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CPL > Cross Country Flight Planning and Procedures > Flashcards

Cross Country Flight Planning and Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Weather products required for preflight planning, current and forecast weather for departure, en route, and arrival phases of flight

A

Aviation routine weather reports - METARs, SPECI
Aircraft observation - PIREPS
Radar (NEXRAD) and satellite observations
Surface analysis chart
Ceiling and visibility analysis (CVA), weather depiction chart
Upper air analysis - constant pressure analysis, skew-T diagram
SIGMETs, AIRMETs
Center Weather Advisories (CWA)
Convective outlook (AC)
Graphical Forecast for Aviation (GFA)
Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF)
Winds and temperature (FB)
Current and forecast icing products (CIP/FIP) and freezing level graphics
Short-range prognostic charts
Significant weather forecast (SIGWX)

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2
Q

Route selection including

A

Selection of easily identifiable en-route checkpoints
Selection of most favorable altitudes considering weather conditions and equipment capabilities
Selection of alternate airport

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3
Q

Appropriate sectional charts

A

Use of appropriate and current aeronautical charts
Properly identify airspace, obstructions, and terrain features
Selection of appropriate navigation system/facilities and communication frequencies

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4
Q

Current information on facilities and procedures

A

NOTAMs relative to airport, runway, and taxiway closures
Special Notices
Services available at destination
Airport conditions including lighting, obstructions, and other notations in the Chart Supplement

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5
Q

Navigation log

A

Measure of course (true and magnetic)
Distances between checkpoints and total
How true airspeed was obtained
Estimated ground speed
Total time en route
Amount of fuel required and how it was obtained
Simulate filing a VFR flight plan

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6
Q

Weight and balance

A

Calculations for planned trip
Determine computed weight and center of gravity are within the airplance’s operating limitations and if the weight and center of gravity will remain within limits during all phases of flight

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7
Q

What is an RMI?

A

Radio magnetic indicator. A navigational instrument coupled with a gyro compass or similar that indicates the direction of NAVAID and bearing with respect to the heading of the aircraft

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8
Q

What is an HSI?

A

Horizontal situation indication. Combines the heading indicator with a CDI to provide better situational awareness between the instruments

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9
Q

What is RNAV?

A

Area navigation equipment including VOR/DME, LORAN, GPS, and inertial navigation systems (INS). Capable of computing aircraft position, actual track, groundspeed then presenting the information in form of distance, time, cross track error. Always consult the POH for determined use

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10
Q

What is DME?

A

Equipment used to measure (NM) the slant range of an aircraft from the DME NAVAID to provide distance and groundspeed. Operating frequency is 960 MHz to 1215 MHz

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11
Q

What is the effective range distance for DME?

A

Up to 199 NM slant range line of sight altitude. Error of less than 1/2 mile or 3% of the distance

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12
Q

Give a brief description of GPS

A

Space-based radio navigational system used to determine precise position anywhere. 24 satellite constellation ensures at least 5 satellites are always visible worldwide. 4 satellites are required to establish an accurate 3D position

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13
Q

Can handheld GPS receivers and GPS systems certified for VFR operations be used for IFR operations?

A

No;
RAIM capability - not available
Database currency - IFR operations require up-to-date databases while VFR has no requirement
Antenna location - IFR installations ensure antennas are unblocked whereas VFR can be installed anywhere

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14
Q

Required preflight preparations for an IFR flight using GPS for navigation should include a review of what information?

A

GPS is properly installed and certified for the operation
Verify that the databases have not expired
GPS and WAAS NOTAMs
GPS RAIM availability for non WAAS receivers
Review the operational status of ground based NAVAIDs and related equipment appropriate to the route of flight, terminal operations, instrument approaches at the destination, and alternate airports at ETA
Determine that the GPS receiver operation manual is on board and available for use

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15
Q

Are navigational databases required to be updated for VFR flight? What about IFR?

A

Databases must be updated for IFR flight and should be updated for other operations but is not required to

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16
Q

Within which frequency band does the VOR equipment operate?

A

VHR 108.00 to 117.95 MHz

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17
Q

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?

A

VOT check ±4
Ground checkpoint ±4
Airborne checkpoint ±6
Dual VOR check ±4
Select radial over a known ground point ±6

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18
Q

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

A

Date
Place
Bearing error
Signed and logged somewhere

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19
Q

Where can a pilot find the location of the nearest VOT testing stations?

A

Chart Supplement

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20
Q

How may the course sensitivity be checked on a VOR receiver?

