Critical Reasoning Flashcards

1
Q

Whose average is better
I have come across a question in GMATPrep.

Two navel cadets - Steve and Robert- received the same the evaluation in only one of four areas. Each evaluation was on a scaore of 1 to 10

From which of the following statements can one determine whose average score was higher on the evaluation?

  1. Robert graduated at the top of his class
    2.Steve scored higher than Robert in two areas and neither cadet scorted below 5 in any area
  2. Steve’s lowest score was less than or equal to Robert’s highest score
  3. Robert Received a score of 10 in three areas and Steve did not score higher than 8 in any area.
    5.Robert’s highest score and Steve’s lowest score were in the same area.

The explanation given is The answer is C. Since they score the same in only one area, Steves lowest socre was equal to Robert’s highest score. Hence, in the other three areas Steve scored higher than Robert. Thus, Steves’s average score is higher than Robert’s.

I am unable to understand the explanation.
When they tell less then or equal to how can we assume that it is equal to.
If St’s lowest score is less than Robert’s highest score then assume St - 3, 4,5,6 and Robert 6,7,8,9. here St’s lowest score 3 is less than Rober’s highest score 9. Robert has higher average than Steve.

A

Good post? |
Ans is D. Probably the Official Answer got copied wrong before you got hold of it or something.

To put simply, you may have overlooked the stem. They have one eval in common. If Rob got three 10s and Steve got none higher than 8, then their fourth scores are each 8s or lower but the same in any case. So Robert clearly got higher marks using D. And may I say that navel cadets seem unseemlier than naval cadets…

Since I just got posting elsewhere tonight about the validity of Official Answer’s, let me just say that this is a very rare occurence, or perhaps someone from gmatclub.com slipped in a bogus Official Answer again.
Last edited by check.stone; 02-09-2007 at 03:58 PM. Reason: Backtracking…slightly
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2
Q

Good post? |
from GMATprep2
if x an integer is the median of the 5 numbers
X,3,1,12,8 GREATER THEN THE average of the 5 numbers?

1 x>6
2 x is greater then the median of the 5 numbers

A

Good post? |
imo E
1. X> 6
Median is some number present in the series which divides the series into two groups - so by giving x as 2000 will increase the average but median remains the same - not suff

  1. X > median of 5 numbers
    That means x is not median and hence median can be 3 or 8. Average of number is (x+24)/5 - not sufficient

Combining both average is > 6 - but we cannot say if this is grater or less than median

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3
Q
  1. Teenagers are often priced out of the labor market by the government-mandated minimum-wage level because employers cannot afford to pay that much for extra help. Therefore, if Congress institutes a subminimum wage, a new lower legal wage for teenagers, the teenage unemployment rate, which has been rising since 1960, will no longer increase.
    Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?
    (A) Since 1960 the teenage unemployment rate has risen when the minimum wage has risen.
    (B) Since 1960 the teenage unemployment rate has risen even when the minimum wage remained constant.
    (C) Employers often hire extra help during holiday and warm weather seasons.
    (D) The teenage unemployment rate rose more quickly in the 1970’s than it did in the 1960’s.
    (E) The teenage unemployment rate has occasionally declined in the years since 1960.

Correct answer B.

Whats wrong with answer [/spoiler]A?

A

IMO B

Premise: there is an direct relationship between teenager wages and minimum wages.

The thing to understand is that teenager wages are not dependant on minimum wages or by lowering minimum wages.

A) but we are trying to lower the minim wage not increase it. This would not weeken the argument
B) correct answer because it shows that even if minimum wages are kept constant, the teenager wages have been increasing. This shows that the teenager wages are affected by other factors than minimum wages and is not dependent on minimum wages.
C) argument shows seasonality of the wages and does not talk about the relationship between teenager wages and minimim wages.
D) same as C
E) same as E[/u]

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4
Q

It takes 4 weeks for a team of 5 professional Window Washers working regular full time hours to completely clean every window of the Empire State building. The building’s owner demands that all the windows always be clean.Yet even if the 5 washers work consistently throughout their regular work week,they will not be able to finish cleaning all the windows before some windows will need cleaning.

Which of the following statements as must be true on the basis of the statements above ?
A) If an empire state building window is to be kept clean, it must be cleaned by a professional cleaner.
B)The owner’s demand for proper cleaning of all the windows will never be fulfilled.
C) If a team of 5 window washers cleans all the empire state building’s windows in less than 4 weeks, some windows will not be properly cleaned.
D) In order to ensure that all of the Empire State Building’s windows are clean, the owner must have his window washers work overtime.
E)Some Empire State Building windows must be cleaned more frequently than once every four weeks if they are to be kept clean.

OA:E..Why not C? Is ‘some windows not be properly cleaned’ in option C playing a spoilsport?

A

E)Some Empire State Building windows must be cleaned more frequently than once every four weeks if they are to be kept clean.

Now let us go through the options one by one and check:

A– we do not know because it is not mentioned in the argument that only professional cleaners can clean the windows. Incorrect.
B– out of context and incorrect.
C– we are not concerned here about windows being “properly cleaned”. That is not the moot point. We are concerned about cleaning of windows. C digresses from the topic even if it may be true.
D– again, out of context and incorrect.
E– is very much consistent with what has been written in the passage and so must be true.

An important takeaway from this problem is that we are concerned with finding the correct answer, not the one that sounds true or right.

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5
Q

Often patients with ankle fractures that are stable, and thus do not require surgery, are given follow-up x-rays because their orthopedists are concerned about possibly having misjudged the stability of the fracture. When a number of follow-up x-rays were reviewed, however, all the fractures that had initially been judged stable were found to have
healed correctly. Therefore, it is a waste of money to order follow-up x-rays of ankle fracture initially judged stable.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?
A. Doctors who are general practitioners rather than orthopedists are
less likely than orthopedists to judge the stability of an ankle fracture
correctly.
B. Many ankle injuries for which an initial x-ray is ordered are revealed
by the x-ray not to involve any fracture of the ankle.
C. X-rays of patients of many different orthopedists working in several
hospitals were reviewed.
D. The healing of ankle fractures that have been surgically repaired is
always checked by means of a follow-up x-ray.
E. Orthopedists routinely order follow-up x-rays for fractures of bone
other than ankle bones.

A

As @hardik has pointed out earlier the correct answer to this question is (C). This question is from Official Verbal review (Blue edition) and the OA is (C).

(B) is incorrect. The reason stated is “Naturally many ankle injuries do not involve fractures - x rays may sometimes be used to determine this - but the argument concerns only cases where there have been ankle fractures”.

Here we don’t know what is meant by “Many” and how many of the ankle injuries are ankle fractures. Moreover the apt reason for striking out this choice is - the argument only concerned with ankle fractures and not injuries”.

(C) is correct. It strengthens the x-ray data that examined making it sufficiently representative of cases of ankle fracture judged to be stable by orthopedists. The answer choice adds the information that the data for the conclusion comes from many orthopedists working in many hospitals. So we have greater assurance that the x-ray data is representative, and hence the argument is made much stronger.

Thanks
Prashant

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6
Q

Fish currently costs about the same at seafood stores throughout Eastville and its surrounding suburbs. Seafood stores buy fish from the same wholesalers and at the same prices, and other business expenses have also been about the same. But new tax breaks will substantially lower the cost of doing business within the city. Therefore, in the future, profit margins will be higher at seafood stores within the city than at suburban seafood stores.

For the purposes of evaluating the argument, it would be most useful to know whether.

(A)more fish wholesalers are located within the city than in the surrounding suburbs.

(B) Any people who currently own seafood stores in the suburbs surrounding Eastville will relocate their businesses nearer to the city

(C) The wholesale price of fish is likely to fall in the future

(D)Fish has always cost about the same at seafood stores throughout Eastville and its surrounding suburbs.

(E) Seafood stores within the city will in the future set prices that are lower than those at suburban seafood stores.

A

Fish costs same uniformly in Eastville and surrounding suburbs.
Same wholesalers, same prices, same business expenses.
New tax breaks will lower cost of doing business WITHIN city.,

CONCLUSION : Therefore, in future, profit margins will be higher within city than in suburbs.

Which of the following would be useful information to know in order to evaluate above conclusion?

A. More or less, their profit margins can still be different just the same - not useful.

B. Nearer the city. So what? Is that within the city? And even if it is, do we know why they moved and how it is related to this issue of the profit margin? No.

C. If wholesale price of fish falls, rises or stays equal, it will still affect all these stores both inside and outside city, and will thus uniformly affect profit margin. This won’t help us validate that profit margin within city is more or not.

D. If it has always cost the same, so what:? Does that explain the possibilities in the future?

E. Ahah. If the ones in the city set lower prices than the suburban ones, then the amount that they save with the tax breaks could be counterbalanced by reduced revenue and make profit margins within and outside city limits equal or even possibly more in the suburban ones. Useful info.

Pick E.

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following, if true, provides evidence that most logically completes the argument below?
    According to a widely held economic hypothesis, imposing strict environmental regulations reduces economic growth. This hypothesis is undermined by the fact that the states with the strictest environmental regulations also have the highest economic growth. This fact does not show that environmental regulations promote growth, however, since ______.

A. those states with the strictest environmental regulations invest the most in education and job training
B. Even those states that have only moderately strict environmental regulations have higher growth than those with the least-strict regulations
C. many states that are experiencing reduced economic growth are considering weakening their environmental regulations
D. after introducing stricter environmental regulations, many states experienced increased economic growth
E. even those states with very weak environmental regulations have experienced at least some growth

A

Answer A is correct because it states that economic growth is not connected to the level of environmental regulations. This answer provides an alternative explanation of this situation. Economic growth is directly related to the amount of funds invested in educations and job training. Therefore, economic growth is NOT the result of strict environmental regulations.

Answer E, on the other hand, states that countries with weak regulations also experience some growth. This answer is too broad. It does not give any evidence to support the stand that economic growth and environmental regulations are two independent factors.

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8
Q

Does this CR needs technical knowledge, such as peat. flora and fauna? What is peat?

Opponents of peat harvesting in this country argue that it would alter the ecological balance of our peat-rich wetlands and that, as a direct consequence of this, much of the country’s water supply would be threatened with contamination. But this cannot be true, for in Ireland, where peat has been harvested for centuries, the water supply is not contaminated. We can safely proceed with the harvesting of peat.

Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

(A) Over hundreds of years, the ecological balance of all areas changes slowly but significantly, sometimes to the advantage of certain flora and fauna.
(B) The original ecology of the peat-harvesting areas of Ireland was virtually identical to that of the undisturbed wetlands of this country.
(C) The activities of the other industries in coming years are likely to have adverse effects on the water supply of this country.
(D) The peat resources of this country are far larger than those of some countries that successfully harvest peat.
(E) The peat-harvesting industry of Ireland has been able to supply most of that country’s fuel for generations.

No OA

IMO B

_________________
Sudhanshu
(have lot of things to learn from all of you)

A

I also think that the OA is B.

I don’t think that you need technical or outside knowledge. The GMAT, however, does want you to FEEL confused

So you could substitute the word peat with anything. So you could say “Opponents of apple harvesting in this country…” It will all still work because the GMAT cannot require you to know outside things about peat. In some ways it can be a blessing to not know a lot about something in an argument because you may lean toward “trick” answer choices that seem to play to your knowledge.

Try reading and analyzing the passage again with the word apples and see if that helps.

Last edited by barcebal on Thu Aug 05, 2010 12:48 am; edited 1 time in total

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9
Q

OG-12 CR Q-91 Environmentalist
Wed May 02, 2012 11:31 pmThankQuoteEdit Tags
Elapsed Time: 00:00startlapstop
Environmentalist: The commissioner of the Fish and Game Authority would have the public believe that increases in the number of marine fish caught demonstrate that this resource is no longer endangered. This is a specious argument, as unsound as it would be to assert that the ever-increasing rate at which rain forests are being cut down demonstrates a lack of danger to that resource. The real cause of the increased fish-catch is a greater efficiency in using technologies that deplete resources.

The environmentalist’s statements, if true, best support which of the following as a conclusion?
(A) The use of technology is the reason for the increasing encroachment of people on nature.
(B) It is possible to determine how many fish are in the sea in some way other than by catching fish.
(C) The proportion of marine fish that are caught is as high as the proportion of rain forest trees that are cut
down each year.
(D) Modern technologies waste resources by catching inedible fish.
(E) Marine fish continue to be an endangered resource.

What I understand from the argument is:
The commissioner wants the public to believe that marine fish is not endangered anymore, whereas , it is the reverse case.
I think even A support’s the conclusion well enough by saying that technology is the root cause for encroachment ?

Please help
Thanks
Flag

A

transfer9858 wrote:
Whats the official answer?

I would say E because the environmentalist is saying, “ no, the fish are still not safe and your argument makes no sense because your just getting better and catching more fish. Also, if I were to get create a better technology to cut down trees, does that mean there are more trees and so trees aren’t in danger anymore? “ So at the end, fish are still endangered. Make sense?
Yes, the OA is E .

Thanks mate ! I get that

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10
Q

CR PROBLEM - Q1
Tue Aug 14, 2012 7:03 amThankQuoteEdit Tags
Elapsed Time: 00:00startlapstop
Policy Adviser: Freedom of speech is not only a basic human right, it is also the only rational policy for this government to adopt. When ideas are openly aired good idea flourish, silly proposals are easily recognized as such, and dangerous ideas can be responded to by forcing citizens to disseminate their thoughts in secret.
Which one of the following, if true, world most strengthen the argument?
(A) Most citizens would tolerate some limits on freedom of speech
(B) With or without a policy of freedom of speech, governments respond to dangerous ideas irrationally
(C) Freedom of religion and freedom of assembly are also basic human rights than governments must recognize
(D) Governments are less likely to be overthrown if they openly adopt a policy allowing freedom of speech
(E) Great ideas have flourished in societies that repress free speech as often as in those that permit it

A

OA-D

Policy Adviser: Freedom of speech is not only a basic human right, it is also the only rational policy for this government to adopt. When ideas are openly aired good idea flourish, silly proposals are easily recognized as such, and dangerous ideas can be responded to by forcing citizens to disseminate their thoughts in secret.
Which one of the following, if true, world most strengthen the argument?

Conclusion: Government should adopt Freedom of speech (FOS) policy.
Premise:
1. FOS is basic human right as well as only rational policy.

Answer should be something that tells obligation to have FOS policy. i.e. Govt will run effectively only in presence of this policy. Or it will not work in absence of FOS policy.

(A) Most citizens would tolerate some limits on freedom of speech -> It weakens saying, govt can do without FOS policy.
(B) With or without a policy of freedom of speech, governments respond to dangerous ideas irrationally. -> Somewhat towards conclusion, but it neighter strenghtens nor weakens. It only says Govt will act irrationally in absence of the policy.
(C) Freedom of religion and freedom of assembly are also basic human rights than governments must recognize. -> No tie with the conclusion.
(D) Governments are less likely to be overthrown if they openly adopt a policy allowing freedom of speech. -> It says Govt. will not be overthrown if FOS policy adopted. In other words, Govt. will be overthrown if FOS policy is not adopted. So, It is the answer.
(E) Great ideas have flourished in societies that repress free speech as often as in those that permit it. -> It repeats whatever said in argument and No tie with conclusion.

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11
Q

CR PROBLEM - Q2
Tue Aug 14, 2012 7:05 amThankQuoteEdit Tags
Elapsed Time: 00:00startlapstop
Naturalist: For decades we have known that the tuatara, a New Zealand reptile, has been approaching extinction on the South Island but since South Island tuatara were thought to be of the same species as North Island tuatara there was no need to protect them. New research indicates that the South Island tuatara are a distinct species, found only in that location. Because it is now known that, if the South Island tuatara are lost, an entire species will thereby be lost, human beings are now obliged to prevent their extinction, even if it means killing many of their unendangered natural predators.
Which one of the following principles most helps to justify the naturalists’ argumentation?
(A) In order to maximize the number of living things on Earth. Steps should be taken to preserve all local populations of animals.
(B) When an animal is in danger of dying, there is an obligation to help save its life, if doing so would not interfere with the health or well-being of other animals or people.
(C) The threat of local extinction imposes no obligation to try to prevent that extinction, whereas the threat of global extinction does impose such an obligation.
(D) Human activities that either intentionally or unintentionally threaten the survival of an animal species ought to be curtailed.
(E) Species that are found in only one circumscribed geographical region ought to be given more care and attention than are other species because they are more vulnerable to extinction.

Confused between C and E. OA - C

A

confuse mind wrote:
Naturalist: For decades we have known that the tuatara, a New Zealand reptile, has been approaching extinction on the South Island but since South Island tuatara were thought to be of the same species as North Island tuatara there was no need to protect them. New research indicates that the South Island tuatara are a distinct species, found only in that location. Because it is now known that, if the South Island tuatara are lost, an entire species will thereby be lost, human beings are now obliged to prevent their extinction, even if it means killing many of their unendangered natural predators.
Which one of the following principles most helps to justify the naturalists’ argumentation?
(A) In order to maximize the number of living things on Earth. Steps should be taken to preserve all local populations of animals.
(B) When an animal is in danger of dying, there is an obligation to help save its life, if doing so would not interfere with the health or well-being of other animals or people.
(C) The threat of local extinction imposes no obligation to try to prevent that extinction, whereas the threat of global extinction does impose such an obligation.
(D) Human activities that either intentionally or unintentionally threaten the survival of an animal species ought to be curtailed.
(E) Species that are found in only one circumscribed geographical region ought to be given more care and attention than are other species because they are more vulnerable to extinction.
The answer is C for the following reason: Before, when the people thought the North tuatara was the same as the South one, no one wanted to protect it. Now, they know they are different and want to protect it. They will even sacrifice other animals in order to protect the species. Statement C says “The threat of local extinction imposes no obligation to try to prevent that extinction, whereas the threat of global extinction does impose such an obligation.” That means that they are not willing to protect a species when it is will only locally die out (when there are other places with the species, {the NORTH}), but when they might be extincted globally (north and south are different), they will act to protect it.

Statement E is irrelevant to the issue at hand. E states that Species only found in one area should be given more care then other species. The argument is not really dealing with this issue. Sure, the species is only in one region, but the point is that it is going to be extinct. If it lived in a large area or a small area is irrelevant.

Hope this helps.

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12
Q

Fresh potatoes generally cost about $2 for a 10-pound bag, whereas dehydrated instant potatoes cost, on average, about $3 per pound. It can be concluded that some consumers will pay 15 times as much for convenience, since sales of this convenience food continue to rise.
Which of the following, if true, indicates that there is a major flaw in the argument above?
(A) Fresh potatoes bought in convenient 2-pound bags are about $1 a bag, or 2 1/2 times more expensive than fresh potatoes bought in 10-pound bags.
(B) Since fresh potatoes are 80 percent water, one pound of dehydrated potatoes is the equivalent of 5 pounds of fresh potatoes.
(C) Peeled potatoes in cans are also more expensive than the less convenient fresh potatoes.
(D) Retail prices of dehydrated potatoes have declined by 20 percent since 1960 to the current level of about $3 a pound.
(E) As a consequence of labor and processing costs, all convenience foods cost more than the basic foods from which they are derived.

A

gmat009 wrote:
Fresh potatoes generally cost about $2 for a 10-pound bag, whereas dehydrated instant potatoes cost, on average, about $3 per pound. It can be concluded that some consumers will pay 15 times as much for convenience, since sales of this convenience food continue to rise.
Which of the following, if true, indicates that there is a major flaw in the argument above?
(A) Fresh potatoes bought in convenient 2-pound bags are about $1 a bag, or 2 1/2 times more expensive than fresh potatoes bought in 10-pound bags.
(B) Since fresh potatoes are 80 percent water, one pound of dehydrated potatoes is the equivalent of 5 pounds of fresh potatoes.
(C) Peeled potatoes in cans are also more expensive than the less convenient fresh potatoes.
(D) Retail prices of dehydrated potatoes have declined by 20 percent since 1960 to the current level of about $3 a pound.
(E) As a consequence of labor and processing costs, all convenience foods cost more than the basic foods from which they are derived.
According to PowerScore CR Bible, this question belongs to family 2. i.e. we need to find the flaw in the conclusion by considering each answer choice as 100% correct.

If we look at the choice (B), it states that

1 Pound of Dehydrated potatoes = 5 pound of fresh potatoes.

That means, 2 pound of dehydrated potatoes = 10 pound of fresh potatoes. It means consumer will pay actually paying 6$ for the equivalent of 10 pounds of fresh potatoes. So, rate is increased by 3 times instead of 15 times.

Hence choose (B)

Option (C) is out of scope, because it talks about Peeled potatoes, which is out of scope in this context.

Hope this helps…

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13
Q

There are about 75 brands of microwave popcorn on the market; altogether, they account for a little over half of the money from sales of microwave food products. It takes three minutes to pop corn in the microwave, compared to seven minutes to pop corn conventionally. Yet by weight, microwave popcorn typically costs over five times as much as conventional popcorn. Judging by the popularity of microwave popcorn, many people are willing to pay a high price for just a little additional convenience.
If the statements in the passage are true, which one of the following must also be true?
(A) No single brand of microwave popcorn accounts for a large share of microwave food product sales.
(B) There are more brands of microwave popcorn on the market than there are of any other microwave food product.
(C) By volume, more microwave popcorn is sold than is conventional popcorn.
(D) More money is spent on microwave food products that take three minutes or less to cook than on microwave food products that take longer to cook.
(E) Of the total number of microwave food products on the market, most are microwave popcorn products.

A

confuse mind wrote:
There are about 75 brands of microwave popcorn on the market; altogether, they account for a little over half of the money from sales of microwave food products. It takes three minutes to pop corn in the microwave, compared to seven minutes to pop corn conventionally. Yet by weight, microwave popcorn typically costs over five times as much as conventional popcorn. Judging by the popularity of microwave popcorn, many people are willing to pay a high price for just a little additional convenience.t know how many products there are.

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14
Q

Economist: During a recession, a company can cut personnel costs either by laying off some employees without reducing the wages of remaining employees or by reducing the wages of all employees without laying off anyone. Both damage morale, but layoffs damage it less, since the aggrieved have, after all, left. Thus, when companies must reduce personnel costs during recessions, they are likely to lay off employees.

Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the economist’s reasoning?

(A) Employee morale is usually the primary concern driving companies’ decisions about whether to lay off employees or to reduce their wages.
(B) In general, companies increase wages only when they are unable to find enough qualified employees.
(C) Some companies will be unable to make a profit during recessions no matter how much they reduce personnel costs.
(D) When companies cut personnel costs during recessions by reducing wages, some employees usually resign.
(E) Some companies that have laid off employees during recessions have had difficulty finding enough qualified employees once economic growth resumed.

OA after some Reply..

LSAT Set 56 CR

A

Economist: During a recession, a company can cut personnel costs either by laying off some employees without reducing the wages of remaining employees or by reducing the wages of all employees without laying off anyone.

[Argument: Both damage morale, but layoffs damage it less, since the aggrieved have, after all, left.
Result: Thus, when companies must reduce personnel costs during recessions, they are likely to lay off employees.

We need to find the link between the argument and the result.

Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the economist’s reasoning?

(A) Employee morale is usually the primary concern driving companies’ decisions about whether to lay off employees or to reduce their wages.
Correct answer. Links the argument and result and strengthens the argument. If morale is the key concern and laying off has lesser impact on morale then laying off is the best option.

(B) In general, companies increase wages only when they are unable to find enough qualified employees.
Incorrect and out of context.

(C) Some companies will be unable to make a profit during recessions no matter how much they reduce personnel costs.
Incorrect and out of context.

(D) When companies cut personnel costs during recessions by reducing wages, some employees usually resign.
Incorrect. Provides further information on the impact of cutting wages but does not link the result and argument.

(E) Some companies that have laid off employees during recessions have had difficulty finding enough qualified employees once economic growth resumed.
Incorrect and out of context

OA after some Reply..

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15
Q

Vitcorp, a manufacturer, wishes to make its information booth at an industry convention more productive in terms of boosting sales. The both offers information introducing the company’s new products and services. To achieve the desired result, Vitacorp’s marketing department will attempt to attract more people to the booth. The marketing director’s first measure was to instruct each salesperson to call his or her five best customers and personally invite them to visit the booth.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the prediction that the marketing director’s first measure will contribute to meeting the goal of boosting sales?

(A) Vitacorp’s salespeople routinely inform each important customer about new products and services as soon as the decision to launch them has been made.

(B) Many of Vitacorp’s competitors have made plans for making their own information booths more productive in increasing sales.

(C) An infomation booth that is well attended tends to attract visitors who would not otherwise have attended the booth.

(D) Most of Vitacorp’s best customers also have business dealings with Vitcorp’s competitors.

(E) Vitacorp has fewer new products and services available this year than it had in previous years.

This is an OG question - Q82 in Verbal Review. I am not convinced with OG’s answer. Its (C). I think (C) is too general in this context.

A

Conc: to attract more people to the booth and boost sales

(A) Vitacorp’s salespeople routinely inform each important customer about new products and services as soon as the decision to launch them has been made. (informing doesnt mean more ppl will be at the booth)

(B) Many of Vitacorp’s competitors have made plans for making their own information booths more productive in increasing sales. (we are more concerned abt Vitacorp n its sales. OOS)

(C) An infomation booth that is well attended tends to attract visitors who would not otherwise have attended the booth. (in line with the Director’s strategy. More crowd, more ppl tend to visit. correct)

(D) Most of Vitacorp’s best customers also have business dealings with Vitcorp’s competitors. (not pertinent to discussion. OOS)

(E) Vitacorp has fewer new products and services available this year than it had in previous years. (again OOS)

Hence (C)

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16
Q

A recent study of people who had successfully lost weight and implemented regular exercise routines in their twenties found that, by the age of forty, most had gained back the weight, stopped exercising regularly, or both. Surprisingly, among the study’s subjects who had hired personal trainers to help them lose weight and exercise in their twenties, an even higher percentage had regained the weight or stopped exercising than among subjects who had not hired such trainers. The researchers concluded not only that remaining on an effective weight management and exercise program is difficult, but also that personal trainers are largely ineffective in helping people to remain on an effective weight management and exercise program.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument in the passage above?

1) Subjects in the study who had hired personal trainers had, on average, more free time to exercise than did those who had not hired such trainers.
2) Some people hire personal trainers for sport-specific training or to rehabilitate injuries, rather than to lose weight or implement a regular exercise program.
3) The average person’s metabolism slows significantly between the ages of thirty and forty, making it more difficult for people aged forty or older to avoid weight gain.
4) Many of the personal trainers hired by the people in the study were also dietitians who helped their clients design meal plans.
5) Most people who hire personal trainers do so, at least in part, because they lack sufficient motivation to remain on a diet or exercise regimen by themselves.

A

E

livery wrote:
A recent study of people who had successfully lost weight and implemented regular exercise routines in their twenties found that, by the age of forty, most had gained back the weight, stopped exercising regularly, or both. Surprisingly, among the study’s subjects who had hired personal trainers to help them lose weight and exercise in their twenties, an even higher percentage had regained the weight or stopped exercising than among subjects who had not hired such trainers. The researchers concluded not only that remaining on an effective weight management and exercise program is difficult, but also that personal trainers are largely ineffective in helping people to remain on an effective weight management and exercise program.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument in the passage above?

1) Subjects in the study who had hired personal trainers had, on average, more free time to exercise than did those who had not hired such trainers. Having more free time doesn’t make any difference. We have no information what are they doing in their free time.
2) Some people hire personal trainers for sport-specific training or to rehabilitate injuries, rather than to lose weight or implement a regular exercise program.We are concerned only about those trainers hired to help the people lose weight as the author exactly specifies in the paragraph.
3) The average person’s metabolism slows significantly between the ages of thirty and forty, making it more difficult for people aged forty or older to avoid weight gain. This has nothing to do with trainers and it affects equally the people with or without trainer.
4) Many of the personal trainers hired by the people in the study were also dietitians who helped their clients design meal plans. We know that the people hired personal trainers to lose weight and exercise, so dieting and designing meal plans might have been part of the lose weight program. This option doesn’t provide any new information about how efficient were those trainers.
5) Most people who hire personal trainers do so, at least in part, because they lack sufficient motivation to remain on a diet or exercise regimen by themselves.We are learning that those people who hire personal trainers have less motivation to diet and exercise by themselves than the other people who do not hire trainers, so the problem is not with the trainers but with the trainees . If the trainers are not responsible for the inefficiency of the program the argument has no basis.
The argument of the paragraph is that because the percentage of people who regain weight is higher among those who hired trainer than among those who didn’t hire trainer the author concludes that trainers are largely ineffective. So we are looking for the option that weakens this argument.

