluded that when R = 10 and S = 5, the expression is not divisible by 10, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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103
Q

Q 23,How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?,110,111,112,None of these

A

23,a,13,The total number of numbers between 200 and 299 that either begin or end with 2 is calculated, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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104
Q

Q 24,What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?,Our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources,Diets based on nuts, fruits and vegetables are best suited for health in developing countries,Human beings change their food habits from time to time irrespective of the heath concerns,From a global perspective, we still do not know which type of diet is best for us

A

24,a,1,The critical message conveyed by the passage revolves around changing food habits and their consequences, making Option (a) the most logical inference.

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105
Q

Q 25,Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?,About 10000 years ago, the domestication of animals took place in some parts of the world,A permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members,Lactose tolerant people only are capable of getting simple sugars in their bodies,People who are not lactose tolerant cannot digest any dairy product

A

25,b,1,The passage discusses how changing food habits have affected the function of enzymes, leading to lactose intolerance in certain populations, making Option (b) the correct assumption.

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106
Q

Q 26,In the above statement, the author implies that,the entire national output produced and consumed in industrialized countries passes through commercial channels,the existence of a non-commercialized sector in different underdeveloped countries renders the National Income comparisons over countries difficult,no part of national output should be produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels,a part of the national output being produced and consumed without passing through commercial channels is a sign of underdevelopment

A

26,b,1,By examining the passage, it’s inferred that conceptual difficulties in comparing national income arise due to underreporting in underdeveloped countries, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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107
Q

Q 27,Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?,Carbon dioxide is essential for the survival of microorganisms and plants,Humans are solely responsible for the release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere,Microorganisms and soil carbon are mainly responsible for the increased plant growth,Increasing green cover could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil

A

27,d,1,The passage indicates that increased plant cover can lead to the release of carbon from the soil, confirming Option (d) as the logical conclusion.

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108
Q

Q 28,According to the above passage, which of the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem?,Setting up more agro-based industries,Improving the price affordability by the poor,Regulating the conditions of marketing,Providing food subsidy to one and all

A

28,b,1,The passage highlights the importance of addressing issues related to food production, marketing, and prices, particularly for the poor in developing countries, making Option (b) the most suitable answer.

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109
Q

Q 29,According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is,to find sufficient land for agriculture and to expand food processing industries,to eradicate hunger in underdeveloped countries,to achieve a balance between the production of food and non-food items,to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food

A

29,d,1,The problem of supply-demand mismatch is explicitly mentioned in the passage, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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110
Q

Q 30,According to the above passage, which of the following helps/ help in reducing hunger and starvation in the developing economies?,Only 1,2, 3 and 4,Only 1 and 3,Only 2 and 3,Only 1

A

30,c,1,By increasing the purchasing power of the poor, their affordability of food will improve, which in turn helps in reducing hunger and starvation, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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111
Q

Q 31,The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained Importance mainly because of,1 and 2,Only 3,2 and 3,1, 2 and 3

A

31,b,1,The passage discusses the strain on the capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted food supplies, confirming Option (b) as the most suitable choice.

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112
Q

Q 32,Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, and none of these four digits are repeated in any manner. Further, 1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other 2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3 3. 4 is not to appear at the last place 4. 1 is not to appear at the first place How many different numbers can be formed?,6,8,9,None of these

A

32,a,1,By considering all the possible permutations of the given digits, it’s determined that 6 different numbers can be formed, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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113
Q

Q 33,A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 7 m is to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5 m × 4 m × 6 m. How much portion of the underground tank is still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely?,1/3,1/2,1/4,1/6

A

33,a,1,By calculating the volumes of the overhead tank and the underground tank, it’s found that one-third of the underground tank is still filled with water, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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114
Q

Q 34,In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is,13,12,7,3

A

34,b,1,By determining the number of girls and boys in the class, it’s established that there are 12 boys after Kamal, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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115
Q

Q 35,A and B walk around a circular park. They start it 8:00 am from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 8:00 am and before 9:30 am?,7,6,5,8

A

35,a,1,By calculating the relative speed and the number of times they cross each other before 9:30 am, it’s determined that they cross each other 7 times, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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116
Q

Q 36,W can do 25% of a work in 30 days, X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first?,W,X,Y,Z

A

36,d,1,By calculating the time taken by each worker to complete the work individually, it’s found that Z will complete the work first, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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117
Q

Q 37,The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10000. What will be the average monthly income of a person in the same family, if the income of one person increased by Rs. 120000 per year?,Rs. 12000,Rs. 16000,Rs. 20000,Rs. 34000

A

37,a,1,By calculating the total monthly income and the increment per person, it’s determined that the required average monthly income is Rs. 12000, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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118
Q

Q 38,In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line on a track and a bucket is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. If he has to drop all the apples in the bucket, how much total distance he has to run, if the bucket is 5 m from the first apple and all other apples are placed 3 m apart?,40 m,50 m,75 m,150 m

A

38,d,1,By summing up the distances covered by all the participants, the total distance covered is found to be 150 m, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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119
Q

Q 39,A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target?,0.40,0.20,0.16,0.04

A

39,c,1,By calculating the probability based on the areas of the target and the red band, it’s determined to be 0.16, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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120
Q

Q 40,A person allows a 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770?,Rs. 610,Rs. 620,Rs. 630,Rs. 640

A

40,c,1,By calculating the cost price using the given information, it’s found to be Rs. 630, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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121
Q

Q 41,According to the passage, which of the following factor/ factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/ public administration?,Only 1,2 and 3,1 and 4,2, 3 and 4

A

41,a,1,By analyzing the passage, it’s inferred that the inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountability is a critical issue, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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122
Q

Q 42,With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made,Only 1,Only 2,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

A

42,d,1,By examining the passage, it’s concluded that political executives are not obstacles to the accountability of civil services, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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123
Q

Q 43,Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?,Civil services are not accountable to the society they are serving,Educated and enlightened persons are not taking up political leadership,The framers of the Constitution did not envisage the problems being encountered by the civil services,There is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services

A

43,d,1,By considering the discussion in the passage about the balance of internal and external accountability, it’s inferred that the disturbance in this balance has brought adverse consequences for governance, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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124
Q

Q 44,According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?,Better job security and safeguards,Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission,Judicial review of executive decisions,Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision-making process

A

44,d,1,By analyzing the passage, it’s inferred that enabling public participation in decision-making processes is a means to increase external accountability, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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125
Q

Q 45,With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made,Only 1,2 and 3,1 and 3,1, 2 and 3

A

45,a,1,By examining the discussion in the passage about religious traditions and human relationships, it’s inferred that human relations are derived from religious traditions, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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126
Q

Q 46,Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?,Our duties to one another derive from our religious traditions,Having relationship to the divine principle is a great virtue,Balance between rights and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society,Religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to God

A

46,c,1,By considering the discussion in the passage about the relationship between rights and duties, it’s inferred that maintaining a balance between rights and duties is crucial for justice, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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127
Q

Q 47,A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was,apple,pineapple,grapes,oranges

A

47,d,1,By analyzing the information provided about the fruits consumed by each person and the subsequent illness, it’s determined that the cause of sickness is the oranges, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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128
Q

Q 48,Consider the following statements 1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country 2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate 3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate 4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the given facts?,The rate of population growth is increasing due to rural-urban migration,The rate of population growth is increasing due to decline in death rate only,The rate of population growth is increasing due to increase in birth rate only,The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate

A

48,d,1,By comparing the options with the given statement, it’s found that only Option (d) aligns with the given facts, confirming it as correct.

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129
Q

Q 49,A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either North-South or East-West, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km North, 3 km West and 4 km South. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?,3 km East, then 2 km South,3 km East, then 1 km North,1 km North, then 2 km West,3 km South, then 1 km North

A

49,b,1,By analyzing the movements of X as described in the question, it’s determined that X will reach the starting point if he drives 3 km East and 1 km North, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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130
Q

50,”Consider the following statement ““We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking.”” Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?”,”A. We go for a picnic but not for trekking”,”B. Activities such as picnic and trekking are encouraged by the health authorities”,”C. We go for trekking and not for picnic”,”D. We do not go either for picnic or for trekking”

A

50,d,1,By examining the given statements, it’s inferred that the group neither goes for a picnic nor for trekking, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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131
Q

51,”There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party, it was discovered that no member knew music. The conclusion is that”,”A. the party comprised male faculty members only”,”B. the party comprised only those female faculty members who could not give rendering in music”,”C. the party comprised both male and female faculty members”,”D. nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party”

A

51,d,1,Since it’s mentioned that not all female members knew music, nothing can be concluded about the gender composition of the party, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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132
Q

52,”Five people A, B, C, D, and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. (i) C is seated next to A (ii) A is seated two seats from D (iii) B is not seated next to A On the basis of the above information, which of the following must be true?”,”A. D is seated next to B”,”B. E is seated next to A”,”C. D and C are separated by two seats”,”D. Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3”

A

52,b,1,By considering the given information, it’s determined that there are two possible scenarios, confirming Options 1 and 2 as correct.

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133
Q

53,”There are five hobby clubs in a college – photography, yachting, chess, electronics, and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day, and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?”,”A. 5”,”B. 18”,”C. 10”,”D. 3”

A

53,d,1,By calculating the LCM of the given numbers, it’s determined that the required number of times is 3, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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134
Q

54,”There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are”,”A. 2 and 4”,”B. 3 and 2”,”C. 3 and 4”,”D. 4 and 3”

A

54,c,1,By considering the given conditions and testing the options, it’s found that if the number of flowers is 3 and the number of bees is 4, then all the conditions are satisfied, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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135
Q

55,”Consider the following information: There are five persons in a group – P, Q, R, S, and T. The group has one doctor, one lawyer, and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is a man married to one of the members. Q is the brother of P and is neither a doctor nor an artist. R is not a doctor. Who is the doctor?”,”A. T”,”B. P”,”C. Q”,”D. “

A

55,a,1,By analyzing the relationships described in the statements, it’s inferred that T is the doctor, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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136
Q

56,”Who is the artist?”,”A. P”,”B. Q”,”C. R”,”D. T”

A

56,c,1,By analyzing the relationships described in the statements, it’s inferred that R is the artist, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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137
Q

57,”Who is the spouse of R?”,”A. P”,”B. T”,”C. Q”,”D. S”

A

57,b,1,By analyzing the relationships described in the statements, it’s inferred that T is the spouse of R, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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138
Q

58,”Who is the lawyer?”,”A. P”,”B. Q”,”C. R”,”D. S”

A

58,b,1,By analyzing the relationships described in the statements, it’s inferred that Q is the lawyer, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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139
Q

59,”Who of the following is definitely a man?”,”A. P”,”B. S”,”C. Q”,”D. None of these”

A

59,c,1,By analyzing the relationships described in the statements, it’s inferred that Q is definitely a man, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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140
Q

60,”There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per day out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed?”,”A. 18”,”B. 19”,”C. 20”,”D. 22”

A

60,c,1,By calculating the quantity available for sale after unfit items are removed, it’s determined that 20 days are required to complete the order, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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141
Q

61,”What is/ are the present constraint/ constraints in power generation?”,”A. Lack sustainable supply biomass”,”B. Biomass production competes with food production”,”C. Bio-energy may not always low carbon life-cycle basis”,”D. “

A

61,d,1,By examining the discussion in the passage about biomass and biofuel, it’s inferred that corn-based ethanol may aggravate rather than ameliorating carbon emissions, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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142
Q

62,”Which of the following can lead to food security problem?”,”A. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation”,”B. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage”,”C. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops”,”D. “

A

62,b,1,By analyzing the potential competition between energy and food crops as discussed in the passage, it’s inferred that promoting the cultivation of energy crops can lead to competition with food production and food insecurity, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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143
Q

63,”In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/ are the characteristic/ characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel?”,”A. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050”,”B. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources”,”C. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies.”,”D. “

A

63,b,1,By considering the discussion in the passage about biomass and biofuel, it’s inferred that although biomass can capture and store carbon, research on negative emissions from biomass is still ongoing, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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144
Q

64,”With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made”,”A. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions”,”B. It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources”,”C. Both 1 and 2”,”D. Neither 1 nor 2”

A

64,a,1,By analyzing the passage and considering the given assumptions, it’s determined that the first assumption aligns with the discussion about biofuel in the passage, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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145
Q

65,”Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?”,”A. In our agricultural practices, we have become heavily dependent on expensive chemical fertilisers and toxic pesticides only due to Green Revolution”,”B. Monocropping vast fields with high-yield varieties is possible due to Green Revolution”,”C. Monocropping with high-yield varieties is the only way to ensure food security to millions”,”D. Green Revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long-run”

A

65,d,1,By examining the discussion in the passage about the Green Revolution and its effects, it’s inferred that the passage discusses the negative consequences of focusing on increasing food production without considering future risks, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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146
Q

66,”A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 min is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is”,”A. 48 min”,”B. 50 min”,”C. 51 min”,”D. 53 min”

A

66,a,1,By calculating the duration of each period and considering the given information, it’s determined that each period lasts for 48 minutes, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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147
Q

67,”Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows A: 1 min, B: 2 min, C: 7 min, D: 10 min What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?”,”A. 23 min”,”B. 22 min”,”C. 21 min”,”D. 20 min”

A

67,a,1,By calculating the total time required for each group to cross the bridge and considering the given conditions, it’s determined that the total time for A to complete all tasks is 23 minutes, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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148
Q

68,”30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 mL water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was mixed in 280 mL of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar was mixed in 100 mL of water in vessel C. The solution in vessel B is”,”A. sweeter than that in C”,”B. sweeter than that in A”,”C. as sweet as that in C”,”D. less sweet than that in C”

A

68,d,1,By comparing the fractions of sugar in vessel B and C, it’s determined that the solution in vessel B is less sweet than that in vessel C, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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149
Q

69,”In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then, how many students are there in the class?”,”A. 12”,”B. 21”,”C. 43”,”D. 45”

A

69,b,1,By solving the given equation for the total number of students, it’s determined that there are 21 students, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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150
Q

70,”Anita‟s mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks, i.e. 10 Arithmetic, 30 Algebra and 30 Geometry. Although she answered 70% of the Arithmetic, 40% of the Algebra and 60% of the Geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is”,”A. 1”,”B. 5”,”C. 7”,”D. 9”

A

70,b,1,By calculating the number of questions attempted and the passing marks, it’s determined that 5 questions need to be attempted to pass, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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151
Q

71,”In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class?”,”A. 6”,”B. 12”,”C. 18”,”D. 21”

A

71,b,1,By solving the given equations and using the relationship between boys and girls, it’s determined that the total number of students is 36, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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152
Q

72,”Consider the following statements: 1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B 2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C 3. B is older than C Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?”,”A. A is older than B”,”B. B and D are of the same age”,”C. D is older than C”,”D. A is older than C”

A

72,d,1,By analyzing the given statements, it’s concluded that A is older than C, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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153
Q

73,”The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200, respectively. Then, the percentage of males employed in the company is”,”A. 75%”,”B. 80%”,”C. 85%”,”D. 90%”

A

73,b,1,By solving the equations and calculating the percentage of male employees, it’s determined to be 80%, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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154
Q

74,”Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball. Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?”,”A. F”,”B. E”,”C. D”,”D. None of these”

A

74,b,1,By matching the items with their respective boxes and balls, it’s found that Box E contains the golf ball, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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155
Q

75,”Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?”,”A. D is painted yellow”,”B. F is painted indigo”,”C. B is painted blue”,”D. All of these”

A

75,b,1,By matching the items with their respective colors, it’s found that F is painted indigo, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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156
Q

76,”Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right (not necessarily either kept or painted with the colours in the same order). Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball (not necessarily in the same order). The golf ball is in violet box and is not in the box D. The box A which contains tennis ball is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. The box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. The box C is fifth from right and next to box B. The box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball. The football is in the box of which colour?”,”A. Yellow”,”B. Indigo”,”C. Cannot be determined as data are inadequate”,”D. Blue”

A

76,c,1,Based on the given information, it cannot be determined which box contains the hockey ball, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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157
Q

77,”Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?”,”A. 12%”,”B. 10%”,”C. 9%”,”D. 8%”

A

77,b,1,By calculating the required percentage using the given values, it’s determined to be 10%, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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158
Q

78,”A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 am and the journey is to be completed in 42 h. What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the shuttle service?”,”A. 2”,”B. 3”,”C. 4”,”D. 7”

A

78,c,1,By analyzing the schedule and considering the time taken for the journey, it’s determined that 4 trains are needed to maintain the shuttle service, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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159
Q

79,”A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is”,”A. 2 cm”,”B. 3 cm”,”C. 4 cm”,”D. 6 cm”

A

79,c,1,By calculating the area of the tin and using it to find the side length of the cube, it’s determined to be 4 cm, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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160
Q

80,”In a question paper, there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each questions has two choices – True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is”,”A. 10”,”B. 18”,”C. 26”,”D. 32”

A

80,d,1,By calculating the total number of candidates based on the given information, it’s determined to be 32, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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161
Q

1,What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?,”a) Under the present circumstances, India should completely avoid all trade liberalisation policies and all subsidies.”,”b) Due to its peculiar socio-economic situation, India is not yet ready for trade liberalisation process.”,”c) There is no solution in sight for the problems of continuing poverty and inflation in India in the near future.”,”d) Economic reforms can often high inflation economy.”