A

Recording the degree change in the course selected by rotating the OBS to move the CDI. Should not exceed 10 or 12 degrees

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21
Q

How can a pilot determine if a VOR or VORTAC has been taken out of service for maintenance?

A

Coded identification is removed

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22
Q

Explain the function of NDB and ADF equipment

A

NDB - ground-based radio that transmits in all directions at 190 to 535 kHz

ADF - Receives the signal and determines the bearing from the aircraft to the station. Degrees measured clockwise between the aircraft heading and direction of beacon

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23
Q

If a diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary due to an emergency, what procedure should be used?

A

Determine the distances to suitable alternatives
Select the most appropriate location for the emergency at hand
Determine magnetic course and divert immediately
Wind correction, actual distance, and estimated time and fuel burn can be calculated en route

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24
Q

How can the course to an alternate be computed quickly?

A

The straight edge and compass rose from a VOR or parallel an airway

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25
Q

What information is provided by a maximum elevation figure on the sectional chart?

A

MEF shows the highest terrain or obstacle within a quadrant

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26
Q

On IFR Enroute charts, what does MON designator displayed above the airport name indicate?

A

VOR Minimum Operational Network - indicates ILS or VOR services available, coverage is provided at or above 5,000 ft

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27
Q

What recommended entry and departure procedures should be used at airports without an operating control tower?

A

Abeam midfield and proceed as usual

Note: Make crosswind turn within 300 feet of traffic pattern

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28
Q

What are the recommended traffic advisory practices at airports without an operating control tower?

A

Monitor and communicate CTAF within 10 miles

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29
Q

A large or turbine-powered aircraft is required to enter Class D airspace at what altitude?

A

At least 1,500 AGL

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30
Q

If operating into an airport without an operating control tower which is located within the Class D airspace of an airport with an operating control, is it always necessary to communicate with the tower?

A

Yes

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31
Q

When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established?

A

About 15 miles

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32
Q

When departing a Class D surface area, what communication procedures are recommended?

A

Remain tuned in as necessary

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33
Q

You discover that both the transmitter and receiver in your aircraft have become inoperative. What procedures should be used when attempting to enter the traffic pattern and land at a tower controlled airport?

A

Remain outside or above Class D

Determine direction and flow of traffic

Join the traffic pattern and wait for light gun signal

Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings
Night by flashing landing lights

Note: Squawk 7600

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34
Q

When a control tower located at an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?

A

Reverts to Class E or G

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35
Q

If the rotating beacon is on at an airport during daylight hours, what significance does this have?

A

Indicates visibility is less than 3 miles and/or ceiling is less than 1,000 ft

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36
Q

What are the various types of runway markings (precision instrument runway) and what do they consist of?

A

Runway designator
Runway centerline marking
Runway aiming point marking - 1,000 ft from threshold
Runway touchdown zone marking - 500 ft increments
Runway side stripe marking
Runway threshold markings

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37
Q

What are the various types of taxiway markings and what do they consist of?

A

Taxiway centerline
Taxiway edge
Taxiway shoulder
Surface painted taxiway direction
Surface painted location signs
Geographic positions markings

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38
Q

What are the six types of signs installed on airports?

A

Mandatory instruction signs
Location signs
Directions signs
Destinations signs
Information signs
Runway distance remaining sign

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39
Q

The acronym LAHSO refers to what specific air traffic control procedure?

A

Land and hold short operations; land and hold short of an intersecting runway or taxiway. Pilots unfamiliar should not accept such clearance

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40
Q

Where can ALD data be found?

A

Chart supplement; controllers may also provide

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41
Q

Describe the visual aids that assists a pilot in determining where to hold short at an airport with LAHSO in effect

A

Three parts;
Yellow hold short markings
red and white signage
In-pavement lighting

Note: Airports may not have all 3 parts

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42
Q

Describe runway hold short markings and signs

A

Runway holding position markings - Indicate where aircraft must stop. consists of four yellow lines; two solid, two dashed

Runway holding position sign - Located at runway intersections; red background with white inscription of the designated runways

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43
Q

Describe the displaced threshold

A

Threshold that is located beyond the designated beginning of the runway; indicated by a white arrow

Note: Area before threshold may be used for take offs but not landings

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44
Q

Describe a tri-color light VASI system

A

Tri-color visual approach slope indicator (VASI) for obstacle clearance within plus minus 10 degrees of extended centerline and to 4NM from threshold

Red=below
Amber= above
White= On glidepath

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45
Q

What is PAPI?