IMO option 5) is the right answer.

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17
Q

The Maxilux car company’s design for its new luxury model, the Max 100, included a special design for the tires that was intended to complement the model’s image. The winning bid for supplying these tires was submitted by Rubco. Analysts concluded that the bid would only just cover Rubco’s costs on the tires, but Rubco executives claim that winning the bid will actually make a profit for the company.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly justifies the claim made by Rubco’s executives?

(A) In any Maxilux model, the spare tire is exactly the same make and model as the tires that are mounted on the wheels.

(B) Rubco holds exclusive contracts to supply Maxilux with the tires for a number of other models made by Maxilux.

(C) The production facilities for the Max 100 and those for the tires to be supplied by Rubco are located very near each other.

(D) When people who have purchased a carefully designed luxury automobile need to replace a worn part of it, they almost invariably replace it with a part of exactly the same make and type.

(E) When Maxilux awarded the tire contract to Rubco, the only criterion on which Rubco’s bid was clearly ahead of its competitors’ bids was price.

A

D

wrote:
The Maxilux car company’s design for its new luxury model, the Max 100, included a special design for the tires that was intended to complement the model’s image. The winning bid for supplying these tires was submitted by Rubco. Analysts concluded that the bid would only just cover Rubco’s costs on the tires, but Rubco executives claim that winning the bid will actually make a profit for the company.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly justifies the claim made by Rubco’s executives?

(A) In any Maxilux model, the spare tire is exactly the same make and model as the tires that are mounted on the wheels.

(B) Rubco holds exclusive contracts to supply Maxilux with the tires for a number of other models made by Maxilux.

(C) The production facilities for the Max 100 and those for the tires to be supplied by Rubco are located very near each other.

(D) When people who have purchased a carefully designed luxury automobile need to replace a worn part of it, they almost invariably replace it with a part of exactly the same make and type.

(E) When Maxilux awarded the tire contract to Rubco, the only criterion on which Rubco’s bid was clearly ahead of its competitors’ bids was price.

1)Can anyone please explain me why we are eliminating B,C and D options?

Option B)As per my understanding we are eliminating B as it talks about the other models of Maxilux company but our concern is how Rubco makes profit on the winning bid for Max 100 ……..Please let me know if my understanding is correct on this answer?

Option C talks about less production cost so it should help Rubco in earning profits. Why are we eliminating this option?

Please explain why D is correct?

2)One more question is that in the passage it is mentioned that the Analyst concluded that the bid would only just cover Rubco’s cost on tires.Is this a premise/fact ?Do we have to consider this as a fact? Can we attack what analyst concluded?
Premise: The bid to supply tires for the Max 100 will just cover Rubco’s costs.
Conclusion: As a result of winning the bid, Rubco will make a profit.
For the conclusion to be valid, what must be true?
As a result of winning the bid, Rubco must be able to make a profit in SOME OTHER WAY.

Answer choice D: When people who have purchased a carefully designed luxury automobile need to replace a worn part of it, they almost invariably replace it with a part of exactly the same make and type.
This answer choice shows how Rubco will make a profit: when purchasers of the Max 100 need a new tire, they will buy the specially-designed tire made by Rubco.

The correct answer is D.

Reasons to eliminate:

A: The spare tire is irrelevant. It is given as a PREMISE – as a FACT not in dispute – that supplying tires for the Max 100 will not yield a profit.

B: Since these contracts are already held by Rubco, they are not affected by the bid to supply tires for the Max 100.

C: How the tires are produced is irrelevant. It is given as a PREMISE – as a FACT not in dispute – that supplying tires for the Max 100 will not yield a profit.

E: Irrelevant. It is given as a PREMISE – as a FACT not in dispute – that Rubco supplied the winning bid. The correct answer must show how – as a RESULT of winning the bid – Rubco will realize a profit.

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18
Q
  1. Many physicists claim that quantum mechanics may
    ultimately be able to explain all fundamental phenomena,
    and that, therefore, physical theory will soon be complete.
    However, every theory in the history of physics that was
    thought to be final eventually had to be rejected for failure to
    explain some new observation. For this reason, we can
    expect that quantum mechanics will not be the final theory.

Which one of the following arguments is most similar in
its reasoning to the argument above?

(A) Only a few species of plants now grow in very dry climates;
therefore, few species of animals can live in those climates.

(B) Four companies have marketed a new food processing
product; therefore, a fifth company will not be able to market a
similar product.

(C) Your sister is a very good chess player but she has
never won a chess tournament; therefore, she will not
win this chess tournament.

(D) A rare virus infected a group of people a decade ago;
therefore, it will not reinfect the same population
now.

(E) Each team member has failed to live up to people’s
expectations; therefore, the team will not live up to
people’s expectations.

A

IMO C

Argument is

X is good but since has never won therefore x will never win

Only C fits the description.

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19
Q

Patient Advocacy Association: In a recent ranking of state hospitals, Hospital A received the lowest overall grade based on a patient mortality rate that was nearly twice that of the top-ranked hospital. Mortality rates in five departments (cardiology, oncology, surgery, neurology, and neonatology) were used in the comparison. Clearly, Hospital A provides the lowest quality of care state-wide in these departments.

One reason that the strength of the Patient Advocacy Association’s argument cannot be evaluated is that

(A) The argument makes no mention of deaths of patients seen by multiple departments.

(B) The Patient Advocacy Association has a reputation as a biased third party that does not always objectively weigh the evidence regarding quality of care.

(C) The Patient Advocacy Association has only cited the mortality rate in five departments of the hospitals.

(D) The Patient Advocacy Association has not included data about the underlying health and severity of illness of the individuals served by each of the hospitals.

(E) The Patient Advocacy Association has not included recent trends in mortality rates by hospital.

A

D for obvious reasons

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20
Q

In 1992 outlaw fishing boats began illegally harvesting lobsters from the territorial waters
of the country of Belukia. Soon after, the annual tonnage of lobster legally harvested in
Belukian waters began declining; in 1996, despite there being no reduction in the level of
legal lobster fishing activity, the local catch was 9,000 tons below pre-1992 levels. It is
therefore highly likely that the outlaw fishing boats harvested about 9,000 tons of lobster
illegally that year.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
A. The illegal lobster harvesting was not so extensive that the population of
catchable lobsters in Belukia’s territorial waters had sharply declined by 1996.
B. The average annual lobster catch, in tons, of an outlaw fishing boat has increased
steadily since 1992.
C. Outlaw fishing boats do not, as a group, harvest more lobsters than do licensed
lobster-fishing boats.
D. The annual legal lobster harvest in Belukia in 1996 was not significantly less than
9,000 tons.
E. A significant proportion of Belukia’s operators of licensed lobster-fishing boats
went out of business between 1992 and 1996.

Clueless!Any thoughts

A

A

gtvisa2002 wrote:
The argument says all the 9,000 tons were caught by illegal harvesting.

However, illegal harvesting started in 1992 and both illegal and legal harvesting co-exist from 1992 to 1996.
So obviously the number of tons harvested is steadily increasing.

What if, the steady increase, reduced the mature lobsters which are ready to offspring in the next year…..
So constantly the source is depleted. This provides an alternative explanation to the decrease instead of assuming the number of lobsters harvested is the same throughout the period 1992-96.
Can you be little more elaborate….
Ok let me try.
Say in 1992 there were 100,000 tons of lobsters. Illegal harvesting:10,000 tons Legal:20,000 tons so we are left with 70,000 tons.

Assuming the harvesting rate remains the same, we started 1992 with 100,000, 1993 with 70,000 : we will have only 40,000 for 1994, 10,000 for 1995 and for 1996 we will not have any lobsters available.

The argument assumes that every year this 100,000 tons remains the same in the starting of every year so the lost 9,000 tons were caught by illegal harvesting team.

Option A says that the population remained the same, confirming the assumption.

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21
Q

Governments have only one response to public criticism of socially necessary services: regulation of the activity of providing those services. But governments inevitably make the activity more expensive by regulating it, and that is particularly troublesome in these times of strained financial resources. However, since public criticism of child-care services has undermined all confidence in such services, and since such services are socially necessary, the government is certain to respond.
Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
(A) The quality of child care will improve.
(B) The cost of providing child-care services will increase.
(C) The government will use funding to foster advances in child care.
(D) If public criticism of policy is strongly voiced, the government is certain to respond.
(E) If child-care services are not regulated, the cost of providing child care will not increase.

A

OA is B

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22
Q
  1. With Proposition 13, if you bought your house 11 years ago for $75,000, your property tax would be approximately $914 a year (1 percent of $75,000 increased by 2 percent each year for 11 years); and if your neighbor bought an identical house next door to you for $200,000 this year, his tax would be $2,000 (1 percent of $200,000). Without Proposition 13, both you and your neighbor would pay $6,000 a year in property taxes (3 percent of $200,000).

Which of the following is the conclusion for which the author most likely is arguing in the passage above?
(A) Proposition 13 is unconstitutional because it imposes an unequal tax on properties of equal value.
(B) If Proposition 13 is repealed, every homeowner is likely to experience a substantial increase in property taxes.
(C) By preventing inflation from driving up property values, Proposition 13 has saved homeowners thousands of dollars in property taxes.
(D) If Proposition 13 is not repealed, identical properties will continue to be taxed at different rates.
(E) Proposition 13 has benefited some homeowners more than others.

OA after some explanations

A

B

With proposition 13, they pay less property tax; while one would be $914, $2000 other. If it is repealed, then each has to pay $6000.

If you elaborate the question:
Without proposition 13 , the value of the property will be revalued. (Each house will be $200.000, moreover the assumption is based on the identical houses.) With proposition 13, you pay a fixed property tax(%1 for years); without proposition 13, you pay a current rate (%3).

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23
Q

B

With proposition 13, they pay less property tax; while one would be $914, $2000 other. If it is repealed, then each has to pay $6000.

If you elaborate the question:
Without proposition 13 , the value of the property will be revalued. (Each house will be $200.000, moreover the assumption is based on the identical houses.) With proposition 13, you pay a fixed property tax(%1 for years); without proposition 13, you pay a current rate (%3).

A

E

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24
Q

In a monogamous culture, 100% of the adults are married. The average number of children per family is five and over-population is a threat. Programs to encourage birth-control have been ineffective. It has been suggested that this failure is due to these programs ignoring a tradition that values male children very highly, so that every parent wants to have at least one son. It is proposed that couples be encouraged to use birth-control measures after the birth of their first son.

If this proposal is widely accepted in the culture, we may expect that:

(A) the rate of population increase will be slowed, and future generations will contain a disproportionately high number of females.
(B) the rate of population increase will be slowed, and the gender balance in future generations will remain as it is at present.
(C) the rate of population growth will remain the same, and future generations will contain a disproportionately high number of females.
(D) there will be no significant effect either on population growth or on gender balance.
(E) the population will decline precipitously, because approximately half of all families will have only a single child

A

A

IMO A

Since people will start using birth control after one son therefore population growth will decline. This rules out C and D.

Since most families will have a maximum of 1son whereas other families have two, three or more daughters.

Not enough information is provided to chose E. even if 50% of the population has one son, we don’t know what percentage would have one, two, three and more daughters with at max one or no sons. Don’t expect GMAT questions to expect that without this infomation we can find the solution. Therefore ruled out E

Between A and B, I ruled out B because all families will have at max one son whereas there is no limit to girls.even if 50% of the population will have max one son then the rest of 50% will have one or more than one daughters. Hence there will be a disproportionate number of females. This rules out B

Answer is A

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25
Q

At one time, European and Japanese companies tried to imitate their American rivals. Today, American appliance manufacturers import European scientists to lead their research staffs; American automakers design cars that mimic the styling of German, Italian, and French imports; and American electronics firms boast in their advertising of Japanese-style devotion to quality and reliability. In the world of high technology, America has lost the battle for international prestige.

Each of the following statements, if true, would help to support the claim above EXCEPT:

(A) An American camera company claims in its promotional literature to produce cameras as fine as the best Swiss imports.
(B) An American maker of stereo components designs its products to resemble those of a popular Japanese firm.
(C) An American manufacturer of video games uses a brand name chosen because it sounds like a Japanese word.
(D) An American maker of televisions studies German-made televisions in order to adopt German manufacturing techniques.
(E) An American maker of frozen foods advertises its dinners as Real European-style entrees prepared by fine French and Italian chefs.

A

IMO E

We are talking about technology. Not food stuff. Option E is the odd one out.

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26
Q

In the effort to fire a Civil Service employee, his or her manager may have to spend up to $100,000 of tax money. Since Civil Service employees know how hard it is to fire them, they tend to loaf. This explains in large part why the government is so inefficient.
It can be properly inferred on the basis of the statements above that the author believes which of the following?
I. Too much job security can have a negative influence on workers.
II. More government workers should be fired.
III. Most government workers are Civil Service employees.
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II only
(D) I, II, and III
(E) III only

A

Tricky problem!, but I think the answer is A.

I. Too much job security can have a negative influence on works. This is a very close and logical flow from the statement, which makes two distinct points–firstly, that Civil Service employees know how hard it is to fire them, and secondly, that because they know how hard it is to be fired they tend to loaf. Therefore, their job security causes them to underperform.

II. More government workers should be fired. This can not be confirmed in the statement, because the final sentence is unclear about which statement explains why the government is so inefficient. Is it because it costs up to $100,000 just to fire someone OR is it because people loaf due to job security? It’s too ambiguous to tell.

III. Most government workers are Civil Service employees. There is no reference to number at all in the statement.

Therefore, A.

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27
Q

Tooten County is populated by a significantly lower percentage of young families than the typical county in the nation. Yet, per capita retail sales of children’s bicycles are above the national average.

Which of the following, if true, best reconciles the seeming paradox described above?

A. The two leading retailers of children’s bicycles in Tooten County spend a remarkable 50% of their marketing budget on attracting residents of neighboring counties.

B. A local manufacturer of children’s bicycles has just announced that national sales are up 20% over last year.

C. Retail outlets in Tooten County import the majority of their children’s bicycles from Canada.

D. Elementary schools in Tooten County continue to promote the values of exercise to its students.

E. Residents of Tooten County rent children’s bicycles as about the same rate as residents of other counties in the nation.

IMO - D OA - not known

A

A

Tooten County is populated by a significantly lower percentage of young families than the typical county in the nation. Yet, per capita retail sales of children’s bicycles are above the national average.

…lower % of young families…
Higher sales of children bicycle….

Both statements contradict as there are fewer younger people in the county. But sales for children bicycle is high.

Which of the following, if true, best reconciles the seeming paradox described above?

A. The two leading retailers of children’s bicycles in Tooten County spend a remarkable 50% of their marketing budget on attracting residents of neighboring counties.
Reconciles the anomaly as younger people from other counties visit and purchase children bicycles. Since there are fewer children in tootie county therefore customers are from neighboring areas.

B. A local manufacturer of children’s bicycles has just announced that national sales are up 20% over last year.
No context. Does not link or explain the difference between the two statements in blue. In fact this just rephrased the 2nd sentence. The question still remains unanswered that if there are fewer younger people in the county then who is buying the cycles.

C. Retail outlets in Tooten County import the majority of their children’s bicycles from Canada.
Again does not answer who is buying the products.

D. Elementary schools in Tooten County continue to promote the values of exercise to its students.
Even if elementary schools promote exercise one young adult will only buy one bicycle. The question remains if there are fewer younger people who are going to elementary school, does it justify a higher per capita in sale of bicycles. Even if all the young adults buy the bicycles even then sales of children bicycles should not be higher considering there are fewer children there.

E. Residents of Tooten County rent children’s bicycles as about the same rate as residents of other counties in the nation.
No context. Does not answer who is buying the bicycles.

IMO - D OA - not known

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28
Q

Ace Automotive Group, a publicly held manufacturer of cars and light trucks, plans to move the production of engines for its automobiles to Mexico from plants in Indiana. However, Ace Automotive will still assemble its cars and trucks in the United States. The president of Ace Automotive announced to Wall Street analysts that this move will save the company $20 million per year even after accounting for the increased transportation costs needed to get the Mexican produced engines to Ace’s assembly plants versus current engine transportation costs.

The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?

A. Ace Automotive Group’s stock price will rise.

B. Ace Automotive will have to deal with pickets and protests when it closes its engine production facilities in Indiana.

C. Ace Automotive would save more than $20 million per year from this move if engine transportation charges from Mexico equaled the old transportation charges from Indiana.

D. Ace Automotive Group’s assembly plants are, on average, closer to the old Indiana engine plants than they are to the new Mexican engine plants.

E. Ace plans to spend less than $20 million on increased transportation costs.

IMO - D OA - not known.
I am confused in D because increased transportation cost does not necessarily mean increased distance.
But D looks best by POE.

A

C

Ace Automotive Group, a publicly held manufacturer of cars and light trucks, plans to move the production of engines for its automobiles to Mexico from plants in Indiana. However, Ace Automotive will still assemble its cars and trucks in the United States. The president of Ace Automotive announced to Wall Street analysts that this move will save the company $20 million per year even after accounting for the increased transportation costs needed to get the Mexican produced engines to Ace’s assembly plants versus current engine transportation costs.

The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?

A. Ace Automotive Group’s stock price will rise.
We donot know the company,s financial position or public sentiment therefore cannot comment on the Impact on the stok price. Also it is possible that the company may need to incur additional costs for tranortation tfrom Mexico to assembly p,ant.

B. Ace Automotive will have to deal with pickets and protests when it closes its engine production facilities in Indiana.
We donot know how satisfied or unsatisfied the companys workers are. Or what will be the impact on their morale.

C. Ace Automotive would save more than $20 million per year from this move if engine transportation charges from Mexico equaled the old transportation charges from Indiana.
written that the company expects to save $20 million per year even after accounting for INCREASED tranortation costs…….. If the costs are the same I.e there is no increase then the company would be able to save more than $20 million. Hence C should be the answer.

D. Ace Automotive Group’s assembly plants are, on average, closer to the old Indiana engine plants than they are to the new Mexican engine plants.
We donot know whether the plants are closer or not just that transportation cost will rise. The terrain could be difficult and Mexico plant can be close. So we really donot know

E. Ace plans to spend less than $20 million on increased transportation costs.
No context. As $ 20million is what would be saved not the total transportation. Cost.

Answer should be C

I am confused in D because increased transportation cost does not necessarily mean increased distance.

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29
Q

Elapsed Time: 00:00startlapstop
Only a reduction of 10 percent in the number of scheduled flights using Greentown’s airport will allow the delays that are so common there to be avoided. Hevelia airstrip, 40 miles away, would, if upgraded and expanded, be an attractive alternative for fully 20 percent of the passengers using Greentown airport. Nevertheless, experts reject the claim that turning Hevelia into a full-service airport would end the chronic delays at Greentown.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to justify the experts’ position?

(A) Turning Hevelia into a full-service airport would require not only substantial construction at the airport itself, but also the construction of new access highways.

(B) A second largely undeveloped airstrip close to Greentown airport would be a more attractive alternative than Hevelia for many passengers who now use Greentown.

(C) Hevelia airstrip lies in a relatively undeveloped area but would, if it became a full-service airport, be a magnet for commerc ial and residential development.

(D) If an airplane has to wait to land, the extra jet fuel required adds significantly to the airline’s costs.

(E) Several airlines use Greentown as a regional hub, so that most flights landing at Greentown have many passengers who then take different flights to reach their final destinations.

I arrived at the correct answer through the Process of elimination , but I still couldn’t figure out why E is correct

A

E

IMO E

Only one that shows that the new airport Would not prevent delays because other airlines use green… Airport for connecting flights.

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30
Q

Environmentalist: The commissioner of the Fish and Game Authority would have the public believe that increases in the number of marine fish caught demonstrate that this resource is no longer endangered. This is a specious argument, as unsound as it would be to assert that the ever-increasing rate at which rain forests are being cut down demonstrates a lack of danger to that resource. The real cause of the increased fish-catch is a greater efficiency in using technologies that deplete resources.

The environmentalist’s statements, if true, best support which of the following as a conclusion?
(A) The use of technology is the reason for the increasing encroachment of people on nature.
(B) It is possible to determine how many fish are in the sea in some way other than by catching fish.
(C) The proportion of marine fish that are caught is as high as the proportion of rain forest trees that are cut
down each year.
(D) Modern technologies waste resources by catching inedible fish.
(E) Marine fish continue to be an endangered resource.

What I understand from the argument is:
The commissioner wants the public to believe that marine fish is not endangered anymore, whereas , it is the reverse case.
I think even A support’s the conclusion well enough by saying that technology is the root cause for encroachment ?

A

IMO E

Commissioner says fish are not endangered.
Environmentalist argues and gives a conclusion that fish are still endangered.

The environmentalist is not talking against technology but is givi g a counter argument to the commissioners argument.
Flag

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31
Q

In the country of Veltria, the past two years’ broad economic recession has included a business downturn in the clothing trade, where sales are down by about 7 percent as compared to two years ago. Clothing wholesalers have found, however, that the proportion of credit extended to retailers that was paid off on time fell sharply in the first year of the recession but returned to its prerecession level in the second year.Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the change between the first and the second year of the recession in the proportion of credit not paid off
on time?

(A) The total amount of credit extended to retailers by clothing wholesalers increased between the
first year of the recession and the second year.
(B) Between the first and second years of the recession, clothing retailers in Veltria saw many
of their costs, rent and utilities in particular, increase.
(C) Of the considerable number of clothing retailers in Veltria who were having financial difficulties
before the start of the recession, virtually all were forced to go out of business during its
first year.
(D) Clothing retailers in Veltria attempted to stimulate sales in the second year of the
recession by discounting merchandise.
(E) Relatively recession-proof segments of the clothing trade, such as work clothes, did not
suffer any decrease in sales during the first year of the recession.

A

IMO C

Debtors did not pay on time as weak businesses went out of business.

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32
Q

A major network news organization experienced a drop in viewership in the week following the airing of a controversial report on the economy. The network also received a very large number of complaints regarding the report. The network, however, maintains that negative reactions to the report had nothing to do with its loss of viewers.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the network’s position?
A.The other major network news organizations reported similar reductions in viewership during the same week.
B.The viewers who registered complaints with the network were regular viewers of the news organization’s programs.
C.Major network news organizations publicly attribute drops in viewership to their own reports only when they receive complaints about those reports.
D.This was not the first time that this network news organization has aired a controversial report on the economy that has inspired viewers to complain to the network.
E. Most network news viewers rely on network news broadcasts as their primary source of information regarding the economy.

Can anyone please explain why E is wrong? I assumed that E is correct because most network news viewers rely on the network news for primary source of information so the viewership will not drop as the viewers will have no more alternatives to get the information regarding the economy.

Please correct me if my understanding is wrong.

A

IMO a

Only reason which justifies that drop in viewership was not because of the report.

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33
Q

IMO a

Only reason which justifies that drop in viewership was not because of the report.

A

I believe the answer is D.

The argument states that the programming bug will only be in the temporary files and that they are purged after 90 days meaning that no bug associated with the program will affect the computer after 90 days.

Weaken: If after 90 days that program bug is still freezing the computer, then clearly the file has not only affected the temporary file but other files that are purged at lesser frequency thus weakens the argument.

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34
Q

Editorial: The roof of Northtown Council’s equipment-storage building collapsed under
the weight of last week’s heavy snowfall. The building was constructed recently and met
local building-safety codes in every particular, except that the nails used for attaching
roof supports to the building’s columns were of a smaller size than the codes specify for
this purpose. Clearly, this collapse exemplifies how even a single, apparently
insignificant, departure from safety standards can have severe consequences.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the editorial’s argument?
A. The only other buildings whose roofs collapsed from the weight of the snowfall
were older buildings constructed according to less exacting standards than those
in the safety codes.
B. Because of the particular location of the equipment-storage building, the weight
of snow on its roof was greater than the maximum weight allowed for in the
safety codes.
C. Because the equipment-storage building was not intended for human occupation,
some safety-code provisions that would have applied to an office building did not
apply to it.
D. The columns of the building were no stronger than the building-safety codes
required for such a building.
E. Because the equipment-storage building was where the council kept snowremoval
equipment, the building was almost completely empty when the roof
collapsed.

A

IMHO A,

I would agree with D if it say no weaker than the code requires,

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35
Q

A birth is more likely to be difficult when the mother is over the age of 40 than when she is younger. Regardless
of the mother’s age, a person whose birth was difficult is more likely to be ambidextrous than is a person whose
birth was not difficult. Since other causes of ambidexterity are not related to the mother’s age, there must be
more ambidextrous people who were born to women over 40 than there are ambidextrous people who were born
to younger women. The argument is most vulnerable to which one of the following criticisms?
A. It assumes what it sets out to establish.
B. It overlooks the possibility that fewer children are born to women over 40 than to women under 40.
C. It fails to specify what percentage of people in the population as a whole are ambidextrous.
D. It does not state how old a child must be before its handedness can be determined.
E. It neglects to explain how difficulties during birth can result in a child’s ambidexterity.

A

B not A

The argument is that more ambidextrous people are born to women over 40. In no way is this assumed in the passage. You are looking to refute the number and this conclusion should give a relative number not an absolute.

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36
Q

Shareholders and investment analysts have criticized the Vista Products Company for having slow and outdated computer systems in its factories when these systems are compared to Vista’s competitor’s systems. However, a Vista representative has claimed that such criticism is unfair. The representative noted that Vista spent more money last year per factory upgrading its computer systems than any of its competitors did.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously discredits the reasoning in the company representative’s argument?

A. Overall spending per factory on computer systems is lower in Vista Product’s industry than in other industries.

B. Vista Products is not as profitable as some of its competitors

C. Companies with fast, modern computer systems would have no need to spend large amounts of money to upgrade these systems.

D. No investment analyst has visited every single Vista Products factory.

E. When assessing the overall quality of a company’s operations, production line speed is more critical than the quality of the company’s computer systems.

A

C

IMO C

Only answer that weekends the argument.

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37
Q

The number of aircraft collisions on the ground is increasing because of the substantial increase in the number of flights operated by the airlines. Many of the fatalities that occur in such collisions are caused not by the collision itself, but by an inherent flaw in the cabin design of most aircraft, in which seats, by restricting access to emergency exits, impede escape. Therefore, to reduce the total number of fatalities that result annually from such collisions, the airlines should be required to remove all seats that restrict access to emergency exits.

Which one of the following proposals, if implemented together with the proposal made in the passage, would improve the prospects for achieving the stated objective of reducing fatalities?
(A) The airlines should be required, when buying new planes, to buy only planes with unrestricted access to emergency exits.
(B) The airlines should not be permitted to increase further the number of flights in order to offset the decrease in the number of seats on each aircraft.
(C) Airport authorities should be required to streamline their passenger check-in procedures to accommodate the increased number of passengers served by the airlines.
(D) Airport authorities should be required to refine security precautions by making them less conspicuous without making them less effective.
(E) The airlines should not be allowed to increase the ticket price for each passenger to offset the decrease in the number of seats on each aircraft.

A

hmmm….my pick B

Quote:
Which one of the following proposals, if implemented together with the proposal made in the passage, would improve the prospects for achieving the stated objective of reducing fatalities?
two reasons for number of aircraft collisions- more no. of flights and blocked exits The latter one i.e.remove restriction to exits is already mentioned in the conclusion-Therefore, to reduce the total number of fatalities that result annually from such collisions, the airlines should be required to remove all seats that restrict access to emergency exits

the other is- curtailing the increase of number of flights is to be addresed….as the airlines could try and increase the no.of flights to make up for the lost profits incurred by the removal of seats thereby increasing the no. of flights and risking more collisions ……hence B fits the bill

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38
Q

q) In the country of Veltria, the past two years’ broad economic recession has included a business downturn in the clothing trade, where sales are down by about 7 percent as compared to two years ago. Clothing wholesalers have found, however, that the proportion of credit extended to retailers that was paid off on time fell sharply in the first year of the recession but returned to its pre recession level in the second year. Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the change between the first and the second year of the recession in the proportion of credit not paid off on time?