A

1,d,1,The passage implies that economic reforms can lead to a high inflation economy, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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162
Q

2,In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following statements is the most convincing explanation?,”a) The Right of personal property is a Natural Right duly supported by statutes and scriptures.”,”b) Personal property is a theft and an instrument of exploitation. The Right of personal property is therefore violative of economic justice.”,”c) The Right of personal property is violative of distributive justice and negates the principle of cooperation.”,”d) The comprehensive idea of economic justice demands that the Right of each person to acquisition of property has to be reconciled with that of others.”

A

2,d,1,The passage convincingly explains that economic justice demands reconciling the right to property acquisition with that of others, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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163
Q

3,The author’s viewpoint can be best summed up in which of the following statements?,”a) The conflict between the claims of State and individual remains unresolved.”,”b) Anarchy and chaos are the obvious results of democratic traditions.”,”c) Old values, ideas and traditions persist despite the dynamic nature of human society.”,”d) Constitutional guarantee of freedom of speech is not in the interest of society.”

A

3,a,1,The passage suggests that the conflict between the claims of the state and individuals remains unresolved, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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164
Q

4,According to the passage, which of the following is/are a matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under UNFCCC regarding the role of developing countries in climate change?,”1. The scale and size of required financial support. 2. The crop loss due to climate change in the developing countries. 3. To enhance the mitigation and adaptation actions in the developing countries.”,”a) 1 only”,”b) 2 and 3 only”,”c) 1 and 3 only”,”d) 1, 2 and 3”

A

4,c,1,Considering the scale and size of financial support needed for mitigation and adaptation actions in developing countries is crucial, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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165
Q

5,In this passage, the Convention puts the responsibility for the provision of financial support on the developed countries because of,”1. their higher level of per capita incomes. 2. their large quantum of GDP. 3. their large contribution to the stock of GHGs in the atmosphere.”,”a) 1 only”,”b) 1 and 2 only”,”c) 3 only”,”d) 1, 2 and 3”

A

5,c,1,The convention places responsibility for financial support on developed countries due to their significant contribution to greenhouse gas emissions, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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166
Q

6,With regards to developing countries, it can be inferred from the passage that climate change is likely to have implications on their,”a) 1 only”,”b) 2 only”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

6,a,1,The passage infers that climate change is likely to have implications on the domestic finances of developing countries, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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167
Q

7,Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage?,”a) Conflict between developed and developing countries regarding support for mitigation”,”b) Occurrence of climate change due to excessive exploitation of natural resources by the developed countries”,”c) Lack of political will on the part of all the countries to implement adaptation plans.”,”d) Governance problems of developing countries as a result of climate change”

A

7,a,1,There is a conflict between developed and developing countries regarding support for mitigation, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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168
Q

8,Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute hand of a clock will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes at,”a) 6: 15 PM”,”b) 6: 18 PM”,”c) 6: 36 PM”,”d) 6: 48 PM”

A

8,c,1,By using the given formula and substituting the values, the time is calculated to be 6:36 PM, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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169
Q

9,There are 5 tasks and 5 persons. Task-l cannot be assigned to either person-l or person-2. Task-2 must be assigned to either person-3 or person-4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done?,”a) 6”,”b) 12”,”c) 24”,”d) 144”

A

9,c,1,By considering the possible ways of assigning tasks to persons, it’s determined that there are 24 ways to do so, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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170
Q

10,The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are in the ratio of 4: 3. Their expenses are in the ratio of 3 :2. If each saves Rs. 6,000 at the end of the month, their monthly incomes respectively are (in Rs.),”a) 24,000 and 18,000”,”b) 28,000 and 21,000”,”c) 32,000 and 24,000”,”d) 34,000 and 26,000”

A

10,a,1,By solving the equations and calculating the monthly incomes of Peter and Paul, it’s determined that Peter’s monthly salary is Rs. 24,000 and Paul’s is Rs. 18,000, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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171
Q

11,Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to A with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?,”a) 45 km/hr”,”b) 48 km/hr”,”c) 50 km/hr”,”d) 55 km/hr”

A

11,b,1,By calculating the average speed based on the given distances and speeds, it’s determined to be 48 km/hr, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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172
Q

12,Which one of the following is possible?,”a) D is 20 years old”,”b) F is 18 years old”,”c) F is 19 years old”,”d) F is 20 years old”

A

12,b,1,By analyzing the given order of cousins’ ages, it’s found that F is 18 years old, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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173
Q

13,What is the number of logically possible orders of all six cousins in terms of increasing age?,”a) 1”,”b) 2”,”c) 3”,”d) 4”

A

13,b,1,By considering the possible orders of all six cousins, it’s determined that there are 2 possible orders, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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174
Q

14,In a society it is customary for friends of the same sex to hug and for friends of opposite sex to shake hands when they meet. A group of friends met in a party and there were 24 handshakes. Which one among the following numbers indicates the possible number of hugs?,”a) 39”,”b) 30”,”c) 21”,”d) 20”

A

14,c,1,By calculating the number of handshakes based on the given information, it’s determined to be 21, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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175
Q

15,Two men, Anil and David, and two women, Shabnam and Rekha are in a sales group. Only two speak Tamil. The other two speak Marathi. Only one man and one woman can drive a car. Shabnam speaks Marathi. Anil speaks Tamil. Both Rekha and David can drive. Which of the following statements is true?,”a) Both the Tamil speakers can drive a car.”,”b) Both the Marathi speakers can drive a car.”,”c) Both of those who can drive a car speak Marathi.”,”d) One of those who can drive a car speaks Tamil.”

A

15,a,1,By analyzing the given information, it’s inferred that Anil can drive a car and speaks Tamil, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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176
Q

16,In a plane, line X is perpendicular to line Y and parallel to line Z; line U is perpendicular to both lines V and W; line X is perpendicular to line V. Which one of the following statements is correct?,”a) Z, U and W are parallel.”,”b) X, V and Y are parallel.”,”c) Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W.”,”d) Y, V and W are parallel.”

A

16,d,1,By interpreting the given information, it’s concluded that Y, V, and W are parallel, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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177
Q

17,A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats. If a goat costs between Rs. 600 and Rs. 800, which of the following is a most valid conclusion?,”a) A cow costs more than Rs. 2,500.”,”b) A cow costs less than Rs. 3,600.”,”c) A cow costs between Rs. 2,600 and Rs. 3,800.”,”d) A cow costs between Rs. 2,400 and Rs. 4,000.”

A

17,d,1,By considering the given information and calculating the possible cost of a cow, it’s determined to be between Rs. 2400 and Rs. 3400, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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178
Q

18,A society consists of only two types of people fighters and cowards. Two cowards are always friends. A fighter and a coward are always enemies. Fighters are indifferent to one another. If A and B are enemies, C and D are friends, E and F are indifferent to each other, A and E are not enemies, while B and F are enemies. Which of the following statements is correct?,”a) B, C and F are cowards.”,”b) A, E and F are fighters.”,”c) B and E are in the same category.”,”d) A and F are in different categories.”

A

18,b,1,By analyzing the given information, it’s determined that A, E, and F are fighters, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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179
Q

19,In a box of marbles, there are three less white marbles than the red ones and five more white marbles than the green ones. If there are a total of 10 white marbles, how many marbles are there in the box?,”a) 26”,”b) 28”,”c) 32”,”d) 36”

A

19,b,1,By calculating the total number of marbles based on the given information, it’s determined that there are 5 green marbles, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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180
Q

20,Candidates in a competitive examination consisted of 60% men and 40% women. 70% men and 75% women cleared the qualifying test and entered the final test where 80% men and 70% women were successful. Which of the following statements is correct?,”a) Success rate is higher for women.”,”b) Overall success rate is below 50%.”,”c) More men cleared the examination than women.”,”d) Both (a) and (b) above are correct.”

A

20,c,1,By calculating the number of successful candidates based on the given percentages, it’s determined that more men cleared the examination than women, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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181
Q

21,Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?,”a) Government should allocate more funds to poverty alleviation programmes and increase food subsidies to the poor communities.”,”b) Poverty and climate impacts reinforce each other and therefore we have to re-imagine our food systems.”,”c) All the countries of the world unite in fighting poverty and malnutrition and treat poverty global problem.”,”d) We must stop unsustainable agricultural practices control food prices.”

A

21,b,1,The most logical corollary from the passage is that poverty and climate impacts reinforce each other, necessitating a re-imagining of food systems, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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182
Q

22,Which among the following is the most rational and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?,”a) Foreign portfolio investments are not good for emerging economies.”,”b) Advanced economies undermine the global financial stability.”,”c) India should desist from accepting foreign portfolio investments in the future.”,”d) Emerging economies are at a risk of shock from advanced economies.”

A

22,d,1,The most rational inference from the passage is that emerging economies are at risk of shocks from advanced economies, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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183
Q

23,Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?,”a) The Central and State governments in India do not have enough resources to afford a latrine for each household.”,”b) Open defecation is the most important public health problem of India.”,”c) Open defecation reduces the human capital of India’s workforce.”,”d) Open defecation is a public health problem in all developing countries.”

A

23,c,1,The most critical inference from the passage is that open defecation reduces the human capital of India’s workforce, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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184
Q

24,Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage?,”a) Our country has a lot of diversity with its many castes, communities and religions.”,”b) True democracy could be established by providing equal opportunities to all.”,”c) So far none of us have actually understood the meaning of democracy.”,”d) It will never be possible for us to establish truly democratic governance in our country.”

A

24,b,1,The best summary of the passage is that true democracy could be established by providing equal opportunities to all, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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185
Q

25,With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: 1. Indian financial institutions do not offer any financial instruments to rural households to mobilise their savings. 2. Poor households tend to spend their earnings/savings due to lack of access to appropriate financial instruments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,”a) 1 only”,”b) 2 only.”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

25,b,1,It’s inferred from the passage that poor households tend to spend their earnings savings due to lack of access to appropriate financial instruments, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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186
Q

26,What is the crucial message conveyed in the passage?,”a) Establish more banks.”,”b) Increase the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate”,”c) Increase the interest rate of bank deposits”,”d) Promote financial inclusion”

A

26,d,1,The crucial message conveyed in the passage is to promote financial inclusion, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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187
Q

27,Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?,”a) Government should always be given wide discretionary power in all matters of administration.”,”b) The supremacy of rules and safeguards should prevail as opposed to the influence of exclusive discretion of authority.”,”c) Parliamentary democracy is possible only if the Government has wider discretionary power.”,”d) None of the above statements is a logical assumption that can be made from this passage.”

A

27,d,1,None of the statements provided can be logically assumed from the passage, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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188
Q

28,A selection is to be made for one post of Principal and two posts of Vice-Principal. Amongst the six candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the post of Principal while they all are eligible for the post of Vice-Principal. The number of possible combinations of selectees is,”a) 4”,”b) 12”,”c) 18”,”d) None of the above”

A

28,b,1,By calculating the number of possible combinations of selecting candidates, it’s determined to be 12 ways, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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189
Q

29,A student has to opt for 2 subjects out of 5 subjects for a course, namely, Commerce, Economics, Statistics, Mathematics I and Mathematics II. Mathematics II can be offered only if Mathematics I is also opted. The number of different combinations of two subjects which can be opted is,”a) 5”,”b) 6”,”c) 7”,”d) 8”

A

29,e,1,The given list exhaustively covers all possible combinations of subjects chosen by the students, confirming Option (e) as correct.

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190
Q

30,A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black pair was thrice that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill, the bill clerk interchanged the number of black and brown pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 100%. What was the number of pairs of brown socks in the original order?,”a) 10”,”b) 15”,”c) 20”,”d) 25”

A

30,d,1,By solving the equation, it’s determined that the correct number of brown socks is 25, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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191
Q

31,The number of persons who read magazine X only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine Y. The number of persons who read magazine Y only is thrice the number of persons who read magazine X. Then, which of the following conclusions can be drawn? 1. The number of persons who read both the magazines is twice the number of persons who read only magazine X. 2. The total number of persons who read either one magazine or both the magazines are twice the number of persons who read both the magazines. Select the correct answer using the code given below:,”a) 1 only”,”b) 2 only”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

31,d,0,Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 provides a convincing explanation or inference, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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192
Q

32,From the graph, which one of the following can be concluded?,”a) On the average A earned more than B during this period.”,”b) On the average B earned more than A during this period.”,”c) The earnings of A and B were equal during this period.”,”d) The earnings of A were less as compared to B during this period.”

A

32,a,1,It’s concluded that, on average, A earned more than B during the period, confirming Option (a) as correct.

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193
Q

33,Two pipes A and B can independently fill a tank completely in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, how much time will they take to fill the tank completely?,”a) 10 minutes”,”b) 12 minutes”,”c) 15 minutes”,”d) 25 minutes”

A

33,b,1,By calculating the time taken by both pipes to fill the tank, it’s determined to be 12 minutes, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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194
Q

34,Each of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a different colour i.e., V, I, B, G, Y andO. Following information is given: 1. Colours Y, O and B are on adjacent faces. 2. Colours I, G and Y are on adjacent faces. 3. Colours B, G and Y are on adjacent faces. 4. Colours O, V and B are on adjacent faces. Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face coloured with O?,”a) B”,”b) V”,”c) G”,”d) I”

A

34,c,1,By considering the arrangement of colors on a die, it’s determined that the green face is opposite to the orange face, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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195
Q

35,Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions: Statements: Some men are great. Some men are wise. Conclusion I: Men are either great or wise. Conclusion II: Some men are neither great nor wise Which one of the following is correct?,”a) Only conclusion I is valid”,”b) Only conclusion II is valid”,”c) Both the conclusions are valid”,”d) Neither of the conclusions is valid”

A

35,d,0,Neither of the given conclusions is valid based on the information provided, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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196
Q

36,Consider the following statements: 1. Some claim to have seen UFOs (Unidentified Flying Objects). 2. Life on other heavenly bodies is considered to be a possibility. 3. Voyage to space is now an established fact. From the above statements, it may be concluded that,”a) UFOs are heavenly bodies”,”b) UFOs are sent from other heavenly bodies”,”c) Some living species in other heavenly bodies are more intelligent than man”,”d) Nothing definite can be said about the UFOs”

A

36,d,0,The passage does not provide sufficient information to make any definite statements about UFOs, confirming Option (d) as correct.

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197
Q

37,If ABC x DEED = ABCABC; where A, B, C, D and E are different digits, what are the values of D and E?,”a) D = 2, E = 0”,”b) D = 0, E = 1”,”c) D = 1, E = 0”,”d) D = 1, E = 2”

A

37,c,1,By multiplying the given numbers, it’s determined that the values of D and E are 1 and 0, respectively, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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198
Q

38,The price of the commodity in the year 1990,”a) must have been Rs. 10”,”b) must have been Rs. 12”,”c) must have been anywhere between Rs. 10and Rs. 20”,”d) is higher than that in the year 1991”

A

38,c,1,The price of the commodity in 1990 must have been between Rs 10 and Rs 20 based on the given information, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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199
Q

39,From these charts, we can conclude that,”a) Family A spent more money on food than Family B.”,”b) Family B spent more money on food than Family A.”,”c) Family A and Family B spent the same amount on food.”,”d) The expenditure on food by Family A and Family B cannot be compared.”

A

39,c,1,Both Family A and Family B spent the same amount on food, confirming Option (c) as correct.

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200
Q

40,Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti runs slower than Swati, Swati runs slower than Kamala. Who is the slowest runner?,”a) Kamala”,”b) Priti”,”c) Swati”,”d) Usha”

A

40,b,1,By analyzing the given information, it’s determined that Usha > Kamala > Swati > Priti, confirming Option (b) as correct.

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201
Q

41,Which one of the following statements is least essential as a part of the argument in the above passage?,”a) Man seeks control over external things affecting him.”,”b) In society, there are ‘super’ and ‘sub’ human beings.”,”c) Exceptions to universal citizen participation are conducive to systemic efficacy.”,”d) Governing implies recognition of disparities in individual capacities.”

A

41,a,1,The least essential part of the argument in the passage is the assertion that “man seeks control over external things affecting him,” confirming Option (a) as correct.

202
Q

42,Which one of the following statements best sums up the above passage?,”a) The population of the world is growing very fast.”,”b) Food security is a perennial problem only in developing countries.”,”c) The world does not have enough resources to meet the impending food scarcity.”,”d) Food security is increasingly a collective challenge.”

A

42,d,1,The passage suggests that food security is increasingly a collective challenge, confirming Option (d) as correct.

203
Q

43,With reference to the above passage, which of the following is the most valid assumption?,”a) Building of weapons systems by us has instigated our neighbours to wage wars against us.”,”b) The greater spending on weaponbuilding by us would lessen the possibility of armed conflict with our neighbours.”,”c) It is necessary to have state of the art weapons systems for national security.”,”d) Many people in India believe that we are wasting our resources on weaponbuilding.”

A

43,b,1,The most valid assumption from the passage is that greater spending on weapon-building would lessen the possibility of conflict with neighbors, confirming Option (b) as correct.

204
Q

44,Which is the critical inference that can be made from the above passage?,”a) A lot of Indians are illiterate and hence do not recognize the value of basic health practices.”,”b) India has a very huge population and the government alone cannot manage public health services.”,”c) Universalization and integration of maternal health and child health services can effectively address the problem.”,”d) The nutrition of women in child bearing age does not affect child mortality rate.”

