csat pyq fc - Sheet1 Flashcards
1,”Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies. 2. Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2”,”In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.”,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
1,d,Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage nowhere makes any assertion indicating that collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies. In fact, the passage suggests that “More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal”, indicating how the municipal system (under the government) is already stressed. Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage nowhere makes any assertion indicating that resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises. The passage only limits itself to saying that “which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value.” and further that “The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.” So, the passage makes a case for the mode of resource recovery and recycling, i.e., bio methanation, rather than which sector should perform it.
2,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage? a) Generation of energy from municipal solid waste is inexpensive. b) Bio methanation is the most ideal way of generating energy from municipal solid waste. c) Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to- energy plants. d) The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is not adequate to provide energy from waste efficiently/effectively.”,”In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.”,c) Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to- energy plants.
2,c,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage nowhere specifies or even dwells upon the cost of generation of energy from municipal solid waste. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does outrightly state that “The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.” However, ‘major solution’ cannot be equated with ‘most ideal way’ in the strict sense. Further, the question is asking us to suggest the crux of the passage. The fact about bio methanation offering a major solution is a solution to the crux of the passage, which is about the issue of the rarity of segregation of municipal waste at source and achieving waste-to-energy amidst such a challenging scenario. Option (c) is correct: The passage begins with laying the central theme that “In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare.” Further, it goes on to say, “Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally, it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill.” This line lays the sequential chain of waste processing, which can further be re-aligned to generate energy. Hence from these lines, it is clear that the segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to-energy plants. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage clearly refutes this by mentioning that “The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and bio methanation offers a major solution for processing this.”
3,”Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers. 2. Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2”,”There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.”,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
3,b,Statement 1 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect because of the use of the word “inherently”. The passage states that “The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike…in ways that could harm them as well.” Therefore, we must infer that organic farming is not inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers, but might be unsafe due to factors such as lack of regulation, “organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale”, “If, not applied in the right dose” etc. Statement 2 is correct: This assumption closely aligns with the content of the passage. The passage discusses the confusion among farmers and consumers due to the lack of regulation and research in the organic farming industry. This implies that there is a need for more education about what constitutes eco-friendly food and how it should be produced and consumed safely.
4,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical massage conveyed by the author of the passage? a) In India, organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional farming. b) There are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers. c) In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable. d) The aim of organic farming should not be to generate huge profits as there is still no global market for its products.”,”There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.”,c) In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable.
4,c,Option (a) is incorrect: It is a little extreme in drawing an inference that In India, organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional farming. The passage is using a cautionary, rather than an exaggerated, tone regarding organic farming. Further, the author is nowhere found comparing or even promoting conventional farming at the cost of organic farming in the passage. Option (b) is incorrect: This option is extreme. Nowhere has the author indicated that there are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers. In fact the author of the passage states the contrary that “since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India” implying that safe (can assume safe) organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers are present, but not accessible or readily available. Option (c) is correct: The passage mentions, “The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well.” The passage in the further lines goes on to explain the same. Therefore, we can correctly infer that In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable. Option (d) is incorrect: This option is extreme. The passage does not discuss the profit or market aspect of organic farming at all.
5,”Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition. 2. Dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem. 3. Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security. 4. For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways and government offers remunerative prices for grains and therefore they do not tend to consider crop diversity. Which of the above assumptions are valid? a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4”,”Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional corps/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.”,b) 2 and 3 only
5,b,Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage neither promotes monoculture nor refers to it as inevitable. In fact, it makes a case against it in the line, “Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem” Statement 2 is correct: The passage makes many indications that dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem. This is evidenced by the lines, “disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets.” and “For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production, particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional crops/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.” Statement 3 is correct: The passage mentions, “disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets”, “food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition”, “For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples….impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem…”. This makes a strong case for the government to incorporate nutritional security in its policies regarding food planning. Statement 4 is incorrect: While this statement might be true in its own right, the passage does not mention anything about subsidies or any particular reason(s) behind monoculture.
6,”A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following statements: 1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at least one colour is 175. 2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of each colour is 167. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2”,”Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI UPSC SARTHI ~ CSAT-2023 Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional corps/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.”,b) 2 only
6,c,The box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Value of n We have to find out the minimum possible number of balls that should be drawn from the box such that the balls drawn must contain one full group of at least one colour. Say, it may have all 14 black balls, or all 20 blue balls, etc. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Let’s think about the worst-case scenario. What is the maximum number of balls that we can draw without selecting a full group of any colour? Let’s select 13 black balls, 19 blue balls, 25 green balls, 27 yellow balls, 37
7,”If ‘ZERO’ is written as ‘CHUR’, then how is ‘PLAYER’ written?”,”a) SOCACT b) SODBGT c) SODBHT d) SODBHU”,c) SODBHT
7,d,Here, we are required to decipher or decode the pattern. ZERO is written as CHUR. We can see that the underlying pattern is very simple, as shown below: Z + 3 = C E + 3 = H R + 3 = U O + 3 = R We will follow a similar pattern to code PLAYER. P + 3 = S L + 3 = O A + 3 = D Y + 3 = B E + 3 = H R + 3 = U So, the required code is SODBHU. Hence, option (d) is correct.
8,”Consider the following statements: 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F is older than A. How many statements given above are required to determine the oldest person/persons?”,”Only two Only three Only four All five”,
8,d,The given statements are: 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F is older than A. So, the persons we need to consider are: A, B, C, D, E, and F, i.e. 6 in total. We must use statements 2 and 3, as C has been mentioned only in statement 2, and E has been mentioned only in statement 3. Now, we need to account for A, B, D and F. We can account for A and B using statement 1, and for D and F using statement 4. Using statements 1 and 3, we get: A > B > E Using statements 2 and 4, we get: C = D > F Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI However, we still need statement 5 to find out the relative ages of these two groups. Using statement 5, we get: C = D > F > A > B > E So, C and D are the oldest and to find this out we need to use all the given five statements. Hence, option (d) is correct.
9,”Consider the following including the Question and the Statements: There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family. Question: What is the relation of E to B ? Statement-1: A and B are a married couple. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Statement-2: D is the father of C. Statement-3: E is D’s son. Statement-4: A and C are sisters. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Questions and Statements?”,”Statement-1, Statement-2 and Statement-3 are sufficient to answer the Question. Statement-1, Statement-3 and Statement-4 are sufficient to answer the Question. All four statement together are sufficient to answer the Question. All four statements are not sufficient to answer the Question.”,b) Statement-1, Statement-3 and Statement-4 are sufficient to answer the Question.
9,c,The 5 family members are A, B, C, D, and E. The given statements are: Statement 1: A and B are a married couple. Statement 2: D is the father of C. Statement 3: E is D’s son. Statement 4: A and C are sisters. We need to find the relation of E with B. We must use statements 1 and 3, as B and E have not been mentioned in any other statement. Option (a): Statements 1, 2 and 3 alone are not sufficient, as we cannot find a link between B and E in these statements. Option (b): Statements 1, 3 and 4 alone are not sufficient, as we cannot find a link between B and E in these statements. Option (c): Using all the four statements, we get the following family tree: So, E is the brother-in-law of B. Hence, option (c) is correct.
10,”Choose the group which is different from the others: a) 17, 37, 47, 97 b) 31, 41, 53, 67 c) 71, 73, 79, 83 d) 83, 89, 91, 97”,”a) 17, 37, 47, 97 b) 31, 41, 53, 67 c) 71, 73, 79, 83 d) 83, 89, 91, 97”,b) 31, 41, 53, 67
10,d,Prime numbers in 1-100 range are: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97. We can see that all the numbers in options (a), (b), and (c) are prime numbers. However, number 91 in option (d) is not a prime number. As, 91 = 13 × 7. So, this group is different from the others. Hence, option (d) is correct.
11,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational implication conveyed by the passage?”,”Arbitrary curbs on vehicles to reduce pollution are difficult to implement. Knee-jerk reactions cannot but an evidence-based approach will be more effective. A heavy penalty should be enforced on those driving without periodic pollution tests. In the absence of laws to deal with the problem of pollution, the administration tends to make arbitrary decisions.”,b) Knee-jerk reactions cannot but an evidence-based approach will be more effective.
11,b,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage suggests that arbitrary curbs on vehicles to reduce pollution are pointless/ ineffective measures, rather than being difficult to implement. For example, the passage mentions “To tackle the problem of pollution in cities, policy makers think that drastic actions like temporary use of odd-even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning the use of certain type of vehicles are a way forward. Even then the air is not clean. “ Therefore, as per the passage, the issue is not of implementation but policy flaws. The passage further explains the flaw, for example, “Vehicles more than 15 years old comprise one percent of the total; and taking them off the road will not make any difference. Banning certain fuels and car types arbitrarily is not proper. Diesel engines produce more PM 2.5 and less CO2 than petrol or CNG engines. On the other hand, both diesel and CNG engines produce more NOx than petrol engines. No one has measured the amount of NOx that CNG engines are emitting. Arbitrary bans on vehicles that have passed mandated fitness tests and periodic pollution tests are unfair.” Option (b) is correct: The passage suggests how knee-jerk reactions such as “temporary use of odd- even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning the use of certain type of vehicles” are not effective solutions. “Even then the air is not clean.” It makes a case for a proper evidence-based approach as being more effective. “What is needed is the scientific and reliable information about the source of pollutants on a continuing basis and the technologies that will work to reduce pollution from them.” Option (c) is incorrect: The passage makes a case against knee-jerk and temporary reactions. Imposing a heavy penalty on those driving without periodic pollution tests is an example of such a short-term type of measure. The passage advocates well-researched policies, based on scientific and reliable information. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not state there is a dearth of laws. Rather, the tone (for example, “policymakers think that drastic actions”) indicates that there are many steps and policies being taken to tackle air pollution, but all of them are ineffective. Further, as per the passage, this ineffectiveness is not due to the absence of a law, but rather due to a lack of well-researched policies, based on scientific and reliable information.
12,”Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given above?”,”Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhance access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.”,a) It is an important agenda of the countries around the world to ensure access to good external financing. b) Good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms. c) International capital markets ensure that the firms maintain good corporate governance. d) Good corporate governance paves the way for robust supply chains.,b) Good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms.
12,b,Option (a) is incorrect: While this option presents a correct argument as per the passage, it is the supporting/secondary and indirect argument. The passage states that “A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing by firms…” So, countries around the world are trying to put in place good corporate governance, in order to access good external financing. Also, again good external financing is not the ultimate aim, but “greater investment, higher growth and employment.” Option (b) is correct: The passage mentions that “Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control…. Effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.” Therefore, we can infer that the central theme of the passage revolves around how good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms. Hence this option best reflects the logical inference from the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: While this option presents a correct argument as per the passage, it is the supporting argument. Also, the passage focusses on good corporate governance leading to improvement in the credibility of the firms in the international markets, rather than the other way round, i.e. international capital markets benefitting corporate governance. Option (d) is incorrect: There is no direct mention of supply chains in the passage.
13,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?”,”Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species and allowing space for the regeneration of others, which in turn provide sustenance to others herbivorous animals. Elephants eat plants, fruits and seeds, propagating the seeds when they defecate in other places as they travel. Elephant dung provides nourishment to plants and animals and acts as a breeding ground for insects. In times of drought, they access water by digging holes which benefits other wildlife.”,a) The home range of elephants needs to be a vast area of rich biodiversity. b) Elephants are the keystone species and they benefit the biodiversity. c) Rich biodiversity cannot be maintained in the forests without the presence of elephants. d) Elephants are capable of regenerating forests with species as per their requirement.,b) Elephants are the keystone species and they benefit the biodiversity.
13,b,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss what qualifies for the home range of the elephants. It rather discusses the importance and benefits of elephants for the forest ecosystem. Option (b) is correct: The passage discusses this aspect in the entire and each line of the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: While this option might seem true, as the passage does discuss the importance of elephants to a point where their presence might seem critical in the forest ecosystem, the passage does not go to the extent of stating that the rich biodiversity in the forests cannot be maintained without the presence of elephants. For example, there might be another species/ multitude of species that could maintain the rich biodiversity of forests even in the absence of elephants. Hence, it would be extreme and incorrect to infer that the rich biodiversity of the forests cannot be maintained in the forests without the presence of elephants. Option (d) is incorrect: This option is incorrect because it mentions “as per their requirement”. The passage shows that elephants regenerate forests in an involuntary manner (not as per their consciousness or own requirements per se), for example, they “propagate(ing) the seeds when they defecate…Elephant dung acts as a breeding ground for insects.” Further, one might argue that the passage mentions “In times of drought, they access the water by digging holes which benefits other wildlife” which they do “for their requirement”. However, how such access to water benefits other wildlife is not consciously controlled by them, i.e. they are only accessing water here for their own requirement, and not facilitating regeneration in the forest for their own requirement.
14,”If 7 9 10 = 8, 9 11 30 = 5, 11 17 21 = 13, what is the value of 23 4 15 ?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 6 b) 8 c) 13 d) 15
14,a,Here, we are just adding up the numbers and then summing up the digits of the resultant number. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI 7 ⨁ 9 ⨁ 10 = 7 + 9 + 10 = 26 = 2 + 6 = 8 9 ⨁ 11 ⨁ 30 = 9 + 11 + 30 = 50 = 5 + 0 = 5 11 ⨁ 17 ⨁ 21 = 11 + 17 + 21 = 49 = 4 + 9 = 13 So, 23 ⨁ 4 ⨁ 15 = 23 + 4 + 15 = 42 = 4 + 2 = 6 Hence, option (a) is correct.
15,”Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) Infinitely many
If 7x + 96 is divisible by x, It means that 96/x is a whole number
So, x is a factor of 96 ie 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 16, 24, 32, 48, and 96 = 12 possible values. Hence (c) is correct.
(a + 1) × (b + 1)
- If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q) (r + s) ?
(a) 230
(b) 225
(c) 224
(d) 221
16,b,Single digit positive numbers are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. To maximize the value of (p + q) (r + s), we need to ensure that we multiply the biggest numbers possible. So, we will only consider the numbers 6, 7, 8, and 9. Also, we should ensure that the numbers being multiplied are as close in value as possible. So, the required answer = (6 + 9) (7 + 8) = 15 × 15 = 225 Hence, option (b) is correct.
17,”A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 11 b) 9 c) 7 d) 1
17,a,Method I: N = 9999 …… 99 times Any digit repeated (P - 1) times is divisible by P, where P is a prime number > 5. So, 9999 …… repeated 13 - 1 = 12 times will be divisible by 13. So, 9999 …… repeated 12 × 8 = 96 times will be divisible by 13. That is, Remainder [9999…… 96 times / 13] = 0 Or Remainder [9999…… (96 times) 000 / 13] = 0 So, we just need to find out the remainder when we divide the remaining three digits by 13. Remainder [999 / 13] = 11 Hence, option (a) is correct. Method II: We can analyze the pattern of remainders. Remainder [9/13] = 9 Remainder [99/13] = 8 Remainder [999/13] = 11 Remainder [9999/13] = 2 Remainder [99999/13] = 3 Remainder [999999/13] = 0 This pattern can be seen getting repeated thereafter too. Remainder [9999999/13] = 9 Remainder [99999999/13] = 8 …and so forth. So, if total number of 9s is six, twelve, eighteen, ……., ninety, ninety six, etc., the remainder is 0. So, if the number has ninety seven 9s, the remainder is 9. [Following the pattern] So, if the number has ninety eight 9s, the remainder is 8. So, if the number has ninety nine 9s, the remainder is 11. Therefore, the answer is 11. Hence, option (a) is correct.
18,”Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the Resulting number?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 64 b) 80 c) 81 d) 100
18,c,Method I: Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI 11 × 11 = 121 111 × 111 = 12321 1111 × 1111 = 1234321 Following the same pattern, we get: (1111 …. 9 times) × (1111 …. 9 times) = 12345678987654321 Sum of the digits of the resulting number = 2 × (1 + 2 + 3 + …. + 8) + 9 = 2 × [8 × 9/2] + 9 = 72 + 9 = 81 [ Sum of first n natural numbers = n (n + 1) / 2 ] Hence, option (c) is correct. Method II: Since each digit of a 9-digit number is 1, so the sum of its digits = 9. So, this number is divisible by 9. Any multiple of such a number will also be divisible by 9. So, the sum of the digits of the resulting number of the multiplication (111111111) × (111111111) must also be divisible by 9. Therefore, the correct answer will be the option which is a multiple of 9, i.e. 81. Hence, option (c) is correct.
19,”What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100 ?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 855 b) 856 c) 910 d) 221
19,b,We have to find the sum of all the digits of the numbers from 10 to 100. Let’s leave aside 100 for now. We are left with 9 sets of 10 numbers each. 10, 11, ….. 19 20, 21, ….. 29 90, 91, ….. 99 Counting Units Digits Sum of unit digits of each of these 9 sets = 0 + 1 + 2 + …. + 9 = 9 × 10 / 2 = 45 [ Sum of first n natural numbers = n (n + 1) / 2 ] So, sum of all the unit digits of the 9 sets = 45 × 9 = 405 Counting Tens Digits Let’s count the tens digits of 10, 20, 30 …, 90, and then 11, 21, 31, …, 91, and so on. Sum of tens digits of 10, 20, 30 …, 90 = 1 + 2 + 3 + …. + 9 = 9 × 10 / 2 = 45 So, sum of all the tens digits = 45 × 10 = 450 So, the sum of all the digits of the numbers from 10 to 100 = 405 + 450 + 1 = 856 Hence, option (b) is correct.
20,”ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can be drawn using any three points as vertices out of these six points?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 16 b) 18 c) 20 d) 24
ABCD square. Points on sides AB, CD, BC, DA.
abcd is a square
The total number of ways to choose 3 points out of 6 is given by the combination formula C(n, r) = n! / [r!(n-r)!], where n is the total number of items, r is the number of items to choose, and “!” denotes factorial.
So, the total number of triangles is C(6, 3) = 6! / [3!(6-3)!] = 20.
21,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author of the passage?”,”The emissions humans put into the atmosphere now will affect the climate in the middle of the century and onwards. Technological change, meanwhile, could make a future transition away from fossil fuels cheap or it might not, leaving the world with a terrible choice between sharply reducing emissions at huge cost or suffering through the effects of unabated warming. Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail. The world cannot afford such recklessness on climate change.”,a) Businesses that cause emissions may need to close down or pay for pollution in future. b) The only solution is technological development related to the issues of climate change. c) Waiting to deal with carbon emissions until technology improves is not a wise strategy. d) Since future technological change is uncertain, new industries should be based on renewable energy sources.
