CRJ Normal procedures and profiles Flashcards
2
Q
Which pilot (PF or PM) completes teh flow on a challenge and reply checklist?
A
The PF normally completes the flow.
3
Q
How should a pilot respond when a checklist action has not been completed during a challenge and reply checklist?
A
“STAND-BY” or other suitable response to indicate that the action has not been completed, and complete the item before the next checklist change is read
4
Q
In what order should a checklist flow be completed?
A
By scanning the flight deck as indicated by the checklist flow, while performing necessary actions such as checking, testing, or setting as outlined in the expanded checklist.
5
Q
How should a pilot respond to an “AS REQUIRED” checklist response?
A
There may be more than one correct response. One of the responses in the expanded checklist should be used.
6
Q
Explain how a “SILENT” checklist should be accomplished?
A
They are the responsibility of the listed pilot. Complete the flow, then refer to the checklist.
7
Q
Who is responsible for ensuring pilot currency/legal requirements?
A
The company will endeavor to monitor legal requirements, however it is each pilot’s responsibility to monitor their own individual requirements and notify Flight Operations if any legal limit or requirement is expected to be exceeded.
8
Q
What checklist should be accomplished prior to conducting the preflight inspection?
A
The Safety Check, so that various components can be checked during the preflight.
9
Q
When must the Safety Check be completed?
A
Immediately upon arrival at the aircraft. This check is also used to establish AC power on the aircraft after the Shutdown Check below the line has been completed. The Safety Check must be completed prior to conducting an external inspection.
10
Q
When must the “Exterior Accessible Compartments Security search” be completed?
A
The security search shall be conducted prior to the first departure at the beginnning of each calendar day and prior to any subsequent departure when the aircraft has been left unattended or has not been properly monitored, or the security of the aircraft is in question.
11
Q
Is it ever appropriate for the First Officer to complete the Safety Check?
A
Yes, if the FO arrives at the aircraft prior the Captain, OM doesn’t specify who does it.
12
Q
If the First Officer completes the the safety check, doe the Captain have to re-accomplish the check?
A
Not required to re-accomplish the check but the ultimate responsibility rests with the PIC.
13
Q
What should you do immediately after turning the BATTERY MASTER switch ON during the Safety Check?
A
Check that no unusual EICAS messages are illuminated. Check Main and APU battery voltage at 22 volts minimum.
14
Q
What precaution must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Safety Check?
A
Ensure the nose doors are closed, or ensure the nose door area is clear prior to turning on either hydraulic system 3 pump.
15
Q
How quickly must AC electrical power be established after the Battery Master switch has been turned on?
A
5 minutes
16
Q
When must an Originating Check be accomplished?
A
Prior to the first flight of the day for that A/C, or anytime considered necessary
17
Q
What precaution must be taken prior to moving the flap lever to the anticipated takeoff flap setting, (as with deferral of a skew detector system), or for any reason at the gate?
A
Ensure that the flap area is clear.
18
Q
When should the Before Start Check be accomplished?
A
As soon as feasible, preferably before passenger boarding and after the preflight/walkaround
19
Q
When is FMS Status page data verification required?
A
During FMS initialization
20
Q
When must both pilots verify FMS navigation changes before pressing the EXEC function key?
A
After the flight plan has been initially verified.
21
Q
What does the “STANDARD” response to ANTI-ICE during the Before Start Check indicate?
A
L and R windshields on LOW and probes ON.
22
Q
In reference to the Before Start Check, what should be covered in the Departure Briefing?
A
OM 3-3.1, FOM 10-1.1, and Speed Card briefing guide.
23
Q
Under what condition may an engine be started prior to ALL aircraft doors being closed?
A
Normally the engines will not be started until all aircraft doors and hatches are closed. Deferred APU and no ground air conditioning, the right engine may be started after all servicing is completed if there are no other prohibitive circumstances.
24
Q
What is HOT fueling?
A
Fueling the aircraft with an engine running
25
Q
Are we authorized to HOT Fuel?
A
Yes
26
Where do you find the procedures for HOT fueling?
FOM Chapter 5
27
Prior to aircraft Pushback from the gate, what items must be complete?
Check with the Flight Attendant and ensure all passengers are seated with seatbelts fastened. Complete the engine start check to the line. Obtain pushback clearance if necessary.
28
During pushback who is responsible for communication with the tug operator and ATC/Ramp Control?
The Captain
29
The Engine Start Check assumes an operable APU. What should the pilot refer to for other start methods/procedures?