A

44,c,1,The critical inference from the passage is that universalization and integration of maternal health and child health services can effectively address the problem, confirming Option (c) as correct.

205
Q

45,With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/are true?,”1. Consuming regionally grown food and not depending on long travelled food is a part of eco-friendly behaviour.”,”2. Food processing industry puts a burden on our natural resources.”,”Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,”a) 1 only”,”b) 2 only”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

45,c,1,Both given statements are correct based on the information provided, confirming Option (c) as correct.

206
Q

46,The author says that a thoughtless word hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for this?,”a) He has no intention to waste his time.”,”b) He believes in the economy of words.”,”c) He believes in restraining his thoughts.”,”d) He has hesitancy in his speech.”

A

46,a,1,Option (a) is not a valid reason based on the information provided, confirming Option (a) as correct.

207
Q

47,The most appropriate reason for the author to be spared many a mishap is that,”a) he hardly utters or writes a thoughtless word.”,”b) he is a man of immense patience.”,”c) he believes that he is a spiritual person.”,”d) he is a votary of truth.”

A

47,a,1,The passage suggests that the author hardly utters or writes a thoughtless word, confirming Option (a) as correct.

208
Q

48,For the author, silence is necessary in order to surmount,”a) constitutional shyness.”,”b) hesitancy in speech.”,”c) suppression of thoughts.”,”d) tendency to overstate.”

A

48,d,1,For the author, silence is necessary to overcome the tendency to overstate, confirming Option (d) as correct.

209
Q

49,Twelve people form a club. By picking lots, one of them will host a dinner for all once in a month. The number of dinners a particular member has to host in one year is,”a) One”,”b) Zero”,”c) Three”,”d) Cannot be predicted”

A

49,d,0,It’s not possible to predict whether one may have to host a dinner more than once by choosing members from picking lots, confirming Option (d) as correct.

210
Q

50,An automobiles owner reduced his monthly petrol consumption when the prices went up. The price- consumption relationship is as follows:,”Price (in Rs. Per litre) 40 50 60 75”,”Monthly consumption (in litres 60 48 40 32”,”If the price goes up to Rs. 80 per litre, his expected consumption (in litres) will be,”a) 30”,”b) 28”,”c) 26”,”d) 24”

A

50,a,1,By calculating the percentage decrease in consumption when the price of petrol increases, it’s determined to be 50%, confirming Option (a) as correct.

211
Q

51,Consider the figures given below: To fit the question mark, the correct answer is,,

A

51,a,1,By analyzing the movements of shapes, it’s determined that the small circle, square, and black dot move in the anticlockwise direction, while the triangle moves in the clockwise direction, confirming Option (a) as correct.

212
Q

52,Consider the following matrix: 3 8 10 2 ? 1 6 56 90 2 20 0 What is the missing number at ‘?’ in the matrix?,”a) 5”,”b) 0”,”c) 7”,”d) 3”

A

52,a,1,By analyzing the given pattern, the missing number is determined to be 5, confirming Option (a) as correct.

213
Q

53,What is the missing number ‘X’ of the series 7, X, 21, 31, 43?,”a) 11”,”b) 12”,”c) 13”,”d) 14”

A

53,c,1,By analyzing the sequence of numbers, it’s determined that the missing number is 13, confirming Option (c) as correct.

214
Q

54,Four cardboard pieces of specific shapes are shown in the following figure: Which one of the following figures given can be formed by joining these pieces together?,

A

54,d,1,Figure (d) can be formed by joining the given pieces together, confirming Option (d) as correct.

215
Q

55,In a test, a candidate attempted only 8 questions and secured 50% marks in each of the questions. If he obtained a total of 40% in the test and all questions in the test carried equal marks, how many questions were there in the test?,”a) 8”,”b) 10”,”c) 15”,”d) 16”

A

55,b,1,By calculating the number of questions attempted based on the given information, it’s determined to be 10, confirming Option (b) as correct.

216
Q

56,A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight times as old as the son. The sum of the father’s and the mother’s age is 51 years. What is the age of the son?,”a) 7 year”,”b) 5year”,”c) 4 year”,”d) 3 year”

A

56,d,1,By solving the equations, the age of the son is determined to be 3 years, confirming Option (d) as correct.

217
Q

57,Four persons A, B, C and D consisting of two married couples are in a group. Both the women are shorter than their respective husbands. A is the tallest among the four. C is taller than B. D is B’s brother. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?,”a) All four have family ties.”,”b) B is the shortest among the four.”,”c) C is taller than D.”,”d) A is B’s husband”

A

57,c,0,According to the given statements, A and D are males, while B and C are females. Thus, statement (c) is incorrect, confirming Option (c) as correct.

218
Q

58,Consider the following statements: 1. A man had a wife, two sons and daughters in his family 2. The daughters were invited to a feast and the male members of the family went out to take part in a picnic 3. The man’s father did not return from his work. Which of the following statement is true?,”a) Only the man’s wife was left at home.”,”b) It is likely that the man’s wife was left at home.”,”c) None was left at home”,”d) More than one person was left at home.”

A

58,a,1,The only man’s wife was left at home, confirming Option (a) as correct.

219
Q

59,Geeta: Naresh has become a better boxer since he started meditation. Radha: Impossible, A boxer’s most important asset is his aggressiveness. Radha’s statement reflects her belief that,”a) meditation tends to make a person less aggressive.”,”b) meditation has little or no effect on the person who practice it.”,”c) Naresh was a poor boxer earlier because he was not aggressive enough.”,”d) Naresh would not have taken to meditation as he was a boxer.”

A

59,a,1,Radha’s statement reflects her belief that meditation tends to make a person less aggressive, confirming Option (a) as correct.

220
Q

60,All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win eat a wellbalanced diet; therefore, all athletes who do not eat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes. The best conclusion from this statement is that,”a) no bad athlete wants to win.”,”b) no athlete who does not eat a wellbalanced diet is a good athlete.”,”c) every athlete who eats a wellbalanced diet is a good athlete.”,”d) all athletes who want to win are good athletes.”

A

60,b,1,The best conclusion from the statement is that “no athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete,” confirming Option (b) as correct.

221
Q

61,Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?,”a) The richer States must lead in the production and adoption of renewable energy.”,”b) The poor States always have to depend on rich States for electricity.”,”c) The State Electricity Boards can improve their finances by undertaking clean energy projects.”,”d) The high economic disparity between the rich and poor States is the major cause of high carbon emissions in India.”

A

61,a,1,The most logical assumption from the passage is that “the richer states must lead in the production and adoption of renewable energy,” confirming Option (a) as correct.

222
Q

62,This is a sensitive issue-based story which tries to sensitise the readers about,”a) Male chauvinism and infidelity”,”b) Love and betrayal”,”c) Lack of legal safeguards for women”,”d) Influence of patriarchal mindset”

A

62,d,1,The passage is about sensitizing readers about the influence of patriarchal mindset, confirming Option (d) as correct.

223
Q

63,Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?,”a) The true aim of government is to secure the citizens their social and political freedom.”,”b) The primary concern of government is to provide absolute social security to all its citizens.”,”c) The best government is the one that allows the citizens to enjoy absolute liberty in all matters of life.”,”d) The best government is the one that provides absolute physical security to the people of the country”

A

63,a,1,The most logical and rational inference from the passage is that “the true aim of government is to secure the citizens their social and political freedom,” confirming Option (a) as correct.

224
Q

64,Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?,”a) The task of providing urban servicing is a complex issue which requires the organizational expansion of municipal bodies all over the country,”,”b) Our cities can provide better quality of life if our local government bodies have adequate staff with required skills and competencies.”,”c) Lack of skilled staff is due to the absence of institutions which offer the requisite skills in city management.”,”d) Our country is not taking advantage of the demographic dividend to manage the problems associated with rapid urbanization”

A

64,b,1,The most logical and rational assumption from the passage is that “our cities can provide a better quality of life if our local government bodies have adequate staff with required skills and competencies,” confirming Option (b) as correct.

225
Q

65,Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?,”a) Mass nesting in all species of bird is essential to ensure complete survival of their offspring.”,”b) Only birds have the capacity to develop social behaviour and thus can-do mass nesting to raise their chicks in safety.”,”c) Social behaviour in some species of birds increases the odds of’ survival in an unsafe world.”,”d) All species of birds set up creches for their chicks to teach them social behaviour and loyalty”

A

65,c,1,The most logical corollary to the passage is that “social behavior in some species of birds increases the odds of survival in an unstable world,” confirming Option (c) as correct.

226
Q

66,What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage?,”a) MGNREGS should be extended only to those who have a bank account.”,”b) The paper-based system of payments is more efficient than electronic payment in the present scenario.”,”c) The goal of electronic wage payments was not to eliminate mediation by village leaders.”,”d) It is essential to provide financial literacy to the rural poor.”

A

66,d,1,The most logical, rational, and crucial message implied in the passage is that “it is essential to provide financial literacy to the rural poor,” confirming Option (d) as correct.

227
Q

67,With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: 1. In developing countries, a strong institutional framework is the only requirement for human development and policy options 2. Human development and economic growth are not always positively interrelated. 3. Focusing only on human development should be the goal of economic growth Which of the above statements is/are correct?,”a) 1 only”,”b) 2 and 3 only”,”c) 2 only”,”d) 1,2 and 3”

A

67,e,1,It’s stated in the passage that human development and economic growth are not always positively inter-related, confirming Option (e) as correct.

228
Q

68,With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Higher economic growth is essential to ensure reduction in economic disparity. 2. Environmental degradation is sometimes a consequence of economic growth Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions?,”a) 1 only”,”b) 2 only”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”

A

68,b,1,The passage suggests that environmental degradation is sometimes a byproduct of economic growth, confirming Option (b) as correct.

229
Q

69,If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast but not faster than C; then, as compared to A, C runs,”a) slower than A”,”b) faster than A”,”c) with same speed as A”,”d) Given data is not sufficient to determine”

A

69,b,1,According to the given information, C is faster than B and A, confirming Option (b) as correct.

230
Q

70,Each of A, B, C and D has Rs 100. A pays Rs 20 to B, who pays Rs 10 to C, who gets Rs 30 from D. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?,”a) C is the richest”,”b) D is the poorest.”,”c) C has more than what A and D have together.”,”d) B is richer than D”

A

70,c,0,After analyzing the transactions, it’s found that C has more money than what A and D have together, making the statement incorrect, confirming Option (c) as correct.

231
Q

71,In a town, 45% population read magazine A, 55% read magazine B, 40% read magazine C, 30% read magazines A and B, 15% read magazines B and C, 25% read magazines A and C; and 10% read all the three magazines. What percentage do not read any magazine?,”a) 10%”,”b) 15%”,”c) 20%”,”d) 25%”

A

71,d,0,It’s mentioned that 2.5% of the population do not read any magazine, confirming Option (d) as correct.

232
Q

72,Examine the following statements: 1. Lady’s finger is tastier than cabbage. 2. Cauliflower is tastier than lady’s finger. 3. Cabbage is not tastier than peas. The conclusion that can be drawn from these statements is that,”a) peas are as tasty as lady’s finger.”,”b) peas are as tasty as cauliflower and lady’s finger.”,”c) cabbage is the least tasty of the four vegetables.”,”d) cauliflower is tastier than cabbage.”

A

72,d,0,The statement “cauliflower is tastier than cabbage” is not supported by the given information, confirming Option (d) as correct.

233
Q

73,Shahid and Rohit start from the same point in opposite directions. After each 1 km, Shahid always turns left and Rohit always turns right. Which of the following statements is correct ?,”a) After both have travelled 2 km, the distance between them is 4 km.”,”b) They meet after each has travelled 3 km.”,”c) They meet for the first time after each has travelled 4 km.”,”d) They go on without ever meeting again.”

A

73,b,1,They meet after each has traveled 3 km, confirming Option (b) as correct.

234
Q

74,In a 500 metres race, B starts 45 metres ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is still 35 metres behind. What is the ratio of the speeds of A to B assuming that both start at the same time?,”a) 25: 21”,”b) 25: 20”,”c) 5:3”,”d) 5:7”

A

74,a,1,By calculating the total distance and distance covered by each, the ratio of distances covered by A and B is determined to be 25:21, confirming Option (a) as correct.

235
Q

75,Two equal glasses of same type are respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They are then filled up with water and the contents are mixed in a pot. What is the ratio of milk and water in the pot?,”a) 7 : 17”,”b) 1 : 3”,”c) 9 : 21”,”d) 11 : 23”

A

75,a,1,By calculating the quantities of milk and water in each glass, the ratio of milk and water in the mixture is determined to be 7:17, confirming Option (a) as correct.

236
Q

76,Out of 130 students appearing in an examination, 62 failed in English, 52 failed in Mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both English and Mathematics. The number of students who passed finally is,A) 40,B) 50,C) 55,D) 60

A

76,a,1,The total number of failed students is calculated to be 90, confirming Option (a) as correct.

237
Q

77,In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can speak two languages only and one person can speak all the three languages, then how many persons are there in the group?,A) 21,B) 22,C) 23,D) 24

A

77,c,1,By analyzing the language-speaking abilities of the people, it’s determined that the total number of people who can speak only one language is 20, confirming Option (c) as correct.

238
Q

78,In a parking area, the total number of wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and scooters/motorbikes (two-wheelers) is 100 more than twice the number of parked vehicles. The number of cars parked is,A) 35,B) 45,C) 50,D) 55

A

78,c,1,By solving the equation based on the number of wheels, it’s determined that the number of cars parked is 50, confirming Option (c) as correct.

239
Q

79,”The mangroves can shed tons of leaves per acre every year; fungi and bacteria break down this leaf litter and consume it, they then are consumed by tiny worms and crustaceans, which in turn feed small fish, which feed larger fish and birds and crocodiles.” Which among the following is the most logical inference of the above statement?,A) Coastal areas cannot have food chains without mangroves.,B) Mangroves are an essential component of all marine ecosystems.,C) Mangroves have a crucial role in some of the coastal food chains.,D) The composition of marine flora and fauna is largely determined by mangroves.

A

79,c,1,The most logical inference from the statement is that “mangroves have a crucial role in some of the coastal food chains,” confirming Option (c) as correct.

240
Q

80,”"”By liberty I mean the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves.””” Which one of the following expresses the view implied in the above statement?,A) Liberty is the absence of restraint on human action.,B) Liberty is what law permits people to perform.,C) Liberty is the ability to do what one desires.,D) Liberty is the maintenance of conditions for the growth of human personality

A

80,c,1,The passage discusses liberty as the ability to do what one desires, confirming Option (c) as correct.

241
Q

1,The author’s central focus is on,A) applauding India’s economic growth not only against its own past performance, but against other nations.,B) emphasizing the need for economic growth which is the sole determinant of a country’s prosperity.,C) emphasizing inclusive growth where gains of growth are shared widely by the population.,D) emphasizing high growth.

A

1,c,0,The author’s central focus is not solely on emphasizing the need for economic growth but rather on discussing the various aspects of economic reforms and their implications, making Option (c) incorrect.

242
Q

2,The author supports policies which will help,A) develop economic growth.,B) better distribution of incomes irrespective of rate of growth.,C) develop economic growth and redistribute economic gains to those getting left behind.,D) put an emphasis on the development of the poorest segments of society.

A

2,c,1,The author supports policies that promote economic growth and redistribute economic gains to those left behind, confirming Option (c) as correct.

243
Q

3,According to the author, India’s economy has grown but there is no room for complacency as,UPSC SARTHI ~ CSAT-2014,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

3,d,1,Both given statements are indeed incorrect, confirming Option (d) as correct.

244
Q

4,Consider the following statements: According to the passage, an oil company can make greater profits, if a transparent formula for petrol pricing is announced every fortnight or month, by,a) 1 only,b) 2 and 3,c) 3 and 4,d) 1, 2 and 4

A

4,b,1,The correct phrase is “undertaking innovation and cutting-edge research,” confirming Option (b) as correct.

245
Q

5,Consider the following statements: According to the passage, private oil companies re-enter the oil producing market if,a) 1 and 2,b) 2 and 3,c) 3 and 4,d) 2 and 4

A

5,a,1,The passage suggests that private oil companies would re-enter the oil-producing market under certain conditions, such as transparent rule-based petrol pricing and no government interference, confirming Option (a) as correct.

246
Q

6,Five persons fire bullets at a target at an interval of 6, 7, 8, 9 and 12 seconds respectively. The number of times they would fire the bullets together at the target in an hour is,a) 6,b) 7,c) 8,d) 9

A

6,b,0,The correct calculation for the number of times five bullets can be fired together is 3600 divided by the least common multiple (LCM) of 6, 7, 8, 9, and 12, confirming Option (b) as incorrect.

247
Q

7,A group of 630 children is seated in rows for a group photo session. Each row contains three less children than the row in front of it. Which one of the following number of rows is not possible?,A) 3,B) 4,C) 5,D) 6

A

7,d,0,By solving the equation, it’s found that the value of x is a non-integer (97.5), making Option (d) invalid.

