CRJ Flight Planning Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for aircraft flight planning?

A

It is a joint responsibility. Both PIC and Dispatcher are responsible for the preflight planning, and Dispatch release of a flight

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2
Q

Is a flight release required for a maintenance ferry flight?

A

Yes, when operating under the authority of a Ferry Flight Permit

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3
Q

What is the time limitation for an originating dispatch release?

A

No limit.

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4
Q

When are you required to have either a new or an amended dispatch release?

A

All revenue flights operated under part 121. Any flight that remains at the blocks for more than one hour, at an intermediate stop listed on the dispatch release. Before departing any station where and unscheduled landing has been made. When an aircraft returns to land after being airborne. When a change of any crewmember or aircraft takes place. MEL items which restrict the dispatch of an aircraft. Maintenance ferry flight permit. A change in the weather forecast at the destination such that an alternate becomes required.

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5
Q

The PIC is responsible for ensuring compliance with the FOM. How does the PIC perform a dispatch release check?

A

The PIC’s signature on the release signifies the acceptance and concurrence with the planned operation including the receipt of the Computer Flight Plan/Release, Weather briefing. And that the crewmember verification process has been completed, the aircraft is loaded in accordance with ExpressJet’s approved aircraft loading/weight and balance program. It is against FAR’s to depart without a signed Dispatch Release/Load Manifest. The primary means of signing the release is the pilot’s digital signature in the ACARS system. The PIC must complete a two step process to digitally sign for the release. The first step is to input the Captains five digit employee number into the CAPT ID field of the ACARS initialize page. The second step is to enter the Captain’s ACARS passowrd into the CERT ID field of the ACARS LOADSHEET page.

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6
Q

When is the PIC required to notify the Dispatcher about a change from the planned release?

A

Enroute or arrival holding of more than 15 minutes, route deviations adding more than 15 minutes to the ETE, or flight altitude changes if fuel-planning computations increase the planned fuel burn that will cause depletion of the Contingency and any Extra fuel not burned prior to takeoff.

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7
Q

What determines if a destination alternate is required?

A

If weather at destination 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA is less than 2000ft ceiling and visibility is less than 3 miles

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8
Q

How are alternate airport weather minimums determined?

A

FOM Chapter 4

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9
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When the departure airport is below landing minimums.

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10
Q

List the minimum Fuel Requirements for a Domestic Dispatch Release.

A

Fly to the airport to which dispatched. To fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport to which dispatched thereafter to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. Fuel for any known or expected delays.

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11
Q

What is not listed in the fuel planning requirements?

A

Fuel for Ground Operations

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12
Q

If you have a release with two destination alternates, how much fuel must be on board?

A

Fuel to fly to the airport to which you have been dispatched and then to the most distant alternate for the airport to which dispatched, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

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13
Q

How is reserve fuel planned?

A

Based on the last cruise burn rate.

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14
Q

What is the acceptable fueling overage above ramp fuel?

A

200 lbs

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15
Q

What performance guarantees does the MFPTW provide?

A

Maximum Flight Plan Takeoff Weight accounts for all non-runway/airport related weights including Structural Takeoff, EnRoute, Takeoff Alternate, Structural Landing (fuel burn), Zero Fuel, and several others.

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16
Q

What does the PMRTW take into account?

A

Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight accounts for Accelerate-Stop, Accelerate Go, Obstacle Clearence, and Minimum Takeoff climb Gradient. The PMRTW is indicated only for the runway as listed under PRWY in the Planned Takeoff Data section of the TLR.

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17
Q

What is your source for temperature while on the ground?

A

ATIS, ASOS, or AWOS, or tower reported temperature.

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18
Q

Can the indicated SAT or TAT be used for takeoff data?

A

No. The indicated SAT and TAT on EICAS does not provide an accurate temperature reading on the ground and cannot be used for outside air temperature prior to takeoff.

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19
Q

What information is contained in the Header of the TLR?

A

The header contains speceific flight identification information. At the top is the flight number and local departure date. The TLR-# is provided for matching flight release and Takeoff Report versions. SEQ# is a unique tracking number followed by the UTC date and time the report was created. Next, the tail number and engine/airfram combination.

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20
Q

What are the V-Speeds listed in the Planned Line?

A

These are the takeoff speeds based upon the runway, conditions, and Planned Takeoff Weight as listed in the Planned Takeoff Data section of the TLR.

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21
Q

When is Reduced Thrust used for takeoffs?

A

Reduced thrust can be used for ALL takeoffs except for when the wing or cowling anti-ice is on, when there is a contaminated runway, or when windshear warnings are in effect.

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22
Q

What is the PTOW PLUS 1000 section used for in the TLR?

A

This is where the Max Allowable Takeoff Weight is determined for the runways up to the Max Temperature for the given runway.

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23
Q

After takeoff in IMC, all turns will be delayed until 1000 except:

A

When cleared for a SID and the SID directs a turn below 1000 AFE, the turn must be accomplished when the procedure indicates. If an altitude is not listed, begin the turn at 400’ AFE. When an ODP exists for the runway: ATC vectors are not available- compliance with the ODP is required, turn below 1000’ AFE as directed by the ODP. ATC headings or vectors are available- ATC headings or vectors below 1000’ AFE for obstacle clearance may be accepted. When the TLR states “Early ALL ENG OPERATING TURN ABOVE 400 FT AFE OK” turns may be accomplished below 1000 AFE. IF an engine fails. This is addressed in the Engine Failure Path section.

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24
Q

What is the minimum Reduced thrust value?

A

85% N1.

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25
Q

Can reduced thrust be used for takeoff on a Wet Runway?

A

Yes, provided wet runway performance data is used.

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26
Q

How do you know that the performance adjustment for a MEL/CDL item has been accounted for in the TLR?

A

Whenever there is a deferral on an airplane that affects performance, it must appear on the TLR as planned by the dispatcher. However, it is the crew’s responsibility to verify that the dispatcher has chosen the correct data to be displayed. Within the TLR, the most pertinent sections to this subject are the Remarks in the planned data and the Title Lines of the Max Effort data. The remarks section lists non-standard airplane configurations or runway conditions. the general rules for reading anything in the Remarks section are: listed configuration or conditions in the takeoff remarks apply to the entire takeoff report unless specified otherwise in the individual section title lines of the takeoff portion of the TLR.

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27
Q

According to the OM, what is the definition of a “wet” runway?

A

A runway is considered to be wet when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective but without significant areas of standing water.

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28
Q

When is a runway considered to be contaminated?

A

When more than 25% of the runway, within the required length and width to be used, is covered by more than 1/8 inch of standing water, sluch, or loose snow.

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29
Q

What is the primary method of weight and CG computation?

A

ACARS

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30
Q

Explain the back up weight and balance procedure.

A

The system utilizes the Dispatcher to determine W&B and takeoff data for the flight using data provided by the crew.

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31
Q

Under what circumstances would you have to use the Maximum Permissable Quick Turn Land Weight chart?

A

If the BTMS is inoperative

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32
Q

At what visibility does ExpressJet consider Low Visibility Taxi in effect?

A

1200

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33
Q

During Low Visibilty Taxi, what special procedures need to be followed?

A

Use airport SMGCS, if available. Both pilots heads up, eyes out of cockpit. System tests and checks normally accomplished during taxi will be performed when the aircraft is stationary. Pilots must be familiar with the airport and taxi route.

34
Q

Are SMGCS charts available for all airports?

A

No.

35
Q

How is the runway Hold Short line depicted on the taxiway?

A

Four yellow lines, two solid lines and two dashed lines all parallel. The aircraft must hold on the solid line side.

36
Q

On taxi out of ramp 4S in ATL you are issued the Blue Twelve Taxi Route. Does this authorize you to cross a runway?

A

No.

37
Q

How is a runway displaced threshold marked?

A

A set of chevrons or a ten foot wide solid line across the runway, with a series of arrows pointing to the solid line, depending on the type of opertaion permiited on that portion of the runway.

38
Q

Should it become necessary to depart VFR (unable to communicate with ATC) where are the references and direction found?

A

FOM 2-5.1

39
Q

According to our approved deicing/anti-icing program, when does a “pre-takeoff check” have to be performed?

A

Anytime the aircraft has been deiced/anti-iced, and a holdover time has been established. It is accomplished within the holdover time range, and normally by the flight crew from inside the cockpit. If necessary, the FO may (using correct procedures) enter the cabin to view the wings.

40
Q

When is it required that a “Holdover” time be established?

A

When ground icing conditions exist after being de-iced as a means of establishing the time the fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow or slush on the projected surfaces of the aircraft.

41
Q

A holdover time has been established and a takeoff clearence is subsequently delayed until after the holdover time will expire. Can you depart without additional deicing?

A

Yes, but only after a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check, including an External Tactile Check is performed by qualified ground personnel. This may require returning to the deice/anti-ice pad.

42
Q

How is the Pre-takeoff Contamination Check conducted on the CRJ?

A

No sooner than 5 minutes prior to takeoff, a tactile check of the representative surface of the wing must be performed by qualified ground personnel other than the flight crew

43
Q

What is the “representative surface” to be checked on the Pre-takeoff Check?

A

The unheated portion of the left wing.

44
Q

What is bank angle limited to if you are below approach maneuvering speed?

A

15 degrees

45
Q

Unless otherwise directed, turns during takeoff are considered to begin where?

A

NO turns shall be commenced below 1,000 Above Field Elevation when takeoff weather is less than 1000 ft ceiling and 3sm visibility unless a Special Departure Procedure prescribes otherwise or the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before reaching 1000 AGL. Flap Retraction Altitude for all takeoffs is 1000 AFE unless a Special Procedure prescribes otherwise.

46
Q

What does maneuvering speed ensure?

A

Adequate stick shaker protection (stall) for a normal 30 degree bank.

47
Q

Describe the AeroData Standard Engine Takeoff Path Procedure.

A

CR2 OM Vol 1, 3-6 10

48
Q

What is “Transition altitude”?

A

The altitude where changeover from the determining altitude from MSL to flight level occurs, altimeters are set to 29.92 climbing through this altitude.

49
Q

Is the PMRLW considered in the MFPTW?

A

Yes. The planned maximum landing weight (PMRLW) for the runway and approach climb is considered when generating the MFPTW in the takeoff data section. Generally, crews are only responsible for chekcing the overall validity of the landing data. Obviously, if the airport is wrong, the planned runway is out of service, or an MEL/CDL item is not accounted for, then a new report must be generated.

50
Q

How do you know what contaminant the Dispatcher used in planning?

A

The planned data is identical except that the runway contaminant planned by the dispatcher will show in the Remarks section along with any needed bleed or anti-ice configurations. When the dispatcher selects a contaminated runway, the report will automatically generate all three levels of contamintaed and WET data. The WET data is there to be used if the contaminated data is not required at the time of takeoff.

51
Q

After receiving a valid TDM or ACARS Back-Up form, what action should be taken?

A

The ZFW should be set into the FMS PERF INIT page, takeoff trim should be set, and the Vspeeds should be set with attention being given to the flap setting required for takeoff

52
Q

You are cruising at FL 310 at .74 mach, ISA +10 at a weight of 46,000 pounds. ATC asks if you can accept FL350. Can you?

A

Yes.

53
Q

If an engine failure occurs after VR but before reaching the MSA, what action must be taken by the crew?

A

If a turn is made to a heading different from the Engine Failure Path, such as a radar vector or a heading with the takeoff clearence, the crew must resume engine failure departure path depending on where the engine failure occurs.

54
Q

How do you determine if Dispatch has programmed a Step Climb along youre route of Flight?

A

refer to the Computerized Flight path.

55
Q

What is Low Visibility Landing Distance?

A

The distance is factored landing distance plus 15%. Low visibility landing distance must be checked if an approach will be flown when visibility is reported below 4,000 RVR or 3/4 statue miles.

56
Q

How and when is the Landing Distance Assessment accomplished?

A

The Landing Distance Assessment is completed after ATIC has been obtained by determing the minimum required runway length for the conditions, compared to the runway length available for landing. This is accomplished using ACARS and obtaining a Landing Data Message. If ACARS is not available, the Speed Cards must be used to accomplish the Landing Distance Assessment.

57
Q

How does the Simple Special Procedure differ from the Standard Procedure?

A

The Simple-Special Procedure differs from Standard Procedures in that a turn to a NAVAID or heading is required before reaching 1000’. FRA remains at 1000’ AFE unless otherwise specified in the FLAP RETRACT box.

58
Q

When are Simple Special Procedures mandatory?

A

Simple-Special Procedures are mandatory in IMC. They are also mandatory in VMC until reaching 1000’ AFE. The turn to the NAVAID or heading is to be made at the highest bank angle appropriate for aircraft speed. In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special pricedure until 3000’ AFE.

59
Q

When on a Simple Special Procedure in IMC and radar vectors are not available, you must comply with the procedure to what altitude?

A

At 3000 AFE, the airplane is now in a position to continue climbing on the heading or in the holding pattern to a minimum safe altitude. The crew is responsible during preflight planning to determine this minimum safe altitude based upon continuing enroute or returning to the departure airport.

60
Q

Where do you find the Simple Special Procedure?

A

SIMPLE-SPECIAL Procedures, when required, are located after the PTOW +1000 sections of the TLR.

61
Q

What is the standard engine out speed for the CRJ?

A

The standard engine-out climb speed for the CRJ is V2, however, if the failure occurs at a speed higher than V2 it is permissable to maintain up to V2 +10 KIAS. In some cases, the Simple-Special DP will indicate V2 in the climb column. If V2 is shown in the climb column, then V2 must be maintained precisely in order to guarantee obstavle clearence.

62
Q

When are Complex Special Procedures issued?

A

The Complex-Special Procedure is issued when an engine failure procedure is too complex to fit in the Simple-Special table and/or other considerations must be taken into account. FRA remains at 1000’ AFE unless otherwise specified in the procedure. Often, all-engine procedures are also specified in order to ensure that the aircraft will remain in the obstacle protected area until reaching a safe engine failure altitude.

63
Q

Are Complex Special Procedures ever designed for a published instrument departure procedure? If so, where are they found?

A

Complex-Special Procedures may be specifically designed for a published instrument departure procedure. In these cases, the name of the applicable instrument departure procedure will be indicated on the Complex-Special and the Complex-Special is only valid for the instrument departure procedure specified. Complex-Special Procedures are mandatory under IMC and VMC. These procedures can be found in the 10-10 pages for the specified airport

64
Q

If LAHSO are being conducted or if Low Vis conditions exist, (visibility <4000 RVR or 3/4 SM,) from where do you obtain the Landing Distance?

A

LDM or the landing distance required is given on the Landing Speed Card. CR@ OM 6-1.7

65
Q

Explain the theory and usage of “Constant Mach” power settings.

A

The theory of a constant MACH cruise is that as fuel is burned and weight decreases, power is reduced, decreasing fuel consumption as the flight progresses.

66
Q

Your computerized flight plan does not show a Mach cruise number and you are filed at FL180. What is your target cruise airspeed?

A

Generally, 300 knots will be the target airspeed, but soon the ECON SPEED via ACARS or the IAS on the flight plan will supply the data. OM vol 1, 3-6.3

67
Q

What is a shock wave?

A

A dramatic change in pressure and density over a few inches of the wing surface. A shock wave forms at the point where supersonic airflow slows back to subsonic.

68
Q

What causes the phenomena referred to as “Mach tuck”?

A

The movement of the shock wave aft forces the wings center of pressure aft, causing the aircraft a tendency to pitch nose down without enough tail down force. The supercritical wing of the CRJ ensures that shock waves actually form on the fuselage before the wing.

69
Q

What does a load factor of 1.3 G before buffet onset mean?

A

The buffet margin is normally expressed as a “G” loading such as 1.3 G. At high altitudes pilots must be aware that high levels of turbulence can cause “G” loading that exceed available margins.

70
Q

What is “Coffin Corner”?

A

At high altitudes a climb or cruise Mach can be maintained that results in an AOA that is both near the stalling AOA, and can cause Mach Buffet if turbulence is encountered. The airspeed margin is quite narrow in this condition, either speeding up or slowing results in Buffet. The CRJ normal operating range, if observed, does not permit operation in a true “Coffin Corner”

71
Q

How does the CRJ Super-Critical wing delay the onset of Mach Buffet?

A

The shape of the Super-Critical wing delays the onset of Mach Buffet by not accelerating the airflow over the top of the wing as much as conventional wing designs. The upper surface of the super-critical wing is flatter and the lower surface is curved, thus increasing the onset of Mach Buffet to a higher speed.

72
Q

When would you use the Drift Down speeds listed on the V Speed Card?

A

In the event of an engine failure at cruise altitude in order to maintain the highest possible altitude for the longest time.

73
Q

What does “increase the actual landing distance by a factor of 1.25% mean?

A

Multiplying the actual landing distance by 1.25 to find the increase in landing distance.

74
Q

Pilot controlled airport lighting is activated how?

A

Keying mike 7 times: Highest intensity available. Keying mike 5 times: medium intensity. Keying mike 3 times: lowest intensity

75
Q

You are departing VLD, the tower is closed, JAX center is not responding on 133.7, and the Valdosta RCO is out of service. What other communication options are possible?

A

Macon FSS receives on 122.1, can transmit through the VOR on 114.8, and transmits and receives on 122.2. There is also the local phone number for Macon FSS 478-788-5064 that could be used to get a clearence and void time.

76
Q

In the event the PF does not hear “Spoilers Green” after landing, what should the PF do?

A

The PF should deploy the Flight Spoilers to max.

77
Q

Explain the red runway centerline lights.

A

Beginning with the last 3,000 ft of the runway, the red lights are alternated with white lights for 2000 ft, then solid red for the last 1000 ft of runway, indicating you are approaching the end of the landing runway.

78
Q

Enroute you have had a system malfunction, the QRH procedure is completed and you must land at the nearest suitable airport. How are you going to accomplish this?

A

Contact the Dispatcher and agree to the action required.

79
Q

Departing ROA, the Tower clears you for takeoff, with instructions to “Fly Runway Heading” An engine fails during rotation, what heading will you fly?

A

The heading/procedure specified in the TDM or TLR for the runway and conditions that were used for performance planning.

80
Q

Describe how to compute a descent without an FMS.

A

Altitude to lose x 3 = distance

81
Q

When should a crewmember complete a Reportable Incident Form (RIF)?

A

To report unusual incidents involving flight activities, operations of aircraft, declaring an emergency or anytime emergency authority is used.