21,c,Option (a) is incorrect: The only part of the passage pertaining to this assertion is the line, “Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail.” The passage nowhere specifies that businesses would need to close down or pay for pollution in future. Hence, we cannot assume the same, as there is no definite or sufficiently indicative basis for the safe. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not convey any solutions to the issue of climate change. Further, the statement is also too extreme (“only solution”) to be true. Option (c) is correct: The passage mentions, “Technological change, meanwhile, could make a future transition away from fossil fuels cheap or it might not, leaving the world with a terrible choice between sharply reducing emissions at huge cost or suffering through the effects of unabated warming. Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail. The world cannot afford such recklessness on climate change.” Hence, we can safely conclude that waiting to deal with carbon emissions until technology improves will not be a wise strategy. This is the main message of the author. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not convey any solutions to the issue of climate change. Further, the statement is also too specific, whereas the passage does not discuss the same.
22,”Which one of the following statements best implies the most rational assumption that can be made from the passage?”,”Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea appears almost impossible to adopt. With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death, literally. And yet, barring a few, there seems to be the same collective lethargy towards making their choices.”,a) We are likely to spend more money on cure than prevention. b) It is the job of the government to solve our environmental and public health problems. c) Health can be protected even if environmental problems go on unattended. d) Loss of traditional lifestyle and the influence of western values led to some unhealthy way of living.
22,a,Option (a) is incorrect: This option is not directly addressed in the passage. The passage discusses the difficulty in adopting substantial changes in lifestyle to reduce environmental or health problems, but does not provide information about spending patterns on cure versus prevention. Therefore, it cannot be considered the most rational assumption. The passage states that unlike environmental issues, individual choices can make a big impact when it comes to health – “can make the difference between life and death”. Some students may equate environmental measures to preventive measures and health measures to curative measures. This may make option (a) seem correct. However, it’s a wrong parallelism. How we deal with health can be both preventive and curative – we all have heard about preventive healthcare, isn’t it? Option (b) is incorrect: As this is not suggested by the passage. The passage mainly focuses on individual attitudes towards environmental and health problems and doesn’t mention the role of the government. While the passage mentions the collective lethargy towards making choices, it does not explicitly state that it is the government’s job to solve environmental and public health problems. The passage focuses more on the individual choices and their potential impact on health. Thus, this option does not directly imply the most rational assumption based on the passage. Option (c) is correct: Refer to the lines: “With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death…” Individual efforts have negligible effects on environmental concerns, but they can have transformative effects when it comes to health concerns. Therefore, it is correct to say that health can be protected even if environmental problems go on unattended. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage only says that substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems. That means there is some issue with the contemporary lifestyle. Now, what is the underlying reason behind these lifestyles is not discussed in the passage. Therefore, this answer option is beyond the scope of this passage. A Caveat: If we confine ourselves to the passage provided to us, option (c) sure looks like the optimum choice. However, we have accessed the source text of this passage, and it suggests that option (a) may be the right choice, as the statement in option (a) has directly been quoted from there.
23,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?”,”Many people are not eating the right food. For some, it is simply a decision to stick with food they enjoy but which is not too healthy. This is leading to an increase in non-communicable diseases. This in turn leads to major burden on our health-care systems that have the potential to derail the economic progress which is essential for the poor to improve their lives. For others, it is about limited access to nutritious food or a lack of affordability, leading to monotonous diets that do not provide the daily nutrients for them to develop fully. Part of the reason nutrition is under threat worldwide is that our food systems are not properly responding to nutritional needs. Somewhere along that long road from farm to fork, there are serious detours taking place.”,a) The scheme of Universal Basic Income should be implemented worldwide as a way of poverty alleviation. b) We must place food-based nutrition at the centre of our policy debate. c) Nutritional status of food should be improved by creating appropriate genetically modified crops. d) Using modern food processing technologies, we must fortify food items with required nutrient elements.
23,b,Option (a) is incorrect: This option does not reflect the core of the passage. The passage discusses the problems surrounding food choices and accessibility, as well as their impact on health and economic progress. Universal Basic Income as a solution or even as a concept is not mentioned. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Option (b) is correct: This Option appears to be the most accurate reflection of the crux of the passage. The passage discusses issues with food consumption, accessibility, and their effects on health and economic progress. This suggests that placing food-based nutrition at the centre of policy debates could address these interconnected problems. Option (c) is incorrect: Although this could be one potential solution to the problems outlined in the passage, the passage itself does not discuss genetically modified crops. Thus, this option is not the most accurate reflection of the passage’s main point. Option (d) is incorrect: This option, like (c), presents a potential solution to the issue at hand. However, the passage does not specifically discuss fortifying foods or using modern food processing technologies, making it a less accurate reflection of the passage’s main point.
24,”Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the following: 1. p + q + r – s - t is definitely even. 2. 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t is definitely odd. Which of the above statements is/are correct?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
24,a,Among p. q, r, s, and t, there are three even and two odd numbers. Let the numbers be 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Statement 1: p + q + r – s - t No matter how we arrange the numbers, we always end up with an even number. So, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2: 2p + q + 2r – 2s + t Let’s put some values in this expression and check. (2×5) + 6 + (2×3) – (2×2) + 4 = 10 + 6 + 6 – 4 + 4 = 22 (an even number) So, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
25,”Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c. 1.p+c/p-c can be even. 2. p+c can be odd. 3. pc can be odd. Which of the statements given above are correct?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
25,d,Let’s place some numbers in place of p and c in the given expressions and check them out. Statement 1: (p + c)/(p - c) = (11 + 9)/(11 - 9) = 20/2 = 10 (an even number) So, statement 1 is correct.Statement 2: 2p + c = (2×3) + 9 = 15 (an odd number) So, statement 2 is correct. Statement 3: pc = 3×9 = 27 (an odd number) So, statement 3 is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.
26,”A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. What is the value of A+B+C?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 18 b) 16 c) 15 d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
3-digit number ABC
The problem states that when a 3-digit number ABC is multiplied by D, it gives 37DD. Here, A, B, C, and D are different non-zero digits.
To solve this, we need to find a value for D such that 37DD is a 4-digit number. The only possible values for D are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9.
If D = 1, then 37DD is not a 4-digit number. If D = 2, then 37DD is not a 4-digit number. If D = 3, then 37DD is not a 4-digit number.
If D = 4, then 37DD = 3744, which is a 4-digit number. Therefore, D = 4.
Now, we need to find a 3-digit number ABC such that ABC * 4 = 3744.
The only 3-digit number that satisfies this equation is 936. Therefore, A = 9, B = 3, and C = 6.
Finally, we need to find the value of A + B + C.
A + B + C = 9 + 3 + 6 = 18.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 18.
27,”For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6 digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by:”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 7 and 11 only b) 11 and 13 only c) 7 and 13 only d) 7, 11 and 13
27,d,Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI XYZXYZ = XYZ000 + XYZ = XYZ (1000 + 1) = XYZ × 1001 Now, 1001 = 7 × 11 × 13 So, any number of the form XYZXYZ must be divisible by 7, 11 and 13. Hence, option (d) is correct.
28,”125 identical cubes are arranged in the form of cubical block. How many cubes are surrounded by other cubes from each side?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 27 b) 25 c) 21 d) 18
28,a,We have to find the number of internal cubes, i.e. the number of cubes that are not exposed. There are 125 cubes. Now, 5^3 = 125. So, n = 5 Number of internal cubes = (n - 2)^3 = (5 - 2)^3 = 3^3 = 27 Hence, option (a) is correct.
29,”How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 12 b) 18 c) 36 d) 72
29,c,In an eight-digit number there are 4 odd and 4 even positions. In the number 11223344, there are 4 odd numbers (1, 1, 3, 3) and 4 even numbers (2, 2, 4, 4). Now, the number of ways these 4 odd numbers (1, 1, 3, 3) can be arranged in 4 odd positions = 4!/(2 × 2) = 6 Similarly, the number of ways these 4 even numbers (2, 2, 4, 4) can be arranged in 4 even positions = 4!/(2 × 2) = 6 So, number of such distinct numbers = 6 × 6 = 36 Hence, option (c) is correct.
30,”A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. A alone Work’s on Monday, B alone works on Tuesday, C alone works on Wednesday; A alone, again Work’s on Thursday and so on. Consider the following statements: 1. The work will be finished on Thursday. 2. The work will be finished in 10 days.”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
30,a,A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. Let the total amount of work be LCM (8, 16, 12) = 48 units So, Efficiency of A = 48/8 = 6 units/day Efficiency of B = 48/16 = 3 units/day Efficiency of C = 48/12 = 4 units/day The amount of work done in 3 days (Monday + Tuesday + Wednesday) = 6 + 3 + 4 = 13 units Thereafter, the amount of work done in subsequent 3 days (Thursday + Friday + Saturday) = 6 + 3 + 4 = 13 units Thereafter, the amount of work done in subsequent 3 days (Sunday + Monday + Tuesday) = 6 + 3 + 4 = 13 units Thereafter, the amount of work done in subsequent 2 days (Wednesday + Thursday) = 6 + 3 = 9 units So, amount of work done in 11 days = 13 + 13 + 13 + 9 = 48 units So, work will get finished in 11 days on Thursday. It means that Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
31,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, practical and immediate action required to ensure fair and equitable allocation of water to different stakeholders?”,”We often hear about conflicts among different States in India over river waters. Of the 20 major river systems, 14 are already water-stressed;75% of the population lives in water-stressed regions, a third of whom live in waterscare areas. Climate change, the demands of rising population and the need for agriculture to keep pace, and increased rate of urbanization and industrialization will exacerbate water stress. According to the Constitution of India, water is a State subject and not that of the Union, except for regulation of inter-State rivers. Key to ensuring balance between competing demands of various stakeholders is a basin-based approach to allocate water amongst constituent regions and States. Allocating fair share of water to them requires assessments based on objective criteria, such as specificities of the river basin, size of dependent population, existing water use and demand, efficiency of use, projected future use, etc. while ensuring the environmental needs of the river and aquifers.”,a) A national, pragmatic, legal and policy framework for water allocation should be made. b) All river systems of the country should be linked and huge aquifers created. c) Water channels between regions of water surplus and regions of water deficit should be created. d) To mitigate water crisis, water demand of sectors such as agriculture and industry should be reduced.,a) A national, pragmatic, legal and policy framework for water allocation should be made.
31,a,Option (a) is correct: This is a plausible solution as it aligns with the mention of the need for balance and objective criteria for water allocation. A comprehensive framework would presumably take these factors into account, and since water regulation for inter-State rivers is a Union matter, it is reasonable to propose a national policy. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not explicitly mention linking all river systems or creating aquifers. While this might be a long-term solution, it doesn’t seem to be the necessary immediate and practical action as the passage suggests. Option (c) is incorrect: Similar to option (b), this is not mentioned in the passage and may not address the complexities involved in the issue, such as the need for a basin-based approach and specific criteria for water allocation. Option (d) is incorrect: While reducing water demand could potentially alleviate water stress, the passage doesn’t suggest this as a solution. Rather, it highlights the need for a balanced approach considering several factors, including existing water use and demand, use efficiency, and projected future use.
32,”Which one the following statements best reflects what is implied by the passage?”,”More than half of Indian women and almost a quarter of Indian men of working age suffer from anaemia. According to studies, they are anywhere from 5-15% less productive than they could be, as a result thereof. India also has the largest tuberculosis burden in the world, costing 170 million workdays to the country annually. But what is just as important as lost productivity now is lost potential in the future. It is becoming increasingly clear that on many measures of cognitive ability, malnourished Indian children perform, two or three times worse than their adequately nourished peers. For an economy that will be more dependent on highly skilled workers, this poses a significant challenge. And it is one that really should be addressed given India’s demographic outlook.”,a) Education system must be strengthened in rural areas. b) Large scale and effective implementation of skill development programme is the need of the hour. c) For economic development, health and nutrition of only skilled workers needs special attention. d) For rapid economic growth as envisaged by us, attention should be paid to health and nutrition of the people.,d) For rapid economic growth as envisaged by us, attention should be paid to health and nutrition of the people.
32,d,Option (a) is incorrect: While education might be indirectly related to the issue discussed in the passage, the text does not specifically address or imply anything about education or the rural area. It focuses on health and nutrition issues affecting productivity and cognitive abilities. Option (b) is incorrect: This option, like (a), does not directly tie into the specific issues addressed in the passage. The primary focus is on health and nutrition problems and their impact on productivity and cognitive abilities, not on skill development. Option (c) is incorrect: This is partly correct, as the passage implies that the health and nutrition of workers (skilled or otherwise) affect productivity and cognitive abilities, which are crucial for economic development. However, the passage does not suggest that only skilled workers need special attention in this respect. It mentions malnourished children and people of working age in general. Option (d) is correct: For rapid economic growth as envisaged by us, attention should be paid to the health and nutrition of the people: This Option is most aligned with the passage’s implications. The text discusses the impact of health issues like anemia and tuberculosis on productivity, the effect of malnutrition on cognitive abilities in children, and the future needs of an economy increasingly reliant on highly skilled workers. The implication is that addressing health and nutrition issues is crucial for India’s economic growth.
33,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?”,”In India, a majority of farmers are marginal and small, less educated and possess low adaptive capabilities to climate change, perhaps because of credit and other constraints. So, one cannot expect autonomous adaptation to climate change. Even if it was possible, it would not be sufficient to offset losses from climate change. To deal with this, adaptation to climate change is paramount, alongside a fast mitigation response. Another solution is to have a planned or policy-driven adaptation, which would require the government to come up with policy recommendations. Perception is a necessary pre- requisite for adaptation. Whether farmers are adapting agricultural practices to climate change depends on whether they perceive it or not. However, this is not always enough for adaptation. It is important how a farmer perceives the risks associated with climate change.”,a) Adaptation to climate change and mitigation response are basically the responsibilities of the government. b) Climate change causes a change in government policies regarding land use patterns in the country. c) Risk perceptions of farmers are important for motivating them for taking adaptation decisions. d) Since mitigation is not possible, governments should come up with policies for quick response to climate change.,c) Risk perceptions of farmers are important for motivating them for taking adaptation decisions.
33,c,Option (a) is incorrect: While the passage suggests that government involvement could be beneficial, it does not state outright that these are exclusively the government’s responsibilities. The farmers’ perception and adaptation practices are also considered important. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage doesn’t provide information regarding climate change causing changes in government policies specifically about land use patterns. The author’s focus is on the adaptation to climate change and potential policy intervention to support that adaptation. Option (c) is correct: This option aligns well with the passage. The author discusses that the farmers’ perception of the risks associated with climate change is important for adaptation. However, the author also states that perception alone is not enough for adaptation. However, it’s worth noting that the author emphasizes that perception alone is not sufficient for adaptation and suggests that there may be a need for planned or policy-driven adaptation strategies by the government. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not state that mitigation is not possible. It talks about the necessity of adaptation alongside a fast mitigation response. Hence, this Option does not correctly reflect the author’s message.
34,”Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by one (without replacement) from the box to get a red pair of shoes to wear, what is the maximum number of attempts he has to make?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 27 b) 36 c) 44 d) 45
34,d,Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. So, he has 20 red shoes, 18 white shoes, and 16 black shoes. To find the maximum number of attempts we need to visualize the worst-case scenario. Let Raj draw all white and black shoes, which amounts to 18 + 16 = 34 shoes. Now, if he picks any two shoes, they are certainly going to be red. However, we also need to ensure that the red shoes picked by him make a pair, i.e. there should be one red shoe for left foot and one red shoe for right foot. For this to happen we need to pick 11 red shoes. So, maximum number of attempts to get a red pair of shoes = 34 + 11 = 45 Hence, option (d) is correct.
35,”In how many ways can a batsman score exactly 25 runs by scoring single runs, fours and sixes only, irrespective of the sequence of scoring shots?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 18 b) 19 c) 20 d) 21
In how many ways a batsman can score 25 runs ?
This problem can be solved by using the concept of integer solutions of an equation.
Let’s denote the number of singles as x, the number of fours as y, and the number of sixes as z. We are looking for the number of solutions to the equation:
x + 4y + 6z = 25
We also know that x, y, and z must be non-negative integers (since you can’t score a negative number of runs or a fraction of a run).
We can start by finding the maximum possible values for x, y, and z. The maximum value for x is 25 (if all runs are scored as singles), for y is 6 (if all runs are scored as fours), and for z is 4 (if all runs are scored as sixes).
Now, we can start by assuming the maximum value for z and then find the possible values for y and x. If z = 4, then the remaining runs to be scored are 1, which can only be scored as a single. So, there is 1 solution in this case.
If z = 3, then the remaining runs to be scored are 7. These can be scored as 1 four and 3 singles, or 7 singles. So, there are 2 solutions in this case.
If z = 2, then the remaining runs to be scored are 13. These can be scored as 3 fours and 1 single, 2 fours and 5 singles, 1 four and 9 singles, or 13 singles. So, there are 4 solutions in this case.
If z = 1, then the remaining runs to be scored are 19. These can be scored as 4 fours and 3 singles, 3 fours and 7 singles, 2 fours and 11 singles, 1 four and 15 singles, or 19 singles. So, there are 5 solutions in this case.
If z = 0, then all runs must be scored as fours or singles. These can be scored as 6 fours and 1 single, 5 fours and 5 singles, 4 fours and 9 singles, 3 fours and 13 singles, 2 fours and 17 singles, 1 four and 21 singles, or 25 singles. So, there are 7 solutions in this case.
Adding up all these solutions, we get a total of 1 + 2 + 4 + 5 + 7 = 19 solutions. So, the answer is (b) 19.
In how many ways a batsman can score 25 runs ?
36,”There are four letters and four envelopes and exactly one letter is to be put in exactly one envelope with the correct address. If the letters are randomly inserted into the envelopes, then consider the following statements: 1. It is possible that exactly one letter goes into an incorrect envelope. 2. There are only six ways in which only two letters can go into the correct envelopes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
36,b,Statement 1: If one letter is placed in an incorrect envelop, then the letter that belonged to that envelop must have also been placed in an incorrect envelop. So, it’s not possible that only one letter gets placed in an incorrect envelop. Either no letter will get misplaced, or at least two letters will get misplaced. So, Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2: We need to place two letters in correct envelops and two in incorrect envelops. We can choose the two letters to be placed in correct envelops in 4C2 ways, i.e. 6 ways. The remaining Two letters will automatically get chosen to get placed in each other’s envelops (i.e. incorrect envelops). So, Statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is correct.
37,”What is the remainder when 85 × 87 × 89 × 91 × 95 × 96 is divided by 100?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
37,a,In 85 × 87 × 89 × 91 × 95 × 96 there are two 5’s (in 85 and 95) and a 4 (in 96). We know that, 5 × 5 × 4 = 100 So, the given expression is completely divisible by 100. So, remainder will be zero. Hence, option (a) is correct.