(A) The total amount of credit extended to retailers by clothing wholesalers increased between the first year of the recession and the second year.
(B) Between the first and second years of the recession, clothing retailers in Veltria saw many of their costs, rent and utilities in particular, increase.
(C) Of the considerable number of clothing retailers in Veltria who were having financial difficulties before the start of the recession, virtually all were forced to go out of business during its first year.
(D) Clothing retailers in Veltria attempted to stimulate sales in the second year of the recession by discounting merchandise.
(E) Relatively recession-proof segments of the clothing trade, such as work clothes, did not suffer any decrease in sales during the first year of the recession.

A

IMO C

.kumar wrote:
q) In the country of Veltria, the past two years’ broad economic recession has included a business downturn in the clothing trade, where sales are down by about 7 percent as compared to two years ago. Clothing wholesalers have found, however, that the proportion of credit extended to retailers that was paid off on time fell sharply in the first year of the recession but returned to its pre recession level in the second year. Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the change between the first and the second year of the recession in the proportion of credit not paid off on time?

(A) The total amount of credit extended to retailers by clothing wholesalers increased between the first year of the recession and the second year.
(B) Between the first and second years of the recession, clothing retailers in Veltria saw many of their costs, rent and utilities in particular, increase.
(C) Of the considerable number of clothing retailers in Veltria who were having financial difficulties before the start of the recession, virtually all were forced to go out of business during its first year.
(D) Clothing retailers in Veltria attempted to stimulate sales in the second year of the recession by discounting merchandise.
(E) Relatively recession-proof segments of the clothing trade, such as work clothes, did not suffer any decrease in sales during the first year of the recession.

OA is C but IMO E, Please kindly explain
Credit paid back fell in first year and in the second year it came back to normal level. Even though recession affected two years, how did it happen? We need explain this situation:

E Says that some clothing segments were doing well in the first year. It doesn’t tell anything about the second year. We need an explanation that answers why the credit paying was back to normal in the second year, after having fallen in the first. C answers that question successfully.

C says that those (retailers having financial difficulties) who couldn’t payback in the first year, all went out of business. So, by the second year only those who didn’t have financial difficulties (successful) remained in the market. So, if only successful retailers remained in the market by second year, they all paid the credit back, restoring it to the normal level.

Hope it helps.

_________________
- VK

Learn. Recognize. Apply

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39
Q

Though sucking zinc lozenges has been promoted as a treatment for the common cold, research has revealed no consistent effect. Recently, however, a zinc gel applied nasally has been shown to greatly reduce the duration of colds. Since the gel contains zinc in the same form and concentration as the lozenges, the greater effectiveness of the gel must be due to the fact that cold viruses tend to concentrate in the nose, not the mouth.

In order to evaluate the argument, it would be most helpful to determine which of the following?

A. Whether zinc is effective only against colds, or also has an effect on other virally caused diseases
B. Whether there are remedies that do not contain zinc but that, when taken orally, can reduce the duration of colds
C. Whether people who frequently catch colds have a zinc deficiency
D. Whether either the zinc gel or the lozenges contain ingredients that have an impact on the activity of the zinc
E. Whether the zinc gel has an effect on the severity of cold symptoms, as well as on their duration

A

rx_11 wrote:
Though sucking zinc lozenges has been promoted as a treatment for the common cold, research has revealed no consistent effect. Recently, however, a zinc gel applied nasally has been shown to greatly reduce the duration of colds. Since the gel contains zinc in the same form and concentration as the lozenges, the greater effectiveness of the gel must be due to the fact that cold viruses tend to concentrate in the nose, not the mouth.

In order to evaluate the argument, it would be most helpful to determine which of the following?
The Red Bold part is the argument to be evaluated . This is a “relevant information” type question which is a hybrid of both Strengthen and Weaken Question. In the correct choice, one answer to the question will strengthen the argument and the opposite answer will weaken the argument.

Our objective here is to figure out why the gel is more effective than the lozenge.

A. Whether zinc is effective only against colds, or also has an effect on other virally caused diseases

B. Whether there are remedies that do not contain zinc but that, when taken orally, can reduce the duration of colds
Both lozenge and gel contains zinc, so no point in talking about remedies that do not contain zinc

C. Whether people who frequently catch colds have a zinc deficiency

D. Whether either the zinc gel or the lozenges contain ingredients that have an impact on the activity of the zinc

If the gel and lozenge DO contain ingredients that impact the effectiveness of the zinc, the author’s argument is weakened, since those ingredients could be responsible for the difference in effectiveness.

E. Whether the zinc gel has an effect on the severity of cold symptoms, as well as on their duration

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40
Q

Scientist: My research indicates that children who engage in impulsive behavior similar to adult thrill-seeking behavior are twice as likely as other children to have a gene variant that increases sensitivity to dopamine. From this, I conclude that there is a causal relationship between this gene variant and an inclination toward thrill-seeking behavior.

Which one of the following, if true, most calls into question the scientist’s argument?

A) Many impulsive adults are not unusually sensitive to dopamine.

B) It is not possible to reliably distinguish impulsive behavior from other behavior.

C) Children are often described by adults as engaging in thrill-seeking behvaior simply because they act impulsively.

D) Many people exhibit behavioral tendencies as adults that they did not exhibit as children.

E) The gene variant studied by the scientist is correlated with other types of behavior in addition to thrill-seeking behavior.

A

B

Let me frame my question in direct reference to @amit.trivedi’s reply.

First off, (B) is a resounding, powerful rebuttal of the scientist’s claim (remember we want an answer that most calls into question…
The scientist is making a claim about impulsive behavior in children. However, if impulsive behavior in children is indistinguishable from other behavior, then the whole argument falls apart.

For (E) we have a tempting answer, especially because the word ‘correlation’ suggest that a causal connection is not definitive. But let’s say the gene variant is also linked to overeating (i.e., another type of behavior). How does this weaken claim that the gene variant causes impulsive behavior? In fact, the gene variant could be associated with 50 other types of behavior. That fact doesn’t diminish the causal connection—–> Gene variant causes impulsive behavior.

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41
Q

The price the government pays for standard weapons purchased from military contractors is determined by a pricing method called “historical costing’’. historical costing allows contractors to protect their profits by adding a percentage increase based on the current rate of inflation, to the previous year’s contractual price.
Which of the following statements, if true, is the best basis for a criticism of historical costing as an economically sound pricing method for military
contracts?
(A) The government might continue to pay for
past inefficient use of funds.
(B) The rate of inflation has varied considerably
over the past twenty years.
(C) The contractual price will be greatly affected
by the cost of materials used for the products.
(D) Many taxpayers question the amount of
money the government spends on military
contracts.
E) The pricing method based on historical costing might not encourage the development of innovative weapons.

A

(A) The government might continue to pay for
past inefficient use of funds. ( correct because historical accounting is based on the previous year’s contractual price and the inflation. Inflation is market driven and hence fluctuates year over year - provides the contractors with a logical playing ground. let’s look at the “contractual price “ of the previous year. Say if in first year of purchase , the government used the funds inefficiently and hence paid more price for the goods. The price it pays for a certain set of goos gets fixed and the second year the prices are based on the first year’s contractual price + inflation . But the contractual price was skewed because the government probably paid more for lesser goods or whatever be the reason for inefficiency
(B) The rate of inflation has varied considerably
over the past twenty years. (this will strengthen the use of historical costing)
(C) The contractual price will be greatly affected
by the cost of materials used for the products. (wrong because everytime the contractual price is based on the previous year’s contractual price + current inflation)
(D) Many taxpayers question the amount of
money the government spends on military
contracts. (out of scope)
E) The pricing method based on historical costing might not encourage the development of innovative weapons. (out of scope)

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42
Q

Historian: Newton developed mathematical concepts and techniques that are fundamental to modern calculus. Leibniz developed closely analogous concepts and techniques. It has traditionally been thought that these discoveries were independent. Researchers have, however, recently discovered notes of Leibniz’ that discuss one of Newton’s books on mathematics. Several scholars have argued that since the book includes a presentation of Newton’s calculus concepts and techniques, and since the notes were written before Leibniz’ own development of calculus concepts and techniques, it is virtually certain that the traditional view is false. A more cautious conclusion than this is called for, however. Leibniz’ notes are limited to early sections of Newton’s book, sections that precede the ones in which Newton’s calculus concepts and techniques are presented.
In the historian’s reasoning, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles?
A. The first provides evidence in support of the overall position that the historian defends; the second is evidence that has been used to support an opposing position. 
B. The first provides evidence in support of the overall position that the historian defends; the second is that position. 
C. The first provides evidence in support of an intermediate conclusion that is drawn to provide support for the overall position that the historian defends; the second provides evidence against that intermediate conclusion. 
D. The first is evidence that has been used to support a conclusion that the historian criticizes; the second is evidence offered in support of the historian’s own position. 
E. The first is evidence that has been used to support a conclusion that the historian criticizes; the second is further information that substantiates that evidence.

A

Answer: D (not confirmed)

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43
Q

Which of the following best completes the passage below? 
A primary factor in perpetuating the low salaries of women workers has been their segregation in the so-called pink-collar occupations, such as nursing, teaching, library science, and secretarial work. Partly because these jobs have traditionally been held by women, their salary levels have been depressed, and, despite increased attempts to unionize these workers in recent years, their pay continues to lag. Moreover, although a large percentage of women than ever before are now entering and remaining in the jobs market, most continue to gravitate toward the pink-collar fields, despite the lower salaries. It seems clear, therefore, that if the average salaries of women workers are to approach those of men, ______
(A) labor unions must redouble their efforts to improve the lot of working women 
(B) society’s perception of pink-collar jobs as less important and less demanding than other jobs must be changed 
(C) more men must be encouraged to enter fields traditionally occupied by women 
(D) the number of jobs in the pink-collar fields relative to the size of the work force as a whole must be markedly increased 
(E) more women must enter occupations other than those traditionally reserved for them
Answer: E

A

E

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44
Q

Every political philosopher of the early twentieth century who was either a socialist or a communist was influenced by Rosa Luxemburg. No one who was influenced by Rosa Luxemburg advocated a totalitarian state.
If the statements above are true, which one of the following must on the basis of them also is true?
(A) No early-twentieth-century socialist political philosopher advocated a totalitarian state. 
(B) Every early-twentieth-century political philosopher who did not advocate a totalitarian state was influenced by Rosa Luxemburg. 
(C) Rosa Luxemburg was the only person to influence every early-twentieth-century political philosopher who was either socialist or communist. 
(D) Every early-twentieth-century political philosopher who was influenced by Rosa Luxemburg and was not a socialist was a communist. 
(E) Every early-twentieth-century political philosopher who did not advocate a totalitarian state was either socialist or communist.
Answer: A

A

A

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45
Q

Some environmentalists question the prudence of exploiting features of the environment, arguing that 
there are no economic benefits to be gained from forests, mountains, or wetlands that no longer exist. 
Many environmentalists claim that because nature has intrinsic value it would be wrong to destroy such 
features of the environment, even if the economic costs of doing so were outweighed by the economic 
costs of not doing so. 

Which one of the following can be logically inferred from the passage? 
(A) It is economically imprudent to exploit features of the environment. 
(B) Some environmentalists appeal to a noneconomic justification in questioning the defensibility of exploiting features of the environment. 
(C) Most environmentalists appeal to economic reasons in questioning the defensibility of exploiting features of the environment. 
(D) Many environmentalists provide only a noneconomic justification in questioning the defensibility of exploiting features of the environment. 
(E) Even if there is no economic reason for protecting the environment, there is a sound noneconomic justification for doing so.

A

B

Explanation: the justification advanced by “many environmentalists” in the last sentence is clearly non-economic, since it runs directly counter to economic principles (quote: … even if the economic costs of doing so were outweighed by the economic costs of not doing so).
i’ll explain why C and D are wrong. 

(c) While there is an economic justification in the passage - specifically, the justification mentioned in the first sentence - this justification is limited to SOME environmentalists. this choice is wrong, then, since it claims “most” and is thus overreaching. 
(d) This choice is wrong because of the “only”. 
The passage claims that certain environmentalists have advanced a non-economic justification, but never says that this is the ONLY justification advanced by those environmentalists. 
In fact, note that, REGARDLESS OF THE QUESTION, this CANNOT be the correct answer IF (b) is also an available option. (reason: if (d) is true, then (b) MUST also be true, since it’s a weaker claim about the same thing. therefore, if (d) is true, then (b) is a fortiori also true. since you can’t have two correct answers, (d) can’t possibly be correct.)

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46
Q

Economist: In the interaction between producers and consumers, the only obligation that all parties have to act in the best interests of their own side. And distribution of information about product defects is in the best interests of the consumer, So consumers are always obligated to report product defects they discover, while producers are never obligated to reveal them. 

Which one of the following is an assumption required by the economist’s argument? 
A. It is never in the best interests of producers for a producer to reveal a product defect. 
B. No one expects producers to act in a manner counter to their own best interests. 
C. Any product defect is likely to be discovered by consumer 
D. A product defect is more likely to be discovered by a consumer than by a producer 
E. The best interests of consumers never coincide with the best interests of producers

Answer: A
Explanation:
Argument:In the interaction between producers and consumers, the only obligation that all parties have to act in the best interests of their own side. 
Conclusion : So consumers are always obligated to report product defects they discover, while producers are never obligated to reveal them. 
Assumption : It is never in the best interests of producers for a producer to reveal a product defect.

A

A

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47
Q

The workers at Bell Manufacturing will shortly go on strike unless the management increases their wages. As Bell’s president is well aware, however, in order to increase the worker’s wages, Bell would have to sell off some of its subsidiaries. So, some of Bell’s subsidiaries will be sold.

The conclusion above is properly drawn if which one of the following is assumed? 
(A) Bell Manufacturing will begin to suffer increased losses. 
(B) Bell’s management will refuse to increase its worker’s wages. 
(C) The workers at Bell Manufacturing will not be going on strike. 
(D) Bell’s president has the authority to offer the workers their desired wage increase. 
(E) Bell’s workers will not accept a package of improved benefits in place of their desired wage increase.

Answer: C

A

C

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48
Q

Advertisement: Anyone who exercises knows from firsthand experience that exercise leads to better performance of such physical organs as the heart and lungs, as well as to improvement in muscle tone. And since your brain is a physical organ, your actions can improve its performance, too. Act now. Subscribe to Stimulus: read the magazine that exercises your brain.

The Advertisement employs which one of the following argumentative strategies? 
(A) It cites experimental evidence that subscribing to the product being advertised has desirable consequences. 
(B) It ridicules people who do not subscribe to Stimulus by suggesting that they do not believe that exercise will improve brain capacity. 
(C) It explains the process by which the product being advertised brings about the result claimed for its use. 
(D) It supports its recommendation by a careful analysis of the concept of exercise. 
(E) It implies that brains and muscle are similar in one respect because they are similar in another respect.

Answer: E

A

E

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49
Q

Explanation: since the ad states that working out your brain will improve your brain much in the same way that working out your physical organs improve their performance

When Alicia Green borrowed a neighbor’s car without permission, the police merely gave her a warning. However, when Peter Foster did the same thing, he was charged with automobile theft. Peter came to the attention of the police because the car he was driving was hit by a speeding taxi. Alicia was stopped because the car she was driving had defective taillights. It is true that the car Peter took got damaged and the car Alicia took did not, but since it was the taxi that caused the damage this difference was not due to any difference in the blameworthiness of their behavior. Therefore, Alicia should also have been charged with automobile theft. 

If all of the claims offered in support of the conclusion are accurate, each of the following could be true EXCEPT: 
(A) The interests of justice would have been better served if the police had released Peter Foster with a warning. 
(B) Alicia Green had never before driven a car belonging to someone else without first securing the owner’s permission. 
(C) Peter Foster was hit by the taxi while he was running a red light, whereas Alicia Green drove with extra care to avoid drawing the attention of the police to the car she had taken. 
(D) Alicia Green barely missed hitting a pedestrian when she sped through a red light ten minutes before she was stopped by the police for driving a car that had defective taillights. 
(E) Peter Foster had been cited for speeding twice in the preceding month, whereas Alicia Green had never been cited for a traffic violation.

Answer: C
Explanation: The part of the argument that’s important is: but since it was the taxi that caused the damage this difference was not due to any difference in the blameworthiness of their behavior.. This part of the argument states that neither driver was at fault or to blame. However, choice C states that Peter ran a red light, which would imply that he was at least partially to blame.
Under the influence of today’s computer-oriented culture, publishing for children has taken on a flashy new look that emphasizes illustrations and graphic design; the resulting lack of substance leads to books that are short-lived items covering mainly trendy subjects. The changes also include more humorous content, simplification of difficult material, and a narrower focus on specific topics.

A

C

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50
Q

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above?
The inclusion of humorous material and a narrower focus detract from the substance of a children’s book.
The substance of a children’s book is important to its longevity.
Children of the computer generation cannot concentrate on long, unbroken sections of prose.
Children judge books primarily on the basis of graphic design.
The lack of substance of a children’s book is unlikely to be important to its popularity.

Answer: B
Explanation: The prompt says that “the resulting lack of substance leads to books that are short-lived.” If lack of substance leads to lack of longevity, then we can conclude that substance is necessary for longevity.

A

B

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51
Q

Further evidence of a connection between brain physiology and psychological states has recently been uncovered in the form of a correlation between electroencephalograph patterns and characteristic moods. A study showed that participants who suffered from clinical depression exhibited less left frontal lobe activity than right, while, conversely, characteristically good-natured participants exhibited greater left lobe activity. Thus one’s general disposition is a result of the activity of one’s frontal lobe.
Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:
Many drugs prescribed to combat clinical depression act by causing increased left lobe activity.
Excessive sleep, a typical consequence of clinical depression, is known to suppress left lobe activity.
Frontal lobe activity is not subject to variation the way general disposition is.
Earlier studies indicated that frontal lobe activity and emotive states are both caused by activity in the brain’s limbic activity.
Social interaction of the kind not engaged in by most clinically depressed people is known to stimulate left lobe activity.

Answer: A 
Explanation: The author is assuming because low left lobe levels and depression are correlated, the former causes the latter. We can weaken this causal relationship by establishing that 1) Depression causes a loss of left lobe activity (b, e), 2) Some other root cause is responsible for both effects (d), or 3) the findings are simply coincidence and the relationship isn’t reliable (c). A, meanwhile, indicates that depression can be fought by raising left-lobe levels, strengthening the conclusion that lobe levels control disposition.

A

A

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52
Q

We ought to pay attention only to the intrinsic properties of a work of art. Its other, extrinsic properties are irrelevant to our aesthetic interactions with it. For example, when we look at a painting we should consider only what is directly presented in our experience of it. What is really aesthetically relevant, therefore, is not what a painting symbolizes, but what it directly presents to experience.

The conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is added to the premises?
What an art work symbolizes involves only extrinsic properties of that work.
There are certain properties of our experiences of artworks that can be distinguished as symbolic properties.
Only an artwork’s intrinsic properties are relevant to our aesthetic interactions with it.
It is possible in theory for an artwork to symbolize nothing.
An intrinsic property of an artwork is one that related the work to itself.

Answer: A 
Explanation: The authors conclusion is that what is important to a painting is what it presents to experience rather than what it symbolizes (we know this by the keyword therefore). His evidence is that extrinsic properties are unimportant, and intrinsic properties are the key. 
Because he’s shifting from irrelevant extrinsic properties in his evidence to irrelevant symbolism in his conclusion, it MUST be true the symbolism is extrinsic; if any symbolism is intrinsic, then his logic is flawed.

A

A

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53
Q

The Board of Trustees of the Federici Art Museum has decided to sell some works from its collection in order to raise the funds necessary to refurbish its galleries. Although this may seem like a drastic remedy, the curator had long maintained that among the paintings that the late Ms. Federici collected for the museum were several unsuccessful immature works by Renoir and Cezanne that should be sold because they are of inferior quality and so add nothing to the overall quality of the museum’s collection. Hence, the board’s action will not detract from the museum’s collection. 

Which one of the following, if true, most weaken the argument? 
(A) The directors of an art museum can generally raise funds for refurbishing the building in which the museum’s collection is housed by means other than selling parts of its collection. 
(B) The quality of an art collection is determined not just by the quality of its paintings, but by what development of the artistic talent and ideas of the artists represented. 
(C) The immature woks by Renoir and Cezanne that were purchased by Ms. Federici were at that time thought by some critics to be unimportant juvenile works. 
(D) Those people who speculate in art by purchasing artworks merely to sell them at much higher prices welcome inflation in the art market, but curators of art museum regret the inflation in the art market. 
(E) The best work of a great artist demands much higher prices in the art market than the worst work of that same artist.

Answer: B

In a certain municipality, a judge overturned a suspect’s conviction for possession of an illegal weapon. The suspect had fled upon seeing police and subsequently discarded the illegal weapon after the police gave chase. The judge reasoned as follows: the only cause for the police giving chase was the suspect’s flight; by itself, flight from the police does not create a reasonable suspicion of a criminal act; evidence collected during an illegal chase is inadmissible; therefore, the evidence in this case was inadmissible.

Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the judge’s decision that the evidence was inadmissible? 
(A) Flight from the police could create a reasonable suspicion of a criminal act as long as other significant factors are involved. 
(B) People can legally flee from the police only when those people are not involved in a criminal act at the time. 
(C) Police can legally give chase to a person only when the person’s actions have created a reasonable suspicion of a criminal act. 
(D) Flight from the police should not itself be considered a criminal act. 
(E) In all cases in which a person’s actions have created a reasonable suspicion of a criminal act, police can legally give chase to that person

Answer: C
Explanation: Because the judge concludes the evidence is inadmissible due to the illegal chase. And the chase is illegal (according to the judge) because there were no grounds for reasonable suspicion. Again, by designating it an illegal chase, the judge must believe that police can legally give chase only when reasonable suspicion has been established. In logical terms, this is the contra-positive to the judge’s initial statement.

A

C

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54
Q

Anthropologist: Violence is an extreme form of aggression, and is distinct from the self-expression sufficient for survival under normal conditions. Human beings in certain situations react to unpleasant stimuli with violence but only because they are conditioned by their culture to react in this manner.

Each of the following can be logically inferred from the anthropologist’s statements EXCEPT: 
(A) Not all aggression is violent. 
(B) The self-expression required for survival is generally nonaggressive. 
(C) Some behaviors are influenced by the cultures in which human beings live. 
(D) In normal circumstance, human beings can survive by responding nonviolently. 
(E) Violent behavior is a product of one’s cultural environment.

Answer: B

A

B

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55
Q

Commissioner: I have been incorrectly criticized for having made my decision on the power plant issue prematurely. I based my decision on the report prepared by the neighborhood association and although I have not studied it thoroughly, I am sure that the information it contains is accurate. Moreover, you may recall that when I received input from the neighborhood association on jail relocation, I agreed with its recommendation.

The commissioner’s argument is LEAST vulnerable to which one of the following criticism? 
(A) It takes for granted that the association’s information is not distorted by bias. 
(B) It draws a conclusion about the recommendations of the association from incomplete recollections. 
(C) It takes for granted that the association’s report is the only direct evidence that needed to be considered. 
(D) It hastily concludes that the association’s report is accurate without having studied it in detail. 
(E) It takes for granted that agreeing with the associations past recommendation helps justify agreeing with its current recommendation

Answer: B
Explanation: the commissioner’s conclusion on the recommendation is based on the trust he has on its accuracy => the commissioner cannot be faulted for incomplete recollections (spotty memory) 
All other options are valid criticisms that can be made on the commissioner’s argument.

A

B

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56
Q

A reason Larson cannot do the assignment is that she has an unavoidable scheduling conflict. On the other 
hand, a reason Franks cannot do the assignment is that he does not quite have the assertiveness the task 
requires. So, the task must be assigned to Parker, the only supervisor in the shipping department other than 
Larson and Franks.

The argument depends on assuming which one of the following? 
(A) Larson has the assertiveness the task requires.
(B) The task cannot be assigned to anyone other than a supervisor in the shipping department. 
(C) Franks would be assigned the task if Franks had the assertiveness the task requires. 
(D) The task cannot be assigned to anyone who has any kind of scheduling conflict. 
(E) No one who is not a supervisor in the shipping department has the assertiveness this task requires.

Answer: D

A

D

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57
Q

Philosopher: The rational pursuit of happiness is quite different from always doing what one most strongly desires to do. This is because the rational pursuit of happiness must include consideration of long-term consequences, whereas our desires are usually focused on the short term. Moreover, desires are sometimes compulsions, and while ordinary desires result in at least momentary happiness when their goals are attained, compulsions strongly drive a person to pursue goals that offer no happiness even when reached. 

If all of the philosopher’s statements are true, each of the following could be true EXCEPT: 
(A) the majority of people do not have compulsions. 
(B) Attaining the goal of any desire results in momentary happiness. 
(C) Most people do not pursue happiness rationally. 
(D) Most people want more than their own personal happiness. 
(E) All actions have long-term consequences.

Answer: B
Explanation: B says “Attaining the goal of any desire results in momentary happiness”
while the premise says ‘desires are sometimes compulsions’ 
So B can be put as “Attaining the goal of any compulsion results in momentary happiness”
This negates another premise that says compulsions strongly drive a person to pursue goals that offer no happiness even when reached

A

B

58
Q

Anger in response to insults is unreasonable, for insults are merely assertions that someone has undesirable characteristics. If such an assertion is false, the insulted party ought to pity the ignorance prompting the insult. If it is true, the insulted party should be grateful for such useful information.

Which one of the following, if assumed, enables the argument’s conclusion to be properly drawn?
Actions prompted by ignorance do not warrant hostile reactions.
Anger is an unreasonable response to useful information.
Anger is an unreasonable response to any action that should prompt pity or gratitude.
Gratitude and pity are reasonable responses to some forms of hostile or insensitive behavior.
Pity is the only reasonable reaction to people with undesirable characteristics.

Answer: C
Explanation: 
insult ———> Anger 
insult = assertion of bad character 
if assertion = false ==> pity/ignorance 
if assertion = true ==> grateful/useful info 
so either one should be pitiful or grateful for insult… 
Hence C

A

C

59
Q

The city government should invest surplus funds in improving the city’s transportation network. Most of the network was put in place at a time when the city was much smaller in both area and population. The subway system is outdated and understaffed. The buses rarely run on schedule and their routes are inconvenient. If the city does not make changes soon to the network, it will see many of its prized industries relocate to more convenient cities and, as a result, the city’s financial health will be jeopardized. 

In the argument above, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? 
A. The first is an explanation of a current state of affairs; the second is a prediction based on that state of affairs. 
B. The first is a statement of fact in opposition to the author’s conclusion; the second is that conclusion. 
C. The first emphasizes an existing problem; the second offers a proposal to solve that problem. 
D. The first is information the author suggests has been overlooked in the situation at hand; the second describes that situation. 
E. The first is a justification of an impending problem; the second describes the consequences of that problem.

Answer: A

A

A

60
Q

Teacher: Journalists who conceal the identity of the sources they quote stake their professional reputations on what may be called the logic of anecdotes. This is so because the statements reported by such journalists are dissociated from the precise circumstances in which they were made and thus will be accepted for publication only if the statements are high in plausibility or originality or interest to a given audience-precisely the properties of a good anecdote. 
Student: But what you are saying, then, is that the journalist need not bother with sources in the first place. Surely, any reasonably resourceful journalist can invent plausible, original, or interesting stories faster than they can be obtained from unidentified sources. 