A

Precision approach path indicator (PAPI) consists of a single row of two or four lights; visual range of 5 miles during the day and 20 miles at night. Normally located left of runway

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46
Q

What is PVASI?

A

Pulsating visual approach slope indicators (PVASI) consists of a single light unit projecting two colors; visual range of 4 miles in the day and 10 miles at night

Pulsating white= above glidepath
Steady white=On glidepath
Steady red = Slightly below glidepath
Pulsating red = Well below glidepath

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47
Q

Preflight planning for taxi operations should be an integral part of the pilot’s flight planning process. What information should this include?

A

Review and understand airport signage, markings, lighting
Review airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any hot spots
Review the latest NOTAMs and ATIS
Conduct briefing of taxi
Plan for critical times and locations on route
Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible before taxi

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48
Q

What is an airport hotspot?

A

Safety related problem area that presents increased risk during surface operations

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49
Q

Why is use of sterile cockpit procedures important when conducting taxi operations?

A

Must focus on their duties without distraction

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50
Q

After completing your pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing of the taxi route you expect to receive, ATC calls and gives you a different route. What potential pitfall is common in this situation?

A

Setting expectations. Always follow given instructions not what you’re expecting

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51
Q

When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route?

A

No, a separate clearance is required

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52
Q

When receiving taxi instructions from a controller, pilots should always read back what information?

A

Runway assigned
Any clearances given
Any instructions to hold short/line up and wait

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53
Q

What are some recommended practices that can assist a pilot in maintaining situational awareness during taxi operations?

A

Current airport diagram
Monitor ATC
Focus attention outside when taxiing
Use all available resources to maintain given instructions
Cross reference heading indicator
Verbally confirm there is not conflicting traffic before crossing any holds
Be alert for similar call signs
Understand and follow ATC - ask if unsure

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54
Q

How can a pilot use aircraft exterior lighting to enhance situational awareness and safety during airport surface operations?

A

Engine running - beacon
Taxiing - nav and anti-collision lights
Crossing a runway - all exterior lights
Entering the departing runway for take off - all exterior lights except the landing light
Cleared for takeoff - All exterior

55
Q

During calm or nearly calm wind conditions, at an airport without an operating control tower, a pilot should be aware of what potentially hazardous situations?

A

More than one runway may be in use, may have approaching aircraft on opposite side of departure end of runway

56
Q

When taxiing at a non-towered airport, what are several precautionary measures you should take prior to entering or crossing a runway?

A

Monitor CTAF, visually clear approach and departure end of the runway, announce intentions

57
Q

Can a commercial pilot allow a passenger to carry alcohol on board an aircraft for the purposes of consumption?

A

No - no specific reg but no person onboard may be intoxicated

58
Q

No person may act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with a blood alcohol of what value? 91.17

A

.04

59
Q

When are the operation of portable electronic devices not allowed on board an aircraft

A

Operations under an air carrier operator certificate or operating certificate
IFR

60
Q

Are there any exceptions allowed concerning portable electronic equipment on board aircraft? 91.21

A

Portable voice recorders
Hearing aid
Pacemaker
Electric shavers
Any other equipment determined not to interfere with aircraft systems

61
Q

Preflight action. as required by regulations for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information? 91.103

A

(NWKRAFT)
NOTAMs
Weather
Known ATC delays
Runway lengths
Alternatives available
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and landing data

62
Q

When are flight members required to wear their seatbelts 91.105

A

At all times

63
Q

Is the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses required when operating an aircraft on the ground? 91.107

A

Yes

64
Q

If a formation flight has been arranged in advance, can passengers be carried for hire? 91.111

A

No

65
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet and within a Class D surface area? 91.117

A

200 knots indicated
250 - Class B

66
Q

What regulations pertain to altimeter setting procedures? 91.121

A

Below 18,000 ft:
Current altimeter within 100 NM of aircraft

If none is available the reported altimeter of an appropriate available station

If no radio is equipped, elevation of departure airport or appropriate altimeter available before departure

If above 31, set 31

At or above 18,000:
Set 29.92

67
Q

What are the regulatory fuel requirements for both VFR and IFR flight? 91.151

A

VFR day - 30 mins reserve
VFR night - 45 mins reserve
IFR - destination + alternative + 45 mins

68
Q

What minimum flight visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight 91.155

A

Class B - CoC 152

Class C, D, E - 3 152

If above 10,000 - 5 111

Class G:
Day 1,200 or less - 1 CoC
Day Higher than 1,200 - 1 152
Night - 3 152
If above 10,000 and 1,200 AGL - 5 111

69
Q

When conducting IFR flight operations, what minimum altitudes are required over surrounding terrain?