38,”What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242)9×7×5×3×1 ?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
38,a,(57242)9×7×5×3×1 = (57242)945 The unit digit of the resultant number only depends on the unit digit of the given number 57242, i.e. 2. Now, we know that: 21 = 2 22 = 4 23 = 8 24 = 16 (unit digit 6) 25 = 32 (unit digit 2) . . . And so on. So, 2 has a cyclicity of 4. Exponent of any number ending in 2 will produce a number that will end in 2, 4, 8, or 6. Now, 945 = 944 + 1 944 is divisible by 4. So, the last digit of (57242)945 will be the same as that of (57242)1, which is 2. Hence, option (a) is correct
39,”If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E, and F are distinct non-zero digits such that ABC+ DEF= 1111, then what is the value of A+B+C+D+E+F ?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 28 b) 29 c) 30 d) 31
39,d,ABC + DEF = 1111, wherein A, B, C, D, E, and F are distinct non-zero digits. We may get a resultant of 1111 if: C + F = 11, say 2 + 9 = 11 B + E = 10, say 3 + 7 = 10 A + D = 10, say 4 + 6 = 10 We can double check this by adding 432 + 679 = 1111 So, A + B + C + D + E + F = 4 + 3 + 2 + 6 + 7 + 9 = 31 Hence, option (d) is correct.
40,”D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between the digit at the hundred’s place and the digit at the unit’s place of D?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 0 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9
40,c,Let the three-digit number be XYZ. This number is such that (100X + 10Y + Z) / (X + Y + Z) is the least possible. For 100, this ratio is 100/1 = 100 For 101, this ratio is 101/2 = 50.5 For 109, this ratio is 109/10 = 10.9 For 110, this ratio is 110/2 = 55 For 119, this ratio is 119/11 = 10.81 For 129, this ratio is 129/12 = 10.75 So, we can see that in 100-199 range, this ratio will be the least for 199, which is 199/19 = 10.47 Similarly, in 200-299 range, this ratio will be the least for 299, which is 299/20 = 14.95 Similarly, in 300-399 range, this ratio will be the least for 399, which is 399/21 = 19 We can see this ratio is slowly increasing. For 999, it would be 999/27 = 37 So, this ratio is the least for 199. The difference between the digit at the hundred’s place and the digit at the unit’s place = 9 – 1 = 8 Hence, option (c) is correct. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI
41,”In India, while the unemployment rate is a frequently used measure of poor performance of the economy, under conditions of rising school and college enrolment, it paints an inaccurate picture. The reported unemployment rate is dominated by the experience of younger Indians who face higher employment challenges and exhibit greater willingness to wait for the right job than their older peers. The unemployment challenge is greater for people with secondary or higher education, and rising education levels inflate unemployment challenges.”,”No Passage Provided”,a) Enrolment in schools and colleges is high but there is no quality education. b) Unemployment must be seen as a function of rising education and aspirations of young Indians. c) There are no labor-intensive industries to accommodate the huge number of unemployed people. d) The education system should be properly designed so as to enable the educated people to be self-employed.
41,b,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the quality of education. Instead, it points out how rising enrollment in schools and colleges might distort the unemployment rate. Thus, this option doesn’t reflect the author’s intended message. Option (b) is correct: This Option aligns well with the passage. The author suggests that higher education levels inflate unemployment challenges and that younger, more educated Indians face a higher employment challenge. Therefore, unemployment is indeed tied to the rising education and aspirations of young Indians. Option (c) is incorrect: The passage doesn’t mention anything about the availability or lack thereof of labourintensive industries. Therefore, this Option doesn’t accurately represent the author’s intended message. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the design of the education system or the concept of selfemployment. Thus, this option does not reflect the author’s intended message.
42,”"”Science by itself is not enough, there must be a force and discipline outside the sciences to coordinate them and point to a goal. It is not possible to run a course aright when the goal itself has not been rightly placed. What science needs is philosophy – the analysis of scientific method and the coordination of scientific purposes and results; without this, any science must be superficial. Government suffers, precisely like science, for lack of philosophy. Philosophy bears to science the same relationship which statesmanship bears to politics: movement guided by total knowledge and perspective, as against aimless and individual seeking. Just as the pursuit of knowledge becomes scholasticism when divorced from the actual needs of men and life, so the pursuit of politics becomes a destructive bedlam when divorced from science and philosophy.”””,”No Passage Provided”,a) Modern statesmen need to be well trained in scientific methods and philosophical thinking to enable them to have a better perspective of their roles, responsibilities and goals. b) It is not desirable to have Governments managed by empirical statesmen unless well mixed with others who are grounded in learning and reflect wisdom. c) As the statesmen/bureaucrats are the products of a society, it is desirable to have a system of education in a society that focuses on training its citizens in scientific method and philosophical thinking from a very early age. d) It is desirable that all scientists need to be philosophers as well to make their work goal- oriented and thus purposeful and useful to the society.
42,b,We have been asked to choose the most rational, logical and practical message. Hence, each of the options need to be tested for these three mentioned aspects. Option (a) is incorrect: This statement suggests training modern statesmen in scientific methods and philosophical thinking, which is ideal but not practical. The passage stresses that government should not just be an empirical machine, bereft of values. We need ingredients of philosophy and scientific aptitude in government. However, it nowhere states how to achieve this. The need for training of statesmen has not been explicitly or implicitly mentioned. This can also be achieved via guidance, external consultancy, etc. Option (b) is correct: The passage makes an analogy between the relationship of science and philosophy with that of politics and statesmanship. Just like philosophy is the guiding light of science, statesmanship is the guiding light of politics. The passage indirectly calls for the presence of politics backed by perspective and knowledge of real needs of society. This line, “… so the pursuit of politics becomes a destructive bedlam when divorced from science and philosophy.” indicates that it is not desirable to have a form of politics which is divorced from scientific thinking and philosophical backing that orients politicians to work for the larger good of society rather than for short-term selfish goals. In other words, it is desirable to have a blend of empirical statesmen and men of farsightedness and wisdom in politics. This is also a practical option as it may not be possible that all politicians have a philosophic orientation and vice-versa. Moreover, the passage has indicated at two places that it is referring to outside help, rather than training scientists and statesmen to be philosophers themselves. This can be seen in the line, “Science by itself is not enough, there must be a force and discipline outside the sciences to coordinate them and point to a goal.”, and “Philosophy bears to science the same relationship which statesmanship bears to politics: movement guided by total knowledge and perspective”. The words “outside” and “guided” indicate more towards external guidance/consistency for statesmen, rather than training them themselves. Note: The term “empirical statesmen” mean statesmen that are facts, observation and data driven, and not valueladen (philosophy can be equated to values). It does not have “colonial empire” connotations here, i.e. we are not talking about British empire or any other empire of any sorts here. Option (c) is incorrect: While the passage mentions the importance of philosophy in science and statesmanship, it doesn’t specifically discuss the role of education in cultivating these skills from an early age. Option (d) is incorrect: This reflects the sentiment of the passage to an extent, emphasizing the importance of philosophy in directing and giving purpose to scientific efforts. However, it might be a stretch to say that all scientists need to be philosophers. This statement sounds impractical and extreme.
43,”"”The last end of the state is not to dominate men, nor to restrain them by fear; rather it is so to free each man from fear that he may live and act with full security and without injury to himself or his neighbour. The end of the state, I repeat, is not to make rational beings into brute beasts and machines. It is to enable their bodies and their minds to function safely. It is to lead men to live by, and to exercise, a free reason; that they may not waste their strength in hatred, anger and guile, nor act unfairly toward one another.”””,”No Passage Provided”,a) Personal safety b) Health of body and mind c) Communal harmony d) Liberty
43,d,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage mentions that the end of the state is to “free each man from fear that he may live and act with full security and without injury to himself or his neighbour,” which does suggest personal safety. However, this might be considered as one aspect rather than the ultimate goal. Option (b) is incorrect: While the passage does talk about enabling bodies and minds to function safely, it doesn’t suggest this as the ultimate goal of the state. Option (c) is incorrect: The text does imply communal harmony as one of the goals – “that they may not waste their strength in hatred, anger and guile, nor act unfairly toward one another” – but again, this seems more like one of the aspects of the ultimate goal rather than the ultimate goal itself. Option (d) is correct: The passage strongly emphasizes that the end of the state is to lead men to live by, and exercise, a free reason. This suggests liberty as a core goal, encompassing elements of personal safety, the health of body and mind, and communal harmony. Based on the passage, “Liberty” - seems to best express the ultimate goal of the state.
44,”What is the remainder if 2^192 is divided by 6?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
44,d,Method I: 2192 / 6 = 2191 / 3 Remainder [2191 / 3] = (-1)191 = -1 = 2 So, Remainder [2192 / 6] = 2 × 2 = 4 Hence, option (d) is correct. Method II: To find the remainder when 2192 is divided by 6, we can observe a pattern in the remainders of powers of 2 when divided by 6. When we divide powers of 2 by 6, we get the following sequence of remainders: 21 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 2. 22 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 4. 23 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 2. 24 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 4. 25 divided by 6 leaves a remainder of 2. We notice that when power of 2 is odd, the remainder is 2; and when power of 2 is even, the remainder is 4. Therefore, the answer would be 4. Hence, option (d) is correct.
45,”Consider the sequence ABC_ _ABC_DABBCD_ABCD that follows a certain pattern.”,”No Passage Provided”,a) DACB b) CDAB c) DCCA d) DDCA
45,d,Method I: The given sequence: ABC_ ABC_DABBCD_ABCD We can break this sequence in five sets of 4 elements each. On analyzing it in this manner, we can see that the last element moves to the first position in a cyclic manner. The complete sequence is: ABCD DABC CDAB BCDA ABCD Hence, option (d) is correct. Method II: The given sequence: ABC ABC_DABBCD_ABCD There are 20 elements in this series. Let’s break this sequence in four sets of 5 elements each. ABC _ ABC_D ABBCD _ABCD The third set ABBCD gives us a clue that one letter is being repeated. Now, we can check from the options to further confirm our presumption. Using option (d), we get the complete sequence: ABCDD ABCCD ABBCD AABCD We can see that in the first set 4th letter D is getting repeated, in the second set 3rd letter is getting repeated, and so on. Hence, option (d) is correct.
46,”AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D. E, F, G, H, I are distinct digits. If E= 0, F=8, then what is A+B+C equal to?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9
Since E = 0 and F = 8, the product of AB and CD must be a number in the form of 08X, where X is a digit from 1 to 9.
The only way to get a product of 08X is if one of the numbers (AB or CD) is a multiple of 4 and the other number ends with 2 or 7.
The possible pairs of numbers are (12, 34), (17, 24), (24, 17), (34, 12).
However, since the sum of DEF and GHI is 975, the sum of the digits D, G, H, I must be 9 (since E = 0 and F = 8).
The only pair of numbers that satisfies this condition is (12, 34), which gives a product of 408.
Therefore, A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4.
So, A + B + C = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 6.
47,”Consider the following statements in respect of five candidates P, Q, R, S, and T. Two statements are true and one statement is false. True Statement: One of P and Q was selected for the job. False Statement: At least one of R and S was selected for the job. True Statement: At most two of R, S and T were selected for the job. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn? 1. At least four were selected for the job. 2. S was selected for the job. Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
47,d,The five candidates are P, Q, R, S, and T. The given statements are: True statement: One of P and Q was selected for the job. So, either P was selected or Q was selected. False statement: At least one of R and S was selected for the job. As this statement is false, we can deduce that neither R nor S was selected for the job. True statement: At most two of R, S and T were selected for the job. But we already know that Neither R nor S was selected for the job. So, we are only left with T. It may or may not be selected. The selected candidates’ maybe: P, PT, Q, QT So, the number of candidates that can be selected is either 1 or 2. So, none of the given conclusions is correct. Hence, option (d) is correct.
48,”Let P, Q, R, S and T be five statements such that: I. If P is true, then both Q and S are true. II. If R and S are true, then T is false. Which of the following can be concluded? 1. If T is true, then at least one of P and R must be false. 2. If Q is true, then P is true. Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
48,a,I. If P is true, then both Q and S are true. However, if P is false, we cannot say anything about Q and S. II. If R and S are true, then T is false. However, if only one of R and S is true, or both of them are false, then we cannot say anything about T. Now, let’s analyze the given conclusions. Conclusion 1: If T is true, then at least one of P and R must be false. If T is true, then it means that at least one of R and S must be false. Now, if S is false then it means that P must also be false. So, Conclusion 1 is correct. Conclusion 2: If Q is true, then P is true. If Q is true, then it doesn’t necessarily mean that P must be true. So, Conclusion 2 is not correct. Hence, option (a) is correct. Statement 2: We need to find the number of cubes having only two painted faces, one with blue and the other with green colour. These cubes can be found in the middle of the four 3 cm edges. There is only one such cube at the middle of each of these four 3 cm edges. So, there are only 4 such cubes. So, Statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is correct.
49,”A cuboid of dimensions 7cm × 5cm × 3cm is painted red, green and blue colour on each pair of opposite faces of dimensions 7cm × 5cm × 5cm, 5cm × 3cm, 7cm × 3cm respectively. Then the cuboid is cut and separated into various cubes each of side length 1cm. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. There are exactly 15 small cubes with no paint on any face. 2. There are exactly 6 small cubes with exactly two faces, one painted with blue and the other with green. Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
The given cuboid is of dimensions 7 cm x 5 cm x 3 cm.
- The small cubes with no paint on any face will be the ones that are not on the surface of the cuboid. These will be the cubes that are in the interior of the cuboid. The interior of the cuboid will have dimensions (7-2) cm x (5-2) cm x (3-2) cm = 5 cm x 3 cm x 1 cm = 15 cubes. So, the first statement is correct.
- The small cubes with exactly two faces painted will be the ones that are on the edges of the cuboid but not at the corners. These will be painted with the colors of the two faces that meet at that edge. The edges with blue and green paint are of length 5 cm and 3 cm. But the corners of these edges will not have exactly two faces painted. So, we subtract 2 from each edge length to get the number of cubes with exactly two faces painted. This gives us (5-2) + (3-2) = 3 + 1 = 4 cubes. So, the second statement is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.
50,”The letters of the word ““INCOMPREHENSIBILITIES”” are arranged alphabetically in reverse order. How many positions of the letter/letters will remain unchanged?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) None b) One c) Two d) Three
50,c,The given word is INCOMPREHENSIBILITIES. On arranging its letters alphabetically in reverse order, we will get: TSSRPONNMLIIIIIHEEECB Now, let’s compare the two to identify the letters with unchanged positions. We find that only two I’s remain in the same position: Hence, option (c) is correct
51,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical message implied by the above passage?”,”Passage-1”,a) Modern technology enfeebles societal structure and makes life difficult. b) Modern life is full of uncertainties and endless difficult choices. c) We are influenced by the opinion of others and have no courage to follow our own convictions. d) In our lives, having too few choices may not be a good thing, but having too many can be equally as difficult.
51,d,Option (a) is incorrect: While the passage mentions technology and its role in amplifying our number of choices, it does not directly address how it weakens the societal structure. So, this option might not be the most accurate representation of the passage. Option (b) is incorrect: This Option aligns with the passage’s theme, which discusses the paradox of choice and how an abundance of options can cause difficulties in decision-making. However, the passage does not explicitly discuss the uncertainties of modern life. Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the influence of others’ opinions on our decision- making or our lack of courage to follow our convictions. Therefore, this option does not reflect the passage’s implied message. Option (d) is correct: This Option captures the essence of the passage well, which focuses on the paradox of choice —how both the lack of choices and an overabundance of them can lead to decision- making difficulties.
52,”Regarding the financialization of household savings, which of the following statements best reflect the Solutions that are implied by the passage? 1. A flexible environment is needed to develop solutions. 2. Households need customized solutions. 3. Innovations in financial technology are required Select the correct answer using the code given below:”,”Passage-2”,a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
52,a,The passage highlights the critical need to encourage the financialization of savings. However, it also opines that people would only jump into financialization after addressing some hurdles. Statement 1 is correct: The line “Hurdles to change include onerous bureaucracy…” implies a rigid and challenging environment creating challenges in the financialization of household savings. Thus, a flexible environment is required to develop solutions to address the challenges related to the financialization of savings. Thus, it is a correct statement. Statement 2 is correct: The line “A lack of basic information about which of the myriad services and provers is best for each family.” reflects that families do not have information and access to solutions that meet their specific needs. This can be solved by providing customized solutions to each household. Thus, it is a correct statement. Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage focuses more on the skepticism of organized financial institutions and the lack of knowledge among households. While financial technology innovations can be beneficial in improving access to information and services, they are not directly implied as a solution in the passage.
53,”Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Patent protection given to patentees puts a huge burden on public’s purchasing power in accessing patented medicines. 2. Dependence on other countries for pharmaceutical products is a huge burden for developing and poor countries. 3. Providing medicines to the public at affordable prices is a key goal during the public health policy design in many countries. 4. Governments need to find and appropriate balance between the rights of patentees and the requirements of the patients. Which of the above assumptions are valid?”,”Passage-3”,a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 4 c) 3 and 4 d) 2 and 3
53,b,Statement 1 is correct: The line, “The patentees enjoy the liberty to determine the prices of medicines, which is time-limited to the period of monopoly, but could be unaffordable to the public” assumes that patent protection puts a huge burden on the purchasing power of the public and may even make its access unaffordable. Statement 2 is incorrect: Although this statement is true in general, it is beyond the scope of the passage as it nowhere talks about the burden imposed on developing and poor countries as a whole in accessing pharmaceutical products. Statement 3 is incorrect: This statement is also true in general, however, the passage does not talk about the public health policy design of the countries and its goals. Statement 4 is correct: The line, “Such patent protection offered to the patentees is believed to benefit the public over the long term through innovation and research and development (R&D), although it comes at a cost, in the nature of higher prices for the patented medicines” indicates the desirability of the patent regime and price protection. At the same time, higher medicines prices put a burden on the public. Therefore, governments need to balance short-term needs with long-term goals.
54,”Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Protection of privacy is not just a right, but it has value to the economy. 2. There is a fundamental link between privacy and innovation. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?”,”Passage-4”,a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
54,c,Statement 1 is correct: The lines, “The ultimate control of data must reside with the individuals who generate it; they should be enabled to use, restrict or monetize it as they wish” highlights how privacy is a matter of right. Also, giving control over the monetization of this data indicates that privacy has an economic value as well. Statement 2 is correct: The line, “No one will innovate in a surveillance-oriented environment or in a place where an individual’s personal information is compromised” establishes a direct link between innovation and privacy. Innovation fosters an environment, where privacy is protected.