Refer to the QRH
30
What does the "PACKS and BLEEDS...Set for Start" response during the Engine Start Check indicate?
L & R pack switch/lights - OFF. 10TH stage isolation valve switch/light - OPEN. APU LCV switch/light - OPEN. 10TH stage left and right SOV - CLOSED.
31
Which engine should normally be started first flight of the day?
On the first flight of the day the left engine should be started first, and both engines shall be started to enable completion of the first flight of the day checks. If subsequent delays are encountered, an engine may be secured.
32
Under what conditions must an engine start be aborted and maintenance notified?
For any engine start malfunction unless the cause is obvious to the crew and it is determined another start may be attempted safely.
33
What is the First Officer's indication to begin his/her after start check flow?
The First Officer may begin the After Start Check flow as soon as the engine is stabilized.
34
What precautions should be taken prior to checking the rudder on the after start check in a pushback operation?
Ensure that towbar and/or chocks have been removed and NW area is clear or personnel.
35
What precaution must be taken prior to turning the nose wheel steering switch on?
Ensure that towbar and /or chocks have been removed.
36
Before clearing the pushback driver "off headset," what action should be completed?
Upon hearing from the pushback driver "Tow Bar/Pushback Unit Disconnected, Area Clear, The Captain may perform the After Start Checklist. When the crew is ready, the Captain will tell the pushback driver "Cleared Off Headset."
37
What signal must the Captain receive prior to taxiing the aircraft?
The "ALL CLEAR" signal
38
What is the "All Clear" Signal?
A standard military salute with hand and/or wand.
39
When should single engine taxi be considered?
Every time, unless the Captain deems it unsafe to do so.
40
What things should be considered prior to single engine taxi?
Ramp/Taxiway contamination, or very short taxi times.
41
What fuel systems considerations must be taken during single engine taxi?
Turn off both fuel pumps to prevent imbalance. Don't SE taxi with fuel in center tank unless both wings contain 4400 lbs or more.
42
What should occur before making any steering inputs when starting to taxi?
Start the aircraft moving forward
43
Which lights must be ON for all night taxi operations?
The recog/taxi light, wing inspection, plus of course the rotating beacon and nav lights
44
When may the taxi light be turned OFF during taxi operations?
When under the direction of a signal person, when entering the parking apron, or whenever the aircraft is stationary in excess of 10 minutes
45
When must the taxi light be turned OFF during operations?
Whenever the aircraft is stationary in excess of 10 minutes
46
When is it acceptable to use reverse thrust during taxi?
Reverse thrust is prohibited during normal operations. Reverse thrust for taxi can only be used in an emergency
47
What procedures must the crew adhere to during low visibility (<1200 RVR) taxi?
Flight crews must follow the taxi routes and procedures depicted on the Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) for the airport (if available). In any case, during low visibility taxi (<1200 RVR), adhere to the following procedures. All crewmembers (including jumpseat riders) will be heads up during aircraft movement. System checks and tests which are normally accomplished during taxi should be accomplished while the aircraft is stationary. All crewmembers must be familiar with the taxi route prior to aircraft movement. If in doubt, stop the aircraft and query ATC.
48
During the single engine taxi, when teh Captain is ready for the engine to be started he will call for what checklist?
Taxi Start Check
49
What must be completed prior to calling for the Before Takeoff Check?
Both engines must be running and the Captain should verify that all checklist items are completed, including the takeoff briefing.
50
What pilot completes the takeoff briefing?
First Officer
51
Briefly explain "CRJ Standard:"
Any abnormality before V1, the PM will state the malfunction. The Captain will state "Continue" or "Abort." If an abort is required, the Captain will carry out the "Rejected Takeoff" procedure. Any abnormality after V1, state the malfunction. The PF will continue to fly the aircraft. Immediate actions as required. Hold all other checklists until reaching a safe altitude.
52
How does the Flight Attendant indicate he/she is ready for takeoff?
He/she will call the flight deck and state "Cabin secure, ready for takeoff" after being notified by the flight crew that takeoff is imminent.
53
Which external lights must the Captain have ON when cleared "line up and wait" at night or during low visibility?
The RECOG/TAXI, WING INSP and STROBE lights, and always NAV lights and rotating beacon
54
The response "Verified" to the Before Takeoff Check" FMS....Runway_Set/Verified", means that you have verified what?
Proper departure runway is selected, verified the first waypoint, if FMS is the planned navigation source that AUTO is selected on the FMS RADIO page, NAV SOURCE is selected to FMS (white needles).