I. The student’s response contains which one of the following reasoning flaws? 
(A) confusing a marginal journalistic practice with the primary work done by journalists 
(B) ignoring the possibility that the teacher regards as a prerequisite for the publication of an unattributed statement that the statement have actually been made 
(C) confusing the characteristics of reported statements with the characteristics of the situations in which the statements were made 
(D) judging the merits of the teacher’s position solely by the most extreme case to which the position applies 
(E) falsely concluding that if three criteria, met jointly, assure an outcome, then each criterion, met individually, also assures that outcome

Answer: B
Explanation: the student assumes that the journalist can reproduce a anecdote without having to gather statements from a source and make it believable. However the student doesn’t take into account that the reported statements (which result in an anecdote) could be a product of the circumstances in which they are given (via a source). So without a source, you don’t get the reported statements thus you cannot produce the anecdote.

II. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the teacher’s argument? 
(A) A journalist undermines his or her own professional standing by submitting for publication statements that, not being attributed to a named source, are rejected for being implausible, unoriginal, or dull. 
(B) Statements that are attributed to a fully identified source make up the majority of reported statements included by journalists in stories submitted for publication. 
(C) Reported statements that are highly original will often seem implausible unless submitted by a journalist who is known for solid, reliable work. 
(D) Reputable journalists sometimes do not conceal the identity of their sources from their publishers but insist that the identity of those sources be concealed from the public. 
(E) Journalists who have special access to sources whose identity they must conceal are greatly valued by their publishers.

Answer: A
Explanation: Teacher’s argument is 
what reporter do such as conceal the identity is not important. Because statements reported by such journalists are dissociated from the precise circumstances and will be publish only if the statements are high in plausibility or originality or interest to a given audience. 
A strengthen the later part of argument.

A

B
A

61
Q

Fares on the city-run public buses in Greenville are subsidized by city tax revenues, but among the beneficiaries of the low fares are many people who commute from outside the city to jobs in Greenville. Some city councilors argue that city taxes should be used primarily to benefit the people who pay them, and therefore that bus fares should be raised enough to cover the cost of the service.

Each of the following, if true, would weaken the argument advanced by the city councilors EXCEPT:
Many businesses whose presence in the city is beneficial to the city’s taxpayers would relocate outside the city if public-transit fares were more expensive.
By providing commuters with economic incentives to drive to work, higher transit fares would worsen air pollution in Greenville and increase the cost of maintaining the city’s streets.
Increasing transit fares would disadvantage those residents of the city whose law incomes make them exempt from city taxes, and all city councilors agree that these residents should be able to take advantage of city-run services.
Voters in the city, many of whom benefit from the low transit fares, are strongly opposed to increasing local taxes.
People how work in Greenville and earn wages above the nationally mandated minimum all pay the city wage tax of 5 percent.

Answer: D
Explanation: The issue here isn’t an increase in local taxes. The councilors simply want to 
discontinue using city taxes to subsidize the bus system, and make up for the lost money by raising the bus fare. This, by itself, doesn’t imply that city taxes will go up, so the fact that city voters oppose a potential tax hike (big surprise there) has no bearing on the argument.

A

D

62
Q

Government Official: Clearly, censorship exists if we, as citizens, are not allowed to communicate what we are ready to communicate at our own expense or if other citizens are not permitted access to our communications at their own expense. Public unwillingness to provide funds for certain kinds of scientific, scholarly, or artistic activities cannot, therefore, be described as censorship.

The flawed reasoning in the government official’s argument is most parallel to that in which one of the following?
All actions that cause unnecessary harm to others are unjust; so if a just action causes harm to others, that action must be necessary.
Since there is more to good manners than simply using polite forms of address, it is not possible to say on first meeting a person whether or not that person has good manners.
Acrophobia, usually defined as a morbid fear of heights, can also mean a morbid fear of sharp objects. Since both fears have the same name, they undoubtedly have the same origin.
There is no doubt that a deed is heroic if the doer risks his or her own life to benefit another person. Thus an action is not heroic if the only thing it endangers is the reputation of the doer.
Perception of beauty in an object is determined by past and present influences on the mind of the beholder. Thus no object can be called beautiful, since not everyone will see beauty in it,

Answer: D
Explanation: Key to solve questions of these forms is to separate the premise and the conclusion and look at the way how the author arrives to the conclusion.

A

D

63
Q

The Japanese haiku is defined as a poem of three lines with five syllables in the first line, seven syllables in the second line, and five syllables in the third line. English poets tend to ignore this fact. Disregarding syllable count, they generally call any three-line English poem with a “haiku feel” a haiku. This demonstrates that English poets have little respect for foreign traditions, even those from which some of their own poetry derives.

The reasoning is flawed because it
Confuses matters of objective fact with matters of subjective feeling
Draws a conclusion that is broader in scope than is warranted by the evidence advanced
Relies on stereotypes instead of presenting evidence
Overlooks the possibility that the case it cites is not unique
Fails to acknowledge that ignoring something implies a negative judgment about that thing

Answer: B
Explanation: premise: how English poets classify poems as haiku (Japanese tradition) poems. 
Conclusion: English poets disregard foreign tradition. 
=>the conclusion makes a sweeping generalization. B fits in fine

A

B

64
Q

A physician who is too thorough in conducting a medical checkup is likely to subject the patient to the discomfort and expense of unnecessary tests. One who is not thorough enough is likely to miss some serious problem and therefore give the patient a false sense of security. It is difficult for physicians to judge exactly how thorough they should be. Therefore, it is generally unwise for patients to have medical checkups when they do not feel ill.

Which one of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument in the passage?
Some serious diseases in their early stages have symptoms that physicians can readily detect, although patients are not aware of any problem.
Under the pressure of reduced reimbursements, physicians have been reducing the average amount of time they spend on each medical checkup.
Patients not medically trained are unable to judge for themselves what degree of thoroughness is appropriate for physicians in conducting medical checkups.
Many people are financially unable to afford regular medical checkups.
Some physicians sometimes exercise exactly the right degree of thoroughness in performing a medical checkup.

Answer: A
Explanation: If the patients are not aware of any problem and don’t feel ill, physicians can definitely discover the symptoms of the serious disease at its early stage. This weakens the conclusion

A

A

65
Q

There is relatively little room for growth in the overall carpet market, which is tied to the size of the population. Most who purchase carpet do so only once or twice, first in their twenties or thirties, and then perhaps again in their fifties or sixties. Thus as the population ages, companies producing carpet will be able to gain market share in the carpet market only through purchasing competitors, and not through more aggressive marketing.

Which one of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the conclusion above?
Most of the major carpet producers market other floor coverings as well.
Most established carpet producers market several different brand names and varieties, and there is no remaining niche in the market for new brands to fill.
Two of the three mergers in the industry’s last ten years led to a decline in profits and revenues for the newly merged companies.
Price reductions, achieved by cost-cutting in production, by some of the dominant firms in the carpet market are causing other producers to leave the market altogether.
The carpet market is unlike most markets in that consumers are becoming increasingly resistant to new patterns and styles.

Answer: D
Explanation: D gives an alternate way of increasing market share

A

D

66
Q

Some flowering plant species, entirely dependent on bees for pollination, lure their pollinators with abundant nectar and pollen, which are the only source of food for bees. Often the pollinating species is so highly adapted that it can feed from – and thus pollinate – only a single species of plant. Similarly, some plant species have evolved flowers that only a single species of bee can pollinate – an arrangement that places the plant species at great risk of extinction. If careless applications of pesticides destroy the pollinating bee species, the plant species itself can no longer reproduce.

The information above, if true, most strongly supports which one of the following?
The earliest species of flowering plants appeared on Earth contemporaneously with the earliest bee species.
If the sole pollinator of a certain plant species is in no danger of extinction, the plant species it pollinates is also unlikely to become extinct.
Some bees are able to gather pollen and nectar from any species of plant.
The blossoms of most species of flowering plants attract some species of bees and do not attract others.
The total destruction of the habitat of some plant species could cause some bee species to become extinct.

Answer: E
Explanation: E states that the total destruction of some plant species could cause some bee species to become extinct. This is the right answer as in the argument some pollinating species can feed only from a sole class of plants. Thus the extinction of such plants will probably cause the extinction of pollinating species.
B confuses necessity and sufficiency. While the “sole pollinator” species may be necessary to the plant’s survival, it’s not necessarily sufficient to guarantee its survival. The bees could be alive and well but some other factor, like a drought, for example, could still kill the flowers

A

E

67
Q

In the Centerville Botanical Gardens, all tulip trees are older than any maples. A majority, but not all, of the garden’s sycamores are older than any of its maples. All the garden’s maples are older than any of its dogwoods.

If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true of trees in the Centerville Botanical Gardens?
Some dogwoods are as old as the youngest tulip trees.
Some dogwoods are as old as the youngest sycamores.
Some sycamores are not as older as the oldest dogwoods.
Some tulip trees are not as old as the oldest sycamores.
Some sycamores are not as old as the youngest tulip trees.

Answer: E
Explanation: We know: 
tulips > maples 
some sycamores > maples 
maples > some sycamores 
all maples > dogwoods 

so we know 
tulips / [some] sycamores > maples > dogwoods / [some] sycamores 
Important: We have no info on the relation of tulips to sycamores or dogwoods to sycamores. 

A) This is impossible. If all tulips are older than maples and all dogwoods are younger than maples, no dogwoods could be as old as tulip trees. Eliminate. 
B) This is possible but we are looking for a must be true. The oldest dogwood could be 1 year old and the youngest sycamore 6 years old, and we could still fulfill the terms of the question. Eliminate. 
C) Again, this is possible, but it doesn’t need to be true to fulfill the terms of the problem. Eliminate. 
D) Once again, this is possible. Some tulip trees could be younger than the oldest sycamore, we have no info as to the relation between tulips and sycamores. But it is equally possible that all tulip trees are older than the oldest sycamore. Eliminate. 
E) This is the only one that must be true. Since the youngest tulip trees are still older than maple trees, and there are some sycamores that are younger than maple trees, this condition must be true according to the passage.

A

E

68
Q

Since Mayor Drabble always repays her political debts as soon as possible, she will almost certainly appoint Lee to be the new head of the arts commission. Lee has wanted that job for a long time, and Drabble owes Lee a lot for his support in the last election.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
Mayor Drabble has no political debt that is both of longer standing than the one she owes to Lee and could as suitably be repaid by an appointment to be the new head of the arts commission.
There is no one to whom Mayor Drabble owes a greater political debt for support in the last election than the political debt she owes to Lee.
Lee is the only person to whom Mayor Drabble owes a political debt who would be willing to accept an appointment from her as the new head of the arts commission.
Whether Lee is qualified to head the arts commission is irrelevant to Mayor Drabble’s decision
The only way that Mayor Drabble can adequately repay her political debt to Lee is by appointing him to head the arts commission.

Answer: A

A

A

69
Q

When glass products are made from recycled glass, the resulting products can be equal in quality to glass products made from quartz sand, the usual raw material. When plastics are recycled, however, the result is inevitably a plastic of a lower grade than the plastic from which it is derived. Moreover, no applications have been found for grades of plastic that are lower than the currently lowest commercial grade.

Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be properly drawn from the statements above?
Products cannot presently be made out of plastic recycled entirely from the currently lowest commercial grade.
It is impossible to make glass products from recycled glass that is equal in quality to the best glass products made from the usual raw material.
Glass products made from recycled glass are less expensive than comparable products made from quartz sand.
Unless recycled plastic bears some symbol revealing its origin, not even materials scientists can distinguish it from virgin plastic.
The difference in quality between different grades of glass is not as great as that between different grades of plastic.

Answer: A

A

A

70
Q

A company plans to develop a prototype weeding machine that uses cutting blades with optical sensors and microprocessors that distinguish weeds from crop plants by differences in shade of color. The inventor of the machine claims that it will reduce labor costs by virtually eliminating the need for manual weeding. 

Which of the following is a consideration in favor of the company’s implementing its plan to develop the prototype? 
A. There is a considerable degree of variation in shade of color between weeds of different species. 
B. The shade of color of some plants tends to change appreciably over the course of their growing season. 
C. When crops are weeded manually, overall size and leaf shape are taken into account in distinguishing crop plants from weeds. 
D. Selection and genetic manipulation allow plants of virtually any species to be economically bred to have a distinctive shade of color without altering their other characteristics. 
E. Farm laborers who are responsible for the manual weeding of crops carry out other agricultural duties at times in the growing season when extensive weeding is not necessary.

Answer: D
Explanation: If this were true, even if the plant and weed have same color, plant can be modified to have a different color and thus enable the use of prototype.

A

D

71
Q

All actors are exuberant people and all exuberant people are extroverts, but nevertheless it is true that some shy people are actors.

If the statements above are true, each of the following must also be true EXCEPT:
Some shy people are extroverts.
Some shy extroverts are not actors.
Some exuberant people who are actors are shy.
All people who are not extroverts are not actors.
Some extroverts are shy.

Answer: B

A

B

72
Q

Frieda: Lightening causes fires and damages electronic equipment. Since lightening rods can prevent any major damage, every building should have one.
Erik: Your recommendation is pointless. It is true that lightning occasionally causes fires, but faulty wiring and overloaded circuits cause far more fires and damage to equipment than lightening does.

Erik’s response fails to establish that Frieda’s recommendation should not be acted on because his response
Does not show that the benefits that would follow from Frieda’s recommendation would be offset by any disadvantages.
Does not offer any additional way of lessening the risk associated with lightening.
Appeals to Frieda’s emotions rather than to her reason.
Introduces an irrelevant comparison between overloaded circuits and faulty wiring
Confuses the notion of preventing damage with that of causing inconvenience.

Answer: A
Explanation: Erik’s response simply sidesteps Frieda’s reasoning, accepting the fact that lightning causes fires, but saying that other things cause a lot of fires, too. That’s hardly a reason for not doing something about the lightning damage. Erik’s problem is that he gives absolutely no reason for not following
Now why B is wrong: 
It’s true that Erik fails to offer any additional way of combating lightning damage, but that’s not the point. Even if he did have other ideas, that wouldn’t indicate that Frieda’s recommendation also shouldn’t be acted on.

A

A

73
Q

Household indebtedness, which some theorists regard as causing recession, was high preceding the recent recession, but so was the value of assets owned by households. Admittedly, if most of the assets were owned by quite affluent households, and most of the debt was owed by low-income households, high household debt levels could have been the cause of the recession despite high asset values: low-income households might have decreased spending in order to pay off debts while quite affluent ones might simply have failed to increase spending. But, in fact, quite affluent people must have owed most of the household debt, since money is not lent to those without assets. Therefore, the real cause must lie elsewhere.

The argument is structured to lead to which one of the following conclusions?
High levels of household debt did not cause the recent recession.
Low-income households succeeded in paying off their debts despite the recent recession.
Affluent people probably increased their spending levels during the recent recession.
High levels of household debt have little impact on the economy.
When people borrowed money prior to the recent recession, they did not use it to purchase assets.

Answer: A
Explanation: The author begins by stating the theory that household indebtedness causes recession, and then examines whether that theory applies to “the recent recession.” He considers a hypothetical scenario in which the theory might apply, but then says that this scenario did not obtain during the recent recession. His conclusion is that the theory doesn’t apply: 
Household indebtedness was not the cause of the recent recession.

A

A

74
Q

Government-subsidized insurance available to homeowners makes it feasible for anyone to build a house on a section of coastline regularly struck by hurricanes. Each major storm causes billions of dollars worth of damage in such coastal areas, after which owners who have insurance are able to collect an amount of money sufficient to recoup a high percentage of their losses.

The passage provides the most support for an argument against a government bill proposing
That power companies be required to bury power lines in areas of the coastline regularly struck by hurricanes.
An increase in funding of weather service programs that provides a hurricane watch and warning system for coastal areas.
Renewal of federal funding for emergency life-support programs in hurricane-stricken areas.
Establishment of an agency committed to managing coastal lands in ecologically responsible ways.
Establishment of a contingency fund protecting owners of uninsured houses in the coastal areas from catastrophic losses due to the hurricane damage.

Answer: E

A

E

75
Q

Jane: According to an article in this newsmagazine, children’s hand-eye coordination suffers when they spend a great amount of time watching television. Therefore, we must restrict the amount of time Jacqueline and Mildred are allowed to watch television.
Alan: Rubbish! The article says that only children under three are affected in that way. Jacqueline is ten and Mildred is eight. Therefore, we need not restrict their television viewing.

Alan’s argument against Jane’s conclusion makes which one of the following errors in reasoning?
It relies on the same source that Jane cited in support of her conclusion.
It confuses undermining an argument in support of a given conclusion with showing that the conclusion itself is false.
It does not address the main point of Jane’s argument and focuses instead on a side issue.
It makes an irrelevant appeal to an authority.
It fails to distinguish the consequences of a certain practice from the causes of the practice.

Answer: B
Explanation: Jane’s argument is certainly undermined- that is, the link between evidence and conclusion is weakened if not outright severed -when Alan shows that her evidence (the article about infants under 3) is inapplicable to their older kids. Certainly, the article isn’t adequate evidence for the conclusion that these kids’ TV viewing should be restricted. Nevertheless, the conclusion itself could still be true - it still could be a good idea to restrict Jacqueline and Mildred’s TV, albeit for different reasons - yet Alan denies that.

A

B

76
Q

For similar cars and drivers, automobile insurance for collision damage has always cost more in Greatport than in Fairmont. Police studies, however, show that cars owned by Greatport residents are, on average, slightly less likely to be involved in a collision than cars in Fairmont. Clearly, therefore, insurance companies are making a greater profit on collision-damage insurance in Greatport than in Fairmont. 

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? 
A. Repairing typical collision damage does not cost more in Greatport than in Fairmont. 
B. There are no more motorists in Greatport than in Fairmont. 
C. Greatport residents who have been in a collision are more likely to report it to their insurance company than Fairmont residents are. 
D. Fairmont and Greatport are the cities with the highest collision-damage insurance rates. 
E. The insurance companies were already aware of the difference in the likelihood of collisions before the publication of the police reports.

Answer: A
Explanation: If collision insurance costs more in Greatport, then collision damage either costs more to repair or the argument’s conclusion is correct. Thus, the argument must assume that repair costs are NOT higher in Greatport than in Fairmont.
Why other options are wrong : 
The absolute number of motorists in either city doesn’t matter, since insurance premiums amount to an average of the amount that the insurance companies pay for collison repair for all their accident-prone customers, plus the companies’ profits. From this relationship, we can see that there are only two ways (or a combination, thereof) that can account for higher insurance premiums in one city relative to the other. Either the cost of repair is higher in one city (insurance companies have to pay out more to cover their liabilities) or the insurance companies’ profits are higher in that city. The former is a statement of the converse of A and the latter is a restatement of the argument’s conclusion. If you put the former statement into the argument as a premise, it contradicts the conclusion and weakens the argument, which means it’s an assumption critical to the argument.

A

A

77
Q

Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B.C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain. 

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related? 
A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed. 
B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice of toasting grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread. 
C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough. 
D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown. 
E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.

Answer: C
Explanation: The question stem asks us to establish a causal relationship between the discovery of leavened bread by the egyptians and the introduction of the wheat variety. If heating the kernel of this wheat destroys the gluten then yeast cannot possibly be growing on this wheat and will not be responsible for leavened bread. However this is not certain because the egyptians would have continued to grow other varieties of wheat where yeast could grow and be responsible for leavening. But this is the closest option to chose amongst all because none of the other options made much sense to me.

A

C

78
Q

Ecologist: The Scottish Highlands were once the site of extensive forests, but these forests have mostly disappeared and been replaced by peat bogs. The common view is that the Highlands’ deforestation was caused by human activity, especially agriculture. However, agriculture began in the Highlands less than 2,000 years ago. Peat bogs, which consist of compressed decayed vegetable matter, build up by only about one foot per 1,000 years and, throughout the Highlands, remains of trees in peat bogs are almost all at depths great than four feet. Since climate changes that occurred between 7,000 and 4,000 years ago favored the development of peat bogs rather than the survival of forests, the deforestation was more likely the result of natural processes than of human activity. 

In the ecologist’s argument the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles? 
A. The first is evidence that has been used in support of a position that the ecologist rejects; the second is a finding that the ecologist uses to counter that evidence. 
B. The first is evidence that, in light of the evidence provided in the second, serves 
as grounds for the ecologist’s rejection of a certain position. 
C. The first is a position that the ecologist rejects; the second is evidence that has been used in support of that position. 
D. The first is a position that the ecologist rejects; the second provides evidence in support of that rejection. 
E. The first is a position for which the ecologist argues; the second provides evidence to support that position.

Answer: B
Explanation: The first is evidence that, in light of the evidence provided in the second, serves as grounds for the ecologist’s rejection of a certain position.

A

B

79
Q

In experiments in which certain kinds of bacteria were placed in a generous supply of nutrients, the populations of bacteria grew rapidly, and genetic mutations occurred at random in the populations. These experiments show that all genetic mutation is random.

Which one of the following, if true, enables the conclusion to be properly drawn?
Either all genetic mutations are random or none are random.
The bacteria tested in the experiments were of extremely common forms.
If all genetic mutations in bacteria are random, then all genetic mutations in every other life form are random also.
The kind of environment in which genetic mutation takes place has no effect on the way genetic mutation occurs.
The nutrients used were the same as those that nourish the bacteria in nature.

Answer: A
Explanation:
This question is a perfect example of scope-shift. The evidence is that, in one particular environment, some types of bacteria experienced random mutations. The conclusion is that all genetic mutation is random. The credited response needs to link this specific example to the general conclusion. 
Combine the stimulus with (A). The stimulus states that some genetic mutations are random, and (A) states that either all mutations are random or none are. If some mutations are random, then all mutations must be random; the alternative option isn’t possible. If (A) is true, all genetic mutations are random, which is our conclusion.
Since the stimulus doesn’t tell us that all genetic mutation in bacteria is random (it only mentions certain kinds of bacteria), answer choice (C) doesn’t allow us to conclude anything. (C)’s conclusion would only be true if all genetic mutations in bacteria were random.

A

A

80
Q

Each December 31 in Country Q, a tally is made of the country’s total available coal supplies – that is, the total amount of coal that has been mined throughout the country but not consumed. In 1991 that amount was considerably lower than it had been in 1990. Furthermore, Country Q has nor imported or exported coal since 1970.

If the statements above are true, which one of the following must also be true on the basis of them?
In Country Q, more coal was mined in 1990 than was mined in 1991.
In Country Q, the amount of coal consumed in 1991 was greater than the amount of coal mined in 1991.
In Country Q, the amount of coal consumed in 1990 was greater than the amount of coal consumed in 1991.
In Country Q, the amount of coal consumed in 1991 was greater than the amount of coal consumed in 1990.
In Country Q, more coal was consumed during the first half of 1991 than was consumed during the first half of 1990.

Answer: B
Explanation:
First look at the wrong choices: 
(A), (C), (D), (E) The tally represents a comparison between the amount of coal mined and consumed. Any change in the tally from year to year therefore represents a change in this comparison. All of the wrong choices offer unsupported comparisons between one of the elements across years; in other words, mining in 90 vs. mining in 91, or consumption in 90 
vs. consumption in 91. But all we have is information on the tally, a number that includes both factors. Without raw numbers, we can’t tell how the consumption numbers compared from 1990 to 1991; we need to know the amount mined before making the judgments in (C) 
and (D). 
The opposite holds for (A); we need the consumption figures before concluding how much was mined in 90 as opposed to 91. (E) has an even greater problem: it introduces a new concept-the first half of 90 and 91-which we know nothing about. 
Important tip: We must assume that the term “total available coal supplies” refers to the cumulative stockpile carried over from year to year. That way, we can rightly infer (B) given the decrease in the tally from 1990 to 1991

A

B

81
Q

Spectroscopic analysis has revealed the existence of frozen nitrogen, methane and carbon monoxide on the surface of Pluto. Such ices have a tendency to vaporize, producing an atmosphere. Since the proportion of any gas in such an atmosphere depends directly on how readily the corresponding ice vaporizes, astronomers have concluded that the components of Pluto’s atmosphere are nitrogen, carbon monoxide and methane, in order of decreasing abundance.

The astronomer’s argument relies on which one of the following assumptions?
There is no more frozen nitrogen on the surface of Pluto than there is either frozen carbon monoxide or methane.
Until space probes reach Pluto, direct analysis of the atmosphere is impossible.
There is no frozen substance on the surface of Pluto that vaporizes more readily than methane but less readily than carbon monoxide.
Nitrogen is found in the atmosphere of a planet only if nitrogen ice is found on the surface of that planet.
A mixture of nitrogen, carbon monoxide and methane is characteristic of the substances from which the solar system formed.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Premise/Fact: The existence of frozen nitrogen, methane, and carbon monoxide on Pluto’s surface 
Rule: The proportion of any gas in such an atmosphere as Pluto’s depends directly on how readily the corresponding ice vaporizes. 
Conclusion: Pluto’s atmosphere is made up of nitrogen, carbon monoxide, and methane in decreasing order of abundance. 
In order for them to conclude that Pluto’s atmosphere is made up of just these gases in just this order, they must be assuming that there aren’t any other frozen substances on Pluto’s surface that would vaporize and join the ranks of gases. 
C=> Says this all.

A

C

82
Q

New types of washing machines designed to consume less energy also extract less water from laundry during their final spin cycles than do washing machines that consume somewhat more energy. The wetter the laundry, the more energy required to dry it in an automatic dryer. Thus using these new types of washing machines could result in an overall increase in the energy needed to wash and dry a load of laundry. 

In which one of the following is the pattern of reasoning most parallel to that in the argument above? 
(A) The more skill required to operate a machine, the harder it is to find 
people able to do it, and thus the more those people must be paid. Therefore, if a factory installs machines that require highly skilled operators, it must be prepared to pay higher wages. 
(B) There are two routes between Centerville and Mapletown, and the scenic route is the longer route. Therefore, a person who is not concerned with how long it will take to travel between Centerville and Mapletown will probably take the scenic route. 
(C) The more people who work in the library’s reading room, the noisier the room becomes; and the noisier the working environment, the less efficiently people work. Therefore, when many people are working in the reading room, those people are working less efficiently. 
(D) Pine is a less expensive wood than cedar but is more susceptible to rot. Outdoor furniture made from wood susceptible to rot must be painter with more expensive paint. Therefore, building outdoor furniture from pine rather than cedar could increase the total cost of building and painting the furniture. 
(E) The more weights added to an exercise machine, the greater the muscle strength needed to work out on the machine. Up to a point, using more muscle strength can make a person stronger. Thus an exercise machine with more weights can, but does not necessarily, make a person stronger

Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Pine is susceptible to rot but is less expensive (less expensive is the benefit to take not off = equivalent of lowering energy consumption in the stimulus. 
2. Outdoor furniture made from wood susceptible to rot must be painted with more expensive paint (opposite of less expensive goal for going with Pine in the first place). Therefore, building outdoor furniture from pine rather than cedar could increase the total cost of building and painting the furniture. (Bingo - the original intent is eventually negated because of a factor inherent in the original intent)

A

D

83
Q

The petrochemical industry claims that chemical waste dumps pose no threat to people living near them. If this is true, then why do they locate the plants in sparsely populated regions? By not locating the chemical dumps in densely populated areas the petrochemical industry tacitly admits that these chemicals are potentially dangerous to the people living nearby.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument? 
(A) Funding through the environmental Super Fund to clean up poorly run waste dumps is reserved for rural areas only. 
(B) Until chemical dumps are proven 100% safe, it would be imprudent to locate them were they could potentially do the most harm. 
(C) Locating the dumps in sparsely populated areas is less expensive and involves less government red tape. 
(D) The potential for chemicals to leach into the water table has in the past been underestimated. 
(E) People in cities are more likely to sue the industry if their health is harmed by the dumps.
Answer: (C) 
Explanation: The suppressed false premise of the argument is that all things being equal there is no reason to prefer locating the sites in sparsely populated areas. To weaken the argument, we need to show it is not true that all things are equal. In other words, there are advantages other than safety in locating the sites in sparsely populated areas. Choice (C) gives two possible advantages–cost and ease. Hence (C) is the answer.
The news media is often accused of being willing to do anything for ratings. However, recent action by a television network indicates that the news media is sometimes guided by moral principle. This network had discovered through polling voters on the east coast that the Republican candidate for President had garnered enough votes to ensure victory before the polls closed on the west coast. However, the network withheld this information until the polls on the west coast closed so that the information would not affect the outcome of key congressional races.
Which one of the following most strengthens the argument? 
(A) The network had endorsed the Republican candidate for President. 
(B) The network expected its ratings to increase if it predicted the winner of the presidential race, and to decrease if did not predict the winner. 
(C) A rival network did predict a winner of the presidential race before the polls on the west coast closed. 
(D) The network believed that it would receive higher ratings by not predicting the winner of the presidential race. 
(E) The network feared that predicting the winner of the presidential race could so anger Congress that it might enact legislation preventing all future polling outside of voting centers.
Answer: (B) 
Explanation: The suppressed premise in this argument is that the network hurt itself by not predicting the winner of the presidential race, or at least did not help itself. To strengthen the argument, we need to show that this assumption is true. Choice (B) implies that this is the case by stating that the network expected to lose ratings if it did not predict a winner. Hence the answer is (B).