55,”In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are 100. Marks scored by the students are in integers. A student can score 99% in n different ways. What is the value of n?”,”No Passage Provided”,a) 16 b) 17 c) 23 d) 35
The total marks for the four papers is 400 (100 marks each for P, Q, R and S).
If a student scores 99% in the examination, then the total marks scored by the student is 99% of 400 = 396 marks.
Now, we need to find out the number of ways in which 396 can be expressed as a sum of four integers, each ranging from 0 to 100.
The problem can be solved by considering all possible combinations and permutations of the scores in the four papers.
- All four papers scored 99 marks each. This is one way.
- Three papers scored 100 marks each and one paper scored 96 marks. This can happen in 4 ways (since the paper scoring 96 marks can be any one of the four papers).
- Two papers scored 100 marks each, one paper scored 98 marks and one paper scored 98 marks. This can happen in 6 ways (since the two papers scoring 98 marks can be any two of the four papers).
- Two papers scored 100 marks each, one paper scored 99 marks and one paper scored 97 marks. This can happen in 12 ways (since the two papers scoring 99 and 97 marks can be any two of the four papers).
- One paper scored 100 marks, two papers scored 99 marks each and one paper scored 98 marks. This can happen in 12 ways (since the two papers scoring 99 marks and the paper scoring 98 marks can be any three of the four papers).
So, the total number of ways is 1 + 4 + 6 + 12 + 12 = 35.
Hence, the correct answer is (d) 35.
56,A flag has to be designed with 4 horizontal strips using some or all of the colours red, green and yellow. What is the number of different ways in which this can be done so that no two adjacent stripes have the same colour?,a) 12,b) 18,c) 24,d) 36
56,c,Let’s consider the possibilities for each stripe: For the first stripe, we have three colour options - (red, green, yellow). For the second stripe, we need to choose a colour different from the first stripe. So, we have two colour options. For the third stripe, we need to choose a colour different from the second stripe. So, we have two colour options. For the fourth stripe, we need to choose a colour different from the third stripe. So, we have two colour options. So, total number of possible ways to design the flag = 3 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 24
58,There are five persons, P, Q, R, S and T each one of whom has to be assigned one task. Neither P nor Q can be assigned Task-1. Task-2 must be assigned to either R or S. In how many ways can the assignment be done?,a) 6,b) 12,c) 18,d) 24
ask-1 cannot be assigned to P or Q. So, it can be assigned to R, S or T in 3 ways.
Task-2 must be assigned to either R or S. If Task-1 was assigned to R or S, then Task-2 can only be assigned to the remaining person. If Task-1 was assigned to T, then Task-2 can be assigned to either R or S. So, Task-2 can be assigned in 2 ways.
The remaining 3 tasks can be assigned to the remaining 3 people in 3! = 6 ways.
So, the total number of ways to assign the tasks is 3 * 2 * 6 = 24.
59,There is large number of silver coins weighing 2gm, 5gm, 10gm, 25gm, 50gm each. Consider the following statements: 1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins. 2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can use less than 7 coins. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
Minimum Number of Coins to Buy 78 gm
To buy 78 gm of coins, with the largest coin being 50 gm and the smallest coin being 2 gm, we need to find the minimum number of coins required.
If we try to use only one of each coin weight, the sum would be: 50 + 10 + 10 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 78
So, using one coin of each weight, we need to buy 7 coins to get a total of 78 gm.
To weigh 78 gm using these coins, one can use 5 coins of 50 gm, 25 gm, 10 gm, -5 gm, and -2 gm. This is done by placing the 50 gm, 25 gm, and 10 gm coins on one side of the balance and the -5 gm and -2 gm coins (which are actually 5 gm and 2 gm coins, but placed on the opposite side) on the other side.
Therefore, both statements are correct. The answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.
60,Consider the following: I. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B. II. A – B means A is not greater than B. III A × B means A is not smaller than B. IV. A ÷ B means A is neither greater nor equal to B. V. A ± B means A is neither smaller nor greater than B. Statement: P × Q, P – T, T ÷ R, R ± S Conclusion-1: Q±T Conclusion-2: S+Q Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statement and the Conclusions?,a) Only Conclusion-1 follows from the Statement.,b) Only Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.,c) Both Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 follow from the Statement.,d) Neither Conclusion-1 nor Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.
60,b,According to the question, A + B means A > B A – B means A ≤ B A × B means A ≥ B A ÷ B means A < B A ± B means A = B It’s given that, P × Q, P – T, T ÷ R, R ± S Or P ≥ Q, P ≤ T, T < R, R = S Using this we get: S = R > T ≥ P ≥ Q Conclusion I: Q ± T or Q = T. This is not necessarily true. Conclusion II: S + Q or S > Q. This is true. Hence, option (b) is correct.
61,Passage-1: Sourcing food from non-agricultural lands (uncultivated systems such as forests, wetlands, pastures, etc) in addition to agricultural lands enables a systemic approach to food consumption. It allows rural and tribal communities to sustain themselves for the whole year and steer clear of natural disasters and season-inducted shortfalls of agricultural food. Since the productivity of trees is often more resilient to adverse weather conditions than annual crops, forest foods often provide a safety net during periods of food shortages caused by crop failure; forest foods also make important contributions during seasonal crop production gaps. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational massage conveyed by the author of the passage?,a) Food yielding trees should replace other trees in rural and tribal areas and community owned lands.,b) Food security cannot be ensured in India with the present practice of conventional agriculture.,c) Wastelands and degraded areas in India should be converted into agroforestry systems to help the poor.,d) Agroecosystems should be developed in addition to or along with conventional agriculture.
61,d,Option (a) is incorrect: The passage talks about the significance of food from non-agricultural lands such as forests, peat lands, etc., in terms of ensuring food security during food shortages and production gaps and complementing the agricultural system. But it does not recommend replacing other trees with food-yielding trees. Option (b) is incorrect: Although the passage highlights the resilience of forest foods through the lines “Since the productivity of trees is often more resilient to adverse weather conditions…..forest food provides safety net…”, it does not mention that conventional agriculture on its own cannot ensure food safety. Option (c) is incorrect: The line “It allows rural and tribal communities to sustain themselves for the whole year and steer clear of natural disasters and season-induced shortfalls of agriculture food” indicates the vulnerability of Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI the rural and tribal communities. However, the passage nowhere mentions the conversion of wastelands and degraded areas to develop forests and help the poor. Option (d) is correct: The tribal and rural communities are vulnerable to food shortages due to crop failures and during seasonal production gaps as seen in the line “..forest food provides a safety net during periods of food shortages caused by crop failures; forest foods also make important contributions during seasonal crop production gaps.” The development of agro ecosystems along with conventional agriculture would reduce the vulnerability of these communities and ensure their food security.
62,Passage-2: While awareness on use/misuse and abuse of antibiotics is common knowledge, as is the impact of dosing poultry with antibiotics, the environmental impact of antibiotics-manufacturing companies not treating their waste has scarcely been discussed at any length or seriousness thus far. Pollution from antibiotics factories is fuelling the rise of drug-resistant infections. The occurrence of drug-resistant bacteria surrounding the pharma manufacturing plants is well known. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and practical message Conveyed by the passage?,a) It is necessary to put proper effluent treatment protocols in place.,b) It is necessary to promote environmental awareness among people.,c) Spread of drug-resistant bacteria cannot be done away with, as it is inherent in modern medical care.,d) Pharma-manufacturing companies should be set up in remote rural areas, away from crowded towns and cities.
62,a,Option (a) is correct: The passage highlights the environmental impact of antibiotics manufacturing companies not treating their waste through the line “..the environmental impact of antibiotics- manufacturing companies not treating their waste has scarcely been discussed at any length or seriousness thus far. Pollution from antibiotics factories is fueling the rise of drug-resistant infections.” Therefore, the passage emphasizes the need for these companies to implement proper effluent treatment protocols to prevent pollution and minimize the spread of drug-resistant bacteria. Option (b) is incorrect: The passage specifically discusses the environmental impact of antibiotics manufacturing companies not treating their waste and how it contributes to the rise of drug-resistant infections. Therefore, promoting environmental awareness, although a good idea, alone may not directly address the issue at hand. Option (c) is incorrect: This is a pessimistic and broad statement that does not align with the main theme of the passage. Nowhere the passage mentions or suggests that it is not possible to control the spread of drug-resistant bacteria, although it may be challenging. Option (d) is incorrect: Although this statement presents a solution, it is not the most practical and logical solution conveyed by the passage. The passage primarily emphasizes the importance of proper waste treatment by antibiotics manufacturing companies to reduce pollution and the spread of drug- resistant bacteria in the line “Pollution from antibiotics factories is fueling the rise of drug-resistant infections”.
63,Passage-3: Benefits of good quality school education accrue only when students complete and leave school after having acquired the gateway skills. Like one learns to walk before running, similarly one picks up advanced skills only after picking the basic foundational skills. The advent of the knowledge economy poses new challenges, and one of the severe consequences of having an uneducated workforce will be our inability to keep pace with the global economy. Without a strong learning foundation at the primary level, there can be no improvement in higher education or skill development. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?,a) To become a global power, India needs to invest in universal quality education.,b) India is unable to become a global power because it is not focusing or promoting knowledge economy.,c) Our education system should focus more on imparting skills during higher education.,d) Parents of many school children are illiterate and are unaware of the benefits of quality education
63,a,Option (a) is correct: The passage highlights the significance of quality education in imparting foundations skills, and its contribution to the knowledge economy through the lines “the advent of the knowledge economy poses new challenges, and one of the severe consequences of having an uneducated workforce will be our inability to keep pace with the global economy”. Thus the statement aligns with the message of the passage on the significance of quality education. Option (b) is incorrect: This statement is not supported by the passage directly. The passage only talks about the challenges posed by the knowledge economy. It does not explicitly state that India is not focusing on or promoting a knowledge economy. Option (c) is incorrect: The lines, “Like one learns to walk before running, similarly one picks up advanced skills only after picking the basic foundational skills.” and “Without a strong learning foundation at the primary level, there can be no improvement in higher education or skill development” clearly emphasize the importance of school education rather than the higher education. Option (d) is incorrect: This statement is beyond the scope of the passage, as the passage does not talk about the literacy and awareness of the parents anywhere.
40 children are standing in a circle and one of 5 them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes on to child-2, child-2 passes on to child-4, child-4 passes on to child-7 and so on. After how many such changes (including child-1) will the ring be in the hands of child-1 again?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 17
Sequence of Passing the Ring
The ring is passed in the following sequence: 1, 2, 4, 7, 11, 16, 22, 29, 37, 6, 16, 27, 39, 12, 26, 1.
This sequence is formed by adding 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15 to the position of the child respectively and taking modulo 40 (since there are 40 children in the circle).
For example, the ring is initially with child-1. We add 1 to it and get 2. So, the ring is passed to child-2. Then we add 2 to 2 and get 4. So, the ring is passed to child-4. And so on.
When we add 15 to 26, we get 41. But since there are only 40 children, we take modulo 40 to get 1. So, the ring is passed back to child-1.
Therefore, the ring is back with child-1 after 15 changes. Hence, the correct answer is (b) 15.
40 children are standing in a circle
65,What are the middle terms of the sequence Z, Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W,…….,A?,a) H,b) I,c) J,d) M
65,b,The given sequence is: Z, Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W, ……., A So, the number of terms in the given sequence = 2 + 3 + 4 + ….. + 27 = [27 (27 + 1)/2] – 1 = [27 × 28/2] – 1 = 378 – 1 = 377 So, the middle term is 378/2, i.e. 189th Now, 377 – (27 + 26 + 25 + 24 + 23 + 22 + 21 + 20) = 189 So, the 189th term must be I. Hence, option (b) is correct.
66,Is p greater than q? Statement-1: p × q is greater than zero. Statement-2: p2 is greater than q2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.
66,d,Statement 1: (p × q) > 0 It means neither p nor q can be 0, and both of them must be positive, or both negative. Say, 2 × 3, or (- 2) × (-3) So, by using statement1 is alone we cannot determine whether p > q. So, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient. Statement 2: p2 > q2 But we do not know whether p and q are positive or negative. Say, 32 > 22, or (-3)2 > (-2)2 So, we cannot determine whether p > q. So, Statement 2 alone is not sufficient. Even by using both the statements together, we cannot determine whether p > q. Hence, option (d) is correct.
67,Is (p + q- r) greater than (p – q + r), where p, q and r are integers? Statement-1: (p - q) is positive. Statement-2: (p-r) is negative. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together
67,c,Statement 1: (p - q) is positive. This is possible only when p > q Statement 2: (p - r) is negative. This is possible only when p < r Now, (p + q - r) – (p – q + r) = 2q – 2r So, we basically need to find out if q > r, or not. For this, we obviously have to use both the given statements. Using both of the statements, we get: r > p > q So, q < r It means that, (p + q - r) – (p – q + r) = 2q – 2r < 0 In other words, (p + q - r) is not greater than (p – q + r). Hence, option (c) is correct.
68,In a party, 75 persons took tea, 60 persons took coffee and 15 persons took both tea and coffee. No one taking milk takes tea. Each person takes at least one drink. Question: how many persons attended the party? Statement-1: 50 persons took milk. Statement-2: Number of persons who attended the party is five times the number of persons who took milk only. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.
68,a,In a party, 75 persons took tea, 60 persons took coffee and 15 persons took both tea and coffee. We can represent this information via a Venn diagram for better visualization. You may notice that the circles representing Tea and Milk are not overlapping. That’s because no one taking milk takes tea. We can further deduce the following information from the Venn diagram given above. So, the total number of persons that attended the party = 75 + 45 + y = 120 + y Now, let’s consider the given statements. Statement 1: 50 persons took milk. So, x + y = 50. But using this we cannot find out the total number of persons that attended the party, as we cannot find the value of y. So, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient. Statement 2: Number of persons who attended the party is five times the number of persons who took milk only. So, 120 + y = 5y Or 4y = 120 Or y = 30 So, the total number of persons that attended the party = 120 + y = 120 + 30 = 150 So, Statement 2 alone is sufficient. Hence, option (a) is correct.
69,Consider a 3-digit number. Question: What is the number? Statement-1: The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits. Statement-2: The number is divisible by the sum of the digits of the number. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.
69,d,Statement 1: The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits. If the 3-digit number is 123, 132, 213, 231, 312, or 321, then the sum of the digits of the number would be equal to the product of the digits. As, 1 + 2 + 3 = 1 × 2 × 3 Or 6 = 6 Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI So, Statement 1 alone is not sufficient. Statement2: The number is divisible by the sum of the digits of the number. We can see that, 132/6 = 22, and 312/6 = 52 So, Statement 2 alone is not sufficient. Even after using both the statements together, we cannot determine a unique 3-digit number. Hence, option (d) is correct.
70,For five children with ages a < b < c < d < e; any two successive ages differs by 2 years. Question: What is the age of the youngest child? Statement-1: The age of the eldest is 3 times the youngest. Statement-2: The average age of the children is 8 years Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?,a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statement alone.,b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.,c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statement together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.,d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.
70,b,Given: a < b < c < d < e Since, any two successive ages differ by 2 years, the ages can also be written as: a, a + 2, a + 4, a + 6, a + 8 Statement 1: The age of the eldest is 3 times the youngest. So, a + 8 = 3a Or 2a = 8 Or a = 4 So, Statement 1 alone is sufficient. Statement 2: The average age of the children is 8 years. (a + a + 2 + a + 4 + a + 6 + a + 8) / 5 = 8 Or (5a + 20) / 5 = 8 Or 5a + 20 = 40 Or 5a = 20 Or a = 4 So, Statement 2 alone is sufficient. Hence, option (b) is correct.
71,Passage-1: Scientist studied the vernal window – transition period from winter to the growing season. They found that warmer winters with less snow resulted in a longer lag time between spring events and a more protracted vernal window. This change in the spring timetable has ecological, social and economic consequences – for agriculture, fisheries and tourism. As the ice melts earlier, the birds don’t return, causing a delay, or lengthening in springtime ecological events. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Global warming is causing spring to come early and for longer durations. 2. Early spring and longer period of spring is not good for bird populations. Which of the above assumptions is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation –
The passage does not make any assumptions about global warming causing spring to come early and for longer durations. It only discusses the effects of warmer winters with less snow, not the cause of these conditions. Therefore, assumption 1 is incorrect.
Similarly, the passage does not explicitly state that early spring and longer periods of spring are not good for bird populations. It only mentions that birds do not return as early when ice melts earlier, causing a delay in springtime ecological events. This does not necessarily mean it is bad for the bird populations. Therefore, assumption 2 is also incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is (d) Neither 1 nor 2.
72,A global analysis of nitrogen use efficiency–measure of the amount of nitrogen a plant takes in to grow versus what is left behind as pollution–says that using too much fertilizers will lead to increased pollution of waterways and the air. Currently, the global average for nitrogen use efficiency is approximately 0.4, meaning 40 per cent of the total nitrogen added to cropland goes into the harvested crop while 60 per cent is lost to the environment, says a study. More than half of the world’s population is nourished by food grown with fertilizers containing synthetic nitrogen, which is needed to produce high crop yields. Plants take the nitrogen they need to grow, and the excess is left in the ground, water and air. This results in significant emissions of nitrous oxide, a potent greenhouse and ozone depleting gas, and other forms of nitrogen pollution, including eutrophication of lakes and rivers and contamination of river water. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message implied by the passage?,a) An enhanced efficiency of use of nitrogen is imperative for both food production and environment.,b) Production of synthetic nitrogen fertilizers cannot be stopped as it will adversely affect global food security.,c) Alternatives to crops that require excess of nitrogen should be identified and cultivated.,d) Conventional agriculture using synthetic fertilizers should be replaced with agroforestry, agro ecosystems and organic farming.
72,a,Option (a) is correct: The lines “Currently, the global average for nitrogen use efficiency is approximately 0.4, meaning 40 per cent of the total nitrogen added to cropland goes into the harvested crop while 60 per cent is lost to the environment, says a study….Plants take the nitrogen they need to grow, and the excess is left in the ground, water and air.” and “This results in significant emissions of nitrous oxide…and other forms of nitrogen pollution, … contamination of river water.” highlight the need of nitrogen for plant growth and the result of unused nitrogen on water and air. Thus, improving the nitrogen use efficiency can not only lead to better production but also to reduced pollution. Option (b) is incorrect: While the passage mentions, “more than half of the world’s population is nourished by food grown with fertilizers containing synthetic nitrogen”, it does not state that the production of synthetic nitrogen fertilizers cannot be stopped. Option (c) is incorrect: The question is asking us to identify the most logical, rational and crucial message implied by the passage, rather than an inference or solution. The passage only talks about nitrogen use efficiency and the impact of excess nitrogen on the environment. It does not go beyond this to suggest that we must identify and cultivate crops that require excess nitrogen. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Option (d) is incorrect: These alternatives may have their merits, but the passage only highlights the environmental consequences of excessive nitrogen use and pollution caused by synthetic nitrogen fertilizers. It does not explicitly advocate replacing conventional agriculture using synthetic fertilizers with specific alternatives such as agroforestry, agro ecosystems, and organic farming.