55
What does the "Altimeters....Checked" Takeoff Check response mean?
A cross check of the altimeters must be performed. The altitude displayed on all three altimeters must be within 75 feet of the published runway elevation.
56
The Takeoff Check response "CAS....Checked and Cleared" indicates the First Officer has checked all EICAS messages, checked and cleared the status messages and checked for what green advisory message?
"T/O CONFIG OK" (If the parking brake is set this message will not appear). The "T/O CONFIG OK" message must be verified prior to beginning the takeoff roll.
57
If GPS is deferred, MEL 23-50-01, How do you accomplish a runway update, what is it, and why are we not authorized for intersection departures with this deferral?
Selecting RWY UPDATE on the legs page or pressing TOGA will update the FMS to the selected runway threshold position stored in the database. If departing from an intersection or any location other than the selected runway threshold, without GPS the unit does not know it is not at the selected runway threshold when TOGA or the RWY UPDATE is selected which could cause map shift or accuracy degradation as it determines the true position. Without GPS we cannot be assured of the navigation accuracy required for RNAV departures specifying GPS.
58
When, where, and how is the Runway Verification procedure done in preparation for takeoff?
Captain visually verify the ruwnway prior to crossing the old short line and state "Runway" First Officer cross check the runway and once verified respond with "Runway verified."
59
Explain the Takeoff Runway Verification procedure:
Look up answer**
60
What is meant by the "Fuel...Check" item on the Takeoff Check?
Verify the fuel is balanced within limits for takeoff and the quantity is at or above the MIN fuel specified on the Dispatch Release. Note fuel quantity in accordance with FOM fuel monitoring policy.
61
How do you determine what flap setting to use for takeoff?
The flap setting comes from the Takeoff Data Message.
62
When must continuous ignition be used during the takeoff?
Takeoffs with crosswind components of more than 10 knots. Takeoffs from contaminated runways.
63
How do you determine if a rolling or static takeoff is required?
The takeoff data message contains this information
64
Takeoff N1 must be set by what speed?
60 KIAS
65
The PF should advance power to approximately what __ % NZ, before increasing power towards target N1?
70%`
66
What precaution should be taken to prevent engine surge during takeoff in high crosswind conditions?
Don't apply power to rapidly at low speed.
67
When the First Officer is the PF during takeoff, at what point does he/she place both hands on the yoke?
After the F/O sates "SET POWER" and the Captain places his/her right hand on the thrust levers.
68
If the First Officer is the PF and a takeoff is rejected, which pilot will perform the rejected takeoff?
The Captain performs at RTOs.
69
When should the PM make the "Positive Rate" call?
When noted on flight instruments (VSI and altimeter).
70
When should an AFCS lateral mode be selected after takeoff?
After "SPEED MODE" is engaged.
71
What action should the PM take upon hearing "SPEED MODE"?
Select Speed Mode and verify the speed bucket is set to V2 + 15
72
At what AGL altitude may the PF call for teh autopilot to be turned on after takeoff?
600 feet
73
For flaps 20 takeoff, what is the minimum speed for retracting flaps from 20 to 8?
V2 + 15
74
For flaps 8 takeoff, what is the minimum speed for retracting flaps from 8 to 0?
V2 + 15
75
To what speed should you accelerate in Class B airspace?
250 KIAS as quickly as feasible
76
When should acceleration be limited to 200 KIAS during the takeoff profile?
When within 4 miles of the primary airport in class C or D airspace, until above 2,500 feet AGL
77
When completing the After Takeoff Check, "FLAPS...Up" requires what items to be checked?
Verify flap handle is selected to 0 and the EICAS flaps indication shows 0
78
Describe the "BLEEDS...Set" item during the After Takeoff Check:
R and L 10TH SOV - OPEN, 10TH ISOL - CLOSED, and APU LCV - CLOSED. Otherwise, state the switch configuration.
79
"APU...As Required" requires what 2 possible conditions during the After Takeoff Check?
Shutdown the APU unless required per the MEL
80
Is the APU left running during normal operations?
No. Shutdown the APU unless required per the MEL
81
Describe the normal climb profile:
250 KIAS to 10,000 ft., then 290 KIAS unti reaching 0.74 MACH. If ACARS equipped departing other than Class B or high density airports after 10,000 ft. consult ECON SPEED page.
82
Under what circumstances is it acceptable to deviate from the normal climb profile?