A

B

84
Q

To avoid economic collapse, Russia must increase its GNP by 20%. However, due to the structure of its economy, if the 20% threshold is reached, then a 40% increase in GNP is achievable.
Assuming that the above statements are true, which one of the following must also be true? 
(A) If ethnic strife continues in Russia, then a 20% increase in GNP will be unattainable. 
(B) If a 40% increase in Russia’s GNP is impossible, its economy will collapse. 
(C) If Russia’s GNP increases by 40%, its economy will not collapse. 
(D) If the 20% threshold is reached, then a 40% increase in GNP is achievable and a 60% increase is probable. 
(E) If Russia’s economy collapses, then it will not have increased its GNP by 40%.
Answer: (B) 
Explanation: Diagramming will show this seemingly difficult problem to be simply an application of the contrapositive rule of logic: in an if-then statement, negating the conclusion also negates the premise. The sentence “To avoid economic collapse, Russia must increase its GNP by 20%” can be reworded as “if Russia does not increase its GNP by 20%, its economy will collapse.” This in turn can be symbolized as
not20%->Collapse
Where the arrow, ->, stands for “if …, then ….
Next, symbolize the clause “if the 20% threshold is reached, then a 40% increase is achievable” as
20%->40%
Applying the contrapositive to this statement yields
not40%->not20%

Using the transitive property (If a = b and b = c, then a = c) to combine this with the first symbol statement yields
not40%->Collapse
In other words, if a 40% increase in GNP is unattainable, the economy will collapse. This is precisely what choice (B) states. The answer is (B).

A

B

85
Q

Rebecca: When I went hiking in the mountains the other day, every bird that scolded me was a Steller’s Jay, and every Steller’s Jay I saw scolded me.
Which one of the following statements can be inferred from Rebecca’s observations? 
(A) The only jays that Rebecca saw while hiking were Steller’s Jays. 
(B) There were no Gray Jays in the area where Rebecca hiked. 
(C) While she was hiking, no Gray Jays scolded Rebecca. 
(D) All the jays that Rebecca saw scolded her. 
(E) Rebecca did not see any Gray Jays while she was hiking.
Answer: (C) 
Explanation: The passage contains an embedded if-then statement. “Every bird that scolded me was a Steller’s Jay” can be transformed into: If the bird scolded me, then it was a Steller’s Jay. This can be diagrammed as
BS->SJ
Where the arrow, ->, stands for “if …, then ….

Keep this diagram in mind as you consider the answer selections.
(A). No. The passage indicates that every bird that scolded Rebecca was a Steller’s Jay. Stating it another way, a bird scolded Rebecca if and only if it was a Steller’s Jay. The passage doesn’t preclude the possibility that Rebecca saw other types of jays that didn’t scold her. 
(B) No. Remember the diagram above, BS->SJ. Gray Jays are not in the equation, but the equation indicates that if Rebecca saw any Gray Jays, they didn’t scold her. 
(C) Yes. Review the diagram again, BS->SJ. If a particular bird scolded Rebecca, then it must have been a Steller’s Jay, not a Gray Jay. Let’s apply the contrapositive rule of logic to the diagram (In an if-then statement, negating the conclusion also negates the premise):
not SJ->not BS

A Gray Jay is not a Steller Jay. The hypothesis of the if-then contrapositive statement, not SJ->not BS, is thus supported. As a result, the conclusion not BS, must follow. No Gray Jays scolded Rebecca. 
(D) No. Unless all the jays Rebecca saw were Steller’s Jays (which we do not know), this statement does not follow. This statement is not supported by the diagram, which is limited to Steller Jays. 
(E) No. Again, consider the diagram, BS->SJ. It does not exclude Gray Jays, but it does not allow them to scold Rebecca. So again, Rebecca could have seen Gray Jays, but they didn’t scold her as she hiked.

A

C

86
Q

Democracy is the best form of government yet created. Therefore, we must be vigilant in its defense; that is, we must be prepared to defend the right to freedom. Because this right is fundamental to any progressive form of government, it is clear that democracy is better than any other form of government.
Which one of the following illustrates the same flawed reasoning as found in the passage? 
(A) I never get a headache when I eat only Chinese food, nor when I drink only wine. But when I eat Chinese food and drink wine, I get a headache. So the combination of the two must be the cause of my headaches. 
(B) The two times I have gone to that restaurant something bad has happened. The first time the waiter dropped a glass and it shattered all over the table. And after the second time I went there, I got sick. So why should I go there again–something bad will just happen again. 
(C) I would much rather live a life dedicated to helping my fellow man than one dedicated to gaining material possessions and seeing my fellow man as a competitor. At the end of each day, the satisfaction of having helped people is infinitely greater than the satisfaction of having achieved something material. 
(D) I’m obsessed with volleyball; that’s why I play it constantly. I train seven days a week, and I enter every tournament. Since I’m always playing it, I must be obsessed with it. 
(E) In my academic studies, I have repeatedly changed majors. I decide to major in each new subject that I’m introduced to. Just as a bee lights from one flower to the next, tasting the nectar of each, I jump from one subject to the next getting just a taste of each.
Answer: (D) 
Explanation: The argument in the passage is circular (and filled with non-sequiturs). It is incumbent on the writer to give evidence or support for the conclusion. In this argument, though, the writer first states that democracy is the best government, the rest is merely “noise,” until he restates the conclusion.
Choice (A) is a reasonably valid causation argument–eliminate. (B) argues by generalization. Although it is of questionable validity, it is not circular because the conclusion, “it will happen again,” is not stated, nor is it implicit in the premises–eliminate. (C) is not circular because the conclusion is mentioned only once–eliminate. (D) begins by stating, “I’m obsessed with volleyball.” It does not, however, provide compelling evidence for that claim: training seven days a week, rather than indicating obsession, may be required for, say, members of the Olympic Volleyball Team. Furthermore, the argument repeats the conclusion at the end. So it is circular in the same manner as the original. Hence (D) is our answer.
Either restrictions must be placed on freedom of speech or certain subversive elements in society will use it to destroy this country. Since to allow the latter to occur is unconscionable, we must restrict freedom of speech.
The conclusion above is unsound because 
(A) subversives do not in fact want to destroy the country 
(B) the author places too much importance on the freedom of speech 
(C) the author fails to consider an accommodation between the two alternatives 
(D) the meaning of “freedom of speech” has not been defined 
(E) subversives are a true threat to our way of life
Answer: (C) 
Explanation: The arguer offers two options: either restrict freedom of speech, or lose the country. He hopes the reader will assume that these are the only options available. This is unwarranted. He does not state how the so-called “subversive elements” would destroy the country, nor for that matter why they would want to destroy it. There may be a third option that the author did not mention; namely, that society may be able to tolerate the “subversives”; it may even be improved by the diversity of opinion they offer. The answer is (C).

A

C

87
Q

Eight years ago hunting was banned in Greenfield County on the grounds that hunting endangers public safety. Now the deer population in the county is six times what it was before the ban. Deer are invading residential areas, damaging property and causing motor vehicle accidents that result in serious injury to motorists. Since there were never any hunting-related injuries in the county, clearly the ban was not only unnecessary but has created a danger to public safety that would not otherwise exist.

Which one of the following, if true, provides the strongest additional support for the conclusion above?
In surrounding counties, where hunting is permitted, the size of the deer population has not increased in the last eight years.
Motor vehicle accidents involving deer often result in damage to the vehicle, injury to the motorist, or both.
When deer populations increase beyond optimal size, disease and malnutrition become more widespread among the deer herds.
In residential areas in the county, many residents provide food and salt for deer.
Deer can cause extensive damage to ornamental shrubs and trees by chewing on twigs and saplings.

Answer: A
Explanation: For example, here we have the conclusion that, the hunting ban is unnecessary and the deer have become a menace to public safety. 
This conclusion is based on the premise that hunting ban—> overgrowth in deer population —> causing problems. 
If suppose Choice A was true, it would tell us that hunting had kept the population growth under control. By keeping the population under control, we can infer that not much danger was caused to the public. 
This in turn would support the author’s conclusion that hunting ban was unnecessary and, removing the ban would limit the problems caused by the deer.

A

A

88
Q

Many major scientific discoveries of the past were the product of serendipity, the chance discovery of valuable findings that investigators had not purposely sought. Now, however, scientific research tends to be so costly that investigators are heavily dependent on large grants to fund their research. Because such grants require investigators to provide the grant sponsors with clear projections of the outcome of the proposed research, investigators ignore anything that does not directly bear on the funded research. Therefore, under the prevailing circumstances, serendipity can no longer play a role in scientific discovery.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
Only findings that an investigator purposely seeks can directly bear on that investigator’s research.
In the past few scientific investigators attempted to make clear predictions of the outcome of their research.
Dependence on large grants is preventing investigators from conducting the type of scientific research that those investigators would personally prefer.
All scientific investigators who provide grant sponsors with clear projections of the outcome of their research receive at least some of the grants for which they apply.
In general the most valuable scientific discoveries are the product of serendipity.

Answer: A

A

A

89
Q

Student representative: Our University, in expelling a student who verbally harassed his roommate, has erred by penalizing the student for doing what he surely has a right to do: speak his mind!
Dean of students: But what you’re saying is that our university would endorse verbal harassment. Yet surely if we did that, we would threaten the free flow of ideas that is the essence of university life.

Which one of the following is a questionable technique that the dean of students uses in attempting to refute the student representative?
Challenging the student representative’s knowledge of the process by which the student was expelled.
Invoking a fallacious distinction between speech and other sorts of behavior.
Misdescribing the student representative’s position, thereby making it easier to challenge.
Questioning the motives of the student representative rather than offering reasons for the conclusion defended
Relying on a position of power to silence the opposing viewpoint with a threat.

Answer: C

A

C

90
Q

Advertisement: Of the many over-the-counter medications marketed for the relief of sinus headache. SineEase costs the least per dose. And SineEase is as effective per dose as the most effective of those other medications. So for relief from sinus headaches, SineEase is the best buy. 

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? 
(A) Most of the over-the-counter medications marketed for the relief of sinus headache are equally effective per dose in providing such relief. 
(B) Many of the over-the-counter medications marketed for the relief of sinus headache contain the same active ingredient as SineEase. 
(C) People who suffer from frequent sinus headaches are strongly advised to consult a doctor before taking any over-the-counter medication. 
(D) An over-the-counter medication that is marketed for the relief of symptoms of head cold is identical in composition to SineEase but costs less per dose. 
(E) The per dose price for any given over-the-counter medication marketed for the relief of sinus headache is higher for smaller packages than it is for larger packages.

Answer: D
Explanation: The conclusion in the stimulus is that SineEase is the best buy, but in answer choice D, it suggests that head cold medicine has the exact same composition but at a lesser price, which would most seriously weaken the given conclusion. SineEase is the cheapest per dose in “medications marketed for the relief of sinus headache.” The conclusion specifically says “For relief from sinus headaches, SineEase is the best buy.” If you can show that another medicine will relieve sinus headaches just as effectively but for a cheaper price, such as D, then it weakens the conclusion. It doesn’t matter that it’s a head cold medicine because the stimulus concludes that it’s the best value for sinus headaches period, not just within medicines marketed for sinus headache.

A

D

91
Q

Most students are bored by history courses as they are usually taught, primarily because a large amount of time is spent teaching dates and statistic. The best way to teach history, therefore, is to spend most class time recounting the lives of historical figures and very little on dates and statistics. 

Each of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends EXCEPT: 
(A) One should avoid boring one’s students when teaching a history course. 
(B) It is not incompatible with the attainable goals of teaching history to spend very little class time on dates and statistics. 
(C) It is possible to recount the lives of historical figures without referring to dates and statistics. 
(D) It is compatible with the attainable goals of teaching history to spend most class time recounting the lives of historical figures. 
(E) Students are more bored by history courses as they are usually taught than they would be by courses that spend most class time recounting the lives of historical figures.

Answer: C
Explanation: the stimulus advocates teaching history by spending most class time recounting the lives of historical figures and very little on dates and statistics. it doesn’t say the teaching has to be able to spend most class time recounting lives of historical figures without referring to the dates.

A

C

92
Q

On completing both the course in experimental design and the developmental psychology course, Angela will have earned a degree in psychology. Since experimental design, which must be completed before taking developmental psychology, will not be offered until next term, it will be at least two terms before Angela gets her psychology degree.

If the statements above are all true, which one of the following must also be true? 
(A) The developmental psychology course Angela needs to take requires two terms to complete. 
(B) The course in experimental design is an easier course than the course in developmental psychology. 
(C) There are no prerequisites for the course in experimental design. 
(D) Anyone who earns a degree in psychology from the university Angela attends will have completed the course in experimental design. 
(E) Once Angela completes the developmental psychology course, she will have earned a degree in psychology.

Answer: D

A

D

93
Q

It is probably within the reach of human technology to make the climate of Mars inhabitable. It might be several centuries before people could live there, even with breathing apparatuses, but some of the world’s great temples and cathedrals took centuries to build. Research efforts now are justified if there is even a chance of making another planet inhabitable. Besides, the intellectual exercise of understanding how the Martian atmosphere might be changed could help in understanding atmospheric changes inadvertently triggered by human activity on Earth.

The main point of the argument is that
It is probably technologically possible for humankind to alter the climate of Mars.
It would take several centuries to make Mars even marginally inhabitable.
Making Mars inhabitable is an effort comparable to building a great temple or cathedral.
Research efforts aimed at discovering how to change the climate of Mars are justified.
Efforts to change the climate of Mars could facilitate understanding of the Earth’s climate.

Answer: D

A

D

94
Q

The new perfume Aurora smells worse to Joan than any comparable priced perfume, and none of her friends likes the smell of Aurora as much as the smell of other perfumes. However, she and her friends must have a defect in their sense of smell, since Professor Jameson prefers the smell of Aurora to that of any other perfume and she is one of the world’s foremost experts on the physiology of smell.

The reasoning is flawed because it
Calls into question the truthfulness of the opponent rather than addressing the point at issue.
Ignores the well-known fact that someone can prefer one thing to another without liking either very much.
Fails to establish that there is widespread agreement among the experts in the field.
Makes an illegitimate appeal to the authority of an expert.
Misrepresents the position against which it is directed.

Answer: D

A

D

95
Q

A group of children of various ages was read stories in which people caused harm, some of those people doing so intentionally and some accidentally. When asked about appropriate punishments for those who had caused harm, the younger children, unlike the older ones, assigned punishments that did not vary according to whether the harm was done intentionally or accidentally. Younger children, then, do not regard people’s intentions as relevant to punishment.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion above? 
(A) In interpreting these stories, the listeners had to draw on a relatively mature sense of human psychology in order to tell whether harm was produced intentionally or accidentally. 
(B) In these stories, the severity of the harm produced was clearly stated. 
(C) Younger children are as likely to produce harm unintentionally as are older children. 
(D) The older children assigned punishment in a way that closely resembled the way adults had assigned punishment in a similar experiment. 
(E) The younger children assigned punishments that varied according to the severity of the harm done by the agents in the stories.

Answer: A

A

A

96
Q

The advanced technology of ski boots and bindings has brought a dramatic drop in the incidence of injuries that occur on the slopes of ski resorts: from 9 injuries per 1,000 skiers in 1950 to 3 in 1980. As a result, the remainder of ski-related injuries, which includes all injuries occurring on the premises of a ski resort but not on the slopes, rose from 10 percent of all ski-related injuries in 1950 to 25 percent in 1980. The incidence of these injuries, including accidents such as falling down steps, increases with the amount of alcohol consumed per skier. 

I. Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the passage? 
(A) As the number of ski injuries that occur on the slopes decreases, the number of injuries that occur on the premises of ski resorts increases. 
(B) The amount of alcohol consumed per skier increased between 1950 and 1980. 
(C) The technology of ski boots and bindings affects the incidence of each type of ski-related injury. 
(D) If the technology of ski boots and bindings continues to advance, the incidence of ski-related injuries will continue to decline. 
(E) Injuries that occurred on the slopes of ski resorts made up a smaller percentage of ski-related injuries in 1980 than in 1950. 

Answer: E
Explanation: We’re told that, from 1950 to 1980, the percentage of all ski-related injuries at ski resorts that did not occur on the slopes increased from 10% to 25%. That must mean that the percentage of ski-related injuries at ski resorts that did occur on the slopes must have decreased over that same period. Think about it this way: there are only two possible alternatives for a skit related injury: either it occurs on the slopes or it does not occur on the slopes. So if the share of ski-related injuries represented by one type of injury goes up, the share represented by the other type MUST go down. That’s choice (E).

II. Which one of the following conflicts with information in the passage? 
(A) The number of ski injuries that occurred on the slopes was greater in 1980 than in 1950. 
(B) A skier was less likely to be injured on the slopes in 1950 than in 1980. 
(C) The reporting of ski injuries became more accurate between 1950 and 1980. 
(D) The total number of skiers dropped between 1950 and 1980. 
(E) Some ski-related injuries occurred in 1980 to people who were not skiing.

Answer: B
Explanation: We’re told that the incidence of on-slope injuries decreased from 9 injuries per 1000 skiers in 1950, to 3 injuries per 1000 skiers in 1980. That means a skier was much less likely to suffer an on-slope injury in 1980 than in 1950. Clearly, (B) is in direct contradiction with this.

A

E
B

97
Q

In two months, the legal minimum wage in the country of Kirlandia will increase from five Kirlandic dollars(KD5.00) Per hour to KD5.50 per hour. Opponents of this increase have argued that the resulting rise in wages will drive the inflation rate up. In fact its impact on wages will probably be negligible, since only a very small proportion of all Kirfandic workers are currently receiving less than KD5.50 per hour. 

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument? 
A. Most people in kirlandia who are currently earning the minimum wage have been employed at their current jobs for less than a year. 
B. Some firms in Kirlandia have paid workers considerably less than KD5.00 per hour, in violation of kirlandic employment regulations. 
C. Many businesses hire trainees at or near the minimum wage but must reward trained workers by keeping their paylevels above the pay level of trainees. 
D. The greatest growth in Kirlandia’s economy in recent years has been in those sectors where workers earn wages that tend to be much higher than the minimum wage. 
E The current minimum wage is insufficient for a worker holding only one job to earn enough to support a family, even when working full time at that job.

Answer: B
Explanation: The argument is about the impact on wages (in view of the increase) being very less and hence would not actually cause an increase in inflation. 
B is the only option that actually says the impact on wages is considerable. Since some workers were receiving wages considerably below $5 (say, maybe $1) - the impact on the wages of these workers is pretty high. And probably will cause inflation.

A

B

98
Q

When 100 people who have not used cocaine are tested for cocaine use, on average only 5 will test positive. By contrast, of every 100 people who have used cocaine 99 will test positive. Thus, when a randomly chosen group of people is tested for cocaine use, the vast majority of those who test positive will be people who have used cocaine.

A reasoning error in the argument is that the argument 
(A) attempts to infer a value judgment from purely factual premises 
(B) attributes to every member of the population the properties of the average member of the population 
(C) fails to take into account what proportion of the population have used cocaine 
(D) ignores the fact that some cocaine users do not test positive 
(E) advocates testing people for cocaine use when there is no reason to suspect that they have used cocaine.

Answer: C

A

C

99
Q

A poor farmer was fond of telling his children: “In this world, you are either rich or poor, and you are either honest or dishonest. All poor farmers are honest. Therefore, all rich farmers are dishonest.”

The farmer’s conclusion is properly drawn if the argument assumes that
Every honest farmer is poor
Every honest person is a farmer
Everyone who is dishonest is a rich farmer
Everyone who is poor is honest
Every poor person is a farmer

Answer: A

A

A

100
Q

Criticism that the press panders to public sentiment neglects to consider that the press is a profit-making institution. Like other private enterprises, it has to make money to survive. If the press were not profit-making, who would support it? The only alternative is subsidy and, with it, outside control. It is easy to get subsidies for propaganda, but no one will subsidize honest journalism.

It can be properly inferred from the passage that if the press is
Not subsidized, it is in no danger of outside control
Not subsidized, it will not produce propaganda
Not to be subsidized, it cannot be a profit-making institution.
To produce honest journalism, it must be a profit-making institution
To make a profit, it must produce honest journalism.

Answer: D
Explanation: There is no other alternative to profit making other than subsidy. No one will subsidize honest journalism.

A

D

101
Q

Certain instruments used in veterinary surgery can be made either of stainless steel or of nylon. In a study of such instruments, 50 complete sterilizations of a set of nylon instruments required 3.4 times the amount of energy used to manufacture that set of instruments, whereas 50 complete sterilizations of a set of stainless steel instruments required 2.1 times the amount of energy required to manufacture that set of instruments.

If the statements above are true, each of the following could be true EXCEPT:
The 50 complete sterilizations of the nylon instruments used more energy than did the 50 complete sterilizations of the stainless steel.
More energy was required for each complete sterilization of the nylon instruments than was required to manufacture the nylon instruments.
More nylon instruments than stainless steel instruments were sterilized in the study.
More energy was used to produce the stainless steel instruments than was used to produce the nylon instruments.
The total cost of 50 complete sterilizations of the stainless steel instruments was greater than the cost of manufacturing the stainless steel instruments.

Answer: B
Explanation: First, note that the question asks for the one thing that cannot be true. Next, draw out the information the stimulus gives - and doesn’t give. There are two sets of instruments; the same procedures are done to each; and the procedures yield similar results. It takes more energy to sterilize a set of these instruments than it does to manufacture them. But we don’t know how many instruments make up each set, nor do we know exactly how much energy it takes to manufacture either set. It could take more to make nylon tools, or it could take more to make stainless steel, or it could take equal amounts of energy for both. We just don’t know. Unfortunately there’s no way to predict the answer here. It’s just a matter of slogging through the choices until you find the right one.

A

B

102
Q

To suit the needs of corporate clients, advertising agencies have successfully modified a strategy originally developed for political campaigns. This strategy aims to provide clients with free publicity and air time by designing an advertising campaign that is controversial, thus drawing prime-time media coverage and evoking public comment by officials.

The statements above, if true, most seriously undermine which one of the following assertions?
The usefulness of an advertising campaign is based on solely on the degree to which the campaign’s advertisements persuade their audiences.
Only a small percentage of eligible voters admit to being influenced by advertising campaigns in deciding how to vote.
Campaign managers have transformed political campaigns by making increasing use of strategies borrowed from corporate advertising campaigns.
Corporations are typically more concerned with maintaining public recognition of the corporate name than with enhancing goodwill toward the corporation.
Advertising agencies that specialize in campaigns for corporate clients are not usually chosen for political campaigns.

Answer: A
Explanation: This question presents an interesting twist: It’s a “weaken the argument” question, but the 
argument to be weakened is in the answer choices, and the weakener is the stimulus. There we find out that an advertising strategy developed for and used by political campaigns has now successfully been applied to corporate accounts. The strategy is to design controversial ads that will become news, generate media attention, and evoke public responses from officials. Thus, the companies get a lot more exposure than they pay for. We don’t have to look very far for the choice that’s incompatible with this notion; choice (A) directly violates the “get something for nothing” principle behind the strategy. This strategy flies in the face of the assertion in (A), which says that the usefulness of an ad campaign is based solely on the degree to which the ads themselves persuade people. (A) does not consider extra media coverage or public comment by officials to be relevant to an ad’s effectiveness. If the statements in the stimulus are true, then (A) is seriously weakened by the fact that some ads are successful thanks to a factor besides persuading the public- namely because they make the news and generate free publicity for the client.

A

A

103
Q

Famous personalities found guilty of many types of crimes in well-publicized trials are increasingly sentenced to the performance of community service, though unknown defendants convicted of similar crimes almost always serve prison sentences. However, the principle of equality before the law rules out using fame and publicity as relevant considerations in the sentencing of convicted criminals.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following conclusions?
The principle of equality before the law is rigorously applied in only a few types of criminal trials.
The number of convicted celebrities sentenced to community service should equal the number of convicted unknown defendants sentenced to community service.
The principle of equality before the law can properly be overridden by other principles in some cases.
The sentencing of celebrities to community service instead of prison constitutes a violation of the principle of equality before the law in many cases.
The principle of equality before the law does not allow for leniency in sentencing.

A

R

104
Q

Corporate Officer: Last year was an unusually poor one for our chemical division, which has traditionally contributed about 60 percent of the corporation’s profits. It is therefore encouraging that there is the following evidence that the pharmaceutical division is growing stronger: it contributed 45 percent of the corporation’s profits, up from 20 percent the previous year. 

On the basis of the facts stated which of the following is the best critique of the evidence presented above? 
(A) The increase in the pharmaceutical division’s contribution to corporation profits could have resulted largely from the introduction of single, important new product. 
(B) In multidivisional corporations that have pharmaceutical divisions, over half of the corporation’s profits usually come from the pharmaceuticals. 
(C) The percentage of the corporation’s profits attributable to the pharmaceutical division could have increased even if that division’s performance had not improved. 
(D) The information cited does not make it possible to determine whether the 20 percent share of profits cited was itself an improvement over the year before. 
(E) The information cited does not make it possible to compare the performance of the chemical and pharmaceutical divisions in of the percent of total profits attributable to each.

Answer: C
Explanation: I find the phrasing of the original question unusual - it asks for a ‘critique of the evidence presented’. Evidence is factual; you can’t offer a critique of it. You can offer a critique of the interpretation of that evidence, or of a conclusion drawn from that evidence. I assume that the question is really asking us to find a flaw in the conclusion here, rather than asking us to find a ‘critique of the evidence’, something which doesn’t make sense. 

With that interpretation, C is certainly correct. We may have had the following: 
Previous year: 
Pharmaceutical Division: $20m profit 
Company Total: $100m profit 
Pharmaceutical Division: 20% of total profit 
Last year: 
Pharmaceutical Division: $4.50 profit 
Company Total: $10 profit 
Pharmaceutical Division: 45% of total profit 
From the above example, we can see that the Pharmaceutical Division may have performed much worse last year than the previous year, while still accounting for a greater percentage of the overall profits of the company. The information provided is not necessarily ‘encouraging’ news about the Pharmaceutical Division at all.

A

C

105
Q

Some philosophers of science claim that no serious scientific theory can be tested experimentally without taking for granted some other body of scientific beliefs, the operation of the instruments-for we cannot interpret the experimental results without appealing to such beliefs. If this is true, then which of the following conclusions seems most likely?

A) Any particular scientific theory can be consistently retained, even in the face of apparently incompatible evidence, if we are willing to give up certain other scientific beliefs. 
B) Experimental evidence is really irrelevant to scientific theorizing. 
C) Experimental evidence is more relevant to the testing of scientific theories than to their initial formulation. 
D) Experimental evidence is more relevant to the initial formulation of scientific theories than to their testing. 
E) The best scientific theories are those which are formulated in such a way as to be subject to conclusive experimental refutation.

Answer: A

A

A

106
Q

Marine biology had hypothesized that lobsters kept together traps eat one another in response to hunger. Periodic checking of lobster traps, however, has revealed instances of lobsters sharing traps together for weeks. Eight lobsters even shared one trap together for two months without eating one another. The marine biologists’ hypothesis, therefore, is clearly wrong. 