73,Along with sustainable lifestyles, climate justice is regarded as a significant principle in environmental parlance. Both the principles have bearings on political and economic choices of the nation. So far, in our climate change summits or compacts, both the principles have eluded consensus among nations. Justice, in the judicial sense, is well defined. However, in the context of climate change, it has scientific as well as socio-political connotations. The crucial question in the next few years will be how resources, technologies and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change. Justice in climate is not confined to actions relating to mitigation, but includes the wider notion of support for adaptation to climate change and compensation for loss and damage. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage?,a) Climate justice should be ingrained in detail in the rules of all the new climate compacts/agreements.,b) Environmental resources are unevenly distributed and exploited across the globe.,c) There is an impending issue of dealing with a huge number of climate change victims/climate refugees.,d) Climate changes in all its connotations are mostly due to developed countries and therefore their share of burden should be more.
73,a,Option (a) is correct: The line “The crucial question in the next few years will be how resources, technologies, and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change.” highlights the need for climate justice. To achieve it, it is imperative that climate justice is ingrained in detail in the rules of all the new climate compacts/agreements. Hence this option seems to be the logical, rational, and crucial message conveyed by the passage. Option (b) is incorrect: This statement goes beyond the scope of the passage, which primarily focuses on climate justice rather than the distribution and exploitation of environmental resources. Option (c) is incorrect: While the passage mentions the crucial question of how resources, technologies, and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change, it does not specifically address the impending issue of dealing with a huge number of climate change victims or climate refugees. Thus, this option is beyond the scope of the passage Option (d) is incorrect: Although the passage recommends compensation loss and damages, it does not mention that climate change is mostly due to developed countries or that their share of the burden should be more. Thus this option goes beyond the scope of the passage.
74,A principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded half-yearly with R% annual rate of Interest. If the same principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded annually with S% annual rate of interest, then which one of the following is correct?,a) R = S,b) R > S,c) R < S,d) R ≤ S
74,c,Principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded half-yearly with R% annual rate of interest. Principal = P, Amount = Q, Rate = R%, Time = 1 year Q = P [1 + R/(2×100)]2 Q/P = [1 + R/(2×100)]2 …………. (1) Principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded annually with S% annual rate of interest. Q = P [1 + S/(100)]1 Q/P = [1 + S/(100)]1 …………. (2) From equation (1) and equation (2), we get: [1 + R/(2×100)]2 = [1 + S/(100)]1 …………. (3) Let R = 20%. Putting the value of R = 20 in equation (3), we get: [1 + 20/(2×100)]2 = [1 + S/(100)]1 Or 1.21 = 1 + (S/100) Or S/100 = 1.21 – 1 = 0.21 Or S = 0.21 × 100 = 21% Thus, S > R. Hence, option (c) is correct.
75,How many natural numbers are there which given a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by these natural numbers?,a) 6,b) 7,c) 8,d) 9
The remainder when a number is divided by another number is the difference between the dividend and the largest multiple of the divisor that is less than or equal to the dividend.
In this case, we are given that the
remainder is 31 when 1186 is divided by a certain number.
This means that the number we are looking for must be a divisor of (1186 – 31) = 1155.
The divisors of 1155 are 1, 3, 5, 7, 11, 15, 21, 33, 35, 55, 77, 105, 165, 231, 385, 1155.
However, since the remainder is 31, the divisor must be greater than 31.
So, the possible numbers are 33, 35, 55, 77, 105, 165, 231, 385, 1155.
Hence, there are 9 such natural numbers. So, the correct answer is (d) 9.
76,Let pp, qq and rr be 2 digit numbers where p < q < r. If pp + qq + rr =tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero, consider the following statements: 1. The number of possible values of p is 5. 2. The number of possible values of q is 6 Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
76,c,tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero, such that pp + qq + rr = tt0 As pp, qq, and rr are 2-digit numbers, the value of tt0 can be either 110 or 220. Thus, we get: If tt0 = 110 pp + qq + rr = 110 or (10p + p) + (10q + q) + (10r + r) = 110 or 11p + 11q + 11r = 110 or p + q + r = 10 ……. (1) If tt0 = 220 pp + qq + rr = 220 or (10p + p) + (10q + q) + (10r + r) = 220 or 11p + 11q + 11r = 220 or p + q + r = 20 ……. (2) Statement 1: As p < q < r, the possible value of p in equation (1) can be 1 and 2. As p < q < r, the possible value of p in equation (2) can be 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Hence, the number of possible values of p is 5. Thus, Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2: As p < q < r, the possible value of q in equation (1) can be 2, 3 and 4. As p < q < r, the possible value of q in equation (2) can be 6, 7 and 8. Hence, the number of possible values of q is 6. Thus, Statement 2 is correct. Hence, option (c) is correct.
77,What is the sum of all 4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, where none of the digits is repeated?,a) 7998,b) 8028,c) 8878,d) 9238
77,a,4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, where none of the digits is repeated are: 1234, 1243, 1324, 1342, 1423, 1432 Required sum = 1234 + 1243 + 1324 + 1342 + 1423 + 1432 = 7998 Hence, option (a) is correct.
78,What is the number of selections of 10 consecutive things out of 12 things in a circle taken in the clockwise direction?,a) 3,b) 11,c) 12,d) 66
78,c,Let 12 consecutive things in the circle be x1, x2, x3, …….. x12. We need to select 10 consecutive things out of these 12 things in the circle taken in the clockwise direction. This selection can be made as follows: (x1 to x10), (x2 to x11), (x3 to x12), (x4 to x1), (x5 to x2), (x6 to x3), (x7 to x4), (x8 to x5), (x9 to x6), (x10 to x7), (x11 to x8), (x12 to x9) So, there are 12 possible ways to do so. Hence, option (c) is correct.
79,If today is Sunday, then which day is it exactly on 1010 th day?,a) Wednesday,b) Thursday,c) Friday,d) Saturday
79,b,1010 = 10000000000 Number of odd days in 1010 = Remainder [10000000000/7] = 4 If today is Sunday, then 1010 th day from now will be 4 days after Sunday, i.e. Thursday. Hence, option (b) is correct.
80,There are three traffic signals. Each signal changes colour from green to red and then from red to green. The first signal takes 25 seconds, the second signal takes 39 seconds and the third signal takes 60 seconds to change the colour from green to red. The durations for green and red colours are same. At 2:00 p.m, they together turn green. At what time will they change to green next, Simultaneously?,(a) 4:00 p.m.,(b) 4:10 p.m.,(c) 4:20 p.m.,(d) 4:30 p.m.
80,b,The three traffic signals turn from green to red at an interval of 25 seconds, 39 seconds and 60 seconds. So, the time after which all the three traffic signals will turn red from green together = LCM of 25 Seconds, 39 seconds and 60 seconds = 3900 seconds = 65 minutes = 1 hour 5 minutes Now, durations for green and red colours are same. So, the time after which all the three traffic signals will turn green from red together = 1 hour 5 minutes So, the total time taken by all the three traffic signals to turn green together = 1 hour 5 minutes + 1 hour 5 minutes = 2 hours 10 minutes Thus, the time after which all the three traffic signals will simultaneously change to green again = 2:00 p.m. + 2 hours 10 minutes = 4:10 p.m. Hence, option (b) is correct.
1,Unsustainability in production pattern is due to which of the following? 1. Heavy dependence on fossil fuels 2. Limited availability of resources 3. Expansion of recycling Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3
1,a,”Statement 1 is correct: The passage directly mentions, “the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels.” Therefore, heavy dependence on fossil fuels is a reason, as per the author, for the unsustainability of production patterns. Statement 2 is correct: Again, the author directly states, “the increasingly evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels. We now know that this is unsustainable because the resources are finite. “. Therefore, this statement is correct as well. Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage states that “Some developed countries have begun to alleviate the worst effects by expanding recycling”. This means that some countries are trying to reduce the effects of unsustainable production via recycling and other methods. Therefore, recycling would reduce the unsustainability in production patterns rather than aggravate it.”
2,Consider the following statements: Developed countries can support developing countries’ transition to sustainable human development by: 1. making clean energy sources available at low cost 2. providing loans for improving their public transport at nominal interest rates 3. encouraging them to change their production and consumption patterns Which of the statements given above is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 1 and 2 only,c) 2 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3
2,B”,”Statement 1 is correct: The author mentions high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Immediately after that, he states that “Developed countries need to support developing countries’ transition to sustainable human development”. Therefore, the first statement is correct and it directly follows the assertion made. Explanation for Statement 2: Whether this statement is correct or incorrect depends upon whether we opt for a narrow or broader interpretation of the passage. The passage mentions, “But most developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources.” Therefore, it seems that the author is only focusing on issues related to high costs and low availability of clean energy sources as hindrances for developed countries in transitioning towards sustainable human development. However, (taking a broader view) the question does mention “can”- and providing loans for improving their public transport at nominal interest rates is certainly one way where developed countries can help developing countries especially to alleviate the worst effects of unsustainable development. Explanation for Statement 3: Likewise, this statement would be incorrect if we take a narrow interpretation of the passage, as it specifically mentions high costs and low availability of clean energy sources as hindrances for developed countries in transitioning towards sustainable human development. But again, the question states “can” and encouragement (via finance etc.) to change production and consumption patterns is certainly an area where developed countries could support the developing”
3,According to the passage given above, deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to which of the following? 1. Depletion of soil resource 2. Shortage of land for the common man 3. Lack of water for cultivation Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3
3,c,”Statement 1 is correct: The passage mentions, “The desert countries of the world and our own desert areas in Rajasthan are a grim reminder of the consequences of largescale deforestation. Pockets of desert-like landscape are now appearing in other parts of the country including the Sutlej-Ganga Plains and Deccan Plateau. Where only a few decades back there used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season.”. This supports the assertion of the author that deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to the depletion of soil resources. Statement 2 is incorrect: This statement goes beyond the scope of the passage. The passage nowhere mentions anything related to the common man. Statement 3 is correct: This is supported by the part in the passage which mentions, “the harshness of the climatic conditions” and “Where only a few decades back there used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season”.”
4,What is the value of x in the sequence 20, 10, 10, 15, 30, 75, X?,a) 105,b) 120,c) 150,d) 225
4,d,”The given series is: 20, 10, 10, 15, 30, 75, X? The terms are decreasing in the initial half, and then they start increasing. The speed at which they increase at the latter half suggest that multiplication may be involved. The pattern is as follows: 20 × 0.5 = 10 10 × 1 = 10 10 × 1.5 = 15 15 × 2 = 30 30 × 2.5 = 75 75 × 3 = 225”
5,An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by 6. After deleting two digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. After deleting three digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 4. After deleting four digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 2. Which of the following is a possible value for the sum of the middle three digits of the number?,a) 8,b) 9,c) 11,d) 12
5,a,”The number has 7 digits, and has been denoted by: ABCDEFG These letters can be replaced by 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, not necessarily in the same order. We have to find the possible value of C + D + E The original number (ABCDEFG) is divisible by 9. It has to be as 1 + 2 + 4 + 5 + 7 + 8 + 9 = 36, which is divisible by 9. This information is utterly useless. After deleting 1 digit from the right, the resulting number (ABCDEF) is divisible by 6. It means that, F = 2, 4 or 8 (i.e. an even number). Also, if even after removing G, the remaining number is divisible by 3, then it means G = 9. After deleting 3 digits from the right, the resulting number (ABCD) is divisible by 4. But it may be useful if we want to know the entire number. The only odd number remaining is 7. So, A = 7. So, the ABC is actually 7B1. B can be 4 or 8. But for 7B1 to be divisible by 3, B must be 4. So, F = 8. So, the seven-digit number is 7412589.”
6,Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and reach a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns left and runs 40 m. Then X turns left and runs 50 m and stops, while Y turns right and runs 50 m and then stops. How far are the two friends from each other now?,a) 100 m,b) 90 m,c) 60 m,d) 50 m
6,a,”The path taken by them has been represented below: It’s pretty clear that they are 40 + 60 = 100 m apart at the end of their run.”
7,Which date of June 2099 among the following is Sunday?,a) 4,b) 5,c) 6,d) 7
7,d,”We know that 1st January, 2001 was a Monday. (Just like 1st January, 1601, or 1st January, 1201, i.e. every 400 years). In 100 years from 1st January, 2001 to 31st December, 2100, there will be 24 leap years (as 2100 is not a leap year). So, the number of odd days from 1st January, 2001 to 31st December, 2100 = (24 × 2) + 76 = 48 + 76 = 124 = 5 odd days. (every leap year has 2 odd days, and every non-leap year has 1 odd day) So, the day on 1st January, 2101 must be Monday + 5 = Saturday. So, the day on 1st January, 2100 must be Saturday – 1 = Friday (there is 1 odd day in any non-leap year) So, the day on 1st January, 2099 must be Friday – 1 = Thursday (there is 1 odd day in any non-leap year) The number of odd days in the year 2099 are: January – 3; February – 0; March – 3; April – 2; May – 3; So, the number of odd days from 1st January, 2099 to 31st May, 2099 = 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 = 11 = 4 So, the day on 1st June, 2099 must be Thursday + 4 = Monday So, the first Sunday in the month of June, 2099 will fall on 7th.”
8,A bill for Rs 1,840 is paid in the denominations of Rs 50, Rs 20 and Rs 10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements: 1. 25 notes of Rs 50 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs 20 and Rs10. 2. 35 notes of Rs20 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs50 and Rs10. 3. 20 notes of 10 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of 50 and 20. Which of the above statements are not correct?,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3
8,d,”Total amount = Rs. 1840 Let the number of Rs. 50, Rs. 20, and Rs. 10 notes be a, b and c respectively. Now, let’s check the statements. Statement 1: 25 notes of Rs. 50 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (25 × 50) = 1840 – 1250 = Rs. 590. Even if all the remaining 25 notes are of Rs. 20 denomination, we will only get Rs. 500. So, Statement 1 is definitely incorrect. Statement 2: 35 notes of Rs. 20 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (35 × 20) = 1840 – 700 = Rs. 1140. Even if all the remaining 15 notes are of Rs. 50 denomination, we will only get Rs. 750. So, Statement 2 is definitely incorrect. Statement 3: 20 notes of Rs. 10 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (20 × 10) = 1840 – 200 = Rs. 1640. Even if all the remaining 30 notes are of Rs. 50 denomination, we will only get Rs. 1500. So, Statement 3 is definitely incorrect.”
9,Which number amongst 2^40, 3^21, 4^18 and 8^12 is the smallest?,a) 2^40,b) 3^21,c) 4^18,d) 8^12
9,b,”The given numbers are: 2 40 3 21 , 4 18, and 8 12 . We can also write them as 2 40 , 3 21 , 2 36, and 2 36. (as 4 = 2 2 , and 8 = 2 3 ) So, we basically need to find the smallest one from among 2 36., and 3 21. As we cannot have two correct answers, it must be 3 21 . Note: Sometimes, in Aptitude exams you need not even solve the entire question. This saves you some extra seconds and it eventually makes all the difference. But if you are a typical maths student, this incomplete answer may cause you to feel a mild Zeigarnik effect. So, here’s the rest of the solution: We can rewrite 2 40 and 3 21 as: 212 and 37 4096 > 2187 Hence, 3 21 is the smallest number.”
10,The digits 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first row; and the number formed in the third row is thrice the number formed in the first row, Repetition of digits is not allowed. If only three of the four digits 2, 3, 7 and 9 are allowed to use in the first row, how many such combinations are possible to be arranged in the three rows?,a) 4,b) 3,c) 2,d) 1
10,c,Correct,”We can only use three of the four digits – 2, 3, 7, and 9, in the first row. The first digit in the first row cannot be 7 or 9, as otherwise thrice the number will not be a three-digit number. So, the first digit in the first row can either be 2, or 3. The possible cases are: 237, 273, 239, 293, 279, 297, 327, 372, 329, 392, 379, or 397. On eliminating the numbers whose 3x is not a three-digit number, we are left with: 237, 273, 239, 293, 279, 297, 327, and 329. We will check these numbers: 237 × 2 =474 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 273 × 2 = 546; 273 × 3 = 819 239 × 2 = 478; 239 × 3 = 717 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 293 × 2 = 586; 293 × 3 = 879 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 279 × 2 = 558 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 297 × 2 = 594 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) 327 × 2 = 654; 327 × 3 = 981 329× 2 = 658; 329× 3 = 987 (digit repetition, and so eliminated) So, only two cases are possible.”
11,Which one of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?,a) We assume that in a democracy, any politician is qualified to administer a State.,b) Politicians should be selected from those trained in administration.,c) We need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office.,d) As voters select their administrators, the eligibility of politicians to administer a State cannot be questioned.
c
12,Why is the methodology adopted in India to count the poor’ debatable?,a) There is some confusion regarding what should constitute the poverty line’.,b) There are wide diversities in the condition of the rural and urban poor.,c) There is no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty.,d) (b) It is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.
12,d,Correct,”Option (a) is incorrect: There is no “confusion” regarding the methodology or classification- the author does not mention anything as a confusion. (S)he only states that the current methods of estimating poverty are narrow, i.e. inadequate. (S)he tries to convey that poverty goes beyond income and purchasing power- it is about restricted choices and lack of real opportunity. Option (b) is incorrect: The assertion made in this option goes beyond the scope of the passage. In fact, there is no talk of the rural or urban poor in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: This option also goes beyond the scope of the passage. No line in the passage leads to the assumption that “There is no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty.” Option (d) is correct: This is the main message being stressed by the author, who explains through the various lines of the passage that measuring poverty through the lens of income or purchasing power (buying capacity) is only a narrow way of looking at poverty. We must look at other factors that restrict choices and opportunities for individuals, income being just one part of it. Various lines in the passage indicate the same- For example, “extremely narrow definition of ‘who is poor’ and the debatable methodology used to count the poor, but also because of a more fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power.””
13,Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the poor’?,a) It talks of only one kind of deprivation ignoring all others.,b) Other deprivations in a human life have nothing to do with lack of purchasing power.,c) Income poverty is not a permanent condition, it changes from time to time.,d) Income poverty restricts human choices only at a point of time.