When operation considerations dictate. (Some examples are an intermediate level off with a gain of airspeed above the given profile. In this case it may be advantageous to climb at the higher airspeed or allow the speed to very slowly decelerate toward the CI profile. When departing Class B airspace, the minimum climb profile should 290/M.70. Under no circumstances though less than 250KIAS/.70MACH). Always accommodate ATC requests when it is safe to do so.
83
What signals the Flight Attendant that the critical phase of flight has ended?
The Captain turning off the SEAT BELT sign or cycling the NO SMOKING sign at 10,000' or lower cruise altitude.
84
Which pilot calls for the Climb Check?
The PF
85
Except during an emergency or abnormal condition, is it ever appropriate to set power higher than the FMS or QRH cruise setting?
No
86
Under normal conditions is it acceptable to exceed the flight plan cruise speed?
No
87
What action should be taken if the planned cruise speed cannot be maintained without exceeding the maximum cruise thrust?
Refer to the Altitude Capability Charts to determine a more appropriate alitude
88
What are the equipment requirements for operation in RVSM airspace?
RVSM REQUIRED EQUIPMENT LISTAutopilot (1) must be operational Altitude Alerting System Must be opeartional Altitude Reporting Transponder (2) One (1) must be operationalAir Data Computer (2) - ADC 1 & 2 Two must be operational The ADC source coupled to the active autopilot must be the same as that coupled to the ATC transponder during flight in RVSM airspace. All requirements of the above limitations must be met prior to commencing operations within
89
In preparation for entering RVSM airspace, what actions should the crew take prior to and after entry?
Crosscheck and note any different between the primary altitmeters and the standby altimeter in preparation for entering RVSM airspace if so planned. For RVSM operations the primary and standby alttimeters must be crosscheck at least ebery hour. At least the initial crosscheck should be recorded. A minimum of two primary altimeters should agree with a maximum difference of 200 ft or less. If there is a difference greater than 200 ft., the altimeter system must be reported to ATC as defective, and the discrepancy noted for an AFDL entry.
90
When should landing data be set and the approach briefing be completed if feasible?
When possible, set the landing data and complete the approach brief during cruise flight
91
When should the Descent and Approach Check be completed?
Passing FL 180, or leaving cruise altitude, whichever is lower.
92
What portions of the Descent and Approach checklist should be completed in cruise flight whenver possible?
Setting the landing data and completing the approach breifing.
93
For what should the PF request before the approach briefing begins?
Current ATIS and landing data set.
94
Which airspeed reference pointers are set for landing?
VR(ref), V2, and VT
95
If given holding instructions, when should speed reduction be initiated?
Three minutes or less prior to the estimated arrival at the holding fix.
96
What is the appropriate indicated speed for holding at 13,000 feet?
ECON SPEED from ACARS when available or 200 KIAS
97
What is the appropriate indicated speed for holding at FL 180?
ECON SPEED from ACARS when available or 225 KIAS
98
What is the correct terminology for transfer of controls for the approach brief?
The PF states "You have the controls." The PM will state, "I have the controls."
99
Which pilot should select the approach in the FMS?
The pilot conducting the approach breifing will be the PM during the brief and select the appropriate approach in the FMS.
100
When completing the Descent and Approach check, what consideration should given to the APU?
Normal operations do not require the APU to be started. If available, the APU must be started if an approach is being conducted in icing conditions.
101
What signals the Flight Attendant of steril cockpit during descent?
The two chime (two tone) signal.
102
Should the landing lights be turned ON during the Descent and Approach Check?
No, they are normally turned on during the landing check.
103
Below what alittude must the PF command FMS entries and avoid making the himself?
10,000 feet MSL
104
What is the nav source for an ILS approach?
Both pilots in green needles
105
What is the VREF factor with winds of 27010G25?
7.5 kts
106
When should Green Needles be selected before an ILS approach?
Prior to joining the final approach course, unless FMS guidance is required to join the final course.
107
What is the nav source selection for LOC, LOC DME, LOC BC and LDA DME approaches?
Green Needles
108
What is the nav source selection for a VOR approach?
PF - White needles and auto tune. PM - Green needles and RTU tuned to VOR frequency.
109
Which type of approach is flown with white needles and required bearing pointers to be displayed?
NDB
110
By what AGL altitude must teh aiprlane be stabilized at approach speed on an ILS approach?
The airpalne must be in an approved landing configuration no lower than 1000 feet above TDZE in IMC and VMC, except when conducting a circling approach in VMC
111
To what altitude may the autopilot be used on a CAT II approach? The approach?