The argument against the marine biologists’ hypothesis is based on which one of the following assumptions? 
A) Lobsters not caught in lobster traps have been observed eating one another. 
b) Two months is the longest known period during which eight or more lobsters have been trapped together. 
c) It is unusual to find as many as eight lobsters caught together in one single trap. 
d) Members of the other marine species sometimes eat their own kind when no other food source are available 
e) Any food that the eight lobsters in the trap might have obtained was not enough to ward off hunger.

Answer: E

A

E

107
Q

Lou observes that if flight 409 is canceled, then the manager could not possibly arrive in time for the meeting. But flight 409 was not canceled. Therefore, Lou concludes, the manager will certainly be on time. Evelyn replies that even if Lou’s premises are true, his argument is fallacious. And therefore, she adds, the manager will not arrive on time after all.

Which of the following is the strongest thing that we can properly say about this discussion? 
A) Evelyn is mistaken in thinking Lou’s argument to be fallacious, and so her own conclusion is unwarranted. 
B) Evelyn is right about Lou’s argument, but nevertheless her own conclusion is unwarranted. 
C) Since Evelyn is right about Lou’s argument, her own conclusion is well-supported. 
D) Since Evelyn is mistaken about Lou’s argument, her own conclusion must be false. 
E) Evelyn is right about Lou’s argument, but nevertheless her own conclusion is false.

Answer: B

A

B

108
Q

According to a survey of consumers conducted one week before the end of a national call-in campaign to decide the newest flavor of Freak Cola, more of those surveyed responded that they enjoyed the Citrusea Swirl flavor than responded that they enjoyed any other flavor choice. Regardless of the survey results, a different flavor, Vanilla Bonanza, was the national favorite by a considerable percentage. 

Each of the following, if true, contributes to a resolution of the discrepancy described above EXCEPT: 
A) Freak Cola made an announcement four days before the end of the call-in campaign stating that the third option, VeriBlueBeri, was being removed from consideration as the new flavor choice. 
B) The survey was conducted only on the east coast, and the percentage of people thought to like Vanilla Bonanza on the east coast is much smaller than the percentage who liked Citrusea Swirl. 
C) More than 60% of those responding to the survey in favor of Vanilla Bonanza stated they were likely to call in and vote, whereas only 25% of those supporting Citrusea Swirl claimed they would be calling in their votes. 
D) A smaller percentage of those favoring the Vanilla Bonanza flavor knew the call-in number than did those favoring Citrusea Swirl. 
E) The entire survey was developed and conducted by members of the Freak Cola design team that created Citrusea Swirl.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A) VBB (#3) removed from competition before it was over. Competition still going on, so VBB people might’ve voted for their second favorite instead, which could’ve been VB. So that might explain discrepancy. Hmm. A little weak / tempting - leave in for now but cross off it find something better. 
B) survey was limited in geographical size. Campaign was national. This could definitely explain the discrepancy, esp. given the stats listed in the rest of this choice. Eliminate. 
C) survey 60% of VB fans said they’d vote; only 25% of CS fans said they’d vote. Also could definitely explain the discrepancy. Eliminate. 
D) Smaller % of VB fans than CS fans knew the call-in number. More people ended up voting for VB, so the “smaller % of VB” stat could still leave more people voting for VB. This choice still allows the given circumstances to be true, yes, but it does not specifically explain why more survey respondents chose CS, even though VB won the call-in contest. And that’s our task here - to resolve the paradox, not just to show that the given stats could be true. Go back and eliminate A - this is better. 
E) survey made by CS people - so could be biased. Definitely could explain - eliminate.

A

D

109
Q

A study of National football League Statistics over the last ten years reveals that the loosing team threw more interceptions than did the winning team in 82 percent of the games played. This statistics clearly indicate that interceptions contribute greatly to team losses. 

The conclusion in the above argument depends on which of the following assumptions? 
A. Fumbles do not hurt a team’s chances of winning a game. 
B. A team’s chances of winning a game are greatly reduced if it throws any interceptions during a game. 
C. A team that throws more interceptions than its opponent does and still wins the game must have superior players. 
D. Interceptions do not result from a team’s falling behind in the game. 
E. Interceptions are harmfull primarily because they make it easy for the other team to score points.

Answer: D
Explanation: The conclusion is: 
interceptions contribute greatly to team losses. 
Or X leads to Y

One of the assumption types is: 
An assumption that states Y does not lead to X 
in other words 
Losing a game DOES NOT lead to Interception 

D. Interceptions do not result from a team’s falling behind in the game.

A

D

110
Q

Some types of organisms originated through endosymbiosis, the engulfing of one organism by another so that a part of the former becomes a functioning part of the latter. An unusual nucleomorph, a structure that contains DNA and resembles a cell nucleus, has been discovered within a plant known as a chlorarachniophyte. Two versions of a particular gene have been found in the DNA of this nucleomorph, and one would expect to find only a single version of this gene if the nucleomorph were not the remains of an engulfed organism’s nucleus. 

Which one of the following is most strongly supported by the information above? 
(A) Only organisms of types that originated through endosymbiosis contain nucleomorphs. 
(B) A nucleomorph within the chlorarachniophyte holds all of the genetic material of some other organism. 
(C) Nucleomorphs originated when an organism endosymbiotically engulfed a chlorarachniophyte. 
(D) Two organisms will not undergo endosymbiosis unless at least one of them contains a nucleomorph. 
(E) Chlorarachniophytes emerged as the result of two organisms having undergone endosymbiosis.

Answer: E
Explanation:
(A) Not supported by the argument. It’s a strong statement to make. 
(B) Again not supported. Argument says nucleomorph contains the plants DNA not all genetic info of the other organism. 
(C) Origination of nucleomorphs is not mentioned. 
(D) Not supported. 
(E) Supported in the argument. Check the last line.

A

E

111
Q

The recently negotiated North American Free Trade Agreement among Canada, Mexico, and the United States is misnamed, because it would not result in truly free trade. Adam Smith, the economist who first articulated the principles of free trade, held that any obstacle placed in the way of the free movement of goods, investment, or labor would defeat free trade. So since under the agreement workers would be restricted by national boundaries from seeking the best conditions they could find, the resulting obstruction of the flow of trade would, from a free-trade perspective, be harmful. 

The argument proceeds by 
(A) ruling out alternatives 
(B) using a term in two different senses 
(C) citing a non-representative instance 
(D) appealing to a relevant authority 
(E) responding to a different issue from the one posed

Answer: D

A

D

112
Q

According to a recent magazine article, of those office employees who typically work 8 hours at the office each day but sometimes say that they will work at home on a particular day, 25 percent actually work less than one hour. At the same time, over 90 percent of those same office employees believe they are more productive working at home than working in their office. 

The statements above, if true, best support which of the following conclusions about the office employees discussed in the article? 
A. On average, the office employees working at home for a day work fewer hours than office employees working at the office. 
B. 10 percent of the office employees are less productive working from home than working in their office. 
C. At least 15 percent of the office employees do not define productivity exclusively in terms of the number of hours worked. 
D. At least 25 percent of the office employees can complete the same amount of work in one hour at home as in 8 hours at the office. 
E. Some of the office employees make statements regarding their productivity that are not in fact true.
Answer: C
Explanation:
15%W = NOT (define work in terms of hours) 
From the premises conditional statements. (3) states that 90% productive at home and (2) states that 25% work for one hour. (It means 100 - 90 + 25)%W are doing same amount of work in less hour (i.e. 1 hour or less). Hence, 15% are not talking productivity in terms of working hours. Hence CORRECT. Choose this choice. 
To simplify further, we know that 90% productive at home and we don’t know anything about rest 10%. Also, we know that 25% worked for less than 1 hour at home; those supposed as to be less productive. So if we subtract 10% (Unknown production value) from these 25% (known working timing) then we can conclude that 15% from these 25% (working for less than 1 hour) completed their work within that time at home. That means, they are not considering time spend = production value. 
Hence, choose this choice.

A

C

113
Q

Most disposable plastic containers are now labeled with a code number (from 1 to 9) indicating the type or quality of the plastic. Plastics with the lowest code numbers are the easiest for recycling plants to recycle and are thus the most likely to be recycled after use rather than dumped in landfills. Plastics labeled with the highest numbers are only rarely recycled. Consumers can make a significant long-term reduction in the amount of waste that goes unrecycled, therefore, by refusing to purchase those products packaged in plastic containers labeled with the highest code numbers. 

Which one of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the conclusion above? 
(A) The cost of collecting, sorting, and recycling discarded plastics is currently higher than the cost of manufacturing new plastics from virgin materials. 
(B) Many consumers are unaware of the codes that are stamped on the plastic containers. 
(C) A plastic container almost always has a higher code number after it is recycled than it had before recycling because the recycling process causes a degradation of the quality of the plastic. 
(D) Products packaged in plastics with the lowest code numbers are often more expensive than those packaged in the higher-numbered plastics. 
(E) Communities that collect all discarded plastic containers for potential recycling later dump in landfills plastics with higher-numbered codes only when it is clear that no recycler will take them.

Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Eliminate: Out of scope. Who cares about the cost, we’re talking about harming the environment. 
(B) Eliminate: Still consistent with info given and thus irrelevant. If “most” people are aware, they could reduce their consumption. 
(C) Should people keep purchasing the lowered numbered plastics, there would be a net increase in higher numbered plastics as more lowered numbered plastics are bought and recycled. Therefore, the environment is still harmed. C is correct.
(D) Eliminate: Out of scope. Again, costs. 
(E) Eliminate: Still consistent with info given, thus irrelevant. If consumers are not purchasing the higher-numbered plastics, there won’t be much to dump anyways.

A

C

114
Q

No senator spoke at the convention unless he or she was a Democrat. No Democrat both spoke at the convention and was a senator.

Which one of the following conclusions can be correctly drawn from the statements above? 
(A) No one but senators spoke at the convention. 
(B) No Democrat spoke at the convention. 
(C) Only Democrats spoke at the convention. 
(D) No senator spoke at the convention. 
(E) Some Democrat senators spoke at the convention.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The first sentence states that only Democrat Senators could speak at the convention. The second sentence states that one could only speak at the convention or be a Senator at the convention, but one can’t do both. 
Therefore, no Democratic Senators could speak at the convention.

A

D

115
Q

The report released by the interior ministry states that within the past 5 years the national land-reclamation program has created a 19 percent increase in arable land within the country. If these figures are accurate, the program has been a huge success. Senator Cox, a distinguished mathematician and a woman of brilliance, maintains, however, that the reclamation program could not possibly have been successful. Clearly, therefore, the figures cited in the report cannot be accurate.

The argument above exhibits an erroneous pattern of reasoning most similar to that exhibited by which one of the following? 
A. Albert’s father claims that Albert does not know where the spare car keys are hidden. Yesterday however, Albert reported that he had discovered the spare car keys in the garage toolbox, so his father’s claim cannot be true. 
B. Gloria’s drama teacher claims that her policy is to give each student the opportunity to act in at least one play during the year but, since Gloria, who attended every class, reports that she was not given such an opportunity the teacher’s claim cannot be true. 
C. Amos claims that he can hold his breath under water for a full hour. Dr. Treviso, a cardiopulmonary specialist, has stated that humans are physiologically incapable of holding their breath for even half that long; so Amos’ claim cannot be true. 
D. Evelyn reports that she got home before midnight. Robert, who always knows the time, insists that she did not. If Robert is right, Evelyn could not possibly have listened to the late news; since she admits not having listened to the late news, her report cannot be true. 
E. Moira, after observing the finish of the 60-kilometer bicycle race, reports that Lee won with Adams a distant third. Lomas, a bicycle engineering expert, insists, however, that Lee could not have won a race in which Adams competed; so Moira’s report cannot be true.

Answer: E
Explanation:
E is a report of an action similar to the original argument. So something happened and she reported it. There is a proof that it happened and Moira watched it. The expert is saying that it is wrong and cannot happen. Probably Moira screwed up just like the people in original report might have.

A

E

116
Q

In a nature reserve in India, people are sometimes attacked by tigers. It is believed that the tigers will only attack people from behind. So for the past few years many workers in the reserve have started wearing masks depicting a human face on the back of their heads. While many area residents remain skeptical, no worker wearing one of these masks has yet been attacked by a tiger.

Which of the statements below, if true, would best support the argument of those who advocate the use of the mask? 
(A) Many workers in the nature reserve who do not wear the masks have been attacked recently by tigers. 
(B) Workers in other nature reserves who wear similar masks have not been attacked recently by tigers. 
(C) No tigers have been spotted on the nature reserve in recent years. 
(D) Many of the workers who wear the masks also sing while they work in order to frighten away any tigers in the area. 
(E) The tigers have often been observed attacking small deer from in front rather than from behind.

Answer: A
Explanation: It’s extremely useful to be able to recognize common argument types on the GMAT. One of the most common (perhaps THE most common) is causation. We can summarize this entire argument as: 
”The reason why tigers aren’t attacking the workers is due to the masks.” 
or 
”The masks are preventing tiger attacks.” 
To support a causation argument, we generally do one of two things: 
(1) remove an alternative explanation; or 
(2) provide additional evidence linking the purported cause and effect. 

Choice (A) removes an alternative explanation. It’s possible that the reason for reduced attacks is because the tigers aren’t attacking anyone at all. However, if the tigers are still attacking non-mask wearing workers, then we don’t have to worry about that possibility. 

Choice (B) doesn’t strengthen because it doesn’t help us determine if the masks themselves are making any difference. For all we know, tigers everywhere are on strike and are just lying on the couch watching football and talk shows. 


A

A

117
Q

A recent survey showed that many workers in a certain company are dissatisfied with their jobs. The survey also showed that most of the dissatisfied workers believe that they have little control over their job assignments. Therefore, to increase workers job satisfaction the company’s management need only concentrate on changing workers’ beliefs regarding the degree of control they have over their job assignments.

Which one of the following, if also shown by the survey, would most seriously call into question the conclusion made by the author of the passage? 
(A) The dissatisfied workers feel that their wages are too low and working conditions are unsatisfactory. 
(B) The number of workers in the company who are satisfied with their jobs is greater than the number who is dissatisfied. 
(C) The workers in the company are more dissatisfied than workers in other companies. 
(D) Most people in company management believe that the workers already have too much control over their work. 
(E) The workers in the company who are satisfied with their jobs believe that they have a lot of control over their job assignments.

Answer: A
Explanation: The conclusion - to increase workers job satisfaction the company’s management need only concentrate on changing workers’ beliefs regarding the degree of control they have over their job assignments 
If A is true and company concentrates only on increasing job satisfaction by changing workers’ beliefs the company may not succeed in doing so.

A

A

118
Q

Doctor: Research shows that adolescents who play video games on a regular basis are three times as likely to develop carpal tunnel syndrome as are adolescents who do not play video games. Federal legislation that prohibits the sale of video games to minors would help curb this painful wrist condition among adolescents. 

The doctor’s conclusion depends on which of the following assumptions? 
A) The majority of federal legislators would vote for a bill that prohibits the sale of video games to minors. 
B) Not all adolescents who play video games on a regular basis suffer from carpal tunnel syndrome. 
C) Playing video games is the only way an adolescent can develop carpal tunnel syndrome. 
D) Most parents would refuse to purchase video games for their adolescent children. 
E) The regular playing of video games by adolescents does not produce such beneficial effects as better hand-eye coordination and improved reaction time.

Answer: D
Explanation: The aim of the legislation is to limit kids’ exposure to carpel-tunnel causing video-games. As such, parents who can buy games for the kids is very much within the scope of the argument.

A

D

119
Q

According to a recent study on financial roles, one-third of high school seniors say that they have “significant financial responsibilities.” These responsibilities include, but are not limited to, contributing to food, shelter, or clothing for themselves or their families. At the same time, a second study demonstrates that a crisis in money management exists for high school students. According to this study, 80% of high school seniors have never taken a personal finance class even though the same percentage of seniors has opened bank accounts and one-third of these account holders have bounced a check. 

Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above? 
A. High schools would be wise to incorporate personal finance classes into their core curricula. 
B. At least one-third of high school seniors work part-time jobs after school. 
C. The number of high school seniors with significant financial responsibilities is greater than the number of seniors who have bounced a check. 
D. Any high school seniors who contribute to food, shelter, or clothing for themselves or their families have significant financial responsibilities. 
E. The majority of high school students have no financial responsibilities to their families.

Answer: C
Explanation: 80% of the students have significant financial responsibilities. 
80% have checking accounts, of which, 1/3 of them have bounced a check. 
So, “The number of high school seniors with significant financial responsibilities is greater than the number of seniors who have bounced a check” is a concrete fact. The other choices? They might be good ideas and arguably correct as well, but C is a fact, and therefore the best answer.

A

C

120
Q

Calorie restriction, a diet high in nutrients but low in calories, is known to prolong the life of rats and mice by preventing heart disease, cancer, diabetes, and other diseases. A six-month study of 48 moderately overweight people, who each reduced their calorie intake by at least 25 percent, demonstrated decreases in insulin levels and body temperature, with the greatest decrease observed in individuals with the greatest percentage change in their calorie intake. Low insulin level and body temperature are both considered signs of longevity, partly because an earlier study by other researchers found both traits in long-lived people. 

If the above statements are true, they support which of the following inferences? 
A. Calorie restriction produces similar results in humans as it does in rats and mice. 
B. Humans who reduce their calorie intake by at least 25 percent on a long-term basis will live longer than they would have had they not done so. 
C. Calorie intake is directly correlated to insulin level in moderately overweight individuals. 
D. Individuals with low insulin levels are healthier than individuals with high insulin levels. 
E. Some individuals in the study reduced their calorie intake by more than 25 percent.

Answer: E
Explanation: In an inference question, we need to find a choice that must be true based on one or more facts in the passage. The second sentence states: “A six-month study of 48 moderately overweight people, who each reduced their calorie intake by at least 25 percent, demonstrated decreases in insulin levels and body temperature, with the greatest decrease observed in individuals with the greatest percentage change in their calorie intake.” 
If you connect the two bold portions, you will see that it must be true that some experienced decreases of greater than 25 percent (otherwise, it wouldn’t make sense to speak of the “greatest decrease”.) 
Notice that valid inferences are not necessarily mind-boggling and don’t necessarily have to integrate the entire stimulus.

A

E

121
Q

The violent crime rate (number of violent crimes per 1,000 residents) in Meadowbrook is 60 percent higher now than it was four years ago. The corresponding increase for Parkdale is only 10 percent. These figures support the conclusion that residents of Meadowbrook are more likely to become victims of violent crime than are residents of Parkdale. 

The argument above is flawed because it fails to take into account 
A. changes in the population density of both Parkdale and Meadowbrook over the past four years 
B. how the rate of population growth in Meadowbrook over the past four years compares to the corresponding rate for Parkdale 
C. the ratio of violent to nonviolent crimes committed during the past four years in Meadowbrook and Parkdale 
D. the violent crime rates in Meadowbrook and Parkdale four years ago 
E. how Meadowbrook’s expenditures for crime prevention over the past four years compare to Parkdale’s expenditures

Answer: D
Explanation: The conclusion is: 
“These figures support the conclusion that residents of Meadowbrook are more likely to become victims of violent crime than are residents of Parkdale. “
Even thought Meadowbrook has increased at a rate 6 times that of Parkdale over the past four years, what we don’t know is their current rates. 
For example, let’s say four years ago that Meadowbrook had a rate of 100, and Parkdale had a rate of 1000. Meadowbrook is now at 160, while Parkdale is now at 1100. Clearly the conclusion is now invalid. 

A greater number of newspapers are sold in Town S than in Town T. Therefore, the citizens of Town S are better informed about major world events than are the citizens of Town T.

Each of the following, if true, weakens the conclusion above EXCEPT: 
(A) Town S has a larger population than Town T. 
(B) Most citizens of Town T work in Town S and buy their newspapers there. 
(C) The average citizen of Town S spends less time reading newspapers than does the average citizen of Town T. 
(D) A weekly newspaper restricted to the coverage of local events is published in Town S. 
(E) The average newsstand price of newspapers sold in Town S is lower than the average price of newspapers sold in Town T.

Answer: E
Explanation: The argument is that because there are more newspapers sold in one town, the residents of that town are better informed about world events. The actual price of the newspaper is irrelevant to this claim: even if the reason fewer newspapers are sold in Town T is that they cost more, it does not weaken the conclusion that Town T’s residents are not as well informed about the world as those of Town S. 
 A, on the other hand, does weaken because it points to an alternative explanation for why so many newspapers are sold in Town S (it’s not that they are better informed, it is just that there are more of them). And, if this alternative explanation is correct, it casts doubt on the explanation (conclusion) offered in the passage. Hence, after reading choice A, you should find the conclusion less convincing than you did prior to your knowledge of choice A.

A

D
E

122
Q

Market Analyst: Recent research confirms that the main cause of bad breath is bacteria build-up on the tongue. The research also concludes that tongue scrapers, when used properly, can eliminate up to 40% of the bacteria from the tongue. As the effectiveness of tongue scrapers becomes more widely known, the market for less effective breath freshening products, such as mints, gums, and sprays, will decline significantly. 

Which of the following provides the best evidence that the analyst’s argument is flawed? 
A. Some breath freshening products are advertised to eliminate up to 30% of the bacteria from the tongue. 
B. Tongue scrapers have already been on the market for a number of years. 
C. Many dentists recommend regular flossing, and not the use of the tongue scraper, to combat bad breath. 
D. A recent survey shows that 94% of those who regularly purchase breath freshening products are aware of the effectiveness of the tongue scraper. 
E. Some people buy breath freshening products for reasons other than to fight bad breath.

Answer: D
Explanation: This is actually not a “flaw in the reasoning question”. In a flaw question, all of the answer choices are putative descriptions of the author’s reasoning process. Instead of being descriptions of the author’s reasoning process, all of the answer choices here are new facts. 
The question does not ask you to describe a fault or flaw in the author’s reasoning process; instead, it asks you to find a choice that would provide the best evidence that the argument is flawed. As such, it is a cleverly worded weaken question. 
As a weaken question, we need to find a fact (again all the answer choices are facts) that would make the conclusion less likely to be true prior to our knowledge of that fact. 
The conclusion is that after learning of the effectiveness of tongue scrapers, the market for alternative bacteria-killing products (breath-fresheners) will dwindle. 
Choice D tells us that those who buy the breath-fresheners are already aware of the effectiveness of the tongue scraper (and yet they still buy the breath-fresheners). You should now find the conclusion less likely to be true.

A

D

123
Q

Sven: Trade unions are traditionally regarded by governments and economists as restraints of trade, working against the complete freedom of the economy, but I believe that unions are indispensable since they are often the worker’s only protection against exploitation. 
Ravi: I don’t agree. The exploitation of the workers and their work is a normal part of ordinary trade just like the exploitation of natural or other material resources.

Sven and Ravi will not be able to resolve their disagreement logically unless they 
(A) define a key term 
(B) rely on the opinions of established authorities 
(C) question an unproved premise 
(D) present supporting data 
(E) distinguish fact from opinion

Answer: A
Explanation: The answer is A because the first speaker is using the term “exploitation” in a pejorative sense. We can tell from the second speaker’s response, that he did not pick up on this pejorative connotation. Instead, he interprets “exploitation” as just “utilizing”.

A

A

124
Q

There is a great deal of geographical variation in the frequency of many surgical procedures - up to tenfold variation per hundred thousand people among different areas in the numbers of hysterectomies, prostatectomies and tonsillectomies. 

To support a conclusion that much of the variation is due to unnecessary surgical procedures, it would be most important to establish which of the following? 
a. A local board of review at each hospital examines the records of each operation to determine whether the surgical procedure was necessary 
b. The variation is unrelated to factors (other than the surgical procedures themselves) that influence the incidence of diseases for which surgery might be considered 
c. There are several categories of surgical procedures that are often performed unnecessarily 
d. For certain surgical procedures, it is difficult to determine after the operation whether the procedures were necessary or weather alternative treatment would have succeeded 
e. With respect to how often they are performed unnecessarily, hysterectomies, prostatectomies, and tonsillectomies are respective of surgical procedures in general

Answer: B
Explanation: The passage tells us that certain surgeries occur at differential rates across different regions. We need to find a choice that supports the conclusion that this difference in rates is not indicative of certain surgeries being performed unnecessarily. 
So before approaching the answer choices, you should ask yourself: what other factor could account for the difference in rates? Then, you should answer yourself: maybe certain diseases occur more frequently in certain places. 
Choice B matches this insight.

A

B

125
Q

In the years since the city of London imposed strict air-pollution regulations on local industry, the number of bird species seen in and around London has increased dramatically. Similar air-pollution rules should be imposed in other major cities.

Each of the following is an assumption made in the argument above EXCEPT: 
(A) In most major cities, air-pollution problems are caused almost entirely by local industry. 
(B) Air-pollution regulations on industry have a significant impact on the quality of the air. 
(C) The air-pollution problems of other major cities are basically similar to those once suffered by London. 
(D) An increase in the number of bird species in and around a city is desirable. 
(E) The increased sightings of bird species in and around London reflect an actual increase in the number of species in the area.

Answer: A
Explanation: Premises of the argument are 1: London imposed strict air-pollution regulations on local industry, 2: the number of bird species seen in and around London has increased. The conclusion is: Similar air-pollution rules should be imposed in other major cities. 
a. this is not necessarily the case. Local industry may contribute to only a small portion of air pollution. A decrease in this small amount may still be sufficient to increase the bird population. NO 
b. air pollution regulation has created some desirable results in increased bird sightings. YES 
c. if we want to apply the same regulations then cities must be similar. YES 
d. if they want to impose similar rules, they want to obtain similar effects, which is more birds. YES 
e. implied in the premise, birds in and around London are representative of the surrounding area. YES

A

A

126
Q

All of the best comedians have had unhappy childhoods. Yet, many people who have had happy childhoods are good comedians, and some good comedians who have had miserably unhappy childhoods are happy adults. 

If the statements in the passage are true, which one of the following CANNOT be true? 
(A) The proportion of good comedians who had unhappy childhoods is greater than the proportion of the best comedians who did. 
(B) Some good comedians have had unhappy childhoods and are unhappy adults. 
(C) Most of the best comedians are happy adults. 
(D) More good comedians have had unhappy childhoods than have had happy childhoods. 
(E) The proportion of comedians who are happy adults is higher than the proportions who are unhappy adults.

Answer: A
Explanation: The answer must be A. The first sentence says “All of the best comedians have had unhappy childhoods.” Some of the good comedians have had unhappy childhoods. Since all of the best comedians have had unhappy childhoods, it must be impossible that there is a higher fraction of good comedians with unhappy childhoods. 
Choice C while tempting could be true: just because all of the best comedians have had unhappy childhoods does not mean that any of them are unhappy as adults.

A

A

127
Q

Historian: Newton developed mathematical concepts and techniques that are fundamental to modern calculus. Leibniz developed closely analogous concepts and techniques. It has traditionally been thought that these discoveries were independent. Researchers have, however, recently discovered notes of Leibniz’ that discuss one of Newton’s books on mathematics. Several scholars have argued that since the book includes a presentation of Newton’s calculus concepts and techniques, and since the notes were written before Leibniz’ own development of calculus concepts and techniques, it is virtually certain that the traditional view is false. A more cautious conclusion than this is called for, however. ]Leibniz’ notes are limited to early sections of Newton’s book, sections that precede the ones in which Newton’s calculus concepts and techniques are presented.

In the historian’s reasoning, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles? 
A. The first provides evidence in support of the overall position that the historian defends; the second is evidence that has been used to support an opposing position. 
B. The first provides evidence in support of the overall position that the historian defends; the second is that position. 
C. The first provides evidence in support of an intermediate conclusion that is drawn to provide support for the overall position that the historian defends; the second provides evidence against that intermediate conclusion. 
D. The first is evidence that has been used to support a conclusion that the historian criticizes; the second is evidence offered in support of the historian’s own position. 
E. The first is evidence that has been used to support a conclusion that the historian criticizes; the second is further information that substantiates that evidence.