13,a,Correct,”Option (a) is correct: This option follows from the lines, “income poverty. If poverty is ultimately about deprivations affecting human well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it.” The author, in the passage, later goes on to describe poverty, in the true sense, stems from a “lack of real opportunity given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances–to choose other types of living.” Option (b) is incorrect: This option is rather extreme and goes beyond the scope of the passage. Nothing in the passage talks about the factors affecting the purchasing power of a person. Option (c) is incorrect: This option is beyond the scope of the passage. There is no mention in the passage of income being a temporary or permanent condition. Option (d) is incorrect as the passage does not lay out a time consideration (i.e. when does income poverty affect human choices by restricting them- whether only at a point of time or always, till such poverty exists) anywhere while suggesting how income poverty affects or restricts human choices.”
14,What does the author mean by ‘poverty of a life’?,a) All deprivations in a human life which stem not only from lack of income but lack of real opportunities,b) Impoverished state of poor people in rural and urban areas,c) Missed opportunities in diverse personal circumstances,d) Material as well as non-material deprivations in a human life which restrict human choices permanently
14,a,Correct,”Option (a) is correct: This option is the best answer. Although the phrase, “all deprivations” might seem extreme, the author does make a case for deprivations stemming from lack of choices (real opportunities), rather than solely income. Option (b) is incorrect: The option goes beyond the scope of the passage as there is no mention of rural versus urban poor in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect: The option also goes beyond the scope of the passage. There is no mention of diverse personal circumstances and missed opportunities therein. The author refers to the lack of opportunities rather than missed ones. Option (d) is incorrect: This option states, ‘restricting human choices permanently’. This cannot be assumed. (In fact, the very purpose of discussing poverty and poverty estimations is the hope of reversing the condition of lack of choices and opportunities). So, the use of the phrase ‘permanently’ is incorrect here. No deprivation, material or non-material, restricts choice permanently. In fact, there are many rags to riches stories in the world to deny this.”
15, X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)?,a) 2,b) 3,c) 4,d) 5
15,b,Correct,”The faster runner will cross the slower one when he covers an extra 300 m. Let their speeds be 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec. So, their relative speed = 3 – 2 = 1 m/sec So, the time taken by the faster runner to cross the slower one = Distance/Relative Speed = 300/1 = 300 seconds It basically means that the faster runner will cross the slower one every 300 seconds, or 5 minutes. Now, the time taken for the faster racer to complete the entire race = Total Distance/Speed = 3000/3 = 1000 seconds. So, the faster racer will cross the slower one 3 times during the entire race – after 300 seconds, 600 seconds, and 900 seconds.”
16, If the order of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed and each letter represents the letter whose position it occupies, then which one of the following represents LUCKNOW?,a) OGXPMLD,b) OGXQMLE,c) OFXPMLE,d) OFXPMLD
16,d,Correct,”We basically need to find the opposite letter of the letters in the given word. Opposite Letter Position = 27 – Letter Position So, in case of LUCKNOW, we get: 27 – 12 = 15 = O 27 – 21 = 6 = F 27 – 3 = 24 = X 27 – 11 = 16 = P 27 – 14 = 13 = M 27 – 15 = 12 = L 27 – 23 = 4 = D The word that we get is OFXPMLD.”
17, In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament?,a) 151,b) 150,c) 149,d) 148
17,c,Correct,”The tournament starts with 150 players. After first round (in which 75 matches are held): 75 players are eliminated, and 75 remain. After second round (in which 37 matches are held): 37 players are eliminated, and 38 remain. After third round (in which 19 matches are held): 19 players are eliminated, and 19 remain. After fourth round (in which 9 matches are held): 9 players are eliminated, and 10 remain. After fifth round (in which 5 matches are held): 5 players are eliminated, and 5 remain. After sixth round (in which 2 matches are held): 2 players are eliminated, and 3 remain. After seventh round (in which 1 match is held): 1 player is eliminated, and 2 remain. After eighth round (in which 1 match is held): 1 player is eliminated, and 1 remain. So, total number of matches = 75 + 37 + 19 + 9 + 5 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 149”
18, How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and the number is divisible by 5?,a) 8,b) 12,c) 16,d) 24
18,b,Correct,”We need to find three-digit numbers in which: * All digits are different, and all digits are odd. So, the three digits must be from amongst 1, 3, 5, 7, and 9. * The number is divisible by 5, i.e. the units digit is 5. The number of ways we can fill the first two digits from amongst 4 distinct digits = 4 × 3 = 12.”
19, Consider the Question Statements given below: Question : Is x an integer? Statement-1 : x/3 is not an integer. Statement-2 : 3x is an integer. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement and statement-2 are sufficient to answer the question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the question
Correct Answer: d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
Is x an integer?
To determine whether x is an integer, we have two statements:
Statement-1: x/3 is not an integer.
Statement-2: 3x is an integer.
Let’s consider each statement separately:
Statement-1: x/3 is not an integer.
This statement tells us that x cannot be evenly divided by 3, but it does not give us any information about whether x is an integer or not. For example, x could be 2/3, which is not an integer, but it could also be 4, which is an integer. Therefore, Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement-2: 3x is an integer.
This statement tells us that 3x can be divided evenly by an integer, which means x could be an integer or a fraction that is a multiple of 1/3. For example, if 3x = 6, then x = 2, which is an integer. However, if 3x = 2, then x = 2/3, which is not an integer. Therefore, Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Since neither statement alone is sufficient to answer the question, we need to consider both statements together. We know from Statement-1 that x cannot be evenly divided by 3, and from Statement-2, we know that 3x is an integer. Combining these two statements, we can conclude that x must be a fraction that is a multiple of 1/3. For example, if 3x = 6, then x = 2, which is an integer. But if 3x = 2, then x = 2/3, which is not an integer. Therefore, both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.
The correct answer is (d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.
20, The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%. Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in the price?,a) 5%,b) 10%,c) 12.5%,d) 15%
20,b,Correct,”Let the initial price be Rs. 100. After 25% rise, the new price = 100 + 25% of 100 = Rs. 125 After 20% fall, the new price = 125 – 20% of 125 = Rs. 100 After 10% rise, the new price = 100 + 10% of 100 = Rs. 110 So, resultant percentage increase in price = 10%”
21, Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Development of agricultural technology is confined to developed countries. 2. Agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
21,d,Correct,”Assumption 1 is invalid: The passage mentions, “Application of technology…Americas”. This does not mean that technological development in agriculture is confined to the West. Focus on the use of the word “much” here. From this, we can infer that the West holds a major share of technological development in agriculture, but it does not imply “no technological development (of agriculture) in the developed countries”. (Here, we can assume the West/ Americas synonymous with the developed world, as the author makes a contrast with developing countries in later lines- “In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification, extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today’s agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity.”) Assumption 2 is invalid: The author only makes a caution about blindly copying and deploying the technologies of the West with respect to their suitability in different climatic regions of the Tropics. He makes a case, instead, for investing in more achievable things such as optimal fertilizer application and better infrastructure. However, this does not imply that agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries at all. Also, this assumption does not state agricultural technology developed in the western world- It refers to agricultural technology in general.”
22, Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Poor countries need to bring about change in their existing farming techniques. 2. Developed countries have better infrastructure and they waste less food. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
22,a,Partially correct,”Assumption 1 is correct: The passage indeed emphasizes the need to adapt agricultural practices, including the latest advances, to improve farming techniques. However, it does not explicitly mention poor countries or developed countries; rather, it discusses the developing world. Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage does not discuss infrastructure or food wastage in developed countries. The comparison made in the passage is between developed and developing countries regarding agricultural technology.”,
23, Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge. 2. Corporate farming is a viable option for food security in poor countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
23,d,Incorrect,”Assumption 1 is incorrect: The passage discusses the problem of agricultural practices and suggests solutions, but it does not explicitly state that ensuring food for future generations would be a challenge. Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about corporate farming.”,
24, The letters A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E. How many such arrangements are possible?,a) 12,b) 18,c) 24,d) 36
Correct Answer: c. 24
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
Letters A B C D and E are arranged
The problem asks for the number of arrangements of the letters A, B, C, D and E such that there are exactly two letters between A and E. There are four possible arrangements for A and E: A _ _ E _, _ A _ _ E, E _ _ A _, and _ E _ _ A. For each of these arrangements, there are 3! = 6 ways to arrange the remaining letters B, C and D. So the total number of arrangements is 4 * 6 = 24.
25, Consider the question Statements given below: Question :is Z brother of X? Statement-1 : X in a brother of Y and Y is a brother of Z. Statement-2 : X, Y and Z are siblings. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement and statement-2 are sufficient to answer the question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the question
25,d,Correct,”The explanation correctly analyzes each statement and concludes that even when combined, they do not provide enough information to determine the gender of Z.”,
26, On one side of a 1.01 km long road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other. What the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?,a) 40,b) 40.4 m,c) 50 m,d) 50.5 mm
26,b,Correct,”The explanation correctly calculates the required distance based on the given information.”,
27, A, B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B to C and three different roads from A to C. In how many different ways can one travel from A to C using these roads?,a) 10,b) 13,c) 15,d) 36
27,c,Correct,”The explanation correctly calculates the total number of ways to go from A to C via B based on the principle of multiplication.”,
28, A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B. B gives half of the coins and 2 more to C. C gives half of the coins and 2 more to D. The number of coins D has now, is the smallest two digit number. How many coins does A have in the beginning?,a) 76,b) 68,c) 60,d) 52
28,d,Correct,”The explanation correctly calculates the initial number of coins A had based on the given information.”,
29, In the series AABABCABCDABCDE… which letter appears at the 100th place?,a) G,b) H,c) I,d) J
Given Series = A (1 Letter) AB (2 Letters) ABC (3 Letters) ABCD (4 Letters) ABCDE (5 Letters) …… so on up to 100th letter.
Sum of first 13 natural numbers = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 ….. 13 = n(n+1)/2 = 13×14/2 = 91.
So, if we have to count upto 100th letter, in the last string (100 – 91) = 9 letters would be there.
Which would be – ABCDEFGHI.
So I is the correct answer.
30, Three persons A, B and C are standing in a queue not necessarily in the same order. There are 4 persons between A and B, and 7 persons between B and C. If there are 11 persons ahead of C and 13 behind A, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue?,a) 22,b) 28,c) 32,d) 38
30,a,Correct,”The explanation correctly analyzes the cases and determines the minimum possible number of people in the queue based on the given information.”,
31, According to the passage, natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth as 1. species not fully prepared to face the environmental changes that await them will face extinction 2. all the existing species would get extinct as their genomes will not withstand biological mishaps 3. inability of the genome to withstand environmental changes would result in extinction 4. extinction of species is a common feature Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1, 2 and 3,b) 2, 3 and 4,c) 1, 3 and 4,d) 1, 2 and 4
31,c,Partially correct,”Statement 1 is correct: It aligns with the passage’s discussion on natural selection and species extinction. Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that all existing species are at risk of extinction; it specifically mentions those unable to adapt. Statement 3 is correct: It aligns with the passage’s discussion on genetic factors contributing to extinction. Statement 4 is correct: It aligns with the passage’s statement on extinction being a major feature of biological evolution. However, the passage’s statement regarding the survival of some species implies that not all existing species are at risk of extinction, contrary to what Statement 2 suggests.”
32, The passage suggests that Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because a) it does not satisfy the creationist doctrine b) extinction is a function of environment and biological assaults c) there are no evidences to refute it d) existence of organisms is attributed to a creator
32,c,Correct,”Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not aim to undermine the validity of the creationist doctrine; it simply explains the mechanism of evolution. Option (b) is incorrect: While extinction is discussed in the passage, it is not presented as the reason why the Darwinian theory is not a theory. Option (c) is correct: The passage establishes that the Darwinian theory of evolution is supported by scientific data and has not been refuted, enhancing its credibility. Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does suggest that creationist doctrines fail to explain evolution, but it does not specifically state that they fail to explain the existence of organisms.”,
33, With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. Only species that have the ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate. 2. More than 90% of the species on the earth are in the danger of getting extinct due to drastic changes in the environment. 3. Darwin’s theory explains all the natural phenomena. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?,a) 1 only,b) 1 and 2 only,c) 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3
33,a,Correct,”Statement 1 is correct: It aligns with the passage’s discussion on extinction driven by non-adaptation to environmental challenges. Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not predict future extinction probabilities; it only discusses past extinction rates. Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that Darwin’s theory explains all natural phenomena; it specifically discusses its applicability to evolution.”,
34, Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?,a) People should be persuaded to continue with the mainly Indian traditional cereal-based diets.,b) India needs to focus on developing agricultural productivity and capacity for more energy generation in the coming years.,c) Modern technological developments result in the change of cultural and social behavior of the people.,d) Water management practices in India need to change dramatically in the coming years.
34,d,Correct,”Option (d) is the best choice as it reflects the primary concern highlighted in the passage regarding the dramatic increase in water consumption associated with modern dietary patterns.”,
35, How many seconds in total are there in x weeks, x days, x hours, x minutes and X seconds?,a) 11580x,b) 11581x,c) 694860x,d) 694861x
35,d,Correct,”The explanation correctly converts the time units and calculates the total time in seconds based on the given information.”,
36, P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. R is the spouse of Q. U is the mother of T and S is the daughter of U. P’s daughter is T and R’s son is P. There are two couples in the family. Which one of the following is correct?,a) Q is the grandfather of T,b) Q is the grandmother of T,c) R is the mother of P,d) T is the granddaughter of Q
36,d,Correct,”The family tree correctly identifies T as the granddaughter of Q based on the given information.”,
37, Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of three cities P, Q and R in a State : Question: How far is city P from city Q? Statement-1: City Q is 18 km from city R. Statement-2 : City P is 43 km from city R. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
37,d,Incorrect,”As we do not know the respective positions of P and Q, we cannot find the distance between them, even after using the information in both the statements.”,
38, Two Statements followed by four Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows/ follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts : Statement-1: All pens are books. Statement-2 :No chair is a pen. Conclusion-I : All chairs are books. Conclusion-II : Some chairs are pens. Conclusion-III : All books are chairs. Conclusion-IV : No chair is a book. Which one of the following is correct?,a) Only Conclusion-I,b) Only Conclusion-II,c) Both Conclusion-III and Conclusion-IV,d) None of the Conclusions follows
38,d,Incorrect,”The possible Venn diagrams do not support any of the conclusions.”,
39, Three Statements followed by three Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows/ follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts: Statement-1 : Some doctors are teachers. Statement-2 : All teachers are engineers. Statement-3 : All engineers are scientists. Conclusion-1 : Some scientists are doctors. Conclusion-II : All engineers are doctors. Conclusion-III : Some engineers are doctors. Which one of the following is correct?,a) Only Conclusion-I,b) Only Conclusion-II,c) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-III,d) Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
39,c,Correct,”The possible Venn diagrams support conclusions I and III.”,
40, Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the centre of the table, not necessarily in the same order. B and D sit neither adjacent to C nor opposite to C. A sits in between E and D, and F sits in between B and H. Which one of the following is definitely correct?,a) B sits in between A and G,b) C sits opposite to G,c) E sits opposite to F,d) None of the above
40,d,Incorrect,”None of the given options are definitely correct based on the possible circular arrangements depicted.”,
41, The passage is based on the idea that,a) man should not work hard,b) the great evil of our age is overstrain,c) man cannot think well,d) man cannot care for his spiritual welfare
41,b,Correct,”Option (b) correctly identifies the central idea of the passage, which highlights the issue of overstrained labor and limited leisure time for spiritual and intellectual pursuits.”,
42, Man does not seek self-improvement because he,a) is not intellectually capable,b) has no time to do so,c) is distracted by materialism,d) loves amusement and is mentally idle
D.
43, Which of the following would invariably happen in a country, when the demographic dividend has begun to operate? 1. The number of illiterate people will decrease. 2. The ratio of very old and very young will decrease for a while. 3. Population growth rate will quickly stabilize. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3
43,b,Correct,”Statement 2 correctly identifies the relationship between demographic dividend and the ratio of very young and very old populations, as discussed in the passage.”,
44, With reference to the passage, which of the following inferences can be drawn? 1. Demographic dividend is an essential condition for a country to rapidly increase its economic growth rate. 2. Promotion of higher education is an essential condition for a country for its rapid economic growth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
44,d,Incorrect,”Both statements are incorrect. The passage discusses the advantages of demographic dividend and the importance of education for economic growth but does not explicitly state that demographic dividend or higher education is essential for economic growth.”,
45, Five friends P, Q, X, Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below: 1. Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X did. 2. P and Q together purchased 21 notebooks. 3. Q purchased 5 notebooks less than P did. 4. X and Y together purchased 28 notebooks. 5. P purchased 5 notebooks more than X did. If each notebook is priced 40, then what is the total cost of all the notebooks?,a) 2,600,b) 2,400,c) 2,360,d) 2,320
45,a,Correct,”The solution correctly calculates the total cost of all the notebooks based on the given information.”,
46, A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is,a) 10 minutes slow,b) 5 minutes slow,c) 10 minutes fast,d) 5 minutes fast
46,d,Correct,”The solution accurately calculates the actual time based on the given information about the man’s travel time and the difference between the village clock and the actual time.”,
47, A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F. What is the minimum number of pens X should buy so that the number of pens each one gets is an even number?,a) 147,b) 150,c) 294,d) 300
Correct Answer: c. 294
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
Person X wants to distribute some pens.
Let the number of pens received by B, C, D, E, and F be represented by b, c, d, e, and f respectively. According to the problem, A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E, and six times that of F. We can write these relationships as:
A = 2b
A = 3c
A = 4d
A = 5e
A = 6f
Now, we want to find the minimum number of pens X should buy so that each child gets an even number of pens. To do this, we can find the least common multiple (LCM) of 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. The LCM is the smallest number that is a multiple of all these numbers.
LCM(2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60
So, A must receive at least 60 pens to satisfy the conditions.
Using the relationships above, we can find the number of pens for each child:
A = 60
B = A/2 = 60/2 = 30
C = A/3 = 60/3 = 20
D = A/4 = 60/4 = 15
E = A/5 = 60/5 = 12
F = A/6 = 60/6 = 10
However, we need to make sure that all the children receive an even number of pens. The only odd number of pens is given to D, so we must adjust the number of pens for A to make sure D also gets an even number of pens.
If we increase A to 120 pens (the next multiple of 60), we can calculate the new numbers of pens for each child:
A = 120
B = A/2 = 120/2 = 60
C = A/3 = 120/3 = 40
D = A/4 = 120/4 = 30
E = A/5 = 120/5 = 24
F = A/6 = 120/6 = 20
Now all the children have an even number of pens. The minimum number of pens X should buy is:
Total pens = A + B + C + D + E + F
Total pens = 120 + 60 + 40 + 30 + 24 + 20
Total pens = 294
So, the correct answer is c. 294.
48, Consider the Question and two Statements given below: Question: Who is sitting on the immediate left of A? Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E. Statement-2 : F is sitting on the immediate left of B. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
orrect Answer: d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
To determine who is sitting on the immediate left of A, we need to analyze the given statements.
Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E.
From this statement, we can deduce the following seating arrangement (clockwise):
B is opposite to C.
D is opposite to E.
However, this statement does not provide any information about the position of A or who is sitting on the immediate left of A. So, Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement-2: F is sitting on the immediate left of B.
This statement gives us information about the position of F in relation to B, but it does not provide any information about the position of A. So, Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Combining Statement-1 and Statement-2:
We know the following:
B is opposite to C.
D is opposite to E.
F is sitting on the immediate left of B.
However, even after combining both statements, we still do not have enough information to determine who is sitting on the immediate left of A.
Thus, the correct answer is:
d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.
49, Consider the Question and Statements given below : Question: What is the age Manisha? Statement-1 : Manisha is 24 years younger than her mother. Statement-2 : 5 years later, the ages of Manisha and her mother will be in the ratio 3: 5. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
49,c,Correct,”Both statements together are sufficient to determine Manisha’s current age. The solution correctly uses both statements to find Manisha’s age.”,
50, Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. Consider the Question and two Statements given below: Question: Which lecture is in the third period? Statement-1: Lecture F is preceded by A and followed by C. Statement-2 : There is no lecture after lecture B. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?,a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question,b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question,c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question,d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
50,d,Correct,”Neither statement alone is sufficient to determine the order of lectures. Even together, the statements do not provide enough information to determine the order.”,
In an economic organization, allowing
mankind to benefit by the productivity of
machines should lead to a very good life of
leisure, and much leisure is apt to be tedious
except to those who have intelligent activities
and interests. If a leisured population is to be
happy, it must be an educated population,
and must be educated with a view to
enjoyment as well as to the direct usefulness
of technical knowledge.
51. Which of the following statements best
reflects the underlying tone of the passage?
a) Only an educated population can best
make use of the benefits of economic
progress.
b) All economic development should be
aimed at the creation of leisure.
c) An increase in the educated
population of a country leads to an
increase in the happiness of its
people.
d) Use of machines should be
encouraged in order to create a large
leisured population.
51,a,Correct,”Option (a) is the most appropriate choice despite being extreme because it aligns with the author’s discussion on the advantages of an educated population for utilizing leisure time effectively.”,
52, With reference to the passage, which one of the following statements is correct?,a) It is not possible for adults to feel thrilled by presents.,b) There can be more than one reason why adults feel less thrilled by presents.,c) The author does not know why adults feel less thrilled by presents.,d) Adults have less capacity to feel the joy of loving or being loved.
52,b,Correct,”Option (b) correctly identifies the reasons why adults may feel less thrilled by presents, aligning with the author’s arguments presented in the passage.”,
53, The author of the passage is against,a) worrying too much about the past and future,b) being in the habit of thinking about presents,c) not being thrilled by new things,d) giving and receiving joy only partially
53,a,Correct,”Option (a) accurately reflects the author’s emphasis on living in the present and not worrying too much about the past or future, which is evident in the passage.”,
54, Let A, B and C represent distinct non zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetition. Consider the following statements: 1. The 4-digit least value of x is 1332. 2. The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888. Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: a. 1 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
Sum of all 3-digit numbers formed by distinct non-zero digits (A, B, C)
Let’s consider all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetition: ABC, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB and CBA. The sum of these numbers is x = ABC + ACB + BAC + BCA + CAB + CBA.
We can rewrite x as: x = 100A + 10B + C + 100A + 10C + B + 100B + 10A + C + 100B+10C+A+100C+10A+B+100C+10B+A.
By grouping the terms we get: x = (222)(A+B+C). Since A,B,C are distinct non-zero digits the minimum value for A+B+C is when A=1,B=2,C=3 so the minimum value for x is (222)(1+2+3)=1332. Therefore statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888: False, as the least value of x is 1332.
55, There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN with certainty?,a) 6,b) 8,c) 10,d) 12
Numeric Lock 3 digit PIN Combinations
All Possible Values for a 3-digit PIN are 753, 752, 751, 742, 741, 731, 642, 641, 631, 531.
So, the maximum number of attempts one need to find out the PIN with certainty is 10.
56, There are eight equidistant points on a circle. How many right-angled triangles can be drawn using these points as vertices and taking the diameter as one side of the triangle?,a) 24,b) 16,c) 12,d) 8
There are eight equidistant points on a circle
Angle subtended by the diameter chord at the circumference of the circle is 90.
To form a right-angled triangle using the diameter of the circle as one side and the eight equidistant points as vertices, we need to select two points on the circle that are equidistant from both ends of the diameter.
There are four such pairs of points.
To form a right-angled triangle, we need to choose one of these pairs of points as the endpoints of the diameter and then select one of the remaining six points as the third vertex. There are six ways to choose the third vertex for each pair of points, so the total number of right-angled triangles is: 4*6 = 24
57, 24 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 30 days. In how many days can 12 men and 24 women do the same piece of work?,a) 30 days,b) More than 30 days,c) Less than 30 days or more than 30 days,d) Data is inadequate to draw any conclusion
57,d,Correct,”The solution correctly concludes that the data is inadequate to determine the time taken by 12 men and 24 women to complete the work.”,
Q. What is the remainder when
91 × 92× 93 ×94 ×95 ×96 ×97 ×98 ×99 is divided by 1261?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 0
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
91 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 97 × 98 × 99 is divided by 1261.
Factors of 1261 are 13 and 97.
So, dividing the given expression by 13 × 97.
(91 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 97 × 98 × 99)/(13 × 97)
= 7 × 92 × 93 × 94 × 95 × 96 × 98 × 99
It means this expression is completely divisible by 1261.
Hence, option 4 is correct.
59, Consider the following statements in respect of a rectangular sheet of length 20 cm and breadth 8 cm: 1. It is possible to cut the sheet exactly into 4 square sheets. 2.It is possible to cut the sheet into 10 triangular sheets of equal area. Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
59,c,Correct,”Both statements are correct. Statement I is correct because the rectangle can be cut into 4 square sheets, even if they are not equal in area. Statement II is correct because the rectangle can be cut into 10 triangles of equal area.”,
Q. When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y. When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of the value of z.
Which one of the following is correct?
a. z < x < y
b. x < y < z
c. y < x < z
d. z < y < x
Correct Answer: a. z < x < y
When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y.
We can represent this information as an equation:
y + 0.70x = 1.65y
When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of the value of z.
We can represent this information as another equation:
z + 0.60x = 1.65z
Now we can solve the system of equations:
From the first equation, we can express x in terms of y:
0.70x = 1.65y – y
0.70x = 0.65y
x = 0.65y / 0.70
x = 13y/14
Now, substitute x in the second equation:
z + 0.60x = 1.65z
z + 0.60(13y/14) = 1.65z
z + 13y/23 = 1.65z
Now, let’s solve for z in terms of y:
13y/23 = 1.65z – z
13y/23 = 0.65z
z = 13y/23 / 0.65
z = 13y/15
Now we have:
x = 13y/14
z = 13y/15
Since 13/15 < 13/14, we can conclude that z < x.
Now let’s compare x and y. Since x = 13y/14, this means that x < y (because 13/14 < 1).
Thus, we have established the following relationship: z < x < y.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) z < x < y
61, Which one of the following is implied by the passage?,a) Most of the people do not accumulate money for their needs.,b) Most of the people never fail to accumulate money for their needs.,c) There are people who fail to accumulate money for their needs.,d) There is no need to accumulate money.
61,c,Correct,”Option (c) is correct because the passage implies that there are groups of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, but it does not specify whether they constitute the majority or not.”,
62, What is the main idea of the passage?,a) People should not be influenced by the opinions of others.,b) People should accumulate as much money as they can. People should neither give nor accept the opinions.,c) People will succeed in any undertaking if they do not accept any opinion at all.
62,a,Correct,”Option (a) is correct because the passage concludes by stating that people should not be influenced by the opinions of others when making decisions.”,
63, With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/are correct?,1. Conventions are the sources of rights of man.,2. Rights of man can be exercised only when there is a social order. Select the correct answer using the code given below.,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
63,c,Correct,”Both statements are correct. Statement (1) establishes that the social order is the basis of all other rights, while statement (2) reinforces the idea that the rights of man can only be exercised when there is social order.”,
64, Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list?,a) 15000,b) 12000,c) 9600,d) 5000
Two candidates X and Y contested an election
Let’s assume the total number of voters in the voter list as “T”.
80% of the voters cast their votes which means the total number of votes cast is (80/100) x T = 0.8T.
Now, we know that X got 56% of the votes cast, which means X got 0.56 x 0.8T = 0.448T votes.
Let’s assume Y got “y” votes. Since there were no invalid votes, the total number of votes cast is the sum of votes received by X and Y, i.e., 0.448T + y = 0.8T.
Solving for y, we get y = 0.352T.
Now, we know that X won by 1440 votes. This means X got 1440 more votes than Y. So, we can write an equation as:
0.448T – 0.352T = 1440
Simplifying the equation, we get 0.096T = 1440, which implies T = 15000.
Therefore, the total number of voters in the voter list is 15000, option (a) is the correct answer.
65, What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?,a) 1063,b) 1073,c) 1083,d) 1183
65,c,Correct,”The solution correctly determines the smallest number greater than 1000 that is a multiple of the given numbers.”,
66, Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If pxq=2430, then what is the difference between p and q?,a) 45,b) 27,c) 18,d) 9
Let’s say that p = 10x + y and q = 10y + x where x and y are digits.
Then p × q = (10x + y)(10y + x) = 100xy + 10xy + 10xy + xy = 2430. Simplifying this equation gives us xy = 2430/121 = 20.
Since x and y are digits, the only possibility is that x=5 and y=4 or vice versa. Therefore p=54 and q=45 or vice versa. The difference between p and q is |54-45|=9.
67, Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and a such that p is a prime number and q is a composite number :,1. pxq can be an odd number.,2. q/p can be a prime number.,3. p+q can be a prime number.,Which of the above statements are correct?,a) 1 and 2 only,b) 2 and 3 only,c) 1 and 3 only,d) 1, 2 and 3
67,d,Correct,”The solution correctly evaluates all three statements and concludes that they are all correct.”,
68, Consider the following statements :,1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide.,2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second hand coincide.,Which of the above statements is/are correct?,a) 1 only,b) 2 only,c) Both 1 and 2,d) Neither 1 nor 2
68,c,Correct,”Both statements are correct. Statement 1 accurately calculates the time at which the hour and minute hands will coincide, and statement 2 correctly identifies the time at which the minute and second hands will coincide.”,
69, There are two containers X and Y. X contains 100 ml of milk and Y contains 100 ml of water. 20 ml of milk from X is transferred to Y. After mixing well, 20 ml of the mixture in Y is transferred back to X. If m denotes the proportion of milk in X and n denotes the proportion of water in Y, then which one of the following is correct?,a) m=n,b) m > n,c) m
69,a,Correct,”The solution correctly calculates the proportion of milk in container X after the given operations.”,
70, A pie chart gives the expenditure on five different items A, B, C, D and E in a household. If B, C, D and E correspond to 90°, 50°, 45° and 75° respectively, then what is the percentage of expenditure on item A?,a) 122/9,b) 125/6,c) 155/9,d) 250/9
The total angle in a pie chart is 360°. The sum of the angles for items B, C, D and E is 90° + 50° + 45° + 75° = 260°. Therefore, the angle for item A is 360° – 260° = 100°.
Since the total angle in a pie chart represents 100%, each degree represents 100/360 = (5/18)%. Therefore, the percentage of expenditure on item A is (5/18) * 100 = (500/18)% ≈ (250/9)%.
So the correct answer is d. (250/9)
71, The author’s assumption about scientific research is that,a) it is never very valuable,b) it is sometimes very valuable,c) it is never without some value,d) it is always very valuable
71,c,Correct,”Option (c) is correct because the passage clearly states that scientific research is probably never completely valueless.”,
72, According to the author,a) not many research results can be of value to an intelligent investigator,b) a research result is always valuable to an intelligent investigator,c) any research result can be of value to an intelligent investigator,d) a research result must always be of some value to an intelligent investigator
72,d,Correct,”Option (d) is correct because the passage suggests that research efforts, seemingly futile, could find utility in the eyes of those who can utilize them.”,
73, Which one of the following best reflects the practical, rational and lasting solution?,a) Constructing huge concrete storage tanks and canals across the country,b) Changing the cropping patterns and farming practices,c) Interlinking of rivers across the country,d) Buffer stocking of water through dams and recharging aquifers
73,d,Correct,”Option (d) is correct because the solution proposes a practical and sustainable solution for water management that aligns with the temporal aspects mentioned in the passage.”,
74, If 15 x 14 x 13 x… x3x2 x 1 = 3 𝑚 x n where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m?,a) 7,b) 6,c) 5,d) 4
74,b,Correct,”Option (b) is correct because it accurately identifies the maximum value of ‘m’ based on the conditions given in the question.”,
75, What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X?,a) 248,b) 252,c) 258,d) 262
2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X
Consider the differences between consecutive terms:
12 – 2 = 10
36 – 12 = 24
80 – 36 = 44
150 – 80 = 70
Now let’s examine the differences between these differences:
24 – 10 = 14
44 – 24 = 20
70 – 44 = 26
We see that the differences between the differences are increasing by 6 each time. Therefore, to find the next difference between consecutive terms, we can add 6 to the last difference between differences:
26 + 6 = 32
Now we can add this difference to the last difference between consecutive terms in the original sequence:
70 + 32 = 102
Finally, to find the value of X, we can add this difference to the last term in the original sequence:
150 + 102 = 252
Thus, the value of X is 252 (option b).
76, One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are be used in forming passwords, such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such passwords can be generated?,(a) 105,(b) 525,(c) 945,(d) 1050
To form a password, we need one non-zero digit, one vowel (in capital), and one consonant (in capital).
The password must start with a vowel and end with a consonant. Therefore, the password format will be Vowel-Digit-Consonant.
There are 5 vowels in the English alphabet (A, E, I, O, U).
There are 21 consonants in the English alphabet (the remaining letters after excluding the vowels).
There are 9 non-zero digits (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9).
For each position in the password, we can use the number of available options for that specific position. So, to calculate the total number of possible passwords, we can multiply the available options for each position:
Total passwords = Number of vowels × Number of non-zero digits × Number of consonants
Total passwords = 5 × 9 × 21
Total passwords = 945
Thus, 945 such passwords can be generated (option c)
77, There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should contain at least one cup of coffee?,(a) 18,(b) 27,(c) 54,(d) 81
There are 9 cups placed on a table
Case 1: When we have 3 coffee cups in one row, 2 coffee cups in another row, and 1 coffee cup in the remaining row (3!).
For row having 3 coffee cups arrangement can be done in only one way.
For row having 2 coffee cups arrangement can be done in three ways.
For row having 1 coffee cup arrangement can be done in three ways.
Total arrangements for case 1 = 3! × 1 × 3 × 3 = 54.
Case 2: When we have 2 coffee cups in each row (1).
Each row has 2 coffee cups arrangement can be done in three ways.
Total arrangements for case 2 = 1 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 27
So, total arrangement for given conditions = 54 + 27 = 81.
Hence, the correct answer is an option(4) i.e., 81.
78,”The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are there?”,”a) Only one”,”b) Only two”,”c) Only three”,”d) No such possibility is there”,,,,,
\Possibilities of three consecutive integers whose sum equals their product.
Let’s assume the three consecutive integers to be n-1, n, and n+1.
Their sum would be (n-1) + n + (n+1) = 3n
Their product would be (n-1)n(n+1) = n^3 – n
As per the question, their sum is equal to their product, so we can equate them:
3n = n^3 – n
Rearranging the equation:
n^3 – 4n = 0
n(n^2 – 4) = 0
n = 0 or n = ±2
79,”What is the number of numbers of the form 0.XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits?”,”a) 72”,”b) 81”,”c) 90”,”d) 100”,,,,,
Counting distinct non-zero digit combinations in the decimal form 0.XY
The number of numbers of the form 0.XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits, can be found by counting the number of possibilities for X and Y, and then multiplying them together.
There are 9 choices for X (all digits except 0), and once X is chosen, there are 8 choices for Y (all digits except the chosen value of X).
Therefore, the total number of numbers of the form 0.XY is:
9 × 8 = 72
Therefore, the answer is (a) 72.
Q. The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F?
a. 40.5 kg
b. 40.8 kg
c. 41 kg
d. Cannot be determined as data is Inadequate
A + B + C)/3 = 40
A + B + C = 120 ——-(1.)
(B + D + E)/3 = 42
B + D + E = 126 ——–(2.)
As B = F, so we can write F in place of B in equation (2.)
We get, F + D + E = 126 ——-(3.)
Adding equation (1.) and (3.), we get
A + B + C + D + E + F = 120 + 126
A + B + C + D + E + F = 246
Avereage weight of A, B, C, D, E and F = 246 / 6 = 41
Hence, option 3 is correct.
1,”With respect to what are called denominations of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such thing as religion that is wrong; but if they are to be a judge of each other’s religion, there is no such things as a religion that is right, and therefore all the world is right or all the world is wrong in the matter of religion.”,”a) No man can live without adhering to some religious denomination.”,”b) It is the duty of everyone to propagate one’s religious denomination”,”c) Religious denominations tend to ignore the unity of man”,”d) Men do not understand their own religious denomination.”
1,C,,”The passage states that, with the perspective of the looker, the meaning of religion changes. When we consider our own religion to be the correct one and all others as false or untrue, we are presuming that all men are not united by any shared common values.”
2,”It is certain, that seditions, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws are not so much to be imputed to the wickedness of the subjects, as to the bad state of a dominion. For men are not born fit for citizenship, but must be made so. Besides, men’s natural passions are everywhere the same; and if wickedness more prevails, and more offences are committed in one commonwealth than in another, it is certain that the former has neither enough pursued the end of unitynor framed its laws with sufficient forethought; and that, therefore, it has failed in making quite good its right as a commonwealth.”,”a) Seditions, wars and breach of the laws are inevitable in every dominion.”,”b) It is not the people, but the sovereign who is responsible for all the problems of any dominion.”,”c) That dominion is the best which pursues the aim of unity and has laws for good citizenship.”,”d) It is impossible for men to establish a good dominion.”
2,C,,”In the given options, option (c) is the most logical and rational inference, because if there are high number of crimes in dominion/place with comparison to another, it is due to laws without foresight and the theory sovereign has not pursued well for unity.”
3,”Inequality violates a basic democratic norm; the equal standing of citizens. Equality is a relation that obtains between persons in respect of some fundamental characteristic that they share in common. Equality is, morally speaking, a default principle. Therefore, persons should not be discriminated on grounds such as race, caste, gender, ethnicity, disability, or class. These features of human condition are morally irrelevant. The idea that one should treat persons with respect not only because some of these persons possess some special features or talent, for example skilled cricketer, gifted musicians, or literary giants, but because persons are human beings, is by now part of commonsense morality.”,”a) Equality is prerequisite for people to participate in the multiple transactions of society from a position of confidence.”,”b) Occurrence of inequality is detrimental to the survival of democracy.”,”c) Equal standing of all citizens is an idea that cannot actually be realized even in a democracy.”,”d) Right to equality should be incorporated into our values and day-to-day political vocabulary.”
3,a,,”The passage states that equality is most important in democracy which encourages people to participate society with confidence. When inequality persist the violation of democratic norms bound to take place so can assume that occurrence of inequality is detriments the survival of democracy.”
4,”Aristocratic government ruins itself by limiting too narrowly the circle within which power is confined; oligarchic government ruins itself by the incautious scramble for immediate wealth. But even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy. Its basic principle is the equal right of all to hold office and determine public policy. This is, at first glance, a delightful arrangement; it becomes disastrous because the people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. The people have no understanding and only repeat what their rulers are pleased to tell them. Such a democracy is tyranny or autocracy -Plato”,”a) Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.”,”b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.”,”c) Education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.”,”d) Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.”
Q1: Correct Answer – (b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.
Explanation – The statement that best reflects the crux of the passage given above is (b) “Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.” The passage describes how different forms of government – aristocratic, oligarchic and democratic – can ruin themselves by taking their basic principles to an extreme. For example, democracy can ruin itself “by excess of democracy” when people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. So the correct answer would be (b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.
Option (a) states that “Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.” While the passage does mention different forms of government – aristocratic, oligarchic and democratic – it does not explicitly state that human societies experiment with them.
Option © states that “Education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.” The passage does mention that democracy can become disastrous when people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. However, it does not state that education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.
Option (d) states that “Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.” The passage does mention that democracy can become tyrannical or autocratic when people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. However, it does not state that having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.
So based on the information given in the passage, option (b) “Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle” best reflects the crux of the passage while options (a), ©, and (d) are not explicitly supported by the text
5,”In a group of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners. Further, 70 persons in the group can speak English. The number of Indians who can speak English is”,”a) 20”,”b) 30”,”c) 30 or less”,”d) 30 or more”
5,d,,”Total number of persons = 120 Number of Indians = 80 and number of foreigners = 120 – 80 = 40 Number of persons who can speak English = 70 If all foreigners (40) speak English, the number of Indians who can speak English = 70 – 40 = 30. If none of the foreigner speak English, then the number of Indians who can speak English is 70. So minimum English-speaking Indians can be 30 and maximum 70.”
6,”Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digit) obtained using three nonzero digits which are multiples of 3. Let Us be their sum. Which of the following is/are correct?”,”1. S is always divisible by 74.”,”2. S is always divisible by 9.”,”a) Only 1”,”b) Only 2”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”
6,c,,”Three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3 are 3,6 and 9 Using these 3 digits, we can make 3! i.e. 6 three numbers. So, their sum (s) = 369 + 396 + 639 + 936 = 3996 .. 3996 is divisible by both 74 and 9.”
7,”There are two classes A and B having 25 and 30 students respectively. In class A the highest score is 21 and lowest score is 17. In class B the highest score is 30 and lowest score is 22. Four students are shifted from class A to class B. Consider the following statements: 1. The average score of class B will definitely decrease. 2. The average score of class A will definitely increase. Which of the above statements is/are correct?”,”a) Only 1”,”b) Only 2”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”
7,a,,”We know that, Sum of all scores = Average score* Number of students 1. Since, 4 students are moved from A to B, therefore average of class B will definitely decrease as range of marks for class A is less than range of marks for class B. .. Statement 1 is correct. 2. According to the question, we are not sure regarding the marks of the 4 students that have been moved from class A .. We cannot determine whether the average score of class A will increase or decrease. Statement 2 is incorrect.”
8,”Consider two statements and a question: Statement 1 Priya is 4 rank below Seema and is 31st from the Bottom. Statement 2 Ena is 2 rank above Seema and is 37th from the bottom. Question What is Seema’s rank from the top in the class of 40 students? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements and the Question?”,”a) Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question”,”b) Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.”,”c) Either statement 1 alone or statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the questions”,”d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are required to answer the question.”
8,c,,It is given total number of students = 40. Seema’s rank from top can be calculated using either of the statements.
9,”Consider two statements and a question: Statement 1 Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but none of them is the heaviest. Statement 2 A is heavier than D, but is lighter than C. Question Who is the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements and the question?”,”a) Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.”,”b) Statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question”,”c) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are required to answer the question.”,”d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.”
c
10,”In the English alphabet, the first 4 letters are written in opposite order and the next 4 letters are written in opposite order and so on and at the end Y and Z are interchanged. Which will be the fourth letter to right of the 13th letter?”,”a) N”,”b) T”,”c) H”,”d) I”
10,b,,”The English alphabet is: ABCD EFGH IJKL MNOP QRSTUVWXYZ As per the question, letters are arranged as follows DCBA HGFE LKJI PONM TSRQ XWVU ZY .. 4th letter to the right of the 13th letter = 13+ 4 = 17th letter .. The required letter is T.”
11,”Which of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?”,”a) India’s energy decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.”,”b) India’s energy and climate policy is heavily tuned to sustainable development goals.”,”c) India’s energy and climate actions are not compatible with its broader social economic and environmental goals.”,”d) India’s energy decision-making process is straightforward supply-oriented and ignores the demand side.”
11,a,,”The passage highlights about India’s challenges in energy sector and climate policy. The problems are multiple such as flawed fossil fuel production capabilities, unstable global market, and other illustrates how energy decision-making process is complex and interconnected.”
Q. There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters.
Overusing these substances can create superbugs, pathogens that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along humans. Mindful of that, some farming companies have stopped using the drugs to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic growth promotes in the 1990s, the major pork exporters say it is producing more pigs – and the animals get fewer diseases.
Q 1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage given above?
(a) People should avoid consuming the products of animal farming.
(b) Foods of animal origin should be replaced with foods of plant origin.
(c) Using antibiotics on animals should be banned.
(d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.
\
Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
Q1: Correct Answer – (d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.
Explanation – The passage describes the issue of antibiotics being used as growth promoters in poultry and other livestock. It mentions that overusing these substances can create superbugs that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along to humans. The passage also mentions that some farming companies have stopped using antibiotics to make chickens gain weight faster and that Denmark has banned antibiotic growth promoters in the 1990s, resulting in more pigs being produced and fewer diseases among the animals.
Based on this information provided in the passage, statement (d) “Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases” best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage. This statement acknowledges the potential negative consequences of overusing antibiotics as growth promoters while also recognizing that antibiotics can still play an important role in treating diseases.]
13,”Policy makers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economies. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices. 2. If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?”,”a) Only 1”,”b) Only 2”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”
13,,,”Statement 1 is incorrect, because the passage states that the increasing food prices are the result of high fuel price However it nowhere mentioned oil-producing being one of the reasons. Statement 2 is also incorrect, as the passage is not specifically single out the emerging economies are causative agent of food crisis in future. It only states that the emerging economies will be highly affected.”
14,”A central message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the level of GDP was once low, households, communities, and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the development lexicon, that if someone mentions “economic growth”, we know they mean growth in GDP. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country. 2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?”,”a) Only 1”,”b) Only 2”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”
14,,,”Statement 1 is incorrect as with the reference of the passage, only rising GDP cannot be the essential criteria for a developed country, but income redistribution also important. Statement 2 is also incorrect, as throughout the passage, rising GDP is not sure short guarantees reasonable distribution to all households.”
15,”Seven books P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are placed side by side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other books have red covers. Only S and U are new books and the rest are old. P, R and S are law reports; the rest are Gazetteers. Books of old Gazetteers with blue covers are”,”a) Q and R”,”b) Q and U”,”c) Q and T”,”d) T and u”
15,c,,”Only S and U are new books. So, R, Q, T are old books having the blue cover of which R is a law report, remaining two are gazetteers. So, Q and T are old gazetteers with blue covers.”
16,”Replace the incorrect term by the correct term in the given sequence 3, 2, 7, 4, 13, 10, 21, 18, 31, 28, 43, 40 where odd terms and even terms follow the same pattern.”,”a) O”,”b) 1”,”c) 3”,”d) 6”
16,a,,”Given series, Since, odd term and even terms follow the same pattern as per the given in question. ‘2’ will be replaced with ‘0’.”
17,”Following is a matrix of certain entries. The entries follow a certain trend row-wise. Choose the missing entry(?) accordingly.
7B 10A 3C
3C 9B 6A
10A 13C ?”
,”a) 9B”,”b) 3A”,”c) 3B”,”d) 3C”
17,c,,”Given pattern is as follow 10-7 = 3 and BAC 9-3 = 6 and CBA 13-10=3 and ACB ? =3B”
18,”You are given two identical sequences in two rows Sequence-I 8 4 6 15 52.5 236.25 Sequence-II 5 A B C D E What is the entry in the place of C for the sequence-II?”,”a) 2.5”,”b) 5”,”c) 9.375”,”d) 32.8125”
The inherent pattern in the two sequences has been represented below.
Sequence I
8 × 0.5 = 4
4 × 1.5 = 6
6 × 2.5 = 15
15 × 3.5 = 52.5
52.5 × 4.5 = 236.25
Sequence II
5 × 0.5 = 2.5 (A)
2.5 × 1.5 = 3.75 (B)
3.75 × 2.5 = 9.375 (C)
19,”A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to walk towards each other. The places are separated by a distance of 15km. X walks with a uniform speed of 1.5km/h and Y walks with a uniform speed of 1km/h in the first hour, with a uniform speed of 1.25km/h in the second hour and with a uniform speed of 1.5km/h in the third hour and so on. Which of the following is/are correct? 1. They take 5 h to meet. 2. They meet midway between A and B. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:”,”a) Only 1”,”b) Only 2”,”c) Both 1 and 2”,”d) Neither 1 nor 2”
19,c,,”Distance between A and B = 15 km Speed of X = 1.5 km/h .. Distance covered by X in 5 h= 5 x 1.5 = 7.5 km Speed of Y in 1st hour = 1 km/h So, distance covered by Y in 1st hour = 1 km. According to the question, Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Total distance covered by Y in 5 h = 1 + 1.25 + 1.5 + 1.75 + 2 = 7.5 km Both the statements are correct/true.”
20,”A student appeared in 6 papers. The maximum marks are the same for each paper. His marks in these papers are in the proportion of 5:6:7: 8:9:10. Overall he scored 60%. In how many numbers of papers did he score less than 60% of the maximum marks?”,”a) 2”,”b) 3”,”c) 4”,”d) 5”
20,b,,”: Total marks for 6 subjects = 6 x 100 = 600. Overall marks scored = 60% of 600 60 100 x 600 = 360 According to the question, 5x + 6x + 7x + 8x + 9x + 10x = 360 45x = 360 x = 360 45 = 8 : Marks in the given subjects are 5 x 8,6 x 8,7 X 8, 8 x 8, 9 x 8 and 10 x 8 or 40, 48, 56, 64, 72 and 80. … In 3 papers only, he scores less than 60% of the maximum marks.”
21,”On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Fig trees can often be keystone species in natural forests. 2. Fig trees can grow where other large woody species cannot grow. 3. Sacred trees can have a role in biodiversity conservation. 4. Fig trees have a role in the seed dispersal of other tree species. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?”,”a) 1 and 2 only”,”b) 3 only”,”c) 2 and 4 only”,”d) 1, 3 and 4 only”
21,d,,”Through the passage, we can assume that fig trees not only provide food for wildlife, but also supports frugivores due to scarcity of resources. It can grow in harsh climate zone/area where other plants and trees can’t survive. By fig trees seed dispersal of other tree species also takes place.”
22,”Consider the following. 1. Cover crops 2. Fertigation 3. Hydroponics 4. Mixed farming 5. Polyculture 6. Vertical farming Which of the above farming practices can be compatible with agroecology, as implied by the passage?”,”a) 1, 4 and 5 only”,”b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only”,”c) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only”,”d) 4 and 6 only”
22,a,,
24,”On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made: 1. People who are obsessed with personal hygiene tend to ignore the community hygiene. 2. Emergency of multi-drug resistant germ can be prevented by personal cleanliness. 3. Entry of the market in the domain of hygiene increases the risk of infectious diseases. 4. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases. 5. It is community hygiene implemented through public health measures that is really effective in the battle against infectious diseases. Which of the above assumptions are valid?”,”a) 1 and 2 only”,”b) 3 and 4 only”,”c) 4 and 5 only”,”d) 1, 2 and 4 only”
24,c,,Experiences in Western Europe have proved that community hygiene through public measures are highly effective in reducing infectious diseases. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases. Community hygiene as a public health measure can really be effective against infectious diseases.
25,”A statement followed by conclusion-I and conclusion-ii is given below. You have to take the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the statement, disregarding the commonly known facts. Statement I Some cats are almirahs. Some almirahs are chairs. All chairs are tables. Conclusion I:Certainly, some almirahs are tables. Conclusion II:Some cats may not be chairs. Which one of the following is correct?”,”a) Only conclusion I”,”b) Only conclusion II”,”c) Both conclusion I and conclusion II”,”d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II”
25,c,,From statement, Conclusion I:✔ And conclusion II: ✔ Both conclusions follow the statement
26,”A boys plays with a ball and he drops it from a height of 1.5m. Every time the ball hits the ground, it bounces back to attain a height 4/5th of the previous height. The ball does not bounce further if the previous height is less than 50 cm. what is the number of times the ball hits the ground before the ball stop bouncing?”,”a) 4”,”b) 5”,”c) 6”,”d) 7”
26,c,,Given, height = 1.5 m = 150 cm Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground 1st time = 150 Height before striking the ground was 150 > 50. So, ball will bounce back. Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground second time = 150× 4 5 =120 Hight before striking the ground second time was 120>50.So, ball will bounce back. Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground third time = 120× 4 5 =96 Hight before striking the ground third time was 96> 50.So, ball will bounce back. Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground fourth time = 96× 4 5 =76.8 Hight before striking the ground fourth time was 76.8> 50.So, ball will bounce back. Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground fifth time = 76.8 × 4 5 =61.44 Hight before striking the ground fifth time was 61.44> 50.So, ball will bounce back. Telegram: @UPSC_SARTHI Height covered by the ball before it hits the ground sixth time = 61.44× 4 5 =49.152 Hight before striking the ground sixth time was 49.152> 50.So, ball will not bounce back.”
27,”Images of consonants of the English alphabet (Capitals) are observed in a mirror. What is the number of images of these which do not look like their original shapes?”,”a) 13”,”b) 14”,”c) 15”,”d) 16”
27,b,,All the consonants of the English alphabet are B, C, D, F, G, H, J, K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z. So, there are total 21 consonants. The number of consonants whose images look like them are: H, M, T, V, W, X and Y (Total 7). The number of consonants whose images do not look like them = 21 - 7 = 14
28,”A bank employee drives 10km towards south from her house and turns to her left and drives another 20km. she again turns left and drives 40km, then she turns to her right and drives for another 5 km. She again turns to her right and drives another 30km to reach her bank where she works. What is the shortest distance between her bank and her house?”,”a) 20km”,”b) 25km”,”c) 30km”,”d) 35km”
28,,,”According to the question, Shortest distance between her bank and her house =20+5 + 25km”
29,”Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?”,”a) 6”,”b) 7”,”c) 8”,”d) 9”
29,d,,”According to the question, Required integers - 704, 712.721 730 802, 811 820 901 and 910 Required number of integers = 9”
30,”A women runs 12 km towards her North, then 6 km towards her south and then 8 km towards her East. In which direction is she from her starting point?”,”a) An angle less than 45° to the East of South”,”b) 45° to the East of North”,”c) An angle more than 45° to the East of South”,”d) 45° to the East of North”
]Correct Answer: (b) An angle less than 45o North of East
Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
We can visualize the woman’s movements on a coordinate plane. Let’s say she starts at the origin (0,0). When she runs 12 km towards her North, her position changes to (0,12). Then when she runs 6 km towards her South, her position changes to (0,6). Finally when she runs 8 km towards her East, her position changes to (8,6).
Now we can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the distance between her starting point and ending point. The distance is sqrt((8-0)^2 + (6-0)^2) = 10 km.
To find the direction from her starting point to her ending point we can use trigonometry. The angle is tan^-1(6/8) = 36.87 degrees. (Tan 45 degree = 1)
6/8 is less than 1, So angle will be less.
So the woman is at an angle less than 45 degrees North of East from her starting point. So the correct answer is (b) An angle less than 45o North of East.
31,”Which one of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference that can be made from the passage given below? Researchers simulated street lighting on artificial grassland plots containing pea-aphids, sap-sucking insects, at night. These were exposed to two different types of light – a white light similar to newer commercial LED lights and an amber light similar to sodium street lamps. The low intensity amber light was shown to inhibit, rather than induce, flowering in a wild plant of the pea family which is a source of food for the pea-aphids in grasslands. The number of aphids was also significantly suppressed under the light treatment due to the limited amount of food available.”,”a) Low intensity light has more adverse effect on the plants as compared to high intensity light.”,”b) Light pollution can have a permanent adverse impact on an ecosystem.”,”c) White light is better for the flowering of plants as compared to the light of other colors.”,”d) Proper intensity of light in an ecosystem is important not only for plants but also for animals too.”
b
\Q 1. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Sustainable production of India’s cereal food grains is impossible without the diversity of pollinating animals.
2. Monoculture of horticultural crops hampers the survival of insects.
3. Pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas devoid of natural vegetation.
4. Diversity in insects induces diversity of plants.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 CSAT Paper
Explanation :
Q1: Correct Answer – (d) 3 and 4 only
Explanation – Based on the information given in the passage above, assumptions 3 and 4 are valid. The passage states that effective pollination requires resources such as refuges of pristine natural vegetation. This supports assumption 3 that pollinators become scarce in cultivated areas devoid of natural vegetation. The passage also mentions that pollination is an essential service that is the result of an intricate relationship between plants and animals and that the reduction or loss of either affects the survival of both. This supports assumption 4 that diversity in insects induces diversity in plants.
So, option (d) “3 and 4 only” is correct.