The autopilot may be used to a minimum of 80 feet AGL for Category II approaches.
112
You arrive at your destination and find that the control tower has closed. May we conduct a Category II approach?
Category II approach are not authorized without an operating control tower.
113
You arrive at your destination and braking action is reported FAIR. Can you conduct a Category II approach?
Yes. Category II operations are not approaved to runways where the braking action is reported as less than FAIR.
114
The maximum wind components for Category II operations are?
17 kts headwind, 15 kts crosswind, 10 kts tailing
115
Decision height for Category II approaches is determined by?
Charted DH, Minimum DH listed in ExpressJet Operating Specifications paragraph CO59; ExpressJet shall not use any Cat II IFR landign minimums lower than those prescribed by any applicalbe published Cat II instrument approach procedures.
116
ILS approach procedures may be divided into which two categories?
Monitored and unmonitored
117
What are monitored approach procedures and when are they required?
Monitored approach procedures dicatate that the First Officer controls the flight path by contolling and monitoring the autopilot. The Captain assumes control for the visual segment and landing. Monitored approach procedures shall be used for all Category II approaches, and Category I approahces when the autopilot is available and the RVR is below 4000.
118
Explain the unmonitored approach procedure.
The PF (Captain or First Officer) is responsible for control of the aircraft flgiht path and subsequent landing/missed approach. The aircraft may be controlled manually or with the aid of the flight director and/or autopilot.
119
When shall monitored approach procedures be used?
Monitored approach procedures shall be used for all Category II approaches, and Category I approaches when the autopilot is available and th eRVR is below 4,000, Captain's Discretion Above 4,000 RVR
120
Wich pilot accomplished the approach brief for a monitored approach?
The Captain shall brief the approach prior to the Descent and Approach check
121
Who is the PF on a monitored approach?
Throughout the approach phase, the First Officer shall be the pilot flying (PF) until the runway environment is visually acquired. This includes: 1. Vectors or other maneuvering to the final approach segment2. The final approach segment 3. The missed approach segment if the runway environment is not visually required
122
When must the autopilot be used during a monitored approach?
With the exception of the missed approach, the autopilot shall be engaged during all phases of the approach except for missed approaches, the autopilot may be engaged at 600 feet AGL, in order to reduced workload.
123
On a monitored approach, who is the PF below DH?
For all flight below DH the Captain shall be the PF. This included1) Visual flight after the acquisition of adequate visual cues 2) landing3) Rejected landing and subsequent missed approach
124
On a monitored approach, which pilot will be PF in the event of a rejected landing?
While a conventional missed approach from DH would be flown by the First Officer, all rejected landings initiated after the transfer of controls must be flown by the Captain.
125
On a monitored approach, describe the duties of the Captain upon completeion of the landing check.
1) The Captain will ensure the missed approach altitude is set in the Altitude Alerter and the Heading Bug is set to the initial missed approach direction. 2) 1,000 feet above TDZE, the Captain will cross check all three (3) altimeters and navigation instruments and call "INSTRUMENT CROSS CHECKED, GEAR DOWN, CLEARED TO LAND."3) At this point the Captain will transition to begin looking for visual references
126
Describe the duties of the First Officer at 500' above TDZE on a monitored approach.
Reference Monitored approach Profile OM 8-1.5 and chart on 3-7.4 for duties and callouts
127
Explain the duties and callouts of the Captain and FO at DH on a monitored approach.
Prior to or by DH, the Captain will call "VISUAL" if external visual references are sufficient, or make no callout if external visual references are insufficient. - If the Captain announces "VISUAL", the Captain will select AP off at or above 80' and continue to a landing or go-around if external visual references should subsequently become insufficient. The First Officer will continue to monitor flight instruments and annouce "AUTOPILOT" at 80' for CAT II or at 50' below DA for CAT I. - If the Captain makes no callout, the First Officer will simultaneously advance the Thrust Levers towards TOGA, press the TOGA switch, call "SET GO AROUND POWER, SPOILERS IN" and rotate into the command bars. When at or above VREF (bottom of the speed bucket), the PF will call "FLAPS 8." The Captain will ensure thrust levers are set to GA Power and ensure the First Officer rotates into the command bars, select Flaps 8 and ensure the Flight Spoilers are retracted.
128
What is the correct to hearing "AIRSPEED" during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
The First Officer should execute a missed approach.
129
What is the correct response to hearing "PITCH" during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
The First Officer should execute a missed approach.
130
What is the correct response to hearing "BANK" during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
The First Officer should execute a missed approach.
131
What is the correct response to hearing "EXCESS DEVIATION" during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
The First Officer should execute a missed approach
132
What is the correct response to hearing "AUTO PILOT ERROR" during a monitored approach when below 1000 feet?
The First Officer should execute a missed approach
133
What standard callout should the PM make at the positive motion of the localizer bar?
"LOCALIZER ALIVE"
134
What standard callout should the PM make when the localizer captures on the FMA?
"LOC 1" or "LOC 2"
135
When should flaps be selected to 20 during an ILS approach?
Intercepting final approach course
136
When should flaps be selected to 30 during an ILS approach?
1 1/2 dot below GS or prior to FAF
137
When should flaps be selected to 45 during an ILS approach?
Just prior to GS intercept
138
By what AGL altitude must the airplane be stabilized at approach speed on an ILS approach?
1,000 AGL
139
What is the goal of a Constant Rate Non-Precision Approach?
The goal of a ocnstant rate non-precision approach is to maintain a constant rate of descent rhoughtout the final approach segment
140
How is the descent rate calculated for a CANPA approach?
A correspondign conversoint able in the block below the profile view provides a recommeded rate of descent based on ground speed
141
When conducting CANPA, what precautions apply to approaches with a step down fix?
If the aircraft stays on or approzimates the published descent angle it is assured to remain above the crossing altitude. It is however, the Flight Crew's responsibility to remain above any step-down fix altitude
142
When should flpas be selected to 20 during a non-precision approach profile?
During final segment/vectors
143
When should flaps be selected to 30 during a non-precision approach profile
five (5) miles from FAF
144
When should flaps be selected to 45 during a non-precision approach profile?
One (1) to two (2) miles from the FAF
145
What standard callout should the PM make at 1000 feet AGL on approach?
"INSTRUMENTS CROSS CHECKED, GEAR DOWN, CLEARED TO LAND"
146
What call out should the PM make at the final approach fix, during a non-precision approach profile?
"FINAL FIX"
147
At what point during a non-precision approach should the missed approach altitude be set in the altitude selector?
Prior to crossing the FAF the crew should set the missed approach altitude in the altitude alerter
148
What Profile Deviation callout should the PM make for an ILS deviation?
"1/3 DOT LEFT/RIGHT OF LOC" or "1 DOT ABOVE/BELOW GLIDESLOPE."
149
What Profile Deviation callout should the PM make for a VOR approach deviation?
"1 DOT LEFT/RIGHT OF COURSE"
150
What Profile Deviation callout should the PM make for a NDB approach deviation?
"5 LEFT/RIGHT OF COURSE"
151
What Profile Deviation callout should the PM make when below 1000 feet AGL and the airspeed is 3 knots below target?
"3 KNOTS SLOW"
152
How is an LDA with glide slope approach profile flown?
The same as a standard ILS
153
In what configuartion should you enter the traffic pattern for a visual approach?
Flaps 8, 180 KIAS at 1,500 AGL
154
When glidepath information is not available on a visual approach, what must the pilot do?
Compute a 3 degree glidepath by using the 300 feet above runway elevation per mile from the runway
155
What weather minimums are required to initiate a circling approach?
1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
156
What are the differences between the circle to land profile and the normal approach profile.
Maintain flaps 30 VREF + 10 (maneuvering speed) until on final approach and in a position from which a normal descent ot landign can be commenced.
157
During the circle to land profile what altitude should be set in the MDA window?
DDA
158
During the circle to land profile what altitude should be set in teh altitude alerter?
The altitude alerter is set ot the missed approach altitude prior to the FAF
159
What altitude should be referenced when making the 100/200 feet to minimums calls during the circle to land profile?
DDA
160
Which Landing Check item requires a response form the PF?
PM "GEAR....DOWN" PF "VERIFIED"
161
At what speed can the First Officer expect the Captain to take the controls during the landign rollout?
Normally prior to 60 knots
162
If the First Officer is PF what call does the Captain make prior to 60 knots?
"I have the controls"
163
At what point should the Captain call for the After Landing Checklist?
When clear of the runway
164
What type of checklist is the After Landing Checklist?
First Officer Silent
165
Where is the Single Engine Turn checklist found?
CR2 OM Vol 1, 4-1.3
166
What precuation must be taken prior to selecting the thrust levers to shut off?
Ensure the thrust reversers are stowed.
167
When is the Fuel Check Valve Check required to be performed?
During the Engine Start Check and the Shutdown Check on the first flight of the day for that aircraft.