Answer: D
Explanation: Basically this argument divides into two parts. 
Scholars/historians. 
Historians say that scholars conclude that it is virtually certain that the traditional view is false based on FIRST BOLD sentence. 
However, historians conclude that a more cautious conclusion is needed based on SECOND BOLD sentence. 
Therefore, in order to find the answer, you need to keep this two divergent view in mind. That’s what D says. 


A

D

128
Q

Membership in the Theta Delta Psi fraternity is easily obtained by those who have a previously had strong social connections with existing fraternity members before college. However, one must have attended high school with one or more of the members in order to forge such strong social connections. People who lack these social connections because they have not attended high school with one or more current fraternity members will therefore find it difficult to join the fraternity. 

This argument displays flawed reasoning because it neglects to consider the possibility that 
A) many of those who went to high school with TDO fraternity members did not themselves become members of the fraternity 
B) it is more important in the long run to socialize with non-fraternity members than to develop strong connections with fraternity members 
C) it is more difficult to forge social connections with fraternity members than with non-fraternity members 
D) one may easily obtain membership in the fraternity through means other than having strong social connections with existing members 
E) some current members of the fraternity did not go to high school with other members

Answer: D
Explanation: Argument says that people who have not been to high school and have not been socially connected with the current fraternity members will find it difficult to join the fraternity. ‘D’ says there are other easy ways of obtaining the membership other than having strong connections with the current members

A

D

129
Q

Which of the following, if true, provides evidence that most logically completes the argument below? 
According to a widely held economic hypothesis, imposing strict environmental regulations reduces economic growth. This hypothesis is undermined by the fact that the states with the strictest environmental regulations also have the highest economic growth. This fact does not show that environmental regulations promote growth, however, since ______.

A. those states with the strictest environmental regulations invest the most in education and job training 
B. Even those states that have only moderately strict environmental regulations have higher growth than those with the least-strict regulations 
C. many states that are experiencing reduced economic growth are considering weakening their environmental regulations 
D. after introducing stricter environmental regulations, many states experienced increased economic growth 
E. even those states with very weak environmental regulations have experienced at least some growth

Answer: A
Explanation: the author talks about economic growth in the premises and then asks reasoning about just growth in general.
This fact does not show that environmental regulations promote growth, however, since 
so as environmental policies does both increase economic growth and also decrease economic growth. We have to look for some other reason for growth (in general). For this A suggests a different reason for growth in countries with strict environmental policies

A

A

130
Q

An experimental microwave clothes dryer heats neither air nor cloth. Rather, it heats water on clothes, thereby saving electricity and protecting delicate fibers by operating at a lower temperature. Microwaves are waves that usually heat metal objects, but developers of a microwave dryer are perfecting a process that will prevent thin metal objects such as hairpins from heating up and burning clothes.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly indicates that the process, when perfected, will be insufficient to make the dryer readily marketable? 
(A) Metal snap fasteners on clothes that are commonly put into drying machines are about the same thickness as most hairpins. 
(B) Many clothes that are currently placed into mechanical dryers are not placed there along with hairpins or other thin metal objects. 
(C) The experimental microwave dryer uses more electricity than future, improved models would be expected to use. 
(D) Drying clothes with the process would not cause more shrinkage than the currently used mechanical drying process causes. 
(E) Many clothes that are frequently machine-dried by prospective customers incorporate thick metal parts such as decorative brass studs or buttons.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Evidence 
- experimental microwave not heat air or cloth -> heats water 
- save electricity and protect fibers -> lower operating temp 
- microwaves heat metal objects 
- new process prevent thin metal objects from burning clothes 
Conclusion 
The new process will be insufficient. 

A) Eliminate because it’s outside the scope. The passage isn’t asking for the thickness of hairpins or metal fasteners 
C) Eliminate, using less energy is actually a bonus, so this would strengthen the argument. 
D) Eliminate because it’s outside the scope of the argument. The passage does not mention clothing shrinkage. 
Looking at answer B, if clothes are not dried with thin metal objects then developers don’t have to worry about preventing metal objects from heating up and burning clothes. This actually strengthens the argument and makes the new technology more desirable. Eliminate 
In answer E, the new technology prevents thin metal objects from burning clothes. But if the majority of clothing incorporates thick metal objects, then clothing will still be damaged when dried with the new equipment. This explains why the new process will not be readily marketable. Answer should be E

A

E

131
Q

Researchers have found that when very overweight people, who tend to have relatively low metabolic rates, lose weight primarily through dieting, their metabolisms generally remain unchanged. They will thus burn significantly fewer calories at the new weight than do people whose weight is normally at that level. Such newly thin persons will, therefore, ultimately regain weight until their body size again matches their metabolic rate.

The conclusion of the argument above depends on which of the following assumptions? 
A. Relatively few very overweight people who have dieted down to a new weight tend to continue to consume substantially fewer calories than do people whose normal weight is at that level. 
B. The metabolisms of people who are usually not overweight are much more able to vary than the metabolisms of people who have been very overweight. 
C. The amount of calories that a person usually burns in a day is determined more by the amount that is consumed that day than by the current weight of the individual. 
D. Researchers have not yet determined whether the metabolic rates of formerly very overweight individuals can be accelerated by means of chemical agents. 
E. Because of the constancy of their metabolic rates, people who are at their usual weight normally have as much difficulty gaining weight as they do losing it.

Answer: A
Explanation: B,D and E are out … as they are too broad… 
C –> If food consumption affects the calorie burning rate –> food consumption changes metabolic rate—> contradicts the stimuli 
A –> if very few people consume fewer calories then this explains why not many are able to remain at their new weight.

A

A

132
Q

A study followed a group of teenagers who had never smoked and tracked whether they took up smoking and how their mental health changed. After one year, the incidence of depression among those who had taken up smoking was four times as high as it was among those who had not. Since nicotine in cigarettes changes brain chemistry, perhaps thereby affecting mood, it is likely that smoking contributes to depression in teenagers. 

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? 
A. Participants who were depressed at the start of the study were no more likely to be smokers after one year than those who were not depressed. 
B. The study did not distinguish between participants who smoked only occasionally and those who were heavy smokers. 
C. Few, if any, of the participants in the study were friends or relatives of other participants. 
D. Some participants entered and emerged from a period of depression within the year of the study. 
E. The researchers did not track use of alcohol by the teenagers.

Answer: A
Explanation: A. Weakens 
B. smoking is smoking, be it occasional or heavy and smoking would have caused depression. 
C. it might imply passive smoking, but there is no mention of it and we are not sure whether they are smokers or not. 
E. Effect of alcohol is not in the argument.

A

A

133
Q

One state adds a 7 percent sales tax to the price of most products purchased within its jurisdiction. This tax, therefore, if viewed as tax on income, has the reverse effect of the federal income tax: the lower the income, the higher the annual percentage rate at which the income is taxed.

The conclusion above would be properly drawn if which of the following were assumed as a premise? 
(A) The amount of money citizens spend on products subject to the state tax tends to be equal across income levels. 
(B) The federal income tax favors citizens with high incomes, whereas the state sales tax favors citizens with low incomes. 
(C) Citizens with low annual incomes can afford to pay a relatively higher percentage of their incomes in state sales tax, since their federal income tax is relatively low. 
(D) The lower a state’s sales tax, the more it will tend to redistribute income from the more affluent citizens to the rest of society. 
(E) Citizens who fail to earn federally taxable income are also exempt from the state sales tax.

Answer: A
Explanation: Now what is the conclusion? 
This tax, therefore, if viewed as tax on income, has the reverse effect of the federal income tax: the lower the income, the higher the annual percentage rate at which the income is taxed. 

Now if the amount that you pay is the same then what happens to the percentage rate as it was discussed. 
TAX/(low income) and TAX/(high income) 

the first one is definitely greater than the second and it is the way in which I reasoned it out. 
If we assume that people with different income levels spend different amounts then the relation as mentioned in the stimulus (the lower the income, the higher the annual percentage rate at which the income is taxed) could not have been achieved. 
So even if we take the different approach for an assumption question (negating the choices to get a weakening option), A seems to be the best one.

A

A

134
Q

The general availability of high-quality electronic scanners and color printers for computers has made the counterfeiting of checks much easier. In order to deter such counterfeiting, several banks plan to issue to their corporate customers checks that contain dots too small to be accurately duplicated by any electronic scanner currently available; when such checks are scanned and printed, the dots seem to blend together in such a way that the word “VOID” appears on the check 

A questionable assumption of the plan is that 
A. in the territory served by the banks the proportion of counterfeit checks that are made using electronic scanners has remained approximately constant over the past few years 
B. most counterfeiters who use electronic scanners counterfeit checks only for relatively large amounts of money 
C. the smallest dots on the proposed checks cannot be distinguished visually except under strong magnification 
D. most corporations served by these banks will not have to pay more for the new checks than for traditional checks 
E. the size of the smallest dots that generally available electronic scanners are able to reproduce accurately will not decrease significantly in the near future.

Answer: E
Explanation: E says that the argument relies on the assumption that the printers will not be able to print smaller dots accurately in the near future. 
if the size that the scanners are accurately able to produce decreases then they are able to reproduce smaller sized dots thereby circumventing the efforts of the banks. 
I think “questionable assumption” questions should be treated just like assumption questions. It’s questionability is irrelevant so long as it is the assumption on which the argument relies on. I suppose this assumption is questionable because it is not likely that the generally available printers will suddenly improve. It is more likely that there will be improved scanners that are brought into the market.
Which of the following most logically completes the passage? 
Each species of moth has an optimal body temperature for effective flight, and when air temperatures fall much below that temperature, the moths typically have to remain inactive on vegetation for extended periods, leaving them highly vulnerable to predators. In general, larger moths can fly faster than smaller ones and hence have a better chance of evading flying predators, but they also have higher optimal body temperatures, which explains why ______.
A. large moths are generally able to maneuver better in flight than smaller moths 
B. large moths are proportionally much more common in warm climates than in cool climates 
C. small moths are more likely than large moths to be effectively camouflaged while on vegetation 
D. large moths typically have wings that are larger in proportion to their body size than smaller moths do 
E. most predators of moths prey not only on several different species of moth but also on various species of other insects
Answer: A
Explanation: From the argument “More body temperature -> More effective flight”. From this point choice A should be right

A

E
A

135
Q

As a practical matter, the copper available for industrial use should not be thought of as limited by the quantity of copper deposits, known or unknown. The transmutation of one chemical element into another is a modern reality, through the methods of nuclear physics. Therefore, the quantity of a natural resource such as copper cannot be calculated even in principle, because copper can be made from other metals.
Which of the following, if true, is the strongest argument against the argument above? 
A) Although it is possible that additional deposits of copper will be found, geological considerations strongly indicate that they will not amount to more than fifty-year supply. 
B) The production of copper from other metals in industrial quantities would be prohibitively expensive in energy and materials. 
C) Synthetic materials have been discovered that can serve as practical substitutes for copper in most of its uses. 
D) It will be impractical, in the foreseeable future, to mine any deposits of metal that may exist on the moon or on other planets. 
E) Methods for estimating the amount of copper available in currently known deposits have become very sophisticated and have proved some accurate
Answer: B
Explanation: Although the passage establishes that the transmutation of one element to another is a theoretical reality, B tells you that, in practice, it is not feasible (b/c it is so expensive). Accordingly, we can’t (as of yet) behave as though the supply of copper is unlimited. 
In order to weaken the argument, we need to find a choice that will suggest that this process of transmutation does not establish an unlimited supply of copper. Choice A fails to weaken because it does not at all discuss transmutation
At Legal Services, LLC last year, the average annual salary for attorneys was $75,000, while the average salary for paralegals was $50,000. The average annual salary for all Legal Services, LLC employees was $45,000. 

If the information above is correct, which one of the following conclusions can properly be drawn on the basis of it? 
A. There were twice as many attorneys at Legal Services, LLC as there were paralegals last year. 
B. There were more paralegals than attorneys at Legal Services, LLC last year. 
C. There were two attorneys and three paralegals at Legal Services, LLC last year. 
D. There was at least one Legal Services, LLC employee who earned less than the average paralegal earned last year. 
E. At least one paralegal made less than $50,000 last year.
Answer: D
Explanation: we know that both lawyers and paralegals make more than the average (on average). If that is the case, then there must be at least one employee at the firm who makes less than the average who will compensate for the “pull-up” coming from the average lawyers’ and average paralegals’ salaries. 

It might be the mail boy who makes six dollars an hour or, perhaps, there are a whole bunch of first year attorneys and first year paralegals who make very little, say 20k, while the established attorneys are making six figures (and in the end it washes out to 75k avg for attorneys and 50k avg for paralegals). 

But if there wasn’t at least one employee at the firm who made less than the 45 K average, then each and every paralegal would be making more than the average and each and every attorney would be making more than the average of 45 k, which is obviously absurd. Instead, the average would be somewhere between the two numbers of 75k and 50k (depending on the ration of lawyers to paralegals, and depending on the distribution within those two categories), and that would falsify information in the passage (which information the question told us to treat as correct).

A

B
D

136
Q

A major city uses income from tax revenues to fund incentives for high-end retailers from out of town to open stores in its new downtown shopping district. Although city taxes on such stores will generate tax revenues greater than the cost of the incentives, this practice is unwise. Locally based high-end retailers would open stores in the new shopping district without requiring the city to spend tax revenue on incentives.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the city’s policy of offering cash incentives to out-of-town retailers?
A. Some retailers already headquartered in the city sell similar brands at similar prices to those of high-end retailers from out of town.
B. The city’s tax revenues have been steadily declining for the past decade.
C. A longstanding city law exempts locally-based businesses from having to pay city taxes.
D. The practice of cities offering cash incentives to retailers began less than a decade ago.
E. Unlike retailers headquartered in the city, the high-end retailers offered cash incentives have hundreds of stores across the country.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The first is that of a city: this city concludes that it should use tax money to fund incentives to persuade retailers from out of town to open locations in its shopping district, based on the evidence that tax revenue generated by these retailers will be greater than the cost of the incentives.
The second is that of the author, who concludes that the city should not pursue this policy, based on the evidence that retailers from inside the city would move into its business district for free.

We are asked to support the city’s argument, which will likely involve weakening the argument of the author against the city’s policy. Our answer should give us additional evidence for why the city will be better off with out-of-town retailers in its shopping district, even though they must be paid to move there.
Choice C, does provide us with such information. If locally based businesses are exempt from city taxes, this means that “the city won’t gain any tax revenues at all from these businesses”. Therefore, despite the cost of the incentives, the city will gain greater net tax revenue from out-of-town retailers’ stores than from locally-based retailers’ stores. This weakens the author’s argument and thus strengthens the city’s argument.

A

C

137
Q

Advertisement: The world’s best coffee beans come from Colombia. The more Colombian beans in a blend of coffee, the better the blend, and no company purchases more Colombian beans than Kreemo Coffee, Inc. So it only stands to reason that if you buy a can of Kreemo’s coffee, you’re buying the best blended coffee available today. 

The reasoning of the argument in the advertisement is flawed because it overlooks the possibility that 
(A) the equipment used by Kreemo to blend and package its coffee is no different from that used by most other coffee producers 
(B) not all of Kreemo’s competitors use Colombian coffee beans in the blends of coffee they sell 
(C) Kreemo sells more coffee than does any other company 
(D) Kreemo’s coffee is the most expensive blended coffee available today 
(E) the best unblended coffee is better than the best blended coffee

Answer: C
Explanation:
Conclusion of the argument: 
if you buy a can of Kreemo’s coffee, you’re buying the best blended coffee available today 
Premises 
(1) The world’s best coffee beans come from Colombia. 
(2) The more Colombian beans in a blend of coffee, the better the blend 
(3) no company purchases more Colombian beans than Kreemo Coffee, Inc. 
Therefore the argument has an inherent assumption that because kreemo purchases more coffee than any other company, the cans it makes have a higher blend of Columbian beens. 
However, if Kreemo sells more coffee than any other company, then it manufacturers more coffee than any other company. Hence the extra Columbian beans don’t increase the blend of individual cans of Coffee, but they increase the Number of Cans, which is what is stated in C.

A

C

138
Q

Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium transmitted to humans by deer ticks. Generally deer ticks pick up the bacterium while in the larval stage from feeding on infected whitefooted mice. However, certain other species on which the larvae feed do not harbor the bacterium. Therefore, if the population of these other species were increased, the number of ticks acquiring the bacterium? And hence the number of people contracting Lyme disease-would likely decline.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? 
A. Ticks do not suffer any adverse consequences from carrying the bacterium that causes Lyme disease in humans. 
B. There are no known cases of a human’s contracting Lyme disease through contact with white-footed mice. 
C. A deer tick feeds only once while in the larval stage. 
D. A single host animal can be the source of bacteria for many tick larvae. 
E. None of the other species on which deer tick larvae feed harbor other bacteria that ticks transmit to humans.

Answer: C
Explanation: In the passage, part of the author’s evidence is that right now the deer tick larvae are picking up the bacteria that cause lyme disease by feeding on these infected white-footed mice. Because this is part of the author’s evidence, this information must be true (in arguments, the evidence is “given” to the author).

The question stem tells us to treat the answer choices as “true”; in other words, as facts. Fact (C) tells us that they only feed once a year. If we put these two facts together we should be quite surprised. They only feed once, and yet they somehow manage to feed on these mice that transmit the bacteria.

This suggests that the reason they are feeding on these mice is a limited availability of the infection-free food sources rather than some alternative explanation (such as preference). Fact (C), therefore, improves the likelihood of the plan’s working; accordingly, it is a strengthener.
The other choices are either outside the scope or extreme (remember he was arguing that an increase in the supply of safe infection-free food sources would diminish the problem not negate it).

A

C

139
Q

One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music whether ritual, dance, or worship gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT: 
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had. 
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music. 
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces. 
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music. 
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.

Answer: D
Explanation: The author of the passage is explaining a phenomenon or, more technically, advancing an explanation for a phenomenon. (Phenomenon=set of observed facts that demand an explanation or a reconciliation.) The phenomenon is “…why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement…” 
The explanation is that the various reasons for each musical form’s original existence (European dance music, European religious music, etc) ceased to be factors informing the music’s “defining force”; instead, they were relegated to being mere “…aspect(s)…of style..”. 
In other words, the general reason European music became such a sophisticated achievement is that it (presumably, gradually) became intelligible independently from its original function. 

As such, choice D is incompatible with the passage, and must be the correct answer. 
But what does “compatible” mean? Well, “incompatible” means “contradict”, so “compatible” must mean “anything that does not contradict”. So, the four wrong answers could be true, and the right answer is something the passage will have proven false. 
The more outside the scope of the passage an answer choice is, the less likely the passage will have proven it necessarily false, and the more likely it becomes something that is possibly true. Choices B and C are very much outside the scope of the passage, so they very easily could be true (=compatible), and can be eliminated immediately. 
Choice E discusses “works of art” but a) we don’t know whether music qualifies as a work of art and b) the author has treated music in the passage as something much more than a mere “work of art”. 
Choice A is a bit trickier but it could still be true (compatible): European music having “a strong influence” clearly allows for African (and other kinds of) music having a stronger influence.

A

D

140
Q

Mullen has proposed to raise taxes on the rich, who made so much money during the past decade. Yet Mullen’s tax records show heavy investment in business during that time and large profits; so Mullen’s proposal does not deserve our consideration.

The flawed reasoning in the argument above is most similar to the flawed reasoning in which one of the following? 
(A) Do not vote for Smith’s proposed legislation to subsidize child care for working parents; Smith is a working parent. 
(B) Do not put any credence in Dr. Han’s recent proposal to ban smoking in all public places; Dr. Han is a heavy smoker. 
(C) The previous witness’s testimony ought to be ignored; he has been convicted of both forgery and mail fraud. 
(D) Board member Timm’s proposal to raise the salaries of the company’s middle managers does not deserve to be considered; Timm’s daughter is a middle manager at the company’s headquarters. 
(E) Dr. Wasow’s analysis of the design of this bridge should not be taken seriously; after all, Dr. Wasow has previously only designed factory buildings.

Answer: B
Explanation: The author argues that Mullen’s proposal should not be considered b/c Mullen is a member of the group that would be detrimental by that proposal (he would have to pay more taxes). 
Similarly Choice B’s author argues that Dr. Han’s proposal should not be considered b/c Dr. Han is a member of the group that would be detrimental by that proposal (his freedom of choice would be limited). 
Choice A is tempting but rather than being harmed by the proposal, Smith would benefit from it.

A

B

141
Q

Dear Applicant: 
Thank you for your application. Unfortunately, we are unable to offer you a position in our local government office for the summer. As you know, funding for summer jobs is limited, and it is impossible for us to offer jobs to all those who want them. Consequently, we are forced to reject many highly qualified applicants. 

Which of the following can be inferred from the letter? 
(A) The number of applicants for summer jobs in the government office exceeded the number of summer jobs available. 
(B) The applicant who received the letter was considered highly qualified. 
(C) Very little funding was available for summer jobs in the government office. 
(D) The application of the person who received the letter was considered carefully before being rejected. 
(E) Most of those who applied for summer jobs were considered qualified for the available positions.

Answer: A
Explanation: An inference is something that must be true based on the passage. So the right answer to an inference question is something that must be true while the four wrong answers are things that could be false. If a choice could be false, it is wrong. So you can ask of each answer choice: could it be false? 
 Could choice B be false? Yes, it can. Just because they reject highly qualified applicants, does not mean that this particular applicant was highly qualifed. In order to think that this choice must be true, you would have to assume that there was no other reason (other than the applicant being highly qualifed) for why the letter-writer would tell the applicant that they had to reject many highly qualifed applicants. But there is an alternative reason: civility. The moment you see that you would have to assume something else in order for the choice to be necessarily true is the moment you know the choice could be false, and therefore, wrong. 
 On the other hand, could choice A be false? Choice A states “The number of applicants for summer jobs in the government office exceeded the number of summer jobs available.” If this were false, it would mean that they did not have enough applicants to fill up all the jobs. Can that be the case? 
 Well, we learn in the passage that “…it is impossible for us to offer jobs to all those who want them.” and that “Consequently, we are forced to reject many highly qualified applicants.” 
 So, the reason they are unable to offer jobs to many highly qualified applicants is because there are not enough jobs. Thus, choice A cannot be false…if it were false, then one of the last two sentences in the passage (or both) would be false. And in an inference question we have to treat everything in the passage as necessarily true.

A

A

142
Q

There is relatively little room for growth in the overall carpet market, which is tied to the size of the population. Most who purchase carpet do so only once or twice, first in their twenties or thirties, and then perhaps again in their fifties or sixties. Thus as the population ages, companies producing carpet will be able to gain market share in the carpet market only through purchasing competitors, and not through more aggressive marketing. 

Which one of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the conclusion above? 
(A) Most of the major carpet producers market other floor coverings as well. 
(B) Most established carpet producers market several different brand names and varieties, and there is no remaining niche in the market for new brands to fill. 
(C) Two of the three mergers in the industry’s last ten years led to a decline in profits and revenues for the newly merged companies. 
(D) Price reductions, achieved by cost-cutting in production, by some of the dominant firms in the carpet market are causing other producers to leave the market altogether. 
(E) The carpet market is unlike most markets in that consumers are becoming increasingly 
resistant to new patterns and styles
Answer: D
Explanation: The conclusion is: “as the population ages, companies producing carpet will be able to gain market share in the carpet market only through purchasing competitors, and not through more aggressive marketing”. 
This conclusion is a prediction. Whenever the author advances a prediction, one necessary assumption he makes is: whatever must happen for the prediction to come to pass will happen. And notice how extreme the conclusion is: the ONLY way they can gain market share is through purchase of competitors. 
So, the author is assuming there are no other ways market share can be gained (this is what must happen in order for the prediction to happen; if there are other ways they can gain market share, then the prediction will not necessarily happen). 
In a weaken question, we find a choice that attacks the assumption…that is what choice D is doing.

Amphibian populations are declining in numbers worldwide. Not coincidentally, the earth’s ozone layer has been continuously depleted throughout the last 50 years. Atmospheric ozone blocks UV-B, a type of ultraviolet radiation that is continuously produced by the sun, and which can damage genes. Because amphibians lack hair, hide, or feathers to shield them, they are particularly vulnerable to UV-B radiation. In addition, their gelatinous eggs lack the protection of leathery or hard shells. Thus, the primary cause of the declining amphibian population is the depletion of the ozone layer. 

Each of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument EXCEPT: 
(A) Of the various types of radiation blocked by atmospheric ozone, UV-B is the only type that can damage genes. 
(B) Amphibian populations are declining far more rapidly than are the populations of non-amphibian species whose tissues and eggs have more natural protection from UV-B. 
(C) Atmospheric ozone has been significantly depleted above all the areas of the world in which amphibian populations are declining. 
(D) The natural habitat of amphibians has not become smaller over the past century. 
(E) Amphibian populations have declined continuously for the last 50 years.

Answer: A

Answer: B
Explanation: The bicyclists’ argument is that the regulation requiring them to wear helmets ought to be removed because it is aimed at a harm that only the bicyclists would suffer. 
In other words, the bicyclists are saying: “hey, only we would be hurt, and we should be allowed to do what we want with ourselves so long as it does not harm anyone else, so get rid of the helmet-rule.” 
The bicyclists are assuming that the only kind of harm that could exist (without the helmet regulation) is physical harm; that third parties won’t be harmed b/c they won’t be physically harmed. We need to find a choice that attacks this assumption. 

Choice B does a fine job of that. Lawyers are warning that (without the helmet-rule) everyone would have to pay more. Everyone else is a third party, and they would definitely be hurt if they had to pay more. Wunderlitch park would now be able to use this information to respond effectively against the bicyclists’ claim: “You say that if we get rid of the helmet-rule only you would be hurt, but lawyers are telling us that without the helmet rule everyone would have to pay more.” 
Now, had the bicyclists said “we are the only ones who can be physically injured” it would have been different from “hurt” to a “third party”.

The bicyclists’ assumption has to do with no harm befalling any third party. Choice D does not target this assumption because it fails to make any explicit connection to a third party

Politician: Those economists who claim that consumer price increases have averaged less than 3 percent over the last year are mistaken. They clearly have not shopped anywhere recently. Gasoline is up 10 percent over the last year; my auto insurance, 12 percent; newspapers, 15 percent; propane, 13%; bread, 
50 percent. 

The reasoning in the politician’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument 
(A) impugns the character of the economists rather than addressing their arguments 
(B) fails to show that the economists mentioned are not experts in the area of consumer prices 
(C) mistakenly infers that something is not true from the claim that it has not been shown to be so 
(D) uses evidence drawn from a small sample that may well be unrepresentative 
(E) attempts to persuade by making an emotional appeal

Answer: D
Explanation: The politician mentions a few things with price increases. He has highlighted just a few things from thousands of consumer products. The argument talks about average consumer prices and the politician is talking about individual price rise.

Cézanne’s art inspired the next generation of artists, twentieth-century modernist creators of abstract art. 
While most experts rank Cézanne as an early modernist, a small few reject this idea. Françoise Cachin, for example, bluntly states that such an ascription is “overplayed,” and says that Cézanne’s work is “too often observed from a modern point of view.” 

Which one of the following statements is most strongly supported by the information above? 
(A) Cézanne’s work is highly controversial. 
(B) Cézanne was an early creator of abstract art. 
(C) Cézanne’s work helped to develop modernism. 
(D) Modern art owes less to Cézanne than many experts believe. 
(E) Cézanne’s work tends to be misinterpreted as modernist.

Answer: C
Explanation: In an inference question, we need to find a choice that must be true based on one or more statements in the passage. The four wrong answers are things that could be false. You can ask of each choice: “did the stimulus prove that it has to be true or could it be false?” 
Looking at the choices,
(A) Most experts rank him as a modernist but a small few reject this idea. So the idea that he is “highly controversial” could easily be false. 
(B) We are told that the experts themselves are in disagreement about this idea. Therefore, it could easily be false. 
(C) Because Cezanne’s art “inspired…the modernist creators of abstract art” this choice must be true. 
At this point, we would stop and choose C, but let’s look at the other choices. Choices D and E can be eliminated in one fell swoop: although we learn what most experts believe and that a small few disagree with them, we never actually learn the author’s position. Therefore, these choices could easily be false.