248
Q

8,There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in that order). A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is between A and B. E is between B and F. If F is between E and D, the person on the bottom step of the ladder will be,a) B,b) F,c) D,d) E

A

8,c,0,The correct order is CAGEFD, confirming Option (c) as incorrect.

249
Q

9,Consider that: 1. A is taller than B. 2. C is taller than A. 3. D is taller than C. 4. E is the tallest of all. If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid position?,a) A,b) B,c) C,d) D

A

9,c,1,In the given seating arrangement, C will indeed occupy the middle position, confirming Option (c) as correct.

250
Q

10,Consider the following statements: There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F. F is 1 km to the west of D.B is 1 km to the east of E. A is 2 km to the north of E. C is 1 km to the east of A. D is 1 km to the south of A. Which three villages are in a line?,a) A, C, B,b) A, D, E,c) C, B, F,d) E, B, D

A

10,b,1,The villages A, D, and E are indeed in a line, confirming Option (b) as correct.

251
Q

11,Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not next to C. If C is not sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats adjacent to D?,a) B,b) A,c) B and A,d) Impossible to tell

A

11,b,1,The correct seating arrangement is DABC, confirming Option (b) as correct.

252
Q

12,Assume that 1. the hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking. 2. the clock shows a time between 8 o’clock and 9 o’clock. 3. the two hands of the clock are one above the other. After how many minutes (nearest integer) with the two hands will be again lying one above the other?,a) 60,b) 62,c) 65,d) 67

A

12,c,1,The two hands of the clock will be lying one above the other at 60 minutes past 11, confirming Option (c) as correct.

253
Q

13,Consider the following statements: Climate change may force the shifting of locations of the existing crops due to 1. melting of glaciers. 2. water availability and temperature suitability at other locations. 3. poor productivity of crops. 4. wider adaptability of crop plants. Which of the statements given above are correct?,a) 1, 2 and 3,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 4 only,d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

13,b,1,Climate change may indeed force the shifting of locations of existing crops due to various factors, confirming Option (b) as correct.

254
Q

14,According to the passage, why is it important to promote agricultural research in India?,a) To predict variations in monsoon patterns and to manage water resources,b) To make long term investment decisions for economic growth,c) To facilitate wider adaptability of crops,d) To predict drought conditions and to recharge aquifers

A

14,c,1,One of the measures to facilitate wider adaptability of crops is to facilitate the use of precision farming techniques, confirming Option (c) as correct.

255
Q

15,According to the passage, which of the following would help in the mitigation of greenhouse gases? 1. Reducing the consumption of meat 2. Rapid economic liberalization 3. Reducing the consumerism 4. Modern management practices of livestock Select the correct answer using the code given below:,a) 1, 2 and 3,b) 2, 3 and 4,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 2 and 4 only

A

15,c,1,Reducing the consumption of meat and consumerism are indeed potential measures to combat climate change, confirming Option (c) as correct.

256
Q

16,Why do we continue to depend on the fossil fuels heavily? 1. Inadequate technological development 2. Inadequate funds for research and development 3. Inadequate availability of alternative sources of energy Select the correct answer using the code given below:,a) 1 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

16,a,1,The passage suggests that inadequate technological development is one reason for continued heavy dependence on fossil fuels, confirming Option (a) as correct.

257
Q

17,According to the passage, how does the mitigation of greenhouse gases help us? 1. Reduces expenditure on public health 2. Reduces dependence on livestock 3. Reduces energy requirements 4. Reduces rate of global climate change Select the correct answer using the code given below:,a) 1, 2 and 3,b) 1, 3 and 4,c) 2, 3 and 4,d) 1 and 4 only

A

17,c,1,Reducing dependence on livestock indeed has various positive impacts on the environment, confirming Option (c) as correct.

258
Q

18,What is the essential message of the passage?,a) We continue to depend on fossil fuel heavily,b) Mitigation of the greenhouse gases is imperative,c) We must invest in research and development,d) People must change their lifestyle

A

18,b,1,The mitigation of greenhouse gases is indeed imperative to combat climate change, confirming Option (b) as correct.

259
Q

19,There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English 21, then how many students can speak Hindi how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?,a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively,b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively,c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively,d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively

A

19,d,1,After calculating the number of students who can speak only English and only Hindi, it’s found that 11 students can speak only English, confirming Option (d) as correct.

260
Q

20,A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing its width by 20%. The area of the new garden,a) Has increased by 20%.,b) Has increased by 12%.,c) Has increased by 8%.,d) Is exactly the same as the old area.

A

20,b,1,After calculating the increase in the area of the new garden, it’s found to be 12%, confirming Option (b) as correct.

261
Q

21,Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have green covers while others have yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old volumes. Books A, B and C are law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which two books are old medical extracts and have green covers?,a) B and C,b) E and F,c) C and E,d) C and F

A

21,b,1,The two books mentioned in the passage are indeed old medical extracts with green covers, confirming Option (b) as correct.

262
Q

22,A straight line segment is 36 cm long. Points are to be marked on the line from both the end points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the second point is at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point is at a distance of 3 cm from the second point and so on. If the points on the ends are not counted and the common points are counted as one, what is the number of points?,a) 10,b) 12,c) 14,d) 16

A

22,a,1,The total number of points on a straight line segment can indeed be 10, confirming Option (a) as correct.

263
Q

23,If Sohan while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other,a) He makes no profit and no loss.,b) He makes a profit of 1%.,c) He suffers a loss of 1%.,d) He suffers a loss of 2%.

A

23,c,1,The percentage of loss is indeed 1%, confirming Option (c) as correct.

264
Q

24,Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play guitar alone is 40. What is the total number those who can play violin alone or flute alone?,a) 45,b) 44,c) 38,d) 30

A

24,b,1,After calculating the number of musicians who can play guitar, it’s found to be 40, confirming Option (b) as correct.

265
Q

25,Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number ‘1’ marked on one side and number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the number ‘1’ is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number ‘2’ on the upper side?,a) 3,b) 5,c) 7,d) This cannot be achieved

A

25,a,1,The correct phrase is “six identical cards,” confirming Option (a) as correct.

266
Q

26,Consider the following statements: According to the passage, the adverse impact of climate change on an ecosystem can be a 1. Permanent disappearance of some of its flora and fauna. 2. Permanent disappearance of ecosystem itself. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

26,a,1,The adverse impact of climate change on an ecosystem can indeed lead to the permanent disappearance of some flora and fauna, confirming Option (a) as correct.

267
Q

27,Which one of the following statements best implies the need to shift toward contemporary conservation approach?,a) Exploitation of natural resources causes a stress on the Himalayan ecosystem.,b) Climate change alters precipitation patterns, causes episodes of drought and biotic interference.,c) The rich biodiversity, including endemic diversity, makes the Himalayan region a biodiversity hotspot.,d) The Himalayan biogeographic region should be enabled to adapt to climate change smoothly.

A

27,d,0,The passage does not specifically mention the Himalayan biogeographic region, making Option (d) incorrect.

268
Q

28,What is the most important message conveyed by the passage?,a) Endemism is a characteristic feature of Himalayan region.,b) Conservation efforts should emphasize on biogeographic ranges rather than on some species or habitats.,c) Climate change has adverse impact on the Himalayan ecosystem.,d) Without Himalayan ecosystem, the life of the communities of uplands and downstream will have no sustenance.

A

28,b,1,The passage indeed emphasizes the importance of conservation efforts focusing on biogeographic ranges rather than individual species or habitats, confirming Option (b) as correct.

269
Q

29,With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. To maintain natural ecosystems, exploitation of natural resources should be completely avoided. 2. Not only anthropogenic but also natural reasons can adversely affect ecosystems. 3. Loss of endemic diversity leads to the extinction of ecosystems. Which of the above assumptions is/are correct?,a) 1 and 2,b) 2 only,c) 2 and 3,d) 3 only

A

29,b,1,The passage suggests that both anthropogenic and natural factors can adversely affect ecosystems, confirming Option (b) as correct.

270
Q

30,According to the passage, under the globalization, government interventions are viewed as processes leading to,a) distortions and inefficiency in the economy.,b) optimum use of resources.,c) more profitability to industries.,d) free play of market forces with regard to the industries.

A

30,a,0,The passage does not explicitly state that government interventions under globalization are viewed as leading to distortions and inefficiencies in the economy, making Option (a) incorrect.

271
Q

31,According to the passage, the basic philosophy of globalization is to,a) give absolute freedom to producers to determine prices and production.,b) give freedom to producers to evolve distribution patterns.,c) give absolute freedom to markets to determine prices, production and employment.,d) give freedom to producers to import and export.

A

31,c,0,The basic philosophy of globalization is not absolute freedom for markets but rather reducing the role of the state in certain aspects, making Option (c) incorrect.

272
Q

32,According to the passage, which of the following is/are necessary for ensuring globalization? 1. Privatization of public enterprises 2. Expansionary policy of public expenditure 3. Free play of market forces to determine wages and employment 4. Privatization of social services like education and health. Select the correct answer using the code given below:,a) 1 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1, 3 and 4,d) 2, 3 and 4

A

32,c,0,The passage does not specifically mention privatization of public enterprises or social services like education and health, making Option (c) incorrect.

273
Q

33,According to the passage, in the process globalization the State should have,a) expanding role,b) reducing role,c) statutory role,d) none of the above roles.

A

33,b,1,The passage indeed suggests that in the process of globalization, the state’s role should be reduced, confirming Option (b) as correct.

274
Q

34,In which year is the average profit of A and B same?,a) 1995,b) 1996,c) 1997,d) 1998

A

34,b,1,The passage indeed states that the average of A and B was the same in the year 1996, confirming Option (b) as correct.

275
Q

35,What is the difference between the average profit of B and A in the year 1998?,a) - Rs. 100,b) - Rs. 1,000,c) +Rs. 600,d) - Rs. 300

A

35,c,1,The passage indicates that the difference between the average profit of B and A in 1998 is indeed +600, confirming Option (c) as correct.

276
Q

36,How much more average profit did A make in the year 2000 than in the year 1999?,a) Rs. 200,b) Rs. 1,000,c) Rs. 1,500,d) Rs. 2,000

A

36,d,1,The passage provides the average profit of A in the years 2000 and 1999, and the difference is as stated, confirming Option (d) as correct.

277
Q

37,What is the trend of the average profit of B from the year 1997 to the year 2000?,a) Non-increasing,b) Non -decreasing,c) Steady,d) Fluctuating

A

37,b,0,The passage does not provide information about the average profit of B from 1997 to 2000 being non-decreasing, making Option (b) incorrect.

278
Q

38,The following table shows the marks obtained by two students in different subjects: The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is (a) 2.5% (b) 13.75% (c) 1.25% (d) Zero

A

38,d,1,After calculating the mean aggregate percentage marks, it’s found that the difference is indeed zero, confirming Option (d) as correct.

279
Q

39,Examine the following figure: Which one of the following figures has the above figure embedded in it?

A

39,c,0,Option (c) lacks context and explanation.

280
Q

40,Consider the following matrix: Which one of the following figures fits into blank part of the above matrix?

A

40,b,0,Option (b) lacks context and explanation.

281
Q

41,The following table gives population and total income of a city for four years: Year 1992 1993 1994 1995 Population in lakhs 20 21 22 23 Income in crores (Rs.) 1010 1111 1225 1345 Which one of the following statements correct in respect of the above data?,a) Population increased by 5% or more every year.,b) Income increased by 10% or more every year.,c) Per capita income was always above 5,000.,d) Per capita income was highest in 1994.

A

41,c,0,The passage does not specify that per capita income was always above 5000, making Option (c) incorrect.

282
Q

42,Consider the table given below in which the numbers bear certain relationship among themselves along the rows: Which one of the following numbers is the missing number indicated above by X?,a) 19,b) 15,c) 14,d) 8

A

42,d,0,Option (d) lacks context and explanation.

283
Q

43,Consider the following matrix with one empty block in the lower extreme corner: Which of the following figures could fit in the empty block and thus complete the matrix?

A

43,a,1,Option (a) is correct as per the passage.

284
Q

44,With reference to the figure given below number of different routes from S to T without retracing from U and/or V (T is the next node after V), is,a) 3,b) 6,c) 9,d) 18

A

44,d,1,The passage suggests that there are 18 different routes from S to T, confirming Option (d) as correct.

285
Q

45,Consider the following figures: Change in positions of beads in the figures above follows a sequence. Follows the same sequence, which of the figures look should appear as the fifth figure above?,Figure C,Figure D,Figure E,Figure F

A

45,b,1,Option (b) is supported by the information provided in the passage.

286
Q

46,A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings every 32 minutes. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o’clock in the morning, at what other time will they all ring together?,a) 12: 40 hrs,b) 12: 48 hrs,c) 12 : 56 hrs,d) 13 : 04 hrs

A

46,b,0,The calculation and conclusion provided in Option (b) do not align with the information in the passage, making it incorrect.

287
Q

47.”Price is not the same thing as value. Suppose that on a day the price of everything viz., coal, bread, postage stamps, a day’s labour, the rent of houses, etc. were to double. Prices then would certainly rise, butvalues of all things except one would not.” The writer wants to say that if prices of all things were doubled,a) the values of all things would remain constant.,b) the values of the things sold would be doubled.,c) the values of the things bought would be halved.,d) the value of money only would be halved.

A

47,d,1,The writer indeed wants to convey that if the prices of all things were doubled, the value of money alone would be halved, confirming Option (d) as correct.

288
Q

48.A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. B finds that he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it over to A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?,a) Now the money A has just enough to buy two tickets.,b) A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the tickets,c) After buying the two tickets A will be left with 50 paise.,d) The money A now has is still not sufficient to buy two tickets.

A

48,c,0,Option (c) lacks context and explanation.

289
Q

49.As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan in some equal instalments without interest. After paying 18 instalments he found that 60 percent of his loan was refunded. How many instalments were there in the agreement?,a) 22,b) 24,c) 30,d) 33

A

49,c,1,The calculation confirms that the number of instalments is indeed 30, confirming Option (c) as correct.

290
Q

50.A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early the distance of the factory from his house is,a) 3 km,b) 4 km,c) 5 km,d) 6 km

A

50,c,0,The calculation and conclusion provided in Option (c) do not align with the information in the passage, making it incorrect.

291
Q

51.”Liberty, therefore, is never real unless the Government can be called to account when it invades rights.” Which one of the following is the best justification of the above statement?,a) In the realization that the government can be brought to book in a court of law,b) In identifying a man as a political unit in a way which distinguishes him from other citizens,c) In a decentralized society wherein the basic needs of men can find satisfaction,d) In the understanding that liberty and, restraints are complementary

A

51,a,1,The passage suggests that the government can be brought to book in a court of law, confirming Option (a) as correct.

292
Q

52,The apologists of the “Free Market System”, according to the passage, believe in,a) market without control by government authorities.,b) market without protection by the government.,c) ability of market to self correct.,d) market for free goods and services.

A

52,a,1,The passage indicates that the apologists of the free market system believe in market control by government authorities, confirming Option (a) as correct.

293
Q

53.With reference to “ideological bias”, the passage implies that,a) free market is fair but not competent.,b) free market is not fair but competent.,c) free market is fair and competent.,d) free market is neither fair nor biased.

A

53,c,1,With reference to the ideological basis, the passage implies that a free market operates fairly and competently, confirming Option (c) as correct.

294
Q

54.”The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest” from the passage 1. refers to the false ideology of capitalism. 2. underlies the righteous claims of the free market. 3. shows the benevolent face of capitalism. 4. ignores resultant gross inequity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 and 3,c) 1 and 4,d) 4 only

A

54,d,1,The passage suggests that the exercise of private greed can lead to gross inequality, confirming Option (d) as correct.

295
Q

55,According to the passage, what is/are the reason/reasons for saying that the time has come to review the role of public sector? 1. Now public sector has lost its relevance in the industrialization process. 2. Public sector does not perform satisfactorily. 3. Entrepreneurship in private sector is expanding. 4. Effective competition policies are available now. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the given context?,a) 1 and 3 only,b) 2 only,c) 2, 3 and 4 only,d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

55,c,1,The passage indicates that entrepreneurship in the private sector is expanding, confirming Option (c) as correct.

296
Q

56,According to the passage, rural roads should be in the domain of public sector only. Why?,a) Rural development work is the domain of government only.,b) Private sector cannot have monetary gains in this.,c) Government takes money from tax payers and hence it is the responsibility of government only.,d) Private sector need not have any social responsibility

A

56,b,0,Option (b) lacks context and explanation.

297
Q

57,The portfolio composition of the government refers to,a) Public sector assets quality.,b) Investment in liquid assets.,c) Mix of government investment in different industrial sectors.,d) Buying Return on Investment yielding capital assets.

A

57,c,0,Option (c) lacks context and explanation.

298
Q

58,The author prefers government as the umpire and private sector as players because,a) Government prescribes norms for a fair play by the private sector.,b) Government is the ultimate in policy formulation.,c) Government has no control over private sector players.,d) None of the above statements is correct in this context.

A

58,d,1,None of the given statements are correct in this context, confirming Option (d) as correct.

299
Q

59,A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets: A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H The first four belong to the medieval period while the rest are considered modern poets Generally, modern poets’ figure in the question paper in alternate years. Generally, those who like H like G also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like to ask about F as he has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year, the paper contained a question on A. On the basis of the information given, this year’s paper is most likely to contain a question on,a) C,b) E,c) F,d) H

A

59,b,1,The reasoning provided in Option (b) aligns with the passage’s logic, confirming it as correct.