A

Mountainous - 2,000 ft from 4 NM of obstacle
Other - 1,000 from 4NM

70
Q

What are several examples of situations in which an ELT is not required equipment on board the aircraft? 91.207

A

Ferrying to install ELT
Ferrying to repair ELT
Training flights within 50 NM radius of an airport

71
Q

Where is a Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment required? 91.215 91.225 99.13

A

Class A, B, C

Above Class B or Class C up to 10,000’

Class E at and above 10,000 on the mainland, excluding airspace at and below 2,500’ AGL

Within 30 miles of Class B

Class E at or above 3,000 MSL over the Gulf and 12 NM from the coastline

ADIZ

Note: Turn on at any movement area of airport

72
Q

Where are aerobatic flight maneuvers not permitted? 91.303

A

Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement

Over an open-air assembly of persons

Within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of controlled airspace of an airport

Within 4 NM of the centerline of any airway

Below 1,500 AGL

Flight visibility is less than 3 NM

73
Q

When must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? 91.307

A

60-degree bank or pitch 30 degrees

Note: Flight tests for pilot certification or rating or flight maneuvers by regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a CFI or ATP

74
Q

What is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner? 91.311

A

In accordance with a certificate waiver issued by the Administration (other than Towing gliders under 91.309)

75
Q

What categories of aircraft cannot be used in the carriage of persons or property for hire?

A

Restricted
Limited
Experimental

76
Q

What is primary radar and secondary radar?

A

Primary - Radio pulse transmitted from a site that is reflected by an object (1 self contained system)

Secondary - Transponder that is fitted on an object that sends reply signals when an interrogation signal is received (2 parts)

77
Q

What is airport surveillance radar?

A

ASR is approach control radar used to identify aircraft’s position in a Terminal Area (range up to 60 miles)

78
Q

Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft

A

Basic radar service - Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring, vectoring and sequencing where procedures established and/or covered by letter of agreement

TRSA service - Radar sequencing and separation services for participating aircraft

Class C Service - Basic radar + separation between IFR and VFR and/or weight and sequencing of VFR arrivals

Class B Service - Same as Class C Service

79
Q

What frequencies other than 121.5 are monitored by most FSSs?

A

Alaska - 123.6 MHz or others for local advisories

122.2 MHz common en route simplex frequency

Refer to Chart Supplement for all frequencies

80
Q

If operations are not being conducted in airspace requiring a transponder, can an aircraft equipped with a transponder leave it off?

A

No required but if equipped with ADS-B Out must be on at all times unless advised by ATC

81
Q

At what altitude would a pilot expect to encounter military aircraft when navigating thru a military training route designated “VR1207”?

A

Less than 1,500 AGL; no segments above 1,500 AGL

82
Q

When is a pilot required to file an ICAO flight plan?

A

Flight entering intertional airspace including Oceanic airspace controlled by the FAA

Expect routing or separation based on performance based navigation (RNAV SIDs and STARs)

Will enter reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM)

Expect services based on ADS-B

83
Q

What is an abbreviated IFR flight plam?

A

Authorization by ATC to submit only the info needed for the purposes of ATC

Note: Think pop up requests

84
Q

How long will a flight plan remain on file after the proposed departure time has passed?

A

Typically 2 hours after the proposed or expected clearance time

85
Q

If you fail to report a change in arrival time or forget to close your flight plan, when will search and rescue procedures begin?

A

30 mins after ETA

86
Q

What constitutes a change in flight plan?

A

Plus minus 5 percent or 10 knots of TAS (which ever greater) in additional to all related filing information

87
Q

What is a DVFR flight plan?

A

VFR flights into ADIZ

Note: See AIM 5-6-1 to 5-6-17 and 14 CFR Part 99

88
Q

What is an ADIZ?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone readily provide identification, location, and control if required for all aircraft for the purposed of national security

89
Q

Where are Air Defence Identification Zones normally located?

A

Domestic ADIZ - Along border within the US
Coastal ADIZ - Over coastal waters of the US
Land based ADIZ - Over metros as needed, disseminated via NOTAM

90
Q

What requirements must be satisfied prior to operations into, within or across an ADIZ?

A

Flight plan - IFR or DVFR
Two way radio
Transponder - Mode C
Position reports - IFR - normal reports; DVFR - ETA penetration 15 mins prior
Land based - Meet requirements as stated in NOTAM

91
Q

Briefly describe the six classes of US airspace

A

Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E
Class G

92
Q

Define the following types of airspace

A

(MCPRAWN)
Military Operations
Controlled Firing
Prohibited
Restricted
Alert
Warning
National Security

93
Q

What is a TFR?

A

Temporary Flight Restriction - To restrict certain aircraft temporary to protect persons or property

94
Q

What is a TRSA?

A

Terminal Radar Service Area - Airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft

95
Q

What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when landing?

A

Landing behind large aircraft (including parallel runway) or prior to large aircraft departing

96
Q

What procedures should be used in avoiding wake turbulence when departing a runway and while en route VFR?

A

Lifting prior to the path of the departing aircraft; avoid crossing below large aircraft path for intersecting departures

Waiting at least 2 mins if unable to stay above large aircraft path

Enroute avoid below and behind large aircraft path

97
Q

Who is responsible for wake turbulence avoidance, the pilot or ATC?

A

The pilot

98
Q

Define the term hydroplaning?

A

When the tires are not in contact with the pavement surface but rather the water

99
Q

What are the three basic types of hydroplaning?

A

Dynamic - Standing water lifting tire off surface (think speed bump)

Vicious - Thin film of water the tire is unable to penetrate (think thickness/vicious)

Reverted rubber hydroplaning - Friction of tire from locking brakes generates a layer of steam between the surface and tire (think rubber = tire related)

100
Q

What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

A

Slow as possible with moderate braking

101
Q

What are several types of illusions in flight which may lead to errors in judgement?

A

Runway width illusion - Narrow creates the illusion of higher than actual; pilot fly lower than normal

Runway and terrain slope illusion - Upsloping runway/terrain creates the illusion of higher than actual; pilot fly lower than normal. Opposite effect with downsloping

Featureless terrain illusion - Absence of ground feature creates the illusion of higher than actual

Atmospheric illusions - Rain on window creates higher than actual illusion; haze creates illusion of greater distance from runway than actual; pilot fly lower than normal

102
Q

What is the most effect method of scanning for other air traffic?

A

Series of short reguarly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas into the central vision field

103
Q

Discuss recommended collision avoidance procedures and considerations in the following situations

A

Before takeoff - Scan approach area
Climbs and descents - Gentle banks to increase visual area
Straight and level - Visual scanning technique
Traffic pattern - Entry into traffic pattern while descending be avoid
Traffic at VOR sites - Maintain sustained vigilance
Training operations - Clearing turns

104
Q

Explain the arrangement and interpretation of the position lights on the aircraft

A

Left - red
Right - green
Tail - white

105
Q

Position lights are required to be on during what period of time? 91.209

A

Sunset to sunrise

106
Q

When operating an aircraft in, or close in close proximity to, a night operations area, what is required of an aircraft? 91.209

A

Be clearly illuminated
Have position lights
Be in an area marked by obstruction lights

107
Q

When are aircraft that are equipped with an anti-collision light system required to operate that light system?

A

All operations unless PIC determines the use will undermine safety (usually on the ground)

108
Q

What are the three definitions of night?

A

14 CFR 1.1 - Civil twilight (Logging night time)

14 CFR 61.57 - One hour after sunset and one hour before sunrise (Logging night landings)

14 CFR 91.209 - Sunset to sunrise (Lights)

109
Q

What are the different types of rotating beacons used to identify airports?

A

White and green - land
White and yellow - water
Green, yellow, white - helicopter
White, white, green - military

110
Q

Describe several types of avaition obstruction lighting AIM 2-3-3

A

Aviation red obstruction lights - Flashing aviation red and steady burning

High intensity white obstruction lights - Flashing white lights; high intensity during the data, reduced during the night

Dual lighting - Combo of flashing with steady burning red during the night and flashing white for daytime

111
Q

What color are runway edge lights? AIM 2-1-4

A

White. Precision runways the last 2,000 ft or half runway length (whichever is less) is yellow

112
Q

What color are the lights marking the end of the runway? AIM 2-1-4

A

Red towards departing, green towards approach

113
Q

Describe runway end identifier lights (REIL) AIM 2-1-13

A

Pair of syncronized flashing lights located on each side of the runway threshold to provide rapid and positive identification of runway

Note: Can be omnidirectional or unidirectional

114
Q

What color are taxiway edge lights? AIM 2-1-10

A

Blue

115
Q

What color are taxiway centerline lights? AIM 2-1-10

A

Green

116
Q

How does a pilot determine the staus of a light system at a particular airport?

