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CRJ Normal Procedures and Profiles > Cockpit Flow-Systems and Procedures > Flashcards

Cockpit Flow-Systems and Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the APU exhaust danger area

A

15 feet

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2
Q

How many PBEs are required for dispatch?

A

3, one for each fire extinguisher

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3
Q

How are the cockpit circuit breaker panels numbered?

A

CBP1 Behind Capt., CBP2 Bhind FO, CBP3 Capt side console, CBP4 FO side console, CBP5 Aft Equipment Bay

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4
Q

What test requires coordination betweent the Flight Attendant and Cockpit Crew during the interior inspectiong?

A

The testing of the lavatory smoke detector requires verificcation by a cockpit crewmember that the “SMOKE TOILET” EICAS message is displayed

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5
Q

What precaution must be taken before turning the NWS switch ON during the After Start Checklist?

A

Be sure that the towbar and/or chocks have been removed

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6
Q

If one of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switches is selected OFF will the stall pusher be operational?

A

No

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7
Q

How can the stick pusher be stopped?

A

By pressing and holding the AP/SP DISC switch on the pilot or copilot control wheel, or by selecting either of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switches OFF

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8
Q

May you depart with one of the STALL PTCT PUSHER switches off?

A

No

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9
Q

Can cross side NAV data be displayed on the PFD and MFD?

A

Yes, by rotating the NAV SOURCE knob on the DCP

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10
Q

How is TCAS information displayed on the MFD?

A

Press the TFC switch on the DCP

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11
Q

How is EGPWS terrain information displayed on the MFD?

A

Automatically if encountered, or overlaid if selected.

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12
Q

How is the EGPWS display removed from the MFD?

A

Pushing the TERR/WX pushbutton on the DCP

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13
Q

When the RA TEST button is presssed what should the radar altitude read?

A

50 feet

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14
Q

What is the function of the EICAS position on the Display Reversionary Panel?

A

To display ED2 information on the MFD

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15
Q

To what figure should the MDB be set with a DA of 512 feet on a precision approach?

A

520 feet. MDAs are in 10-foot increments

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16
Q

What are the primary sources of AC power?

A

Two engine and one APU driven generators

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17
Q

What is the normal source of DC power?

A

Five Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs)

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18
Q

How many batteries are installed and where are they located?

A

Two nicad batteries located in the aft equipment bay

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19
Q

What are the individual components that make up an IDG (integrated rive generator)?

A

A 30-KVA AC generator and a constant speed drive

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20
Q

Under what conditiosn should an IDG automatically disconnent from the engine?

A

If an over-temperature or over-torque condition occurs

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21
Q

Under what conditions will a GCU remove itself from the bus system?

A

Over or under voltage, over or under frequency or generator or bus over current

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22
Q

One disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?

A

No

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23
Q

What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC External switchlight indicate?

A

Power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency

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24
Q

What is the function of the AC ESS XFER switchlight?

A

To manually transer, or indicate automatic transfer of the AC ESS Bus to AC Bus 2

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25
Q

When will power to the AC Essential Bus automatically switch from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus 2?

A

When AC Bus 1 is not powered

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26
Q

Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switch/light to be illuminated while on battery power only, such as when at the gate prior to APU start?

A

Yes, the bus logic is working correctly, but because there is no AC power on AC Bus 1, the bus attempts to transfer to the alternate

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27
Q

In the above scenario is the AC Essential Bus being powered?

A

No

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28
Q

What does the FAIL light illuminated in an AUTO XFER switchlight along with the amber EICAS message AUTO XFER FAIL indicate?

A

A bus fault or generator overcurrent condition

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29
Q

What is the power source priority for AC Bus 1, AC Bus?

A

AC Bus 1 - IDG 1, APU, IDG 2, External power. AC Bus 2 - IDG 2, APU, IDG 1, External Power

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30
Q

How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?