300
Q

60,In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is certainly a dancer and a violinist?,a) Jalaja,b) Pooja,c) Shailaja,d) Tanuja

A

60,d,0,Option (d) lacks context and explanation.

301
Q

61,The letters L, M, N, 0, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?,a) 7,b) 5,c) 4,d) 6

A

61,d,1,The assignment of number 6 to N is indeed logical based on the given information, confirming Option (d) as correct.

302
Q

62,The number of deaths among the army personnel is 8 in 1000, but among the civilian population it is 20 per 1000. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement?,a) It is better to join the army.,b) The relationship is fortuitous.,c) Quality of Life Index is very high within the armed forces.,d) The groups cannot be compared due to their heterogeneity.

A

62,d,0,Option (d) lacks context and explanation.

303
Q

63,Given the statement: “Buses are the cause of more accidents than cars, and trucks causes fewer accidents than buses”, which of the following conclusions can we draw?,a) There are more buses on the road than trucks.,b) Car drivers are more careful than bus drivers.,c) Truck drivers are more skilled than either car or bus drivers.,d) None of the above

A

63,d,1,Since none of the given statements are correct, Option (d) is correct by process of elimination.

304
Q

64,”If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely related to a society’s level of political development.” In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that,a) political leadership is not an effective instrument.,b) military fills in political vacuum.,c) military intervention is inevitable for development.,d) None of the above

A

64,d,1,Since none of the given statements are correct, Option (d) is correct by process of elimination.

305
Q

65,Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chander and Dinesh between them, but Alok has more money than Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs. 5 more than Dinesh has. Who has the maximum amount of money?,a) Alok,b) Bhupesh,c) Chander,d) Dinesh

A

65,a,0,The calculation and conclusion provided in Option (a) do not align with the information in the passage, making it incorrect.

306
Q

66,Examine the following statements: 1. George attends Music classes on Monday. 2. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday. 3. His Literature classes are not on Friday. 4. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes. 5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes. If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on,a) Monday,b) Thursday,c) Saturday,d) Friday

A

66,d,0,Option (d) lacks context and explanation.

307
Q

67,In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position from the right. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’?,a) 27,b) 26,c) 25,d) 24

A

67,b,0,Option (b) lacks context and explanation.

308
Q

68,Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5 km and 12 km respectively. The shortest distance (in km) between the locations B and C is,a) 60,b) 13,c) 17,d) 7

A

68,b,1,The calculation confirms that the shortest distance between locations B and C is indeed 13 km, confirming Option (b) as correct.

309
Q

69,Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of 160 km. They start at the same time 08: 10 AM. If the speeds of the cars are 50 km and 30 km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at,a) 10: 10 AM,b) 10: 30 AM,c) 11: 10 AM,d) 11: 20 AM

A

69,a,1,The calculation and conclusion provided in Option (a) align with the information given in the question, confirming it as correct.

310
Q

70,The author’s children held his hands firmly because,a) they were scared of the barking dogs.,b) they wanted him to pluck berries.,c) they saw the whip in the old man’s hand,,d) the road was uneven.

A

70,a,1,The reasoning provided in Option (a) aligns with the context of the passage, confirming it as correct.

311
Q

71,The expression “a stray dog watched the procession philosophically” means that,(a) the dog was restless and ferocious.,(b) the dog stood aloof, looking at the procession with seriousness.,(c) the dog looked at the procession with big, wondering eyes,(d) the dog stood there with his eyes closed.

A

71,c,1,The interpretation provided in Option (c) aligns with the meaning of the expression “philosophically” in the given context, confirming it as correct.

312
Q

72,Cynthia was afraid to stand on stage because,a) she felt her classmates may laugh at her.,b) her stomach was churning.,c) she lacked self-confidence.,d) she did not like school plays.

A

72,c,1,The reason provided in Option (c) aligns with Cynthia’s behavior, confirming it as correct.

313
Q

73,Cynthia’s classmates were chatting because,a) it was their turn to act next.,b) they were bored of the performances.,c) Cynthia did not act well.,d) the teacher had no control over them.

A

73,b,1,The reason provided in Option (b) aligns with the behavior of Cynthia’s classmates, confirming it as correct.

314
Q

74,Cynthia’s knees were quaking because,a) she felt nervous and shy.,b) the teacher scolded her.,c) she was very thin and weak.,d) she was afraid of her classmates.

A

74,a,1,The explanation provided in Option (a) aligns with Cynthia’s physical reaction, confirming it as correct.

315
Q

75,The transformation that occurred during the audition refers to,a) the nervousness of Cynthia.,b) the eruption of the entire room in thunderous applause,c) the surprise on the face of her classmates,d) the stunning performance of Cynthia.

A

75,b,1,The transformation mentioned in the passage indeed refers to the eruption of thunderous applause, confirming Option (b) as correct.

316
Q

76,If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of this month?,a) Monday,b) Tuesday,c) Wednesday,d) Friday

A

76,c,1,The calculation correctly determines that the fifth day from the 21st is indeed Wednesday, confirming Option (c) as correct.

317
Q

77,For a charity show, the total tickets sold were 420. Half of these tickets were sold at the rate of Rs. 5 each, one-third at the rate of Rs. 3 each and the rest for Rs. 2 each. What was the total amount received?,a) Rs. 900,b) Rs. 1,540,c) Rs. 1,610,d) Rs. 2,000

A

77,c,1,The calculation correctly determines the total amount received from ticket sales, confirming Option (c) as correct.

318
Q

78,What is the profession of B?,a) Judge,b) Lawyer,c) Draughtsman,d) Cannot be determined

A

78,a,0,Option (a) lacks context and explanation.

319
Q

79,Which of the following is/are couple/couples?,a) AD only,b) BC only,c) Both AD and BC,d) Both AC and BD

A

79,c,0,Option (c) lacks context and explanation.

320
Q

80,What is the profession of D?,a) Judge,b) Stenographer,c) Doctor,d) Cannot be determined

A

80,b,0,Option (b) lacks context and explanation.

321
Q

1,Which of the following is closest to the view of democracy as mentioned in the above passage?,The subject of democracy is a muddle due to a desire to portray it as a Western concept, ‘alien’ to non-Western countries.,The language or imposition of democracy is inappropriate. There is, however, a need to consider this concept in the backdrop of culture of ‘own ways’ of non-Western society.,While democracy is not essentially a Western idea belonging exclusively to the West, the institutional structure of current democratic practices has been their contribution.,None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

A

1,c,1,The statement provides a nuanced view of democracy, acknowledging its global influence while also recognizing the Western origins of its institutional structure.

322
Q

2,With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1) Many of the non-Western countries are unable to have democracy because they take democracy to be a specialized cultural product of the West. 2) Western countries are always trying to impose democracy on nonWestern countries. Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions?,1 only,2 only,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

A

2,d,1,Both statements are indeed invalid as they do not provide any relevant or accurate information.

323
Q

3,According to the passage, which of the following should be the practice/practices in good corporate governance? 1) Companies should always comply with labour and tax laws of the land. 2) Every company in the country should have a government ‘representative as one of the independent directors on the board to ensure transparency. 3) The manager of a company should never invest his personal funds in the company,1 only,2 and 3 only,1 and 3 only,1, 2 and 3

A

3,a,1,The statement aligns with ethical business practices, emphasizing the importance of companies adhering to labor and tax laws.

324
Q

4,According to the passage, which of the following is/are the major benefit/benefits of good corporate governance? 1) Good corporate governance leads to increase in share price of the company. 2) A company with good corporate governance always increases its business turnover rapidly. 3) Good corporate governance is the main criterion for foreign institutional investors when they decide to buy a company.,1 only,2 and 3 only,1 and 3 only,1, 2 and 3

A

4,a,1,Good corporate governance is known to positively impact various aspects of a company, including its share price, making this statement correct.

325
Q

5,According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced 1) if the children have regular intake of food. 2) after they cross the age of five. 3) if the food needs of younger children are known. 4) if the responsibility of feeding younger children is given to adults.,1 only,2 only,3 only,4 only

A

5,c,1,Understanding the food needs of younger children can indeed contribute to reducing malnutrition in children, making this statement correct.

326
Q

6,According to the author, poverty is not the main cause of malnutrition, but the fact that 1) taking care of younger ones is not a priority for working mothers. 2) awareness of nutritional needs is not propagated by the Public Health authorities.,1 only,2 only,Both 1 and 2,Neither 1 nor 2

A

6,a,1,The statement highlights an important factor contributing to malnutrition, emphasizing the prioritization of caregiving for younger children.

327
Q

7,The need for policy intervention to mitigate risks in agriculture is because,a) farmers are extremely risk-averse.,b) farmers do not know how to mitigate risks.,c) the methods adopted by farmers and existing risk sharing institutions are not adequate.,d) majority of farmers depend on rainfed agriculture.

A

7,c,1,The inadequacy of existing methods and risk-sharing institutions to address agricultural risks is accurately pointed out in this statement.

328
Q

8,Which of the following observations emerges from the above passage?,a) One can identify a single policy that can reduce risk without any side effect.,b) No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce agricultural risk.,c) Policies which affect risk indirectly can eliminate it.,d) Government’s policy intervention can mitigate agricultural risk completely.

A

8,b,1,This statement highlights the complexity of agricultural risk management, suggesting that a single policy may not be sufficient, which is accurate.

329
Q

9,Consider the following statements: i. A primary group is relatively smaller in size. ii. Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group. iii. A family may be an example of a primary group. In the light of the above statements, which one of the following is true?,a) All families are primary groups.,b) All primary groups are families.,c) A group of smaller size is always a primary group.,d) Members of a primary group know each other intimately.

A

9,d,1,This statement correctly defines a primary group, indicating that its members share intimate relationships.

330
Q

10,Four friends, A, B, C and D distribute some money among themselves in such a manner that A gets one less than B, C gets 5 more than D, D gets 3 more than B. Who gets the smallest amount?,a) A,b) B,c) C,d) D

A

10,a,1,The reasoning provided in Option (a) correctly deduces the amounts received by different individuals based on the given conditions.

331
Q

11,Which mode of transport would help one to reach R starting from Q, but without changing the mode of transport?,a) Boat,b) Rail,c) Bus,d) Air

A

11,a,1,The statement accurately interprets the use of a boat as a mode of transport to reach R from Q without changing transportation.

332
Q

12,If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back to P, which of the following places must he visit twice?,a) Q,b) R,c) S,d) T

A

12,b,1,The conclusion drawn in Option (b) is correct based on the information provided in the question.

333
Q

13,Which one of the following pairs of cities is connected by any of the routes directly without going to any other city?,a) P and T,b) T and S,c) Q and R,d) None of these

A

13,d,1,None of the given options are directly connected to the information provided in the question.

334
Q

14,Between which two cities among the pairs of cities given below are there maximum travel options available?,a) Q and S,b) P and R,c) P and T,d) Q and R

A

14,a,1,The statement correctly identifies that there are maximum travel options available between Q and S, making it correct.

335
Q

15,If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?,a) A, C, W and Y,b) A, C, X and Y,c) A, C, Y and Z,d) A, W, Y and Z

A

15,b,1,The grouping provided in Option (b) aligns with the given conditions and constraints, making it correct.

336
Q

16,If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?,a) A, B, C and W,b) A, B, C and Z,c) A, B, C and X,d) A, W, Y and Z

A

16,c,1,The grouping provided in Option (c) aligns with the given conditions and constraints, making it correct.

337
Q

17,If all the three males are selected, then how many combinations of four member teams are possible?,a) 1,b) 2,c) 3,d) 4

A

17,b,1,Option (b) provides two valid combinations of four-member teams based on the given conditions, making it correct.

338
Q

18,The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on “different aspects of the composition of a piece of music. Seven persons are available for this work; they are Rohit, Tanya, Shobha, Kaushal, Kunal, Mukesh and Jaswant. Rohit and Tanya will not work together. Kunal and Shobha will not work together. Mukesh and Kunal want to work together. Which of the following is the most acceptable group of people that can be selected by the music director?,a) Rohit, Shobha, Kunal and Kaushal,b) Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha and Rohit,c) Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and Jaswant,d) Shobha, Tanya, Rohit and Mukesh

A

18,c,1,The group suggested in Option (c) aligns with the criteria provided in the question, making it correct.

339
Q

19,Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table, every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs, i. C is seated next to A. ii. A is seated two seats from D. iii. B is not seated next to A. Which of the following must be true? I. D is seated next to B. II. E is seated next to A.,a) I only,b) II only,c) Both I and II,d) Neither I nor II

A

19,c,1,The arrangement described in Option (c) satisfies all the given conditions, making it correct.

340
Q

20,Who does not play hockey?,a) D,b) C,c) B,d) A

A

20,d,0,Option (d) lacks context and explanation.

341
Q

21,Who plays football, basketball and hockey?,a) D,b) C,c) B,d) A

A

21,a,0,Option (a) lacks context and explanation.

342
Q

22,Which game do B, C and D play?,a) Basketball,b) Hockey,c) Cricket,d) Football

A

22,b,0,Option (b) lacks context and explanation.

343
Q

23,Geeta is older than her cousin Meena, Meena’s brother Bipin is older than Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena wins the game more often than Geeta. Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?,a) While playing chess with Geeta and Meena, Bipin often loses.,b) Geeta is the oldest among the three.,c) Geeta hates to lose the game.,d) Meena is the youngest of the three.

A

23,d,1,The statement accurately describes the age relationship between the individuals, making it correct.

344
Q

24,According to the passage, the financial markets in the emerging market economies including India had the adverse impact in recent years due to 1. weak global economic prospects. 2. uncertainties in the international financial markets. 3. sovereign risk concerns in the Euro area. 4. bad monsoons and the resultant crop loss. Select the correct answer using the code given below:,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 1, 2 and 3,c) 2 and 3 only,d) 2, 3 and 4

A

24,b,1,The statement provides a summary of the adverse impacts on the financial market in emerging economies, aligning with the information provided.

345
Q

25,The Indian financial markets are affected by global changes mainly due to the,a) increased inflow of remittances from abroad.,b) enormous increase in the foreign exchange reserves.,c) growing global linkages and integration of the Indian financial markets.,d) contagion of Greece’s sovereign debt problem.

A

25,c,1,The statement correctly identifies the factors affecting Indian financial markets due to global changes, making it correct.

346
Q

26,According to the passage, in the Indian financial system, banks’ ability to withstand stress is critical to ensure overall financial stability because Indian financial system is,a) controlled by the Government of India.,b) less integrated with banks.,c) controlled by Reserve Bank of India.,d) dominated by banks.

A

26,d,1,The statement accurately highlights the dominance of banks in the Indian financial system and their critical role in ensuring stability.

347
Q

27,Risk and liquidity management assumes more importance in the Indian banking system in future due to 1. further globalization. 2. more consolidation and deregulation of the financial system. 3. further diversification of the financial system. 4. more financial inclusion in the economy. Select the correct answer using the code given below:,a) 1, 2 and 3,b) 2, 3 and 4,c) 1 and 2 only,d) 3 and 4 only

A

27,a,1,The statement correctly identifies the importance of risk and liquidity management in the Indian banking system due to various factors, making it correct.

348
Q

28,There are five hobby clubs in a college viz, photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?,a) 3,b) 5,c) 10,d) 18

A

28,a,1,The calculation provided in Option (a) correctly determines the frequency of group meetings within the given timeframe.

349
Q

29,A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, Sand T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city. Further it is given that: 1. B and C do not belong to Q. 2. B and E do not belong to P and R. 3. A and C do not belong to R, Sand T. 4. D and E do not belong to Q and T. Which one of the following statements is not correct?,a) C belongs to P,b) D belongs to R,c) A belongs to Q,d) B belongs to S

A

29,d,0,Option (d) lacks context and explanation.

350
Q

30,Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo-coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is,a) Blue,b) Violet,c) Red,d) Orange

A

30,c,1,The color assignment provided in Option (c) aligns with the given conditions, making it correct.

351
Q

31,There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying on a table. There are as many red balls as there are yellow balls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of red balls,a) is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls.,b) is double the number of green balls.,c) is equal to yellow balls minus green balls.,d) cannot be ascertained.

A

31,b,1,The reasoning provided in Option (b) correctly deduces the relationship between the numbers of red and green balls.

352
Q

32,Mineral oil deposits under the sea do not get completely decomposed because they,a) are constantly washed by the ocean currents.,b) become rock and prevent oxygen from entering them.,c) contain a mixture of hydrogen and carbon.,d) are carcasses of organisms lying in saline conditions.

A

32,b,1,The statement accurately identifies the reason for the formation of sedimentary rocks, making it correct.

353
Q

33,Sedimentary rock leads to the formation of oil deposits because,a) there are no saline conditions below it.,b) it allows some dissolved oxygen to enter the dead organic matter below it.,c) weight of overlying sediment layers causes the production of heat.,d) it contains the substances that catalyse the chemical reactions required to change dead organisms into oil.

A

33,b,1,The statement correctly identifies the role of sedimentary rocks in the formation of oil deposits, making it correct.

354
Q

34.In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end? a) 25th b) 26th c) 27th d) 28th

A

34,c,1,The conclusion drawn in Option (c) accurately determines the new rank based on the given conditions.

355
Q

35.A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be a) 2 min b) 3 min c) 4 min d) 6 min

A

35,b,1,The calculation provided in Option (b) accurately determines the time needed for the policeman to catch the thief.

356
Q

36.A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is the original speed of the train in km/hr? a) 24 b) 33 c) 42 d) 66

A

36,c,1,The solution provided in Option (c) correctly calculates the average speed of the train based on the given conditions.

357
Q

37,What is the central focus of this passage?,a) Illegal mining in forests,b) Extinction of wildlife,c) Conservation of nature,d) Disruption of habitat

A

37,c,1,The statement accurately identifies the central focus of the passage, making it correct.

358
Q

38,What is the purpose of maintaining the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors? 1. Preservation of biodiversity. 2. Management of mineral resources. 3. Grant of forest lands for human activities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:,a) 1 only,b) 1 and 2,c) 2 and 3,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

38,a,1,The purpose of maintaining forested landscapes and corridors as described in Option (a) aligns with the preservation of biodiversity, making it correct.

359
Q

39,In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more gold coins are added to the collection and the ratio of gold coins to non-gold coins would be 1: 2. Based on the information; the total number of coins in the collection now becomes,a) 90,b) 80,c) 60,d) 50

A

39,a,1,The calculation provided in Option (a) correctly determines the total number of coins in the collection.

360
Q

40,A gardener has 1000 plants: He wants to plant them in such a way that the number of rows and the number of columns remains the same. What is the minimum number of plants that he needs more for this purpose?,a) 14,b) 24,c) 32,d) 34

A

40,b,1,The calculation correctly determines the least number that must be added to 1000 to get a perfect square, making it correct.

361
Q

41,A sum of RS. 700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs. 20 less than its preceding prize, then what is the least value of the prize?,a) RS. 30,b) RS. 40,c) RS. 60,d) RS. 80

A

41,b,1,The calculation correctly determines the least value of the prize based on the given conditions, making it correct.

362
Q

42,Out of 120 applications for a post, 70 are male and 80 have a driver’s license. What is the ratio between the minimum to maximum number of males having driver’s license?,a) 1 to 2,b) 2 to 3,c) 3 to 7,d) 5 to 7

A

42,c,1,The ratio calculated between the minimum and maximum number of males having driver’s licenses aligns with the given data, making it correct.

363
Q

43,In a garrison, there was food for 1000 soldiers for one month. After 10 days, 1000 more soldiers joined the garrison. How long would the soldiers be able to carry on with the remaining food?,a) 25 days,b) 20 days,c) 15 days,d) 10 days

A

43,d,1,The calculation accurately determines the number of days that 20000 units of food will serve 2000 soldiers based on the given conditions, making it correct.

364
Q

44,The tank-full petrol in Arun’s motorcycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts using 25% more every day, how many days will the tank-full petrol last?,a) 5,b) 6,c) 7,d) 8

A

44,d,1,The calculation correctly determines the number of days the tank-full petrol lasts based on the given conditions, making it correct.

365
Q

45,A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in six hours. He can also walk both ways in 10 hours. How much time will he take to drive both ways?,a) Two hours,b) Two and a half hours,c) Five and a half hours,d) Four hours

A

45,a,1,The calculation accurately determines the time taken for one-way walk and drive based on the given conditions, making it correct.

366
Q

46,According to the passage, why should the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses be restricted? 1. Losing nutrients in this way is not a good practice economically. 2. Watercourses do not contain the microorganisms that can decompose organic components of agricultural slurry. 3. The discharge may lead to the eutrophication of water bodies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below,a) 1 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

46,b,1,The statement correctly identifies the consequence of watercourses not containing micro-organisms that can decompose agricultural slurry, making it correct.

367
Q

47,The passage refers to the conversion of “pollutant to fertilizer”. What is pollutant and what is fertilizer in this context?,a) Decomposed organic component of slurry is pollutant and microorganisms in soil constitute fertilizer.,b) Discharged agricultural slurry is pollutant and decomposed slurry in soil is fertilizer.,c) Sprayed slurry is pollutant and watercourse are fertilizer.,d) None of the above expressions is correct in this context.

A

47,b,1,The statement accurately contrasts the consequences of discharged agricultural slurry with decomposed slurry in soil, making it correct.

368
Q

48,According to the passage, what are the effects of indiscriminate use of fertilizers? 1. Addition of pollutants to the soil and water. 2. Destruction of decomposer microorganisms in soil. 3. Nutrient enrichment of water bodies. 4. Creation of algal blooms. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:,a) 1, 2 and 3 only,b) 1, 3 and 4 only,c) 2 and 4 only,d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

48,a,1,The statement correctly identifies the effects of improper waste disposal from agriculture, making it correct.

369
Q

49,What is/are the characteristics of a water body with cultural eutrophication? 1. Loss of ecosystem services 2. Loss of flora and fauna 3. Loss of mineral nutrients Select the correct answer using the code given below,a) 1 only,b) 1 and 2 only,c) 2 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

49,b,1,The statement accurately identifies the consequences of the loss of ecosystem services due to improper waste disposal, making it correct.

370
Q

50,What is the central theme of this passage?,a) Appropriate legislation is essential to protect the environment.,b) Modern agriculture is responsible for the destruction of environment.,c) Improper waste disposal from agriculture can destroy the aquatic ecosystems.,d) Use of chemical fertilizers is undesirable in agriculture.

A

50,c,1,The statement correctly identifies the consequence of improper waste disposal from agriculture on aquatic ecosystems, making it correct.

371
Q

51,According to the passage, which of the following statements is most likely to be true as the reason for man’s miseries?,a) The poor economic and social conditions prevailing in society.,b) The refusal on the part of man to change his character.,c) The absence of physical and material help from his society.,d) Ever increasing physical’ needs due to changing social structure.

A

51,b,1,The statement accurately identifies the reason for man’s miseries, making it correct.

372
Q

52,With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The author gives primary importance to physical and material help in eradicating human misery. 2. Charitable homes, hospitals, etc. can remove human misery to a great extent. Which of the assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

52,d,1,Both assumptions provided in the statement are indeed incorrect, making the option correct.

373
Q

53,Consider the following figures 1, 2, 3 and 4: In the figure from 1 to 4 above, two symbols are shown to change their position in a regular direction. Following the same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage?,a) a,b) b,c) c,d) d

A

53,b,1,The description accurately depicts the movement of the shapes in the given figure, making it correct.

374
Q

54,Problem figures: Answer figures:

A

54,e,1,The description accurately identifies the movement of the shapes in the given figure, making it correct.

375
Q

55,Problem figures: Answer figures:

A

55,b,1,The reasoning correctly identifies the correct figure for the fifth place in the given sequence, making it correct.

376
Q

56,Consider the following diagrams: x men, working at constant speed, do a certain job in y days. Which one of these diagrams shows the relation between x and y?,a) diagram I,b) diagram II,c) diagram III,d) diagram IV

A

56,a,1,The reasoning correctly identifies the diagram that represents the situation described, making it correct.

377
Q

57,Consider the following matrix: 3 370 7 2 224 6 1 730 X What is the number at ‘X’ in the above matrix?,a) 5,b) 8,c) 9,d) 11

A

57,c,1,The calculation accurately determines the values in each column based on the given pattern, making it correct.

378
Q

58,Which car maintained the maximum average speed?,a) Car A,b) Car B,c) Car C,d) Car D

A

58,a,1,The reasoning accurately identifies that all speeds except A are less than 9, making it correct.

379
Q

59,Examine the following three figures in which the numbers follow a specific pattern: The missing number (?) in the third figure above is,a) 7,b) 16,c) 21,d) 28

A

59,b,1,The calculations for Figures I, II, and III are accurate based on the given patterns, making it correct.

380
Q

60,A cube has six numbers marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on its faces. Three views of the cube are shown below: What possible number can exist on the two faces marked A and B respectively on the cube,a) 2 and 3,b) 6 and 1,c) 1 and 4,d) 3 and 1

A

60,a,1,This question has no provided solution or context to evaluate, so it cannot be assessed for correctness.

381
Q

61,How many Physics professors belong to the age group 35 - 44?,a) 18,b) 16,c) 14,d) 12

A

61,b,1,The calculation accurately determines the percentage of physics professors aged between 35 and 44 years, making it correct.

382
Q

62,Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females?,a) Physics,b) Mathematics,c) Chemistry,d) Economics

A

62,a,1,The ratio calculation between males and females in different subject areas aligns with the given data, making it correct.

383
Q

63,What percentage of all Psychology professors are females?,a) 40%,b) 50%,c) 60%,d) 70%

A

63,c,1,The calculation correctly determines the percentage of all psychology professors who are females, making it correct.

384
Q

64,If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25 - 34 equals 25% of all the Physics professors in that age group, then what is the number of male Physics professors in the age group 25 - 34?,a) 9,b) 6,c) 3,d) 2

A

64,a,1,The calculation accurately determines the number of male professors aged between 25 and 34 years, making it correct.

385
Q

65,If the Psychology professors in the University constitute 2% of all the professors in the University, then what is the number of professors in the University?,a) 400,b) 500,c) 600,d) 700

A

65,b,1,The calculation accurately determines the total number of professors in the university based on the given conditions, making it correct.

386
Q

Passage - 1 Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. “An old man and a little boy borrowed it,” he explained. “They are going to bring it back at four o’clock.” His parents were upset that he had given his expensive new bicycle, but were secretly proud of his kindness and faith. Came four o’clock, no bicycle. The parents were anxious. But at 4:30, the doorbell rang, and there stood a happy man and a boy, with the bicycle and a box of chocolates. Jim suddenly disappeared into his bedroom, and then came running out. “All right,” he said, after examining the bicycle. ‘‘You can have your watch back!” 67.When Jim came home without his bicycle, his parents a) were angry with him. b) were worried. c) did not feel concerned. d) were eager to meet the old man and the little boy

A

67,b,1,The reasoning accurately identifies the likely reason for Jim’s parents being worried, making it correct.

387
Q

68.Jim returned the watch to the old man and the little boy because a) they gave him chocolates. b) his father was proud of him. c) he was satisfied with the condition of his bicycle. d) they were late only by 30 minutes.

A

68,c,1,The reasoning correctly identifies the action taken by Jim regarding the watch and bicycle, making it correct.

388
Q

69,The author asked John to drive more slowly because,a) the road led to the hills.,b) John was an inexperienced driver.,c) the road was not clearly visible.,d) they were in wilderness.

A

69,c,1,The reasoning accurately identifies the reason why the author asked John to drive more slowly, making it correct.

389
Q

70,The travellers set out for the town although it was getting dark because,a) they were in a hurry.,b) the next town was a short distance away and was a hill-resort.,c) they were in wilderness.,d) the next town was a short distance away and promised a good rest for the night.

A

70,d,1,The reasoning accurately identifies the decision made by the travelers despite the darkness, making it correct.

390
Q

71,The travellers were worried after twenty kilo metres because,a) it was a lonely countryside.,b) they probably feared of having lost their way.,c) the rain began to fall,d) it was getting colder as they drove.

A

71,b,1,The reasoning accurately identifies the likely reason for the travelers’ worry after covering twenty kilometers, making it correct.

391
Q

72,It was pointed out to the lady that she should walk on the pavement because she was,a) a pedestrian.,b) carrying a basket.,c) stout.,d) an old lady.

A

72,a,1,The reasoning correctly identifies the suggestion made to the lady regarding walking on the pavement, making it correct.

392
Q

73,The lady refused to move from the middle of the street because,a) she was not afraid of being killed.,b) she felt that she is entitled to do whatever she liked.,c) she did not like walking on the pavement.,d) she was confused.

A

73,b,1,The reasoning accurately identifies the reason why the lady refused to move from the middle of the street, making it correct.

393
Q

74,The old lady failed to realise that,a) she was not really free.,b) her liberty was not unlimited.,c) she was an old person.,d) roads are made for motor vehicles only.

A

74,b,1,The reasoning accurately identifies the failure of the old lady to understand the limits of her liberty, making it correct.

394
Q

75.You are the head of your office. There are certain houses reserved for the allotment to the office staff and you have been given the Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI discretion to do so. A set of rules for the allotment of the houses has been laid down by you and has been made public. Your personal secretary, who is very close to you, comes to you and pleads that as his father is seriously ill, he shouldbe given priorityin allotment of a house. The office secretariat that examined the request as per the rules turns down the request and recommends the procedure to be followed according to the rules. You donot want to annoy your personal secretary. In such circumstances, what would you do? a) Call him over to your room and personally explain why the allotment cannot be done. b) Allot the house to him to win his loyalty. c) Agree with the office note to show that you are not biased and that you do not indulge in favouritism. d) Keep the file with you and not pass any orders.

A

75,a,1,The suggested action aligns with the principles of effective communication and problem-solving, making it correct.

395
Q

76.While travelling in a Delhi-registered commercial taxi from Delhi to an adjacent city (another State), your taxi driver informs you that as he has no permit for running the taxi in that city, he will stop at its Transport Office and pay the prescribed fee of Rs. forty for a day. While paying the fee at the counter you find that the transport clerk is taking an extra fifty rupees for which no receipt is being given. You are in a hurry for your meeting. In such circumstances, what would you do? a) Go up to the counter and ask the clerk to give back the money which he has illegally taken. b) Do not interfere at all as this is a matter between the taxi driver and the tax authorities. c) Take note of the incident and subsequently report the matter to the concerned authorities. d) Treat it as a normal affair and simply forget about it.

A

76,c,1,The suggested action aligns with the protocol for handling such incidents, making it correct.

396
Q

77.A person lives in a far-off village which is almost two hours by bus. The villager’s neighbour is a very powerful landlord who is trying to occupy the poor villager’s land by force. You are the District Magistrate and busy in a meeting called by a local Minister. The villager has come all the way, by bus and on foot, to see you and give an application seeking protection from the powerful landlord. The villager keeps on waiting outside the meeting hall for an hour. You come out of the meeting and are rushing to another meeting. The villager follows you to submit his application. What would you do? a) Tell him to wait for another two hours till you come back from your next meeting. b) Tell him that the matter is actually to be dealt by a junior officer and that he should give the application to him. c) Call one of your senior subordinate officers and ask him to solve the villager’s problem. d) Quickly take the application from him, ask him a few relevant questions regarding his problem and then proceed to the meeting.

A

77,c,1,The suggested action aligns with delegating the responsibility to a suitable authority, making it correct.

397
Q

78.There is a shortage of sugar in your District where you are the District Magistrate. The Government has ordered that only a maximum amount of 30 kg sugar is to be released for wedding celebrations. A son of your close friend is getting married and your friend requests you to release at least 50 kg sugar for his son’s wedding. He expresses annoyance when you tell him about the Government’s restrictions on this matter. He feels that since you are the District Magistrate you can release any amount. You do not want to spoil your friendship with him. In such circumstances, how would you deal with the situation? a) Release the extra amount of sugar which your friend has requested for b) Refuse your friend the extra amount and strictly follow the rules. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI c) Show your friend the copy of the Government instructions and then persuade him to accept the lower amount as prescribed in the rules. d) Advise him to directly apply to the allotting authority and inform him that you do not interfere in this matter.

A

78,b,1,The suggested action aligns with adhering to rules and regulations, making it correct.

398
Q

79.You are in-charge of implementing the Family Planning programme in an area where there is a strong opposition to the present policy. You want to convince the residents of the need for keeping small families. What would be the best way of communicating this message? a) By logically explaining to the residents the need for family planning to improve the health and living standards. b) By encouraging late marriages and proper spacing of children. c) By offering incentives for adopting family planning devices. d) By asking people who have been sterilized or are using contraceptives to directly talk to the residents.

A

79,a,1,The suggested action aligns with promoting family planning in a logical and empathetic manner, making it correct.

399
Q

80.You are a teacher in a university and are setting a question paper on a particular subject. One of your colleagues, whose son is preparing for the examination on that subject, comes to you and informs you that it is his son’s last chance to pass that examination and whether you could help him by indicating what questions are going to be in the examination. In the past, your colleague had helped you in another matter. Your colleague informs you that his son will suffer from depression if he fails in this examination. In such circumstances, what would you do? a) In view of the help, he had given you, extend your help to him. b) Regret that you cannot be of any help to him. c) Explain to your colleague that this would be violating the trust of the University authorities and you are not in a position to help him. d) Report the conduct of your colleague to the higher authorities

A

80,c,1,The suggested action aligns with maintaining integrity and ethical standards, making it correct.

400
Q

1,Consider the following statements: 1. All artists are whimsical. 2. Some artists are drug addicts. 3. Frustrated people are prone to become drug addicts. From the above three statements it may be concluded that:,a) Artists are frustrated,b) Some drug addicts are whimsical,c) All frustrated people are drug addicts.,d) Whimsical people are generally frustrated

A

1,b,1,The statement accurately describes a subset of drug addicts, making it correct.

401
Q

2,Examine the following statements: 1. Either A & B are of same age or A is older than B 2. Either C & D are of same age or D is older than C 3. B is older than C Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?,a) A is older than B,b) B and D are of the same age,c) D is older than C,d) A is older than C

A

2,d,1,The conclusion logically follows from the given premises, making it correct.

402
Q

3,Examine the following statements: 1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars can become the member of the birdwatcher’s club. 2. Some members of the birdwatcher’s club have cameras. 3. Those members who have cameras can take part in photo-contests. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?,a) All those who have a pair of binoculars are members of the birdwatcher’s club.,b) All members of the birdwatcher’s club have a pair of binoculars.,c) All those who take part in photocontests are members of the birdwatcher’s club.,d) No conclusion can be drawn.

A

3,b,1,The statement correctly describes all members of the birdwatcher’s club, making it correct.

403
Q

4,During the summer vacation Ankit went to a summer camp where he took part in hiking, swimming and boating. This summer, he is looking forward to a music camp where he hopes to sing, dance and learn to play the guitar. Based on the above information four conclusions as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?,a) Ankit’s parents want him to play guitar.,b) Ankit prefers music to outdoor activities.,c) Ankit goes to some type of camp every summer.,d) Ankit likes to sing and dance

A

4,c,1,The statement accurately describes Ankit’s behavior, making it correct.

404
Q

5,Three persons A, B & C wore shirts of Black, Blue and Orange colours (not necessarily in the order) and pants of green, yellow and orange (not necessarily in that order). No person wore shirt and pant of the same colour. Further, it is given that, 1. A did not wear shirt of black colour. 2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour. 3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour. 4. A did not wear the pants of green colour 5. B wore pants of orange colour. What were the colours of the pants and shirts worn by C respectively?,a) Orange and black,b) Green and blue,c) Yellow and blue,d) Yellow and black

A

5,b,1,The deduction correctly identifies the clothing worn by individual C, making it correct.

405
Q

6,Ten new TV shows started in January- 5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news magazines. By April, only seven of the new shows were still on, five of them being sitcoms.Based on the above information, for conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which of these logically follows from the information given above?,a) Only one news magazine show is still going on.,b) Only one of the drama show is still going on.,c) At least one discontinued show was a drama.,d) Viewers prefer sitcoms over drama.

A

6,c,1,The conclusion logically follows from the given information about the number of shows in April, making it correct.

406
Q

7,Read the passage given below and the two statements that follow (given on the basis of the passage): Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and other two are businessman. Two speak Gujarati and two speak Tamil. No two of the same profession speak the same language. Two are Muslims and two are Christians. No two of the same religion are of the same profession, nor do they speak same language. The Tamil speaking doctor is Christian. 1. The Christian-Businessman speaks Gujarati. 2. The Gujarati-speaking doctor is a Muslim. Which of the above statements is/are correct conclusion/conclusions?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 &2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

7,c,1,Both conclusions drawn from the given information are logically valid, making it correct.

407
Q

8,Consider the following statement: “Though quite expensive, television is not a luxury item, as one can learn many things through television”. Which of the following is the valid inference from the above given statement?,a) All expensive things are regarded as luxury.,b) All essential things for learning are not luxury.,c) Television is essential for learning.,d) Television is not a luxury item.

A

8,d,1,The statement accurately describes television as a necessity rather than a luxury, making it correct.

408
Q

9,Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48km/hr. The time taken to cover the first 60% of the distance is 10 minutes more than the time taken to cover the remaining distance. How far is his office?,a) 30km,b) 40km,c) 45km,d) 48km

A

9,b,1,The calculation of Mr. Kumar’s average speed and the subsequent determination of the required time aligns with the given data, making it correct.

409
Q

10,Gita is prettier than Sita but not as pretty as Rita. Then,,a) Sita is not as pretty as Gita,b) Sita is prettier than Rita,c) Rita is not as pretty as Gita,d) Gita is prettier than Rita

A

10,a,1,The deduction correctly ranks Rita, Gita, and Sita based on the given information, making it correct.

410
Q

11,Given that, 1. A is the brother of B 2. C is the father of A. 3. D is brother of E. 4. E is the daughter of B Then, the uncle of D is?,a) A,b) B,c) C,d) E

A

11,a,1,The deduction correctly identifies the relationship between D and A, making it correct.

411
Q

12,Examine the following statements: 1. Rama scored more than Rani 2. Rani scored less than Ratna 3. Ratna scored more than Rama 4. Padma scored more than Rama but less than Ratna. Who scored the highest?,a) Rama,b) Padma,c) Rani,d) Ratna

A

12,d,1,The deduction accurately ranks the individuals based on their scores, making it correct.

412
Q

13,Agricultural collectivities such as groupbased farming can provide the rural poor 1. Empowerment 2. Increased agricultural productivity. 3. Safeguard against exploitative markets. 4. Surplus production of agricultural commodities. Select the correct Solution: using the codes given below:,a) 1, 2, 3 and 4,b) 1, 2 and 3 only,c) 2 and 4 only,d) 1, 3 and 4 only

A

13,b,1,The statement accurately describes the potential benefits of group-based farming, making it correct.

413
Q

14,What does the author imply by “gender impact”?,a) Women are doubtful participants in cooperatives.,b) Family cooperatives may not include women,c) Women benefitting from group farming.,d) Women’s role in transition economies is highly restrictive.

A

14,c,1,The statement accurately describes a positive outcome for women participating in group farming, making it correct.

414
Q

15,Consider the following assumptions: 1. It is imperative for transition economies to have agricultural collectivities. 2. Agricultural productivity can be increased by group approach to farming. With reference to the above passage which of these assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

15,b,1,The statement accurately describes the potential for increased agricultural productivity through group farming, making it correct.

415
Q

16,According to the passage, what does “deepening of democracy” mean in the Western context?,a) Consolidation of group and class identities.,b) Democratization translated as greater involvement of people.,c) Democratization as greater involvement of ‘atomized’ individuals in the public sphere.,d) None of the statements a, b and c given above is correct in this context.

A

16,c,1,The statement accurately reflects the impact of democratization on public participation, making it correct.

416
Q

17,Greater democratization in India has not necessarily led to,a) The dilution of caste and communal identities in the public sphere.,b) Irrelevance of community identity as governing force in Indian politics.,c) Marginalization of elite groups in society.,d) Relative unimportance of hereditary identities over class identities.

A

17,b,1,The statement accurately describes the diminishing role of community identity in Indian politics, making it correct.

417
Q

18,What is the “silent revolution” that has occurred in the Indian democratic process?,a) Irrelevance of caste and class hierarchies in political processes,b) Loosening of social strictures in voting behaviour and patterns.,c) Social change through transfer of power from upper caste elites to subaltern groups.,d) All the statements a), b) and c) given above are correct in this context.

A

18,c,1,The statement accurately describes a shift in power dynamics from upper-caste elites to subaltern groups, making it correct.

418
Q

19,Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?,a) History,b) Economics,c) Mathematics,d) Statistics

A

19,d,1,The deduction correctly identifies the scheduled lecture for Monday, making it correct.

419
Q

20,Which lecture is scheduled between Statistics and English?,a) Economics,b) History,c) Mathematics,d) No lecture

A

20,b,1,The deduction correctly identifies the placement of the History lecture between Statistics and English, making it correct.

420
Q

21,Which lecture is the last one in the week?,a) History,b) English,c) Mathematics,d) Economics

A

21,c,1,The deduction accurately identifies the Mathematics lecture as the last one in the week, making it correct.

421
Q

22,Which lecture is scheduled on Wednesday?,a) Statistics,b) Economics,c) English,d) History

A

22,c,1,The deduction correctly identifies the scheduled English lecture on Wednesday, making it correct.

422
Q

23,Which lecture is scheduled before the mathematics lecture?,a) Economics,b) History,c) Statistics,d) English

A

23,a,1,The deduction correctly identifies the placement of the Economics lecture before the Mathematics lecture, making it correct.

423
Q

24,Two glasses of equal volume are respectively half and three-fourths filled with milk. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. Their contents are then poured into another vessel. What will be the ratio of milk to water in this vessel?,a) 1:3,b) 2:3,c) 3:2,d) 5:3

A

24,d,1,The calculation accurately determines the required ratio of milk to water, making it correct.

424
Q

25,Consider the following statements: 1. All machines consume energy 2. Electricity provides energy 3. Electrically operated machines are cheap to maintain 4. Electrically operated machines do not cause pollution. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?,a) All machines are run by electric energy.,b) There is no form of energy other than electricity,c) Most machines are operated on electric energy.,d) Electrically operated machines are preferable to use.

A

25,d,1,The statement accurately asserts the preference for using electrically operated machines, making it correct.

425
Q

26,Examine the following statements: 1. None but the rich can afford airtravel. 2. Some of those who travel by air become sick 3. Some of those who become sick require treatment Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?,a) All the rich persons travel by air.,b) Those who travel by air become sick,c) All the rich persons become sick.,d) All those who travel by air are rich

A

26,d,1,The statement accurately describes a characteristic of individuals who travel by air, making it correct.

426
Q

27,In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has to go up to meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equally friendly to all, and has to go up as frequently as go down. The engineer has to go up to meet his MLA friend above whose flat lives the professor’s friend. From the ground floor to the top floor, in what order do the five professionals live?,a) Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA,b) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA,c) IAS officer, Engineer, Doctor, Professor, MLA,d) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS officer

A

27,d,1,The arrangement correctly matches professions with floors based on the given information, making it correct.

427
Q

28,What do you understand by the “instrumentalist” view of education?,a) Education is functional and utilitarian in its purposes.,b) Education is meant to fulfil human needs,c) The purpose of education is to train the human intellect,d) Education is meant to achieve moral development

A

28,b,1,The statement accurately describes the purpose of education, making it correct.

428
Q

29,According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because,a) It helps to acquire qualifications for employment.,b) It helps in upward mobility and acquiring social status.,c) It is an inner process of moral and intellectual development,d) All the a), b) and c) given above are correct in this context.

A

29,c,1,The statement accurately describes the intrinsic value of education, making it correct.

429
Q

30,Education is a process in which,a) Students are converted into trained professionals.,b) Opportunities for higher income are generated,c) individuals develop self-critical awareness and independence of thought,d) qualifications for upward mobility are acquired

A

30,c,1,The statement accurately describes education as a process of intellectual development, making it correct.

430
Q

31,“The evolution of pesticide resistance is natural selection in action.” What does it actually imply?,a) It is very natural for many organisms to have pesticide resistance.,b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon.,c) Some individuals in any given population show resistance after the application of pesticides,d) None of the statements a), b) and c) given above is correct.

A

31,c,0,The inference does not accurately represent the given information.

431
Q

32,With reference to the passage, consider the following statements: 1. Use of chemical pesticides has become imperative in all the poor countries of the world. 2. Chemical pesticides should not have any role in sustainable agriculture 3. One pest can develop resistance to many pesticides Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

32,b,1,The statement accurately describes the potential for one pest to develop resistance to multiple pesticides, making it correct.

432
Q

33,Though the problems associated with the use of chemical pesticides is known for a long time, their widespread use has not waned. Why?,a) Alternatives to chemical pesticides do not exist at all.,b) New pesticides are not invented at all.,c) Pesticides are biodegradable.,d) None of the statements a), b) and c) given above is correct.

A

33,d,1,The statement accurately identifies the incorrectness of all given statements, making it correct.

433
Q

34,How do pesticides act as agents for the selection of resistant individuals in any pest population? 1. It is possible that in a pest population the individuals will behave differently due to their genetic makeup. 2. Pests do possess the ability to detoxify the pesticides. 3. Evolution of pesticide resistance is equally distributed in pest population. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 1 and 2 only,c) 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

34,b,1,The statement accurately describes the variability in behavior within pest populations, making it correct.

434
Q

35,Why is the use of chemical pesticides generally justified by giving the examples of poor and developing countries? 1. Developed countries can afford to do away with use of pesticides by adapting to organic farming, but it is imperative for poor and developing countries to use chemical pesticides. 2. In poor and developing countries, the pesticide addresses the problem of epidemic diseases of crops and eases the food problem. 3. The social and health costs of pesticide use are generally ignored in poor and developing countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 1 and 2 only,c) 2 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

35,c,1,The statement accurately describes the potential benefits of pesticide use in poor and developing countries, making it correct.

435
Q

36,What does the passage imply?,a) Alternative options to chemical pesticides should be promoted.,b) Too much use of chemicals is not good for the ecosystem.,c) There is no scope for the improvement of pesticides and making their use sustainable,d) Both the statements a) and b) above are correct.

A

36,d,1,The statement accurately advocates for promoting alternative options to chemical pesticides, making it correct.

436
Q

37,Which of the following conditions of growth can add to vulnerability? 1. When the growth occurs due to excessive exploitation of mineral resources and forests 2. When the growth brings about a change in humankind’s creative potential. 3. When the growth is envisaged only for providing houses and social security to the people. 4. When the growth occurs due to emphasis on farming only. Select the correct Solution: using the codes given below:,a) 1 only,b) 2, 3 and 4 only,c) 1 and 4 only,d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

37,a,1,The statement accurately describes a scenario involving the excessive exploitation of resources, making it correct.

437
Q

38,What does low-carbon growth imply in the present context? 1. More emphasis on the use of renewable sources of energy. 2. Less emphasis on manufacturing sector and more emphasis on agricultural sector. 3. Switching over from monoculture practices to mixed farming 4. Less demand for goods and services. Select the correct Solution: using the codes given below:,a) 1 only,b) 2, 3 and 4 only,c) 1 and 4 only,d) None of the above implies low-carbon growth

A

38,a,1,The statement accurately reflects the concept of low-carbon growth, making it correct.

438
Q

39,Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for the sustainable economic growth? 1. Spreading of economic prosperity more. 2. Popularizing/spreading of adaptive technologies widely 3. Investing on research in adaptation and mitigation technologies. Select the correct Solution: using the codes given below:,a) 1 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2, and 3

A

39,d,1,The statement accurately identifies the necessary conditions for sustainable economic growth, making it correct.

439
Q

40,Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage? 1. Rainfed crops should not be cultivated in irrigated areas 2. Farming under water-deficient areas should not be a part of development strategy. Select the correct Solution: using the codes given below:,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

40,d,1,The statement accurately identifies both inferences as incorrect, making it correct.

440
Q

41,Consider the following assumptions: 1. Sustainable economic growth demands the use of creative potential of man. 2. Intensive agriculture can lead to ecological backlash. 3. Spread of the economic prosperity can adversely affect the ecology and environment With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

41,a,1,The statement accurately identifies all three assumptions as valid, making it correct.

441
Q

42,Which one of the following statements constitutes the central theme of this passage?,a) Countries with greater economic prosperity are better equipped to deal with the consequences of climate change.,b) Adaptation and mitigation should be integrated with development strategies,c) Rapid economic growth should not be pursued by both developed and developing economies.,d) Some countries resort to over exploitation of natural resources for the sake of rapid development.

A

42,b,1,The statement accurately identifies the central theme of the given passage, making it correct.

442
Q

43,With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?,a) Introduction of exotic species into new geographical areas always leads to reduced biodiversity.,b) Exotic species introduced by man into new areas have always greatly altered the native ecosystems.,c) Man is the only reason to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into more homogenous ones.,d) None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) is correct in this context.

A

43,d,1,The statement accurately identifies the incorrectness of all given statements, making it correct.

443
Q

44,Why does man introduce exotic species into new geographical areas? 1. To breed exotic species with local varieties. 2. To increase agricultural productivity. 3. for beautification and landscaping Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3

A

44,d,1,The statement accurately identifies all three statements as correct, making it correct.

444
Q

45,How is homogenization prevented under natural conditions?,a) Evolution of groups of species specific to local habitats.,b) Presence of oceans and mountain ranges,c) Strong adaptation of groups of specific to local physical and climatic conditions,d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

A

45,d,1,The statement accurately identifies all given statements as correct in the given context, making it correct.

445
Q

46,How have the human beings influenced the biodiversity? 1. By smuggling live organism 2. By building highways 3. By making ecosystems sensitive so that new species are not allowed 4. By ensuring that new species do not have major impact on local species. Which of the statements given above are correct?,a) 1 and 2,b) 2 and 3,c) 1 and 3,d) 2 and 4

A

46,a,1,The statement accurately describes the influence of human activities on biodiversity, making it correct.

446
Q

47,What can be the impact of invasion of exotic species on an ecosystem? 1. Erosion of endemic species. 2. Change in the species composition of the community of the ecosystem Select the correct Solution: using the codes given below:,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) both 1 and 2,d) neither 1 nor 2

A

47,c,1,The statement accurately identifies both given statements as correct, making it correct.

447
Q

48,According to the passage, why is a serious tension perceived between democracy and development by the detractors of democracy?,a) Democracy and development are distinct and separate goals,b) Economic growth can be promoted successfully without pursuing a democratic system of governance,c) Non-democratic regimes deliver economic growth faster and far more successfully than democratic ones.,d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.

A

48,b,1,The statement accurately reflects the potential for economic growth without a democratic system of governance, making it correct.

448
Q

49,According to the passage, what should be the ultimate assessment/aim/view of development?,a) Rise in the per capita income and industrial growth rates.,b) Improvement in the Human Development Index and GNP.,c) Rise in the savings and consumption trends.,d) Extent of real freedom that citizens enjoy.

A

49,d,1,The statement accurately identifies the ultimate assessment of development, making it correct.

449
Q

50,What does a “constitutive” connection between democracy and development imply?,a) The relation between them has to be seen through external links.,b) Political and civil rights only can lead to economic development,c) Political liberties and democratic rights are essential elements of development.,d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

A

50,c,1,The statement accurately describes the constitutive connection between democracy and development, making it correct.

450
Q

51,With reference to the passage, consider the following statements: 1. It is desirable that the impact of Foreign Direct investment should be pro-competitive. 2. The entry of foreign investors invariably leads to the inflated prices in domestic markets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2

A

51,a,1,The statement accurately identifies the desirable impact of Foreign Direct Investment, making it correct.

451
Q

52,According to the passage, how does a foreign investor dominate the relevant domestic market? 1. Multinational companies get accustomed to domestic laws. 2. Foreign companies establish joint ventures with domestic companies. 3. Affiliates in a particular market/sector lose their independence as their parent company’s overseas merge. 4. Foreign companies lower the cost of their products as compared to that of products of domestic companies. Which of the statements given above are correct?,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1, 2 and 3 only,d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

52,b,1,The statement accurately describes how foreign investors dominate domestic markets, making it correct.

452
Q

53,What is the inference from this passage?,a) Foreign investors and multinational companies always dominate domestic market.,b) It is not in the best interest of domestic economy to allow mergers company.,c) With competition law, it is easy to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms.,d) For countries with open economy Foreign Direct investment is essential for growth.

A

53,c,1,The statement accurately describes the role of competition law in ensuring a level playing field, making it correct.

453
Q

54,Examine the following statements: 1. I watch TV only if I am bored 2. I am never bored when I have my brother’s company. 3. Whenever I go to the theatre, I take my brother along. Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?,a) If I am bored, I watch TV,b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company.,c) If I am not with my brother, thenI’ll watch TV.,d) If I am not bored, I do not watch TV.

A

54,d,1,The statement accurately identifies the validity of the conclusion based on the given statements, making it correct.

454
Q

55,Only six roads A, B, C, P, Q and R connect a military camp to the rest of the country. Only one out of A, P, and R is open at any one time. If B is closed so is Q. Only one of A & B is open during storms. P is closed during floods. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?,a) Under normal conditions only three roads are open.,b) During storms at least one road is open.,c) During floods only three roads are open,d) During calamities all roads are closed

A

55,b,1,The statement accurately reflects the conditions during storms, making it correct.

455
Q

56,Examine the following statements: 1. None but students are the members of the club. 2. Some members of the club are married. 3. All married persons are invited for dance. Which one of the conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?,a) All students are invited for dance,b) All married students are invited for dance,c) All members of the club are married person,d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn

A

56,b,1,The statement accurately describes the invitation extended to married students, making it correct.

456
Q

57,Four political parties W, X, Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the coming parliamentary elections. The formula agreed by them was the acceptance of a candidate of the most of the parties. Four aspiring candidates A, B, C and D approached the parties for their ticket. A was acceptable to W but not Z B was acceptable to Y but not X C was acceptable to W and Y D was acceptable to W and X When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X and Z and candidate A was acceptable to X but not Y: Who got the ticket?,a) A,b) B,c) C,d) D

A

57,c,1,The deduction correctly identifies C as the individual who got the ticket, making it correct.

457
Q

58,Consider the following statements: 1. All X-brand cars parked here are white. 2. Some of them have radial tyres 3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres are parked here. 4. All cars are not X-brand. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?,a) Only white cars are parked here.,b) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.,c) Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.,d) Most of the X-brand cars are manufactured before 1986.

A

58,b,1,The deduction accurately describes the presence of white X-brand cars with radial tires, making it correct.

458
Q

59,Consider the following statements: The Third World War, if it ever starts will end very quickly with possible end of civilization. It is only the misuse of nuclear power which will trigger it. Based on the above statement which one of the following inferences is correct?,a) Nuclear power will be used in Third World War.,b) There will be no civilization left after the third world war.,c) The growth of nuclear power will destroy civilization in the long run.,d) The third world war will not take place.

A

59,b,1,The inference correctly interprets the given statement, making it correct.

459
Q

60,The elementof the problem figures given below are changing with certain rules as we observe them from left to right: According to this rule which of the following would be the next figure if the changes were continued with the same rule.,a,b,c,d

A

60,d,1,The description accurately identifies the characteristics of the next figure in the sequence, making it correct.

460
Q

61,Consider the following information regarding the performance of class of 1000 students in four different tests: Test I II III IV Average marks 60 60 70 80 Range of marks 39 to 90 45 to 75 20 to 100 0 to 100 If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is her performance the best comparatively?,a) Test I,b) Test II,c) Test III,d) Test IV

A

61,b,1,The deduction correctly identifies the student’s best performance based on the given data, making it correct.

461
Q

62,Six squares are coloured, front and back, red(R), blue(B), yellow (Y), green (G), white (W), orange (O) and are hinged together as shown in the figure given below. If they were folded to form a cube what would be the face opposite to white face?,a) R,b) G,c) B,d) O

A

62,c,1,The deduction correctly identifies the opposite relationship between B and W, making it correct.

462
Q

63,In the above figure, circle P represents hardworking people, circle Q represents intelligent people, Circle R represents truthful people and circle S represents honest people. Which region represents the people who are intelligent, honest and truthful but not hardworking?,a) 6,b) 7,c) 8,d) 11

A

63,a,1,The deduction accurately describes the characteristics represented by region 6, making it correct.

463
Q

64,Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below: What is letter opposite to A?,a) H,b) P,c) B,d) M

A

64,a,1,The deduction correctly identifies the opposite relationship between H and A, making it correct.

464
Q

65,Which one of the figures shown below occupies the blank space(?) in the matrix given below?,a,b,c,d

A

65,d,1,The deduction accurately identifies the movement pattern of the shaded part, making it correct.

465
Q

66,”Which of the following explains best the sentence in the passage “I was almost a part of it”?”,A) I was not alone in the cell,B) I was familiar with every bit of the cell,C) I greeted little tufts of grass like old friends.,D) I felt quite at home in the cell

A

66,a,1,The interpretation of the expression “I was almost a part of it” aligns with the given context, making it correct.

466
Q

67,The passage attempts to describe:,A) The general conditions of the country’s jail,B) The prisoner’s capacity to notice the minute details of his surroundings,C) The prisoner’s conscious efforts to overcome the loneliness,D) The prisoner’s ability to live happily with other creatures

A

67,b,1,The interpretation of the passage aligns with the description of the prisoner’s capacity to observe details, making it correct.

467
Q

68,The author of the passage seems to suggest that,A) It is possible to adjust one-self to uncongenial surroundings.,B) The conditions in Indian prisons are not bad,C) It is not difficult to spend one’s time in prison,D) There is a need to improve the conditions in our jails.

A

68,a,1,The interpretation of the author’s suggestion regarding adjusting to uncongenial surroundings aligns with the given passage, making it correct.

468
Q

69,What does the expression “pitching the highest camp” imply?,A) They reached the summit of the highest mountain in the world.,B) Those who climbed that far earlier did not pitch any camp.,C) So far nobody climbed that high.,D) They were too many climbers and needed to pitch a big camp

A

69,a,1,The interpretation of the expression “pitching the highest camp” aligns with the context of reaching the summit of the highest mountain, making it correct.

469
Q

70,They took a long time to finish the work because:,A) They were very tired.,B) There was not enough air to breathe,C) It was very cold,D) It was very dark

A

70,b,1,The interpretation of the reason for taking a long time to finish the work aligns with the given passage, making it correct.

470
Q

71,When they crawled into the tent,A) I thought it wasn’t cold enough to take off their gloves,B) I thought it was too cold for them to take off their gloves.,C) I thought they did not take off their gloves though it was not very cold.,D) I thought they did not take off their gloves though it was not very cold.

A

71,a,1,The interpretation of the reason for taking off gloves when crawling into the tent aligns with the given passage, making it correct.

471
Q

72,The man went to another room because,A) He did not know where the stairway was,B) The passage was full of smoke,C) He was extremely nervous,D) He stumbled on bundle

A

72,b,1,The interpretation of the reason for the man going into another room aligns with the given passage, making it correct.

472
Q

73,The man was called hero because,A) Expressed his willingness to risk his life to save others,B) Managed to escape from fire,C) Showed great courage in fighting the fire.,D) Saved a life

A

73,d,1,The interpretation of the reason for calling the man a hero aligns with the given passage, making it correct.

473
Q

74,You have differences of the opinion regarding the final report prepared by your subordinate that is to be submitted urgently. The subordinate is justifying the information given in the report. You would,A) Convince the subordinate that he is wrong,B) Tell him to reconsider the results,C) Revise the report on your own,D) Tell him not to justify the mistake

A

74,b,1,The proposed action aligns with the ethical response to the situation described, making it correct.

474
Q

75,You are competing with your batch-mate for the prestigious award to be decided based on an oral presentation. Ten minutes are allowed for each presentationYou have been asked by the committee to finish on time. Your friend however, is allowed more than the stipulated time period. You would …,A) Lodge a complaint to chairperson against the discrimination.,B) Not listen to any justification from the committee,C) Ask for withdrawal of your name,D) Protest and leave the place

A

75,a,1,The proposed action aligns with addressing the issue of discrimination described, making it correct.

475
Q

76,You are handling a time bound project. During the project review meeting, you find that the project is likely to get delayed due to lack of cooperation of the team members. You would,A) Warn the team members for their non-cooperation,B) Look into the reasons for noncooperation,C) Ask for the replacement of the team members,D) Ask for the extension of time citing reasons

A

76,b,1,The proposed action aligns with addressing the issue of non-cooperation described, making it correct.

476
Q

77,You are a chairperson of a state sports committee. You have received a complaint and later it was found that an athlete in junior age category who has won a medal has crossed the age criteria by 5 days. You would…,A) Ask the screening committee for a clarification,B) Ask the athlete to return the medal,C) Ask the athlete to get an affidavit from the court declaring his/her age.,D) Ask the members of the committee for their views

A

77,a,1,The proposed action aligns with seeking clarification on the screening process described, making it correct.

477
Q

78,You are handling a priority project and have been meeting all the deadlines and therefore planning your leave during the project. Your immediate boss does not grant leave citing the urgency of the project. You would…,A) Proceed on leave without waiting for the sanction,B) Pretend to be sick and take leave,C) Approach higher authority to reconsider the leave application.,D) Tell the boss that it is not justified.

A

78,c,1,The proposed action aligns with addressing the leave application issue described, making it correct.

478
Q

79,You are involved in setting up a water supply project in remote area. Full recovery of cost is impossible in any case. The income levels in the area are low and 25% of the population is below poverty line (BPL). When a decision has to be taken on pricing you would….,A) Recommend that the supply of water be free of charge in all respects,B) Recommend that the users pay a one-time fixed sum for installation of taps and the usage of water be free,C) Recommend that a fixed monthly charge be levied only on the non-BPL families and for BPL families water should be free,D) Recommend that the users pay a charge based on the consumption of water with differentiated charges for Non-BPL and BPL families.

A
  1. (a) By logically explaining to the residents the need tofamily planning to improve the health and livestandards
479
Q

80,As a citizen you have some work with a government department. The official calls you again and again; and without directly asking you, sends out feelers for a bribe. You want to get your work done. You would…,A) Give a bribe,B) Behave as if you have not understood the feelers and persist with your application,C) Go to the higher officer for help verbally complaining about feelers.,D) Send in a formal complaint

A
  1. (c) Explain to your colleague that this would be violathe trust of the University authorities and you are in a position to help him.
480
Q

1,The passage mentions that “this world is evidently not meant for them”. It refers to people who,A) seek freedom from foreign domination.,B) live in starvation and misery.,C) become revolutionaries.,D) None of the above

A

1,b,1,The interpretation of the phrase “This world is evidently not meant for them” aligns with the context of people living in starvation and misery, making it correct.

481
Q

2,Consider the following assumptions: 1. A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit. 2. Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit. 3. Subject peoples may become other-worldly. With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,A) 1 and 2,B) 2 only,C) 2 and 3,D) 3 only

A

2,c,1,Both assumptions align with the theme of poverty and its effects on individuals’ spiritual pursuits and worldview, making them correct.

482
Q

3,The passage thematically centres on,A) the state of mind of oppressed people,B) starvation and misery,C) the growth of civilization,D) body, mind and spirit of people in general

A

3,a,1,The thematic center of the passage is correctly identified as the state of mind of oppressed people, making it correct.

483
Q

4,According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused,A) by the impact of foreign domination.,B) by the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation in visions of past greatness.,C) due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.,D) due to one’s inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly.

A

4,c,1,The deduction accurately identifies the cause of torture of the mind and spirit described in the passage, making it correct.

484
Q

5,Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection?,A) A only,B) B only,C) Band C,D) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase

A

5,a,1,The interpretation of region A of the curve aligns with the description of the incubation phase of infection, making it correct.

485
Q

6,Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection?,A) A,B) B,C) C,D) D

A

6,b,1,The interpretation of region B of the curve aligns with the description of symptom onset during infection, making it correct.

486
Q

7,Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief?,A) C,B) D,C) E,D) The curve does not indicate the treatment

A

7,c,1,The interpretation of region E of the curve aligns with the description of effective relief from treatment, making it correct.

487
Q

8,There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C. How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C?,A) 24,B) 12,C) 10,D) 8

A

8,a,1,The calculation accurately determines the possible routes for the person to reach the destination, making it correct.

488
Q

9,A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date is as follows: Rs. 200 for the first day, Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being 50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days?,A) Rs. 4950,B) Rs. 4250,C) Rs. 3600,D) Rs. 650

A

9,b,1,The calculation accurately determines the total penalty amount incurred by the person, making it correct.

489
Q

10,Consider the figure given below and answer the items that follows: In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. S is the direction of a beam of light falIing on the mirror OP1. Thedirection of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be,A) Perpendicular to the direction S.,B) At 45° to the direction S.,C) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.,D) At 60° to the direction S.

A

10,c,1,The deduction accurately predicts the direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror, making it correct.

490
Q

11,Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows: What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour?,A) 3,B) 4,C) 5,D) 6

A

11,a,1,The deduction correctly identifies the minimum number of different colors required to paint the figure without adjacent regions having the same color, making it correct.

491
Q

12,Consider the following figure and answer the items that follows: A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square?,A) 10,B) 11,C) 15,D) Cannot be determined as the given data are Insufficient

A

12,b,1,The calculation accurately determines the length of the side of the square, making it correct.

492
Q

13,According to passage: 1. The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation. 2. Need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. 3. The Government should engage in maximum interference in market processes. 4. There is a need to change the size of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?,A) 1 and 2 only,B) 2 and 3 only,C) 1 and 4 only,D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

13,a,1,Both statements align with the objectives and strategies of inclusive growth, making them correct.

493
Q

14,According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be affected by focussing on,A) meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country.,B) Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector.,C) Controlling the distribution of manufacturing goods.,D) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society.

A

14,d,1,The statement aligns with the strategy of inclusive growth focused on delivering basic services to deprived sections of society, making it correct.

494
Q

15,What constitutes an enabling Government? 1. A large bureaucracy. 2. Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives. 3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise 4. Providing resources to those who are underprivileged. 5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:,A) 1, 2 and 3 only,B) 4 and 5 only,C) 3, 4 and 5 only,D) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5

A

15,a,1,All three statements align with the components and strategies of inclusive growth, making them correct.

495
Q

16,Why is the State unable to deliver “all that is needed”? 1. It does not have sufficient bureaucracy. 2. It does not promote inclusive growth. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:,A) 1 only,B) 2 only,C) Both 1 and 2,D) Neither 1 nor 2

A

16,d,1,The deductions accurately identify both statements as incorrect, making them correct.

496
Q

17,What is essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage?,A) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be remembered.,B) The Government needs to make available more schools and health services.,C) The Government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society.,D) There is a need to rethink the role of the State in achieving inclusive growth

A

17,d,1,The deduction accurately identifies the need to reconsider the role of the state in achieving inclusive growth, making it correct.

497
Q

18,What does the author imply by “creative society”? 1. A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seek incentive. 2. A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm. 3. A society where a large number of contradictions are recognised. 4. A society where’ the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of their human rights and upliftment. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:,A) 1, 2 and 3,B) 4 only,C) 3 and 4,D) 2 and 4

A

18,c,1,The interpretation accurately captures the implications of a “creative society” as described in the passage, making it correct.

498
Q

19,What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements? 1. Aggressiveness and being incendiary. 2. Instigation by external forces. 3. Quest for social equality and individual freedom. 4. Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:,A) 1 and 3 only,B) 2 and 4 only,C) 3 and 4 only,D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

19,c,1,The deduction accurately identifies the manifestations of social movements described in the passage, making it correct.

499
Q

20,With reference to the passage consider the following statements: 1. To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements. 2. To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,A) 1 only,B) 2 only,C) Both 1 and 2,D) Neither 1 nor 2

A

20,b,1,The deduction accurately identifies the importance of potential contradictions and conflicts in fostering a creative society, making it correct.

500
Q

21,Consider the following three statements: 1. Only students can participate in the race. 2. Some participants in the race are girls. 3. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?,A) All participants in the race are invited for coaching.,B) All students are invited for coaching.,C) All participants in the race are students.,D) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

A

21,c,1,The deduction accurately identifies all participants in the race as students, making it correct.