A

Chart supplement and any NOTAMs

117
Q

How does a pilot activate a radio controlled runway light system while airborne?

A

Keying the mic on the specified frequency

Typically 7, 5, 3 clicks within 5 seconds to adjust the brightness, 7 clicks for maximum brightness.

Note: Always key lights even when already illuminated to avoid shutting off on final approach

118
Q

What are some basic operational advantages when conducting high altitude operations?

A

TAS increases with altitude
Better tailwind opportunities
Capability to see and avoid t-storms
Better vis
Less turbulent
Flying above the weather
Reduced chance of icing
Conflicts with other traffic reduced

119
Q

What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft? 91.211

A

Above 12,500-14,000 MSL for more than 30 mins - crew must use
Above 14,000 - crew must use
Above 15,000 - Passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen

120
Q

What are the regulations pertaining to the use of supplemental oxygen on board a pressurized aircraft? 91.211

A

Above FL250 - At least 10 mins of supplemental oxygen in addition to 91.211

Above FL350 - At least one pilot at the controls is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed that supplies oxygen at all times or automatically when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14,000 MSL

Note: If below FL410 and two pilots are at the controls and each pilot has access to a quick don masks (within 5 seconds) then FL350 rule is amended however if one pilot needs to leave their station FL350 is reinstated until they return

121
Q

What are the requirements to operate within Class A airspace? 91.135

A

IFR and in compliance with ATC clearance
Equipped for IFR operations
Flown by IFR rated pilot
Equipped with two way radio plus equipment specified in 91.215 (transponder) and 91.225 (ADS-B)

122
Q

What additional equipment is required when operative above FL240? 91.205

A

DME or suitable RNAV system

123
Q

What types of navigational charts are used when operating at altitudes above 18,000? AIM 9-1-4

A

En route high altitude

124
Q

When is immediate notification to the NTSB required? NTSB Part 830

A

(P-FACTION)
Property damage over $25,000
Fire, in flight
Accident
Collision, in flight
Turbine failure
Illness of crew member
Overdue aircraft
No control, any control failure

125
Q

After an accident or incident has occured, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB?

A

Within 10 days after an accident
Overdue aircraft missing after 7 days
Incident if requested by the NTSB

126
Q

Define aircraft accident

A

Anytime any persons boards with the intent of flight and all persons have disembarked and in which any person suffers death or serious injury or aircraft receives substantial damage

127
Q

Define aircraft incident

A

Occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of operations

128
Q

Define the term serious injury

A

Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours within 7 days of injury

Fracture of any bone (except simple fracture of fingers, toes, or nose)

Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage

Involves any internal organ

Involves second or third degree burns affect more than 5% of body

129
Q

What are several actions you can take to enhance aircraft security?

A

Always lock aircraft
Don’t leave keys unattended
Use secondary locks
Lock hanger when unattended

130
Q

What type of airport security procedures should you review regularly to prevent unauthorized access to aircraft at your airport?

A

Limits on ramp access
Standards for securing aircraft on ramp
Securing access to aircraft keys at all times
New auxiliary security items for aircraft
After hours or weekend access procedures

131
Q

When sitnessing suspicious or criminal activity, what are three basic ways for reporting the suspected activity?

A

Alert airport or FBO
Contact local law enforcement if there is an immediate threat
Contact 866-GA-SECURITY hotline to document the reported event

132
Q

Are there any security programs or requirements established for Part 135, charter, or flight training operations?

A

12-5 Standard Security Program (TFSSP) - applies to aircraft with a MTOW more than 12,500 that offer scheduled or charter operations. Requires watch list matching passengers, aircraft access control procedures, background checks for flight crews and reported procedures

Private Charter Standard Security Program (PCSSP) - Parts 121, 125, 135 in aircraft over 100,309 MTOW or 61 or more seats; requires the same as TFSSP but also screening of passengers and accessible property

Alien Flight Student Program (AFSP) - requires background check for foreign flight candidates seeking flight training

133
Q

What is a Security Identification Display Area (SIDA)? AIM 2-3-14

A

Limited access areas that require a badge issued in accordance with 49 CFR Part 1542 and can include Air Operations Area (AOA)

Note: AOA may not be a SIDA but Secured Areas are always SIDA

CPL (8 decks)

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