A

By pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight on the electrical services panel

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31
Q

Which DC BUS TIE will not operatore automatically?

A

DC ESS TIE

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32
Q

What does a white closed light illumniated on the DC BUS TIE 1 or 2 switchlights indicate?

A

The correspondign DC Bus has been automatically tied to the Service TRU or another available source

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33
Q

What is the ExpressJet Policy on crewmembers resetting cockpit electrical Circuit Breakers in flight?

A

A circuit breaker must not be reset or cycled unless doing so is consistent with explicity procedures specified in the OM/QRH or unless, in the judgement of the PIC that resetting or cycling of the circuit breaker is necessary for the safe completion of the flight

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34
Q

What is the function of the DC Service switch?

A

It controls power to the DC Service Bus

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35
Q

If AC external power is to be utilized, explain how AC power is properly established?

A

If the green AVAIL light is illuminated, press the external AC switchlight to supply the electrical system

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36
Q

What areas are monitored by the fire and overheat protection system?

A

Engines, jetpipe, pylon, APU and main landing gear

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37
Q

What are the benefits of the dual detection loop system?

A

Redundancy and Dispatchability

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38
Q

How many Firex bottle are provided for engine fire extinguishing?

A

2 Halon bottles

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39
Q

How many Firex bottles are provided for APU fire extinguishing?

A

1 Halon bottle

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40
Q

When will APU fire extinguishing activate normally?

A

On the ground in the event of an APU fire

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41
Q

What does the FAIL position of the TEST toggle switch simulate?

A

A “false fire” condition

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42
Q

What are the aural and visual indications of a successful APU Fire Warning test prior to APU start?

A

Select FIRE DETECTION TEST swtich to WARN: Triple Chime, Master Warning, Fire bell sounds, L(R) ENG FIRE, APU FIRE, AND L(R) JETPIPE OVHT warngin messages appear (5), “JETPIPE OVERHEAT” aural warning sounds, FIRE PUSH and BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH lights illuminate. Release switch, and ensure all test messages go out. Select APU BOTTLE toggle switch to TEST and hold. APU SQUIB 1(2) advisory messages appear. After 10 seconds both disappear and fire horn sounds. Release switch and APU SQUIB 1(2) advisory messages reappear and disappear after 5 seconds.

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43
Q

What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenge, main)?

A

Motive Flow

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44
Q

What does selecting both of the fuel boost pump switch lights on cause?

A

Arms both boost pumps, and if a low fuel feed pressure is detected, both pumps turn on

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45
Q

How can fuel be manually transferred from the left wing tank to the right wing tank?

A

Normal crossflow is automatic, but manual crossflow is accomplishsed by selecting the XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE to MAN, then selecting the wing you wish to sned fuel to (R XFLOW). Fuel can aslo be balanced using the GRAVITY XFLOW valve.

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46
Q

When is automatic fuel transfer initiated (wing tank to wing tank)?

A

When a 200 lb imbalance exists

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47
Q

How is fuel heated?

A

Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers

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48
Q

In flight, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light will illuminate?

A

The boost pump detecting low pressure will activate itself, and thee cross-side boost pump

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49
Q

On the ground, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light with illuminate?

A

Both, if selected ON.

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50
Q

How is fuel transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks?

A

Through motive flow (transfer ejectors)

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51
Q

Why are both fuel boost pumps selected off to single engine taxi?

A

To preven to fuel imbalance

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52
Q

An Amber FUEL IMBALANCE cauting message is displayyed when?

A

When the fuel imbalance reaches 800 lbs

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53
Q

Where is engine fuel feed temperature displayed?

A

On the FUEL synoptic page

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54
Q

Where is bulk fuel temperature dispalyed?

A

On the FUEL synoptic page

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55
Q

Can fuel be transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks with the engines shut down?

A

No, needs motive flow

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56
Q

Are the fuel check valves that are check during the first flgiht of the day checks depicted on the FUEL synoptic page?

A

No

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57
Q

What does 10th stage bleed air supply?

A

Engine starting, air conditioning, avionics cooling and pressurization

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58
Q

What does 14th stage bleed air supply?

A

Wing and cowl anti-ice systems and thrust reversers

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59
Q

Describe the function of the TEST position of the DUCT MONITOR SELECTOR switch?

A

Simulates an overheat in both the 10th and 14th stage manifolds and the wing anti-ice duct

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60
Q

Describe the function of the LOOP A/B posittions?

A

Test the individual loops of the 10th stage leak detection system for shorts or failure

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61
Q

What does a red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicate?

A

A leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section

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62
Q

What does the amber FAIL light in the LCV switchlight indicate?

A

The APU LCV is stuck in the open position when commanded closed by the interlock protection or pilot

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63
Q

Will the APU LCV open when the left 10th stage bleed switchlight is OPEN?

A

No

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64
Q

Will the APU LCV open if the right 10th stage bleed switch light is pressed OPEN with the ISOL valve CLOSED?

A

Yes

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65
Q

What prevents backflow of high pressure bleed air from the manifold?

A

A check valve and APU LCV interloock (switch position logic)

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66
Q

What is the primary function of the APU?

A

To provide AC electrical power

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67
Q

What is the secondary function of the APU?

A

To provide pneumatic power to the 10th stage manifold system

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68
Q

What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?

A

22 volts

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69
Q

How is the APU feal feed SOV opened?

A

When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and BITE test is completed

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70
Q

Under what conditions will the APU SOV

A

Automatically with a fire detected and manually when either PWR FUEL or APU FIRE PUSH switch is pressed

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71
Q

What does the amber PUMP FAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?

A

Crossflow/APU pump has failed

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72
Q

What does the white START light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?

A

APU starter motor is engaged

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73
Q

What does the green AVAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?

A

APU is available for bleed air extraction

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74
Q

What indications are you looking for when the START/STOP switch is pressed for APU start?

A

Amber START light in switch illuminates, APU START status message appears, and at 50% RPM, START light and status message go out

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75
Q

What 4 indications are you looking for when the APU PWR FUEL switch is pushed?

A

APU IN BITE status message, APU SOV OPEN status message, APU gauges appear and APU door opens

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76
Q

During APU start at what RPM should the white Status APU START and the START light in the START/STOP switch/light go out?

A

50%

77
Q

What does amber - - - to the right of the APU DOOR status indicate (on the Status page)?

A

APU door postion is unknown

78
Q

If the APU is being used for air conditioning what are the proper bleed switch positions?

A

L & R 10th SOVs CLOSED, APU LCV OPEN and 10th ISOL OPEN

79
Q

When transferring the bleed source form the APU to the engines after takeoff, what is the correct switch sequence?

A

R 10th SOV OPEN, 10th ISOL CLOSED, L 10th SOV OPEN, APU LCV CLOSED

80
Q

During approach when transferring the bleed source form the engines to the APU, what is the correct switch sequence?

A

APU LCV OPEN, L 10th SOV CLOSED, 10th ISOL OPEN, R 10th SOV CLOSED

81
Q

What is controlled by the START and STOP switchlights on the START/IGNITION panel?

A

The left and right 10th stage shutoff valves, the isolation valve, start valve, ATS, and ignitor(s)

82
Q

Is AC electrical power required for engine starting?

A

No

83
Q

When starting with DC power only, which engine is started first?

A

The right engine should be started first

84
Q

Above what RPM may the starter not be engaged?

A

55%

85
Q

Under what conditions will both ignition systems be activated regardless of switch position?

A

During a Stall Warning or if the CONT IGNITION switch/light has been selected

86
Q

How are the primary flight controls actuated?

A

Hydraulic power

87
Q

The rudder system is powered by which hydraulic system?

A

All three systems

88
Q

How many hydraulic systems are on the CRJ?

A

3

89
Q

Which of the hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps as well as electric pumps?

A

Systems 1 and 2

90
Q

What does the AUTO position on the HYD 1,2 and 3B do?

A

Causes the B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated generator is operting and the flaps are not a 0

91
Q

Do the B pumps activate automatically after an engine failure?

A

No

92
Q

What happens to ACMP 2B if the left engine fails?

A

Cross side ACMPs are load shed when the opposite side generator fails

93
Q

Which ACMPS run continously during normal operations?

A

3A & 3B, (since the AD)

94
Q

How is hydraulic system fluid cooled?

A

Systems 1 & 2 are cooled by a ram-air/oil heat exchanger and system 3 hydraulic pumps are located in the wheel well area and do not require dedicated cooling

95
Q

With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B and 2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the pumps operate?

A

When the flaps are out of the 0 position

96
Q

Which hydraulic pump automatically operates from the ADG Bus during ADG deployment?

A

Pump 3B

97
Q

How does the crew know there is adequate hydraulic fluid quantity?

A

By checking HYD synoptic page, and verifying fluid quantities are green

98
Q

What is the Normal/usual Hydraulic quantities?

A

Green quantity indications

99
Q

If the left engine fails or is shutdown, which hydraulic pumps will be unavailable?

A

Pumps 1 EDP and 2 B

100
Q

Does the associated electric hydraulic ‘B’ pump automatically activate during or after an engine failure?

A

No

101
Q

What does the EICAS caution message “ELT ON” mean?

A

ELT is transmitting

102
Q

What is the correct position for the ELT switch?

A

Arm/Reset

103
Q

When will passenger oxygen automatically deploy?

A

Cabin altitude > 14,000 feet

104
Q

How is oxygen supplied to the passengers?

A

Chemical oxygen generators mounted in overhead compartments

105
Q

At what cabin altitude does the amber CABIN ALT caution activate?

A

Greater than 8,500 feet, but less than 10,000 feet.

106
Q

At what cabin altitude does the red CABIN ALT warning activate?

A

Greater than 10,000 feet

107
Q

At what cabin altitude do the oxygen masks auto deploy?

A

At 14,000 feet

108
Q

How is cabin pressurization maintained?

A

Cabin pressurization is maintained by regulating the amount of air leaked overboard through two outflow valves

109
Q

What does the LDG ELEV knob on the pressurization control panel do?

A

Sets the landing elevation on the status page

110
Q

What happens when EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed in (on)?

A

Pressing the EMER DEPR switchlight causes the Cabin Pressure Controller to drive the outflow valves fully open, climbing the cabin to 14,250 +/- 750 feet

111
Q

What does pressing the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice do?

A

Switches Pressure Controllers

112
Q

Flying at FL 200, the EMER DEPRESS switch/light is pressed, what pressure altitude should the cabin reach?

A

14,250 +/- 750 feet

113
Q

Where is the unpressurized takeoff procedure found?

A

QRH SUPP - 4

114
Q

Where is the unpressurized landing pprocedure found?

A

QRH SUPP - 5

115
Q

When might you be required to perform an unpressurized takeoff?

A

APU deferred and either the airport analysis requries bleeds closed or the anti-ice is being used for takeoff

116
Q

Under what conditions might you have to perfrom an unpressurized landing?

A

APU deferred and either the airport analysis requries bleeds closed or the anti-ice is being used for landing

117
Q

What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the cabin door at the gate?

A

The cabin must be completely depressurized prior to opening any of the airplane doors

118
Q

What does the FAN position of the CARGO switch provide?

A

Recirculated cabin exhaust air to the cargo compartment

119
Q

What does the COND AIR position of the CARGO switch provide?

A

Recirculated cabin exhaust air mixed with fresh air from the right pack or air warmed by a thermal heater to the cargo bay area

120
Q

When is COND AIR required to be used in the CARGO compartment?

A

When live cargo is carried

121
Q

When does the “CARGO OVERHEAT” abnormal procedure have you select the Fan position?

A

Overheat protection is only provided in COND AIR, power for the over-temperature circuit is removed when in fan

122
Q

When would th eRam Air switch be used?

A

During unpressurized flight, or when QRH directed

123
Q

What happens to the pack during a “PACK HI PRESS” condition?

A

The affected pack turns off, the 10th stage isolation valve, pack valve and the associated 10th stage shut off valve close when the engine is supplying bleed air

124
Q

What happens to the pack during a “PACK HI TEMP” condition?

A

The affected pack turns off

125
Q

How are the pack heat exchangers cooled?

A

By a ram-air heat exchanger

126
Q

What is the bleed air source for the wing and cowl anti-ice?

A

14th stage bleed air

127
Q

With the APU deferred what procedures need to be used when operating in icing conditions?

A

Since both 10th and 14th stage bleed air cannot be extracted from the engine at the same time, if anti-ice has to be used for takeoff or landing, the unpressurized takeoff or landing procedure must be accomplished

128
Q

What is the difference between the Wing Anti-Ice switch NORM and STBY positions?

A

NORM modulates the wing valve to maintain a constant wing L/E temperature. STBY opens or closes the wing valve to maintain a lower L/E temperature

129
Q

What does the red OVHT lihgt in the wing OVHT/DUCT FAIL Switch indicate?

A

Associated with a EICAS warning message and indicates an overheat condition in either the left or right wing anti-ice duct

130
Q

What is the function of the wing OVERHEAT/DUCT FAILUREE switch/light?

A

To allow for testing of the normal mode of the overheat system and to indicate an overheat condition in the wing leading edge (OVHT), to indicate a bleed leak (duct failure) in the wing left or right anti-ice ducts (DUCT FAIL).

131
Q

What besides the beacon is turned on with the Beacon switch while on the ground?

A

The FDR

132
Q

Where are the Recong/Taxi lights located?

A

In the wing root

133
Q

Which external lights must be on for all night taxi operations?

A

NAV, BEACON, RECOG/TAXI AND WING INSP Lights

134
Q

Why is the Cockpit Dome light turned off on the Shut Down Check?

A

It is possible to leave the dome light on and discharge the battery if the DC SERVICE switch is inadvertently left on

135
Q

With the Emergency Lights switch in the ARM position, when would the Emergency lights activate?

A

Loss of power to the AC or DC Essential Busses

136
Q

What functions do the LH/RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlights perform when pressed in?

A

Arms squibs on both engine bottles, fuel, hydraulic, and bleed-air SOVs closed on aftected engine, affected engine-driven generator shuts down.

137
Q

Pushing the APU Fire PUSH switch, on the glareshield, performs what functions?

A

1) Bottle squibs are armed, green bottle light illuminates 2) APU Fuel shutoff valve closes 3) APU fire relay is energized to shutdown APU by closing a fuel solenoid valve 4) APU LCV closes 5) APU generator is tripped

138
Q

What stall warnings are provided to warn the pilot of approaching stall?

A

Aural, visual, and tactile (stick shaker). If no corrective action is taken, the stick pusher is activated

139
Q

What happens when the angle of attack is increased beyond normal limits?

A

When a high AOA trip point is reached the continous ignition is activated. If the angle of attack continues to increase the stick shaker is activated and autopilot is disengaged. If the AOA still continues to increase the stick pusher is activated, STALL switchlights flash red and the stall warbler sounds

140
Q

What aural messages should be heard during the EGPWS test?

A

“GLIDESLOPE PULL UP ?. TERRAIN ? WINDSHEAR.”

141
Q

How is a Windshear Alert provided to the flight crew?

A

By amber Windshear caption on the PFD and AMI indicators

142
Q

How is a Windshear Warning provided to the flight crew?

A

By a red Windshear caption on the PFD, AMI indicators, flight director guidance, and an audio warning “WINDSHEAR.”

143
Q

Is Windshear escape guidance provided?

A

Windshear escape guidance is provided for decreasing performance shears only

144
Q

Is the proper Pilot reaction to windshear alerts to follow the Flight Director Command Bars or to follow the AMI indicators?

A

Follow the flight director command bars but, the flight director command bars will provide you windshear escape guidance only for decreasing performance shears

145
Q

What is the purpose of the ROLL SEL switchlight on the glareshield panel?

A

The amber ROLL SEL portion illuminates after the ROLL DISC handle has been pulled, giving cross side spoileron control. The pilot with the operating aileron then presses the ROLL SEL switchlight to signal the SECU to give control of both spoilerons to his ocntrol column. The PLT/CPLT part of the switchlight illuminates to indicate which pilot has selected control

146
Q

During a jammed aileron condition what does the amber ROLL SEL light in the ROLL SEL switch come on to indicate?

A

The roll disconnect handle has been pulled and that the ROLL SEL switch on the unjammed side must be pressed to transfer the spoileron control to the operable side.

147
Q

Does the ROLL SEL switch have to be selected for the operable aileron circuit after an aileron PCU runaway?

A

No. PLTROLL or CPLT ROLL has been automatically selected for spoileron control

148
Q

What guidance does the Flight Director provide in Takeoff mode?

A

Vertical Guidance - 12 Pitch up or 10 Pitch up single engine, Lateral Guidance - Weight off wheels heading hold with 5 Angle of Bank authority

149
Q

When is SPEED mode selected on takeoff?

A

When the aircraft accelerates to V2+15 KIAS

150
Q

When should APPR mode be selected when being vectored for an ILS approach?

A

When cleared for the instrument approach

151
Q

how can you center the Heading Bug on the FCP?

A

Pushing the center of the heading knob aligns the heading bug to the currect aircraft heading

152
Q

Pushing the button on the FCP SPD knob performs what function?

A

Changes the FCC speed reference from IAS to MACH commands

153
Q

Pushing the button in the FCP CRS knob performs what function?

A

Centers the OBS needle TO the tuned VOR station

154
Q

What is the functioin of the B/C button on the FCP?

A

Arms the Back course Mode to track the received LOC course reciprocal

155
Q

Selecting APPR mode enables what?

A

Commands GS capture (if available) and clears TURB

156
Q

What is the function of the XFR switch?

A

Selects the active flight director, which will follow guidance commands from the selected side flight control computer

157
Q

What is the primary means to turn OFF the Autopilot?

A

Either AP DISC button on the control wheel

158
Q

What does the Airspeed Trend Vector indicate?

A

Predicts where the IAS will be in ten seconds

159
Q

How is the stall speed displayed to the pilots?

A

By the Low Speed Cue (red/black checkerboard)

160
Q

If the pilot’s PFD CRT fails, how can the PFD be dispalyed on the MFD?

A

By selecting PFD 1 on the pilot’s Display Reversionary Panel

161
Q

In the event the Primary EICAS CRT (ED1) fails how is the information then displayed?

A

Automatically on ED2

162
Q

How can the information normally dispalyed on ED2 be seen if ED2 fails?

A

By changing the selector knob on the Display Reversionary Panel to EICAS, the status and synoptic pages are shown on the associated MFD or on the Source Selector Panel select EICAS switch to ED1, thus allowing all synoptic pages to be viewed on ED1

163
Q

What is unique about valve positions displayed on the A/ICE synoptic page?

A

Except for the A/ICE synoptic page, which shows commanded valve position (displayed in cyan to reinforce the difference), the synoptic pages display valves in their actual position. Pumps and generators are displayed as white when they are not operating

164
Q

What does the aural warning “CONFIG TRIM” indicate on takeoff?

A

The horizontal stabilizer, rudder or aileron trim is outside of takeoff (green) range.

165
Q

What are the four levels of CAS messages?

A

Warning, Caution, Advisory, Status

166
Q

How are CAS Warnings indicated?

A

Triple Chime, Flashing Warning lights, Red light on the faulted switch or red EICAS indication, sometimes an aural tone, sometimes a voice message

167
Q

Pushin the PRI Pushbotton on the EICAS Control Panel (ECP), performs what function?

A

Displays the Primary EICAS page on ED2

168
Q

Pushing the CAS Pushbutton on the EICAS Control Panel (ECP), performs what function?

A

Will ‘box’ the cuation messages and display a MSGS icon, pushing again will display all caution messages

169
Q

What is used to lower the landing gear if there is a failure in the gear control circuitry or HYD system 3?

A

By pulling the landing gear manual release handle, the uplocks are released, the nose doors open, and the nose strut is pulled into place by drag. The main gear partially freefalls, then is assisted to the down and locked position by the MLG auxiliary actuators

170
Q

Can the landing gear warning horn be muted?

A

Yes, under some conditions

171
Q

A what brake temperature readout do the units turn white?

A

They are white from 06

172
Q

At what brake temperature readout do the units turn red?

A

They are red from 13

173
Q

Upon entering the cockpit you notice a BTMS indication of 1, but the boxes are red. What action do you take?

A

Call maintenance because an overheat of at least 12 has occurred

174
Q

What is the difference between a Huffer and a bottle, used for air starting?

A

A bottle is a large cylinder containing a charge of high pressure air. A Huffer is a self contained high pressure air generation source. It has an engine and air pump but no storage

175
Q

What is a Crossbleed start?

A

Starting an engine using bleed air from the operating engine

176
Q

What is the indication the starter has cutout?

A

IGNITION A (B) and L (R) ENGINE START messages disappear

177
Q

You aborted the engine start because you noticed a rapidly rising ITT. Must maintenance be notified?

A

Maintenance must be notified if the ITT exceed 900, or if a HOT icon appeared, or if a malfunction is suspected

178
Q

Describe the proper procedure for setting takeoff power.

A

The PF advances the thrust levers to approximately 70% N1, allow the engine to stabilize, then increase power toward the target N1 and call “Set Power.” The PM sets N1, and calls “Power Set.” Takeoff N1 must be set by 60 knots.

179
Q

Which engine ignition system(s) are supplied continuous ignition with the CONT switch/light?

A

Both A and B.

180
Q

Which ignition system does the DC Battery Bus power?

A

B

181
Q

When does continuous ignition come on automatically?

A

Based upon angle-of-attack data, both systems are selected on by the stall warning computer until airplane flight attitude is corrected

182
Q

What powers the Thrust reversers?

A

14th stage bleed air

183
Q

What conditions must be met for the thrust reversers to deploy?

A

Thrust levers at idle, WOW, or wheel spin up, 14th stage bleed valves open and reversers switch armed, thrust reverse triggers activated and TR levers raised

184
Q

What is the function of the EMER STOW switches?

A

To drive the thrust reverser equipment to the stop position should the automatic stow system fail

185
Q

Pushin the TOGA button(s) before takeoff, performs what function?

A

Activates the Vertical and Lateral Takeoff (TO TO) modes, also provides a runway update to the FMS

186
Q

Pushing TOGA for a Go-Around provides what FD guidance?

A

Current heading hold with 5 Angle of Bank authority and 10 pitch

187
Q

What is the function of the pitch and roll disconnect handles?

A

To disconnect control wheels in case of a jammed elevator or aileron

188
Q

What does the white status message FLAPS HALF SPEED indicate?

A

One of the channels of the FECU is inoperative, causing the flaps to operate at a reduced speed

189
Q

What conditions must be met for GLD automatic arming?

A

SPOILERS GND LIFT DUMPING switch - AUTO, and L & R thrust 79% N1

CRJ Normal Procedures and Profiles (5 decks)

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