The marketing department recently announced that advertising in the quarterly journal will cost 15 to 20 percent more next summer than it cost last summer. The members of the marketing department argued that in spite of this increase, advertisers will continue to profit from advertising in the journal, so advertising space will be no harder to sell next summer than it was last summer.

Which one of the following, if true, would most support the marketing department’s argument? 
A. The cost of production and distribution of products typically advertised in the journal are expected to rise 5 to 10 percent in the next year. 
B. The system for tracking the number of people who subscribe to the quarterly journal will change next summer. 
C. Next summer, advertising space in the journal will no longer be available in blocks smaller than 1/4 page. 
D. The amount of advertising space purchased by providers of services is increasing, while the amount of advertising space purchased by providers of products is decreasing. 
E. A recent survey has shown that the average amount of time people spend reading the quarterly journal is increasing at a rate of 3 percent every month.

Answer: E
Explanation: One assumption in the GMAT that you are expected to know, I’ve found, is that any media charges advertisers for advertisements based on the circulation. This makes sense: if the advertisement is read by 10,000 people versus 100,000 people, you’d pay more for the latter circulation. 
So, the argument is that even if we charge 20% more for advertisers to place ads, they will still place ads. This means anything that demonstrates more people will see the ads will strengthen this argument. 
(A) This weakens argument - if both marketing costs AND production costs are going up, the profit potential falls even faster. This makes it HARDER to sell ads. 
(B) This doesn’t say anything about circulation increasing, nor if that means ads will be able to be targeted better. So, we can’t draw anything from this. 
(C) This weakens argument - some advertisers probably like the smaller (and necessarily cheaper) ads. This makes it HARDER to sell ads. 
(D) This doesn’t say anything as to the TOTAL number of advertisers, so it’s unknown if it will be EASIER or HARDER to sell ads. 
(E) This states that people will spend more time reading the magazine. It follows if they spend more time reading the magazine, they probably will see more ads. This is more attractive to advertisers, thus it will be EASIER to sell ads.

Samples from a ceramic vase found at a tomb in Sicily prove that the vase was manufactured in Greece. Since the occupant of the tomb died during the reign of a Sicilian ruler who lived 2,700 years ago, the location of the vase indicates that there was trade between Sicily and Greece 2,700 years ago.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? 
(A) Sicilian potters who lived during the reign of the ruler did not produce work of the same level of quality as did Greek potters. 
(B) Sicilian clay that was used in the manufacture of pottery during the ruler’s reign bore little resemblance to Greek clay used to manufacture pottery at that time. 
(C) At the time that the occupant of the tomb was alive, there were ships capable of transporting large quantities of manufactured goods between Sicily and Greece. 
(D) The vase that was found at the Sicilian tomb was not placed there many generations later by descendants of the occupant of the tomb. 
(E) The occupant of the tomb was not a member of the royal family to which the Sicilian ruler belonged.

Answer: D
Explanation: The scope of the argument is the “location”. Where was the vase? not the quality of the vase. If you read one more time, the author never mentions “quality” of vase in the premise or the conclusion. Therefore, A is the definite out of scope. 
D says the vase wasn’t placed there later by descendents of the occupant of the tomb and it is the proper assumption of the argument. 
In other words, the descendents (who live 21st century) can’t put the vase when their ancestor (who lived 12th century) passed away. The descendents weren’t even born. You know what I mean… unless those people have a “back to the future time machine” to travel way back to 12th century to attend the funeral.

A recent report determined that although only three percent of drivers on Maryland highways equipped their vehicles with radar detectors, thirty-three percent of all vehicles ticketed for exceeding the speed limit were equipped with them. Clearly, drivers who equip their vehicles with radar detectors are more likely to exceed the speed limit regularly than are drivers who do not.

The conclusion drawn above depends on which of the following assumptions? 
(A) Drivers who equip their vehicles with radar detectors are less likely to be ticketed for exceeding the speed limit than are drivers who do not. 
(B) Drivers who are ticketed for exceeding the speed limit are more likely to exceed the speed limit regularly than are drivers who are not ticketed. 
(C) The number of vehicles that were ticketed for exceeding the speed limit was greater than the number of vehicles that were equipped with radar detectors. 
(D) Many of the vehicles that were ticketed for exceeding the speed limit were ticketed more than once in the time period covered by the report. 
(E) Drivers on Maryland highways exceeded the speed limit more often than did drivers on other state highways not covered in the report.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A> This is opposite of the conclusion 
B> The correct answer 
C> There is no evidence for this statement 
D> This answer does not support the conclusion, even if we negate this assumption the conclusion will not get affected. 
E> Out of scope.

Rice is a staple crop in the country of Bhupet, and enough is produced each year to both meet the country’s demand and be a major export. This season, however, rice yields fell 20% due to infestation by rice blast fungus. Because rice commands a somewhat higher price on the export market than the domestic market, economists warn that the Bhupet people will not be able to buy the rice they need. In order to help the local economy, therefore, the Prime Minister of Bhupet has proposed distributing state-subsidized rice coupons to each citizen.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly calls into question the likelihood that implementation of the Prime Minister’s proposal will have the desired consequence?
(A) Even if the rice coupons do not allow citizens of Bhupet to consume as much rice as they do in a typical year, the existence of the coupons will help maintain general confidence in the economy.
(B) Rice distributors in Bhupet are willing to sell rice to the government at a price below the domestic market price.
(C) Rice is a fundamental component in the diet of most citizens of Bhupet, and it is their main source of vitamin B1.
(D) The exportation of rice makes up 75% of Bhupet’s foreign trade and is the direct or indirect source of employment for 10% of the adult population.
(E) Not all citizens of Bhupet would require state-subsidized rice coupons to afford their usual rice intake.

Answer: D
Explanation: (A) This strengthens the argument: The coupons will make people more confident in the economy.
(B) This, if anything, strengthens the argument; the subsidized rice will not cost the government as much as it might otherwise. For the most part, though, it is not relevant to the argument.
(C) Again, this appears to strengthen the argument–it shows how important rice is to citizens. Like (B) though, it isn’t directly related to the economy.
(D) This is correct. While the argument emphasizes the importance of the domestic market, this choice shows us that the export market has a direct effect on the health of the domestic economy. If the government acquires a large amount of rice, it is likely that rice exports will be curtailed by that amount, thus harming the economy.
(E)This is irrelevant; the argument would still be valid if only a large percentage of citizens required the coupons.

Within Central City, the high-end retailer RiverRock makes most of its sales at its flagship store in Central Plaza, a major commuter center in the business district. Nevertheless, marketing strategists at RiverRock propose increasing revenues by closing the lease on this high-rent location and focusing on its smaller satellite stores throughout the region.

Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the viability of the plan by RiverRock’s marketing strategists to focus on smaller satellite stores?
(A) Most of the merchandise available at RiverRock’s flagship store is also available at each of its satellite stores.
(B) The frequency with which consumers who live near Central Plaza shop at RiverRock is roughly equal to that of consumers who live in the suburbs, where most of the satellite stores are located.
(C) When RiverRock opened its flagship store fifteen years ago, it closed two smaller stores in the Central City area.
(D) Retailers such as RiverRock find that smaller suburban stores experience more consistent sales from year to year than do flagship stores, which depend on huge sales in November and December.
(E) The sales of the flagship RiverRock store allow the company to devote large sums to television advertising in Central City, which has a significant positive impact on satellite store sales.

Answer: E
Explanation: The goal of the plan is to increase revenues; the marketing strategists believe this will happen by closing the flagship store and focusing on smaller satellite stores. The underlying assumption is that the high rent of the flagship store (and, perhaps, other costs associated with maintaining the location) is not worth the resulting revenues. Consider each choice in turn:
(A) This choice suggests that the satellite stores are capable of doing everything the flagship store can do, so it doesn’t cast doubt on the plan.
(B) There’s no apparent distinction between the flagship stores and the satellite stores here; there’s nothing directly relevant to revenues.
(C) This choice is also not directly relevant. It suggests there is some connection between opening flagship stores and opening satellite stores, but it’s not clear what that has to do with revenue.
(D) This would seem to strengthen the plan, if anything; the satellite stores are more consistent than the flagship. However, it still isn’t directly relevant: Consistency doesn’t necessarily translate into higher revenues.
(E) This is correct. It shows that the revenues of the satellite stores are dependent on the results of the revenues of the flagship store. If the flagship store were closed, the revenues of the satellite stores would likely be affected.
As part of a plan to overhaul a car company’s lagging sales due to its image as environmentally irresponsible, consultants recently proposed the release of a new car line. The new line of small, high-mileage and hybrid vehicles would appeal to a set of consumers who would never have previously considered buying from the company. In that way, the company could easily retain the market for its traditional vehicles while tapping into a new market niche and expanding its revenue base.

Which of the following, if true, would most strongly support the consultants’ proposal?
(A) The majority of cars currently manufactured by the company is large and is not known for their fuel efficiency.
(B) A reliable survey of the company’s previous customers showed that most of them would more strongly consider buying from the company again if it offered hybrid vehicles.
(C) Car sales for all companies have lagged in the last two years, but are expected to increase in the next six months.
(D) A new focus on small, high-mileage, and hybrid vehicles would require research and development investment greater than the company’s CEO has made in his tenure to date.
(E) As most car companies develop small, high-mileage, and hybrid vehicles, the profit margins in this competitive arena are expected to shrink.

Answer: B
Explanation: The proposal involves releasing a new line of small, high-mileage, and hybrid vehicles, which don’t appear to have previously been the company’s strong suit. The argument assumes that releasing the new line will have the effect of increasing revenue without losing its current customer base. Consider each choice in turn:
(A) This choice suggests that the company has a lot of improvements to make, but it doesn’t tell us whether those improvements, as suggested by the consultants, would have the desired impact.
(B) This is correct. The survey (a “reliable” one, so we don’t have to worry about sampling issues) addresses the potential concern that the company would lose its previous customers, who were not customers of smaller or hybrid vehicles.
(C) This weakens the argument somewhat, suggesting that perhaps this car company’s sales lagged only because of industry-wide declines.
(D) This is irrelevant. The argument is concerned with revenue, not with costs.
(E) As with (D), this choice is not relevant to expanding “revenue” base. Profit margins consider both revenue and cost. In order for this choice to be correct, we would need to know that developing this type of vehicle would cause revenues to shrink, not just profits.

EnergyMill Company Advertisement:
An Environmental Impact Coalition report shows that wind power produces the fewest pollutants among all green energy alternatives. This shows that EnergyMill wind turbines are the best choice for powering new developments in rural areas.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument in the advertisement?
(A) An earlier Environmental Impact Coalition report showed that solar power produces fewer pollutants than does wind power.
(B) In the last five years, the government has invested more in wind power than in any other form of green energy.
(C) The dispersion of homes in rural areas makes wind power several times more expensive that conventional energy sources.
(D) The difference between the number of pollutants generated by wind power and conventional power sources is quite pronounced.
(E) The Environmental Impact Coalition issues reports only once a year.

Answer: C
Explanation: The shift from the first sentence to the second makes the assumption clear. The argument relies on the underlying claim that, because wind power produces the fewest pollutants, it is the best choice. More probably, there are other considerations. The correct choice will likely point out some other consideration that may outweigh the level of pollutants.
(A) A reference to an earlier (or different) report is almost always wrong; we have no way of comparing the validity of the two reports. Anyway, it doesn’t address the assumption.
(B) The level of government investment is similar to a separate report, as in (A). If anything, it strengthens the claims of wind power supporters, but to be a strengthener, we must assume that the government is making a valid choice.
(C) This is correct. This is a strong reason why wind power may not be the best choice for new rural areas.
(D) This is an irrelevant comparison. The evidence in the argument compares wind power to other green energy alternatives. If anything, this point strengthens the argument, but not very effectively.
(E) The frequency of reports has no effect whatsoever on the argument.
Marketing strategists at a major video retailer are discussing ways to increase revenues by boosting mid-week DVD rentals, which generally fall far below weekend rentals. One plan to accomplish this is to extend the return date for DVDs rented between Monday and Wednesday so that customers may keep them until Friday. Since more customers will return to the store on Fridays, they will be also be more likely to rent again for the weekend.
Which of the following, if true, would indicate the most serious weakness in the plan above?
(A) The number of clerks currently employed by the video retailer is not sufficient to handle a significant increase in business on Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday.
(B) Customers who are lured by extended return dates for mid-week DVD rentals are much less likely than the average customer to rent a DVD on Friday.
(C) Even if the video retailer increases its mid-week rentals, some customers will continue to rent only on Fridays.
(D) The video retailer currently offers two-day rentals, so the plan would not provide an additional inducement to rent DVDs on Wednesday.
(E) The video retailer would rent more DVDs by extending return dates on Friday and Saturday rentals than on Monday through Wednesday rentals.

Answer: B
Explanation: The plan’s goal is to increase revenues; the method of doing so is to increase mid-week DVD rentals. The plan appears to rest of two premises: Extended return dates will bring in more customers during the week, and those customers will rent again on Friday when they return their mid-week rentals. To attack the argument, we only need to attack one of those two claims. Consider each choice in turn:
(A) This isn’t relevant. If the plan is implemented, more clerks could be hired.
(B) This is correct. The argument rests on the claim that mid-week renters will rent again on Friday. This choice suggests that that is unlikely.
(C) This doesn’t matter. The argument is concerned with those who do rent during the week.
(D) This doesn’t directly weaken the argument, which relies on the inducement to renters on Monday and Tuesday, as well.
(E) This is outside the scope of the argument, which is limited to whether the plan under consideration would be effective, not whether it is the most effective possible plan.
Sajitha: Sales of Lodgewood’s specialty microbrew beers increased steadily from 2000 to 2002. The rise in sales was probably due in large part to the new label and ads developed by their advertising firm, which played up the microbrewery’s local history.
Kyle: There must be another explanation: The data you cite show the rise in sales started in early 2000. Yet the company’s new advertising campaign did not go into effect until September of that year.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the force of the objection that Kyle presents to Sajitha’s explanation?
(A) Beer buyers surveyed in 2001 cited the advertising campaign as the primary reason they became aware of Lodgewood’s offerings.
(B) A nationwide beer distributor stopped placing two other specialty microbrew brands in stores in 2000.
(C) Lodgewood’s new label was the main focus of its advertising campaign.
(D) Buyers of specialty microbrew beers are more likely than the average beer consumer to experiment with different brands and varieties of beers.
(E) Lodgewood’s new label appeared on their beer bottles in late 1999.

Answer: E
Explanation: This is a weaken question. Kyle’s argument addresses only half of Sajitha’s claim. She points out the effect of the new label and new ads. He responds only to the claim about the new ads, showing why the ads probably didn’t cause the first part of the increase in sales. An obvious weak point of his response, then, is that the new label may have had the effect Sajitha claimed it did. Consider each choice in turn:
(A) This doesn’t limit the effectiveness of Kyle’s claim, which points out that the ads wouldn’t have caused a sales increase in early 2000. 
(B) This choice suggests an external cause of the sales increase, but it isn’t strictly within the scope of Kyle and Sajitha’s dispute. A better choice would have to do with something Sajitha’s claim implied. 
(C) By focusing on the advertising campaign, this choice doesn’t affect the validity of Kyle’s response. 
(D) Experimentation may benefit or not benefit Lodgewood. Like (B), it’s an external cause to the dispute between Kyle and Sajitha. 
(E) This is correct. We’re looking for something having to do with the new label, and this choice gives us a reason why, in line with Sajitha’s claim, the data shows a rise starting in early 2000.

Company President: Last year, Broad Street Restaurant Suppliers switched from pen-and-paper order forms to an online process. Unexpectedly, this resulted in a decrease in orders placed by restaurants. Thus, it is likely that many restaurateurs lack the computer skills required by the online process and were more comfortable with the old forms.
Vice-President of Marketing: Not so. Statistics show a widespread decline in sales across the restaurant supply industry for last year.

Which of the following, if true, most undermines the Vice President of Marketing’s response?
(A) The decline in sales across the restaurant supply industry affected the segment of the market that represents the largest part of Broad Street’s business.
(B) The online process offered by Broad Street allows restaurateurs to better customize their purchases and specify more precise delivery schedules.
(C) Broad Street is known throughout the restaurant supply industry as a leader in customer service.
(D) Declines in sales across the restaurant supply industry usually stem from smaller average orders placed by each restaurant, but one-quarter of Broad Street’s previous customers placed no order at all last year.
(E) Many restaurant supply companies have switched from pen-and-paper order forms to an online process.

Answer: D
Explanation: This is a weaken question. The President’s claim is that switching to an online process caused a decline in sales because customers were unable to work with the online process. The VP’s response counters that the decline is industry-wide, and thus not attributable to specifics of their own company. We’re looking for a reason why the President’s claim may be correct. Consider each choice in turn:

(A) This choice directly strengthens the VP’s response by making the industry-wide decline even more specific to Broad Street. 
(B) The advantages o the online process are irrelevant, as the apparent problem with it is customers’ inability to work with it. 
(C) Broad Street’s reputation is irrelevant, as the dispute is whether a sales decrease was caused by a switch to an online order process or a widespread decline in sales. 
(D) This is correct. It points out something typically associated with the VP’s claim, and shows that something different occurred. Further, what actually happened–one-quarter of customers not ordering–is consistent with the President’s argument. 
(E) Whether some of Broad Street’s competition did the same thing that Broad Street did does not tell us whether an industry-wide decline was responsible for Broad Street’s lagging sales.
From an article in the Wall Street Chronicle: Sales statistics of major electronics manufacturers with sales in the United States show that 80% of consumer electronics (such as televisions, DVD players, and computers) sold in the U.S. last year were manufactured in China.
From an article in Consumer Results Magazine: The results from last year’s survey on consumer electronics choices show that while products made in China are still very popular, more and more Americans are buying products made in Japan, Germany, and the United States. These three countries combined account for 38% of products sold in the U.S. last year.

For both of the findings to be accurate, which of the following must be true?
(A) More Americans who do not purchase consumer electronics prefer goods produced in China to those produced elsewhere.
(B) Major electronics manufacturers do not limit their production plants to one country, often dividing different stages of manufacturing among plants around the world.
(C) Most consumer electronics purchased last year that were not manufactured in China were manufactured and sold in the United States.
(D) The average price of a Chinese-manufactured consumer electronics device is lower than that of a device manufactured elsewhere.
(E) Major electronics manufacturers sell a higher percentage of Chinese-produced consumer devices than do smaller manufacturers.

Answer: E
Explanation: This is an explanation/paradox question. From a quick reading, the two reports seem to claim that 80% of electronics were manufactured in China, and 38% of products were made in other places. Clearly that’s incorrect–there must be more to the story. The distinction is in the Wall Street Chronicle claim, which is limited to “major” electronics manufacturers. The second claim does not make that distinction. Thus, it would appear that, while 20% of products sold in the U.S. made by “major” electronics manufacturers did not come from Chinese manufacturers , a greater percent of products sold in the U.S. by non-major manufacturers did not come from China.
Think of it like a weighted average question. All manufacturers are either major or non-major. If 20% of the major company sales were non-China made and 38% of total sales were non-China made, then non-major sales must have been greater than 38% non-China made. Choice (E) is the only option consistent with that conclusion. If the products of non-major manufacturers are more than 38% non-China made, they must be much less than 80% made in China. Thus, (E) is correct.
Which of the following most logically completes the argument?
Researchers have developed a blood test to screen for early signs of prostate cancer. The test detects protein, prostate-specific antigen (PSA), that is produced by the prostate in greater amounts when cancer is present. Testing for PSA can detect prostate cancer in the earliest stages in men who show no symptoms, but the diagnosis must be confirmed by additional tests due to a high rate of false positives. Recently, however, the National Health Organization recommended against PSA screening of men over 75. This group would probably not benefit, since __________.

(A) many men over 75 have already been diagnosed with prostate cancer
(B) the additional tests required to confirm the diagnosis are especially taxing on men over 75
(C) even if early signs are present, men over 75 who display no symptoms of prostate cancer are unlikely ever to do so
(D) the fact that PSA is present in the body does not itself strongly suggest that prostate cancer is present
(E) testing for PSA, along with necessary follow-up tests, is very expensive, and many men over 75 do not have private health insurance

Answer: C
Explanation: Testing for PSA is beneficial because it diagnoses prostate cancer very early on, even before symptoms are present. Based on the structure of the last sentence, there must be some reason why PSA testing is not beneficial for men over 75. Consider each choice in turn:
This is irrelevant; presumably, men who already have prostate cancer would not be tested for early signs of prostate cancer.
It is not clear from this choice whether additional tests are so taxing that it isn’t worth identifying and possibly treating prostate cancer; one suspects the opposite is the case.
This is correct. Based on the passage, it would appear that if prostate cancer is diagnosed only by PSA testing, it is in a very early stage. It would likely take some time before it becomes symptomatic. If someone is unlikely to develop symptoms, there is no reason to test for, and possibly treat, the cancer.
This choice is not specific to men over 75; in fact, the false-positive rate is already mentioned in the passage.
Like (B), it isn’t clear that this drawback is enough to make testing not worthwhile. It also isn’t directly relevant to the claim that men over 75 “would probably not benefit”–they may well benefit, even if the test is very expensive.
Some large European cities, such as Paris and Barcelona, have implemented bicycle sharing programs that allow people, for a small fee, to obtain a bike at any of hundreds of locations and drop it off near their destination. Currently, most large U.S. cities face congestion with cars and taxis, have few bicycle lanes, and discourage the locking of bicycles to poles and fences. Therefore, until the culture of cities becomes less hostile to bicyclists, a wide scale program will not be a viable form of alternative transportation.
Which of the following would it be most useful to determine in evaluating the argument?
(A) Whether a sharp increase in the number of bicyclists in U.S. cities would change attitudes toward bicyclists
(B) Whether U.S. who drive cars know how to operate bicycles
(C) Whether major U.S. cities have plans to expand the availability of bicycle lanes in downtown areas
(D) Whether the number of people interested in traveling by bicycle is greater in U.S. than in Europe
(E) Whether small U.S. cities are friendlier to bicyclists than large U.S. cities

Answer: A
Explanation: This is an “evaluate the argument” question. In a sense, we’re looking for an assumption, just in a different format that in assumption questions. This argument claims that, because U.S. cities are not bicycle-friendly, U.S. cities cannot implement European-style bicycle sharing programs. Each choice has two possible outcomes (“whether” it is the case, or it is not the case), so we’re looking for a choice in which one of the outcomes would have an impact on the argument. Consider each in turn:
(A) This is correct. If an increase in the number of bicyclists could change attitudes toward bicyclists, a bicycle-sharing program may well solve the problem suggested in the argument. 
(B) This is not important; it doesn’t matter if people (car-drivers or not) can operate bicycles if cities are too hostile to bicyclists. 
(C) This is outside the scope. The problem described in the passage is not the lack of bicycle lanes, it is the culture of U.S. cities. 
(D) As with (B), this is not relevant, since it doesn’t address the issue of hostility to bicyclists. 
(E) This comparison is outside of the scope, as we’re concerned only with the viability of bicycle-sharing programs in large U.S. cities.
Driving under the influence is a more severe problem among college students at rural and suburban universities than at urban universities. Social scientists wanted to determine how much of the problem is due to the distance students must drive to obtain alcohol. They looked at police records for incidents involving students at a number of universities, and compared those with the mean distances between student housing and bars and liquor stores. The longer the distances, the more likely students were to be arrested or involved in accidents.
Which of the following, if true, would it be most important to take into account in evaluating the result?
(A) Many college students do not purchase alcohol at bars or liquor stores.
(B) Students at rural, suburban, and urban universities are arrested for driving under the influence more frequently than are non-student members of their communities.
(C) The average enrollment at urban universities is greater than that at rural and suburban universities.
(D) Local sheriff’s departments near rural and suburban universities devote more resources to identifying and arresting those driving under the influence than do urban police forces.
(E) The number of bars and liquor stores per square mile is nearly five times as high in urban areas as it is in rural and suburban areas.

Answer: D
Explanation: Each one is simply a statement; it doesn’t begin with “Whether.” The argument hinges on the difference between students at rural and suburban schools and those at urban schools. The result mentioned in the question is that the difference between those two groups of students, in terms of driving under the influence, is explained by the distances between housing and sources of liquor. We’re looking for a choice that would either strengthen or weaken that claim. Consider each choice in turn:
(A) If we knew that “all” students didn’t purchase alcohol from these sources, this might cast some doubt on the claim, but “many” leaves an awful lot to be desired. It doesn’t directly affect the argument. 
(B) This is a different comparison–students vs. non-students. We need a choice that focuses on the comparison drawn in the passage. 
(C) Enrollment doesn’t matter, since the argument is phrased in terms of likelihood that a certain student would drive under the influence, not the absolute number of students. 
(D) This is correct. The conclusion was drawn based on police records. If this choice is true, students driving under the influence near rural and suburban universities are more likely to be caught doing so (and thus appear in police records) than their counterparts at urban universities. 
(E) The density of bars and liquor stores doesn’t matter; it doesn’t address the distance traveled, or amount driven under the influence, of the students in these areas.
Economist: The law of demand predicts that as the price of a good goes down, demand for that good will increase, and vice-versa. In a recent experiment, economists gave coupons for rice to families in a province of China, where it is a staple food. The coupons effectively lowered the cost of rice, and should have led the families to buy more of it. Instead, households given the coupons purchased less rice than a control group who did not receive coupons.
Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain the amount of rice purchased by families who received coupons?
(A) Chinese families spend an unusually high proportion of their income on rice.
(B) The prices of staple goods, including foodstuffs such as rice, do not fluctuate as much as those of non-necessary goods, such as consumer electronics.
(C) In the months before and after the experiment, the average per-family consumption of rice in the Chinese province steadily decreased.
(D) Many of the families given coupons discovered that they could sell the coupons on the black market.
(E) The availability of the coupons meant that families had more money to spend on other things, including more expensive substitutes for rice.

Answer: E
Explanation: The apparent paradox is that, while the price of rice effectively declined, rice consumption also declined. Consider each choice in turn, looking for a reason why this might occur:
(A) This doesn’t tell us anything about the effect of the coupons. 
(B) The amount of fluctuation is outside the scope; we’re concerned with the effect of lowering the price of rice. 
(C) That the average consumption of rice declined is not important; the study described in the passage included a control group, to which the households given coupons were compared. 
(D) This choice suggests that some families did not purchase rice with their coupons; however, this doesn’t explain why they would also purchase less rice. 
(E) This is correct. If these families had money to purchase preferable rice substitutes, they may have increased or kept constant their consumption of rice and rice substitutes, but shifted some of their consumption from rice to substitutes because of the coupons.
Demographic experts predict that the global human population will reach its peak sometime in the middle of this century, after which it will begin to decline. Population growth is driven primarily by high birth rates in developing countries. It is known that when women have access to education and economic opportunities, they choose to have fewer children. Therefore, these experts propose expanding educational and economic opportunities to women in developing countries to bring about an earlier and smaller population peak.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest grounds to doubt that the experts’ proposal, if adopted, will achieve its aim?
(A) The demographic experts proposing expanding opportunities for women in developing countries made the same recommendations over twenty years ago.
(B) The experts’ prediction is based on realistic assessments of the educational and economic opportunities that can be made available to women in developing countries before that time.
(C) Many women in industrialized countries will continue to have four or more children despite access to a variety of educational and economic opportunities.
(D) The demographic experts fail to explain why an earlier and smaller population peak is preferable to a later and larger peak.
(E) Expanding opportunities to women in developing countries is generally considered a positive outcome regardless of its impact on population levels.

Answer: B
Explanation: This is a weaken question. The experts’ proposal involves expanding opportunities for women so that affected women will have fewer children, thus limiting the size of the population peak that the same experts have predicted. We’re looking for a choice that suggests that the proposal will not limit the size of the peak or cause it to occur earlier. Consider each one:
(A) This is irrelevant. If the proposal 20 years ago was not followed (and we don’t know whether it was or not) the fact that it was made doesn’t tell us whether it would be effective or not today. 
(B) This is correct. The proposal is based on the assumption that greater opportunities could be arranged for women in developing countries. If the maximