CRJ Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
Max Ramp Weight
A
82,750 lbs
2
Q
Max T.O. Weight
A
82,500 lbs
3
Q
Max Landing Weight
A
73,500 lbs
4
Q
Max Zero Fuel Weight
A
70,000 lbs
5
Q
Min Flight Weight
A
45,000 lbs
6
Q
Max Aft Cargo Bay Capacity
A
4,375 lbs
7
Q
Max Fwd Cargo Bay Capacity
A
850 lbs
8
Q
Max Center Cargo Bay Capacity
A
850 lbs
9
Q
Max Pressure Refueling capacity
A
Total - 19,594 lbs
Mains - 7,492 lbs
Center - 4,610 lbs
10
Q
Max Gravity Refueling Capacity
A
Total - 14,810 lbs
Mains - 7,405 lbs
Center - N/A
11
Q
Max Operating - Vmo
A
335 KIAS
12
Q
Max operating Mach number - Mmo
A
0.85 M
13
Q
RVSM Max cruise Mach number
A
0.82 M
14
Q
Max Flap extension speed
A
1 - 230 KIAS 8 - 230 KIAS 20 - 220 KIAS 30 - 185 KIAS 45 - 170 KIAS
15
Q
Max Landing Gear Operating speed for extension - VLO
A
220 KIAS
16
Q
Max Gear Operating speed for retraction - VLO
A
200 KIAS
17
Q
Max Landing Gear extended speed - VLE
A
220 KIAS
18
Q
Max Turbulence Penetration speed
A
280 KIAS / 0.75 M
19
Q
Max Operating Altitude
A
41,000 ft
20
Q
Max airport pressure altitude for TO & L
A
8,000 ft
21
Q
Max Windshield Wiper Operation speed
A
250 KIAS
22
Q
Max demonstrated crosswind for TO
A
35 kts
23
Q
Max demonstrated crosswind for landing
A
32 kts
24
Q
Max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing on a slippery runway
A
15 kts
25
Max tire speed
195 kts GS
26
Max altitude for flight with flaps/slats extended
15,000 ft
27
Max runway slopes for TO & L
+2% uphill
| -2% downhill
28
What type of floatation equipment is provided for the passengers?
Seat Cushions
29
What type of floatation equipment is provided for the FAs?
Life vests located near the FAs jumpseats
30
How many life vests are in the flight deck?
3 (1 under each pilot seat and to the left of the jump seat)
31
What is the minimum crew oxygen system pressure for dispatch?
Listed on a chart in the CFM, Ch 4 (Cockpit safety inspection)
32
What is the full charge pressure of the crew oxygen system
1,850 psi
33
When will the OXY LO PRESS caution appear on the EICAS?
Below 1,410 psi
34
When will the crew oxygen system pressure relief occur?
2,800 psi
35
Where can the crew oxygen system pressure be read?
EICAS status page
36
Where is the crew oxygen bottle located?
In a compartment just forward of the main entrance.
37
What is indicated if the green oxygen blowout disc is missing?
Possible overpressure has occurred in the crew oxygen system.
38
Where are the crew smoke goggles located?
The goggles are either part of oxygen mask or stored under oxygen mask
39
What supplies oxygen to the passenger oxygen masks?
Chemical oxygen generators
40
How many passenger oxygen masks are there in each row
2 masks per row on the left side, 3 masks per row on the right side.
41
How many emergency flashlights are there in the flight deck
2 (One behind the Captain’s seat, and one behind the First Officer’s seat)
42
What is the power source for the emergency lighting system?
5 battery packs (All emergency light batteries are 6 VDC and located throughout the cabin)
43
How long will the emergency lights illuminate
| if the battery packs are fully charged?
Approx. 10 min
44
Can the Flight Attendant turn on the emergency lights
| if the flight deck switch is off?
Yes
45
How many passenger emergency exits are there?
6
46
What doors can be used as emergency exits for passengers?
Main passenger door (type I)
Galley service door (type I)
Overwing emergency exits (type III)
47
Where are the VHF communication antennae located?
VHF 1 antenna is located on the topside of the fuselage
| VHF 2 antenna is located on the underside of the fuselage
48
Will the flight deck PA override the Flight Attendant PA?
Yes
49
How are the Flight Attendants contacted in an emergency?
Turn the audio control panel selector knob to PA,
Press the EMER call switchlight.
This will generate a high/low chime in the cabin,
Flash an amber EMER switchlight on the Flight Attendants’ handset cradle
Flash a red light on the mid-cabin, overhead exit sign.
50
What indication does the flight deck get if a Flight Attendant is calling?
A high/low chime sounds in the flight deck, and either the CALL or EMER
light will illuminate on the center pedestal depending on the selection made
on the Flight Attendant’s handset cradle.
51
How many Air Data Computers (ADCs) are installed?
2
52
How many AHRS or IRS computers are installed?
2
53
In MAG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?
30 to 70 seconds
54
In DG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?
10 to 11 minutes
55
What sends information to the Captain’s flight instruments?
Air Data Computer 1 (ADC1)
56
What sends information to the First Officer’s flight instruments?
Air Data Computer 2 (ADC2)
57
What sends pitot-static information to Air Data Computer 1?
Pitot-static probe 1 (P1-S1) on left side of nose.
58
What sends pitot-static information to Air Data Computer 2?
Pitot-static probe 2 (P2-S2) on right side of nose.
59
From which source does the integrated standby instrument receive pitot-static information?
Pitot probe 3 (P3) under the left, side window and two static ports (S3) on either side of the lower forward fuselage.
60
Where is the total air temperature (TAT) probe located?
Under the right, side window.
61
What is the definition of Total Air Temperature?
Air temperature corrected for compressibility and friction.
62
On the ground with the probe heat switch selected ON, which air data probes are heated?
All 3 pitot probes are heated at 50% power while their bases remain unheated. NOTE - The angle of attack vanes, and system 3 static ports are heated at full heat. The TAT probe, and pitot bases will always remain unheated on the ground.
63
Which air data probes are heated in flight with the probe heat switch selected off?
All air data probes and pitot bases are full heated in flight, regardless of the probe heat switch position.
64
Is there a LOC and GS indication on the integrated standby instrument (ISI)?
Yes - NOTE - The ISI receives navigation data from NAV 1 only.
65
When will the radio altitude digital readout be displayed?
0 ft to 2,500 ft AGL
66
When will the green radio altitude tape be displayed?
0 ft to 1,000 ft AGL
67
When will the yellow hashed rising runway indication
| be displayed on the radio altitude tape?
0 ft to 200 ft AGL
68
What does the speed trend vector indicate?
Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds
69
When will the MACH readout appear above the airspeed tape?
Appears when accelerating through 0.45 M.
| Disappears when decelerating through 0.4 M.
70
What does the green line on the airspeed tape indicate?
1.27 Vs
71
Where is the slip and skid indicator located?
A solid rectangle located just under the sky pointer. (The Brick)
72
How many flight directors are installed?
2
73
How many autopilots are installed?
1
74
What provides guidance to the autopilot?
The flight directors.
75
What controls the flight directors?
Flight Control Computer 1 (FCC1) controls Flight Director 1 (FD1)
Flight Control Computer 2 (FCC2) controls Flight Director 2 (FD2)
76
Which flight director is the default?
Flight Director 1
77
What does pressing the XFR button on the flight control panel do?
Transfers the autopilot and flight directors to Flight Director 2
78
What happens when a TOGA button is pushed on the ground?
The autopilot is disengaged
| The lateral and vertical Takeoff modes are activated (TO/TO)
79
What does the lateral TO mode do?
Updates FMS with current location
Generates a heading hold command at weight off wheels
Limits flight director steering commands to 5° of bank
80
What does the vertical TO mode do?
Generates an optimized flight director pitch up command
81
What happens when a TOGA button is pushed in flight?
The autopilot is disengaged
| The lateral and vertical Go-Around modes are activated (GA/GA)
82
What does the lateral GA mode do?
Generates a heading hold command
| Limits flight director steering commands to 5° of bank
83
What does the vertical GA mode do?
Commands the flight director to a 10° pitch up attitude.
84
Where are the selected lateral and vertical flight director modes displayed?
On the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) at the top left of the PFD
85
Autopilot minimum use heights
600 ft AGL for takeoff or go-around
400 ft AGL for non-precision approaches
80 ft AGL for precision approaches
86
Autopilot minimum use height for a single engine precision approach?
110 ft AGL
87
How can the autopilot be manually disconnected?
AP/SP DISC button on either control wheel is pressed
AP ENG button on the FCP is pressed when AP is already engaged
AP DISC switch bar on the FCP is pushed down
TOGA button on either thrust lever is pressed
STAB TRIM manually operated on either control wheel
YD DISC button is pressed
88
When will the autopilot automatically disconnect?
Both yaw dampers fail
During windshear avoidance procedures
During a stall warning
89
What type of APU is used on the CRJ 900?
Allied-Signal RE220
90
What are the priorities of the APU?
Primary: Electrical
Secondary: Pneumatics
91
Max APU Generator load
40 KVA to 41,000 ft
92
Max altitude for APU operation for electrical loading
41,000 ft
93
Max altitude for starting the APU
37,000 ft
94
Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction
25,000 ft
95
Max speed with APU door open
220 KIAS if APU not operating
| VMO/MMO if APU is operating
96
What is the minimum battery voltage required before starting the APU?
22 volts on both the Main, and APU batteries
97
What does the main battery power during an APU start?
The APU ECU
98
What does the APU battery power during an APU start?
The 28 VDC APU start motor
99
When will the START portion of the START/STOP switchlight extinguish for the APU?
46%-60% APU RPM
100
When will the AVAIL portion of the START/STOP switchlight illuminate with the APU?
99% RPM plus 2 seconds
101
What are the APU Starter limits?
No more than 3 start attempts in one hour.
| 2 minute delay required between start attempts.
102
What is the CRJ-900 Powerplant Model Number?
General Electric CF34-8C5
103
Normal take-off thrust for the CF34-8C5
13,360 lbs
104
APR thrust rating for the CF34-8C5
14,510 lbs
105
Max continuous thrust (MCT) for the CF34-8C5
13,680 lbs
106
Max temperature for takeoff and landing
ISA +40°C, limited to a maximum OAT of 51°C
107
Min ambient air temperature for takeoff
-40°C
108
Max Altitude for a windmill start
21,000 ft MSL
109
Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power
2%
110
How much of the thrust is produced by core air?
Approximately 20%.
111
How much thrust is produced by by-pass air?
Approximately 80%
112
How many stages of compression are in a CF34-8C5?
10 stages
113
What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box?
```
Engine Driven Fuel Pump
IDG
Air Turbine Starter
Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump
Oil Pump
FADEC Alternator
```
114
What stages of bleed air supply the common bleed air manifold?
Normally 6th stage. 10th stage is available when demand exceeds the
capabilities of the 6th stage.
115
What allows 10th stage bleed air availability?
Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) automatically opens the
High Pressure Valve (HPV).
116
What is the engine bleed air used for?
Engine start
Air conditioning / pressurization
Wing and cowl anti-ice
117
What is the minimum bleed air pressure required for a cross bleed start?
42 PSI at a maximum of 80% N2 for the operating engine
118
What is the normal air source used for engine starting?
APU bleed air
119
What source is used for engine starting if the APU is INOP or shut down?
A ground air cart, or high-pressure bottle may be attached to the external
high pressure, ground air supply connection.
Cross bleed starts from an operating engine may be used to start the other
engine.
120
Where is the high pressure, ground air supply connection located?
On the fuselage, aft of the aft cargo bay door.
121
When will the starter cut-out during an engine start?
50% N2 RPM
122
What are the engine starter cranking limits?
Attempt 1-2: 90 sec ON / 10 sec. OFF
| Attempt 3-5: 90 sec ON / 5 min. OFF
123
What are the Dry Motoring limits?
Attempt 1: 90 sec. ON / 5 min. OFF
| Attempt 2-5: 30 sec. ON / 5 min. OFF
124
What would cause FADEC to automatically abort a start?
Hot start or Hung start
125
How many ignitors are installed on each engine?
2
126
What supplies power to the ignitors?
IGN-A: AC ESS Bus
| IGN-B: Static inverter on the battery bus
127
When must continuous ignition be used?
Takeoffs and landings on contaminated runways
Flight through moderate or heavier intensity rain
Flight through moderate or heavier intensity turbulence
Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
128
When is continuous ignition automatically activated?
When approaching a high angle of attack.
129
What conditions are required before advancing the thrust levers to IDLE during an engine start?
N2 20% or greater, and ITT below 120°C.
130
What conditions would cause Takeoff Configuration Warning?
```
Parking brake SET
Autopilot ON
Spoilers Extended (flight or ground spoilers)
Stab Trim out of green range
Flaps not 8° or 20°
Aileron Trim out of green range
Rudder Trim out of green range
```
131
What is APR?
Automatic Performance Reserve thrust
132
When is APR armed for takeoff?
When the N1 RPM of both engines is within 8% of scheduled takeoff power.
133
When is APR armed for landing?
When flaps are greater than 20°, and the landing gear is down.
134
When will the APR system be activated?
Thrust levers in TOGA, and N1s differ by 15% or greater after APR has
been armed.
When the thrust levers are set in the MAX POWER detent.
When the HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switchlight is selected ON.
135
What occurs when the APR system activates?
FADEC commands a thrust increase dependent on thrust lever position.
136
What indication is displayed when APR is activated?
Green APR icon on the N1 gauge.
137
If an engine fails during a go-around, will the APR system activate?
Yes
138
What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?
L reverser uses hydraulic system #1
| R reverser uses hydraulic system #2
139
What indications will be displayed during thrust reverser deployment?
Amber REV icon on the N1 gauges during cowl transition.
| Green REV icon on the N1 gauges when the reversers are fully deployed.
140
What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?
The translating cowls move aft, blocking the rearward flow of bypass air.
The fan discharge airflow is redirected forward through the cascade vanes.
141
When do the thrust reversers need to be either stowed or at idle?
60 kts
142
What are the indications of an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment?
Amber REV icon on affected N1 gauge
REV UNLOCKED caution message
FADEC commands idle thrust on affected engine.
NOTE: Thrust levers will NOT move when FADEC commands idle thrust.
143
Min Oil Temperature for start
-40°C
144
Max Continuous Oil Temperature
155°C
145
Max Permissible Oil Temperature
163°C (15 minutes max)
146
Max Oil Consumption
0.05 gallons/hr
147
Where can the oil quantity be checked?
On the EICAS MENU page
148
When should the Oil Capacity be checked?
3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
149
When should the Engine Oil level be replenished?
15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
150
Max oil refill before dry motoring is required
2 quarts
151
How is the oil cooled?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
152
What is the total quantity of the engine oil tanks?
7.2 quarts
153
How is the fuel moved from the center tank to the wing tanks?
Transfer ejectors
154
How is the fuel moved from the wing tanks to the collector tanks?
Scavenge ejectors and gravity
155
How is the fuel moved from the collector tanks to the engine driven high pressure fuel pumps?
Main ejectors (backed up by DC electric boost pumps)
156
What is the function of the electric boost pumps?
To supply fuel to the engines when main ejector pressure is low.
157
Will an engine continue to run with a failed engine driven fuel pump?
No
158
Max fuel imbalance
300 lbs for takeoff
| 800 lbs for all other phases
159
How many ways are available to crossflow fuel?
3. Auto, Manual, and Gravity.
160
When will the auto crossflow system begin transferring fuel?
200 lb fuel imbalance
161
When will the auto crossflow system stop transferring fuel?
When the fuel quantity of the low tank exceeds the other tank by 50 lbs.
162
When are the fuel boost pumps automatically energized?
Low pressure detected at the main ejectors (if the boost pumps are armed)
163
Where is bulk fuel temperature measured?
Right main tank
164
What is the Minimum Bulk Fuel Temp for take-off (Jet A)?
-30°C
165
What is the minimum bulk fuel temp during flight (Jet A)?
Above -40°C
166
How is engine fuel heated?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
167
What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff?
+5°C
168
What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has over 500 lbs of fuel?
Each wing tank must be above 4,400 lbs
169
Which Bus powers the refuel/defuel panel and refuel/defuel SOVs?
APU Battery Direct Bus
170
Where is the refuel/defuel panel located?
On the fuselage, forward of right wing
171
Where is the single point adapter located?
Right wing root
172
What message will be displayed on EICAS whenever the refuel/defuel panel is switched on?
AUTO XFLOW INHIB status message
173
Max single PACKS altitude
25,000 ft
174
What does the OVBD COOL caution message mean?
The ground valve has failed in the open position.
| NOTE: Do not takeoff with an OVBD COOL caution message. The aircraft will not be able to pressurize properly.
175
How many pressurization controllers are installed on the CRJ 900?
2, PC1 and PC2
176
When do the pressurization controllers swap automatically?
Weight on wheels plus 3 minutes or
| If one PC fails, the redundant controller takes over
177
When operating in auto mode, what is the normal cabin rate of climb and descent?
500 fpm climb
| 300 fpm descent
178
When operating in the manual mode, what cabin rate of climb or descent range can be selected using the MAN RATE knob?
50 fpm, to 3000 fpm ± 1000 fpm
179
Normal pressure differential
8.5 psi
180
Max pressure differential
8.7 psi
181
Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff and landing
0.1 psi
182
Max negative pressure differential
-0.5 psi
183
When will the CABIN ALT Caution message appear?
Cabin altitude above 8,500 but below 10,000 ft
184
When will the CABIN ALT Warning message appear?
Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft
185
When will CPAM automatically deploy the passenger oxygen masks?
Cabin altitude above 14,000 ft
186
When will CPAM turn on the NO SMOKING/FASTEN SEATBELT signs?
Cabin altitude above10,000 ft when the switches are in the AUTO position
187
Max altitude for using RAM AIR during unpressurized flight
15,000 ft
188
Can live animals be transported in the cargo bay of the CRJ 900?
Aft cargo bay only
189
What causes the FAULT portion of a PACK switchlight to illuminate?
Over pressure or over temperature condition
190
When will the FAULT portion of the PRESS CONT switchlight illuminate?
When both pressurization controllers have failed.
191
What is used for wing and cowl anti-ice?
6th or 10th stage bleed air
192
When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?
When OAT is 10°C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present.
When OAT is 10°C or below while operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush is present.
193
When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during flight?
When icing conditions exist or are anticipated, or
When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system.
NOTE: Icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered, except when the SAT is -40 or below.
194
When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?
When OAT is 5°C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present.
When OAT is 5°C or below, and the runway is wet or contaminated.
NOTE: If Type II, Type III or Type IV deicing fluid has been applied, delay turning wing anti-ice on until just prior to takeoff to preserve the integrity of the fluid.
195
When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during flight operations?
When icing conditions exist and airspeed is less than 230 KIAS, or when ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system.
NOTE: Icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered, except when the SAT is -40 or below.
196
What will indicate a satisfactory test when the ICE DET TEST switchlight is pressed?
ICE switchlight illuminates
ICE caution message is displayed on EICAS
ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message is displayed on EICAS
197
What is the purpose of the Wing A/I cross-bleed switch?
To allow the bleed air from one engine to anti-ice the opposite wing
198
What occurs with the Windshield Heat on LOW?
All 4 panels are heated to 24°C
199
What occurs with the Windshield Heat on HIGH?
Side windows are heated to 24°C and both windshields are heated to 41°C
200
When should the Windshield Heat be switched to OFF?
When OAT is 30°C or above.
201
How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine?
Two overheat detection loops mounted in parallel.
202
How many firex bottles are available for an engine fire?
2
203
What type of Halon is in the engine firex bottles?
Halon 1301
204
What are the cockpit indications of an Engine Fire?
Affected ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates
Fire bell aural sounds
L ENG FIRE or R ENG FIRE warning message is displayed on EICAS
205
What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pushed?
Selected engine Fuel SOV closes
Selected engine HYD SOV closes
Selected engine Bleed air SOV close
Selected engine generator is taken offline
Squibs are armed on the selected side of both fire bottles
206
Can both fire bottles be discharged into one engine?
Yes
207
How is an APU fire detected?
Dual overheat detection loops mounted in parallel inside the APU enclosure.
208
What are the cockpit indications of an APU Fire in flight?
The APU FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates
Fire bell aural sounds
APU FIRE warning message is displayed on EICAS
209
How many firex bottles are available for an APU fire?
1
210
What type of extinguishing agent is used in the APU firex bottle?
Halon 1301
211
What occurs during an APU fire on the ground?
The APU ECU shuts down the APU.
| 5 seconds later, the APU bottle will discharge automatically.
212
What occurs during an APU fire in flight?
The APU ECU shuts down the APU.
The APU FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates
Fire Bell aural sounds in the flight deck an APU FIRE warning message is displayed on EICAS
NOTE: The APU fire bottle does not discharge automatically in flight
213
How many smoke detectors are in the cargo bays?
2 in the aft cargo bay, 3 in the fwd cargo bay
214
What are the flight deck indications of cargo smoke?
Triple chime
Master Warning switchlights flash, “SMOKE” aural
SMOKE FWD CARGO or SMOKE AFT CARGO warning message
Either FWD or AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlights illuminate
215
How many FIREX bottles are there for cargo fire protection?
Two
NOTE: Both bottles discharge into the selected cargo bay. One bottle is a high rate discharge bottle that discharges all of its Halon 1301 immediately, and the other bottle is a low rate discharge bottle that discharges slowly over 60 minutes.
216
How many smoke detectors are in the cabin?
1 in each lavatory
217
What are the flight deck indications for smoke in a lavatory?
Triple chime
Master Warning switchlights flash
SMOKE FWD LAV or SMOKE AFT LAV warning message on EICAS
218
What fire protection is available for the lavatory waste bins?
A fire bottle mounted next to the waste bin with heat sensitive capsules that melt to release Halon 1211 into the waste bin.
219
What are the flight deck indications that the lavatory waste bin fire bottle(s) have discharged?
There are no indications in the flight deck that a lavatory fire bottle has discharged
220
Max permissible time for ground operations with battery power only?
5 minutes, to prevent the EICAS CRT screens from overheating
221
Where is the external AC power receptacle located?
Lower, right side, forward nose area
222
What is the AC electrical system rated at?
115 VAC, 400 HZ, 3 phase
223
What is the voltage rating of the DC electrical system?
28 VDC
224
What is an Integrated Drive Generator (IDG)?
An AC Generator combined with a constant speed drive.
| NOTE: The IDG converts variable N2 RPMs to a constant 12,000 RPM generator speed
225
Max Engine Generator load
40 KVA to 41,000 ft
226
What is a TRU?
Transformer Rectifier Unit
227
What is the function of the TRUs?
To convert 115 VAC to 28 VDC
228
Max TRU load
120 amps
229
How many TRUs are installed in the CRJ 900?
4
230
Where are the TRUs located?
In the nose compartment
231
How are the TRUs cooled?
Cooling fans located under the TRUs
232
When do the TRUs come online?
The TRUs come online when the AC busses are powered
233
Where is the main battery located?
In the nose compartment
234
Main Battery rating
24 VDC / 17 ampere hour
235
Where is the APU battery located?
In the aft equipment bay
236
APU Battery rating
24 VDC / 43 ampere hour
237
How many generators are on the CRJ 900?
4 (2 engine generators, 1 APU generator, 1 ADG)
238
What happens when the Battery Master switch is selected ON?
The Main Battery Bus will be powered by the Main Battery Direct Bus, and the APU Battery Direct Bus.
239
If the main buses are powered, are the essential buses also powered?
Yes
240
What controls the DC bus tie contactors?
The DC Power Centers (DCPC) automatically control DC bus tie contactors.
241
When will the Air Driven Generator (ADG) automatically deploy?
With complete loss of A/C power
242
With the ADG deployed, what items are powered?
AC ESS Bus, Hydraulic pump 3B, flaps/slats,
| STAB trim CH 2
243
ADG max load
15 KVA
244
Minimum airspeed to configure the aircraft for landing on ADG power
140 kts
245
How many hydraulic systems are there on the CRJ 900?
3
246
Normal hydraulic pressure
3000 psi
247
Low hydraulic pressure caution
Below 1800 psi
248
High hydraulic pressure
3200 psi
249
When will hydraulic pressure relief occur?
Above 3750 psi
250
What is the normal range for hydraulic reservoir quantity?
45% to 85%
251
Hydraulic system high temperature caution
Above 96°C
252
How many hydraulics pumps are there?
6
253
Which hydraulic pumps are A pumps?
System 1 engine driven hydraulic pump
System 2 engine driven hydraulic pump
System 3 AC motor pump A
254
Which hydraulic pumps are B pumps?
System 1 AC motor pump
System 2 AC motor pump
System 3 AC motor pump B
255
When will the B pumps operate?
Hydraulic control panel switch ON or
Hydraulic control panel switch AUTO with at least one generator online, the respective bus is powered, and flaps are not 0°.
NOTE: Hydraulic pumps 1B and 2B are power by busses associated with their respective cross side engine driven generators.
256
With the B pump switches in AUTO, will the B pumps automatically turn on to back up a failed A pump?
No.
| NOTE - The operation of the B pumps in AUTO is triggered by flap position, not system pressure.
257
When will hydraulic pump 3B operate?
Hydraulic control panel switch ON or
Hydraulic control panel switch AUTO with at least one generator online, the respective bus is powered, and flaps are not 0° or the ADG is deployed
258
What type of hydraulic fluid is used?
Skydrol
259
What color is the hydraulic fluid?
Purple
260
How are the ailerons, elevators and rudder actuated?
They are controlled by a network of cables, pulleys, push/pull rods, and levers that transmit control inputs to the respective hydraulic power control units (PCUs).
261
Which control wheel is connected to the right aileron?
First Officer’s
262
Which control wheel is connected to the left aileron?
Captain’s
263
Which control column is connected to the right elevator?
First Officer’s
264
Which control column is connected to the left elevator?
Captain’s
265
What is the purpose of the Multifunction Spoilers (MFS)?
Assist with roll control (Spoilerons)
Act as spoilers in flight
Assist with ground lift dumping after landing
266
Are the MFSs operational at any speed?
Yes
267
How are the MFSs controlled when used for roll assistance?
The First Officer’s control wheel position sends an electrical signal to the left MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs.
The Captain’s control wheel position sends an electrical signal to the right MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs.
268
What happens after the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?
The aileron cable and pulley systems are separated at the torque tube.
269
What happens if a ROLL SEL switchlight is not pressed after the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?
The pilot with the unjammed side will only have control of onside aileron, and cross side Multifunction spoilers.
NOTE - 20 seconds after the ROLL DISC handle is pulled, both amber ROLL SEL switchlights will illuminate and the SPOILERONS ROLL caution will appear on EICAS to prompt the pilots to select the side with the operable aileron.
270
What does pressing either ROLL SEL switchlight accomplish?
The amber ROLL SEL switchlights will extinguish
The green PLT ROLL or CPLT ROLL switchlight will illuminate to indicate which side was selected.
The PLT ROLL CMD or CPLT ROLL CMD advisory message will be displayed on EICAS.
The selected pilot’s control wheel will control the left and right MFSs.
271
What protection is provided for an aileron PCU runaway?
When the pilot flying applies 9 lbs of force in the direction opposite the runaway, the bungee breakout system will separate the control wheels and the Spoiler Stabilizer Control Unit (SSCU) associated with the aileron that has not runaway will illuminate either the PLT ROLL or CPLT ROLL switchlight, display the appropriate ROLL CMD advisory message, and automatically command both set of MFSs to respond to inputs from the control wheel connected to the operable aileron.
272
What is occurring when the pilots trim the ailerons or rudder?
The control surfaces are being repositioned. There are no trim tabs.
273
What panels are part of the GND LIFT dumping system?
Inboard and outboard ground spoilers, all 4 MFS panels.
274
How are the flight controls gust locked?
Hydraulic fluid is trapped in the PCUs and flutter dampers during shutdown.
275
How is the Yaw Damper engaged?
YD1 and YD2 engage switches on the center pedestal.
276
How is the Yaw Damper system disengaged?
By pressing the DISC button on the center pedestal.
277
What controls the yaw dampers?
Flight Control Computer 1 (FCC1) controls Yaw Damper 1 (YD1)
| Flight Control Computer 2 (FCC2) controls Yaw Damper 2 (YD2)
278
How are the flaps operated?
2 electric Power Drive Units (PDUs) mounted on a flap gear box.
279
How many flap segments does the CRJ have?
4 (2 on each wing)
280
What degree of Slat/Flap deployment will the emergency flap switch command?
25°/20°
281
Emergency flap switch inhibit speed
220 KIAS
282
What protection is provided to prevent flap asymmetry?
If the flap segments differ by more than 5°, the flap brakes are applied and the flaps will remain at the current position.
The Flap Electronic Control Unit (FECU) will prevent the flaps from being reset during flight.
283
How is STAB TRIM operated?
A split switch on the control wheels operates two electric motors that turn a jack screw to change the horizontal stabilizer angle of incidence.
284
Min/Max angles of incidence for the horizontal stabilizer
+2° / -13°
285
What is the priority for STAB TRIM control?
Captain
First Officer
Autopilot
MACH trim
286
What holds the main landing gear in the up or down position?
Mechanical and hydraulic uplocks or downlocks.
287
What holds the nose gear in the up and down position?
The over center mechanism
288
How are the nose gear doors actuated?
Mechanically
| NOTE: The nose gear doors will remain open whenever the nose gear is extended.
289
What hydraulic system normally actuates the landing gear?
Hydraulic system 3
290
What hydraulic system is used as an alternate for landing gear extension?
Hydraulic system 2
291
What is the purpose of the brushes on the main wheel wells?
They create an aerodynamic seal for the main landing gear bay.
292
Where is the landing gear position displayed?
Right side of the EICAS primary page
293
Which component monitors the position of up locks,
| down locks, and gear door position and WOW sensors?
Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit (PSEU)
294
What prevents an UP selection on the LDG GEAR lever while the aircraft is on the ground?
The down-lock solenoid in LDG GEAR lever
295
Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes?
Hydraulic system 3
296
Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes?
Hydraulic system 2
297
When will the anti-skid system become operational?
When the main landing gear spin up 35 kts or higher, or Weight-on-wheels plus 5 seconds
298
What is the lowest speed at which the anti-skid system will operate?
10 knots wheel speed
299
Which hydraulic system operates the nose wheel steering?
Hydraulic system 3
300
What are the nose wheel steering travel limits?
8° either side of center using rudder pedals
| 80° either side of center using the tiller
301
Wingspan
76' 3"
302
Height of the tail
24' 1 "
303
Turning radius
80' 1"
304
Min obstacle clearance for 180° turn?
126' 5"
305
Length
118' 11"
306
Horizontal stabilizer width
28' 4"
307
Main landing gear to main landing gear - center width
13' 6"
308
Max tailwind for TO&L
10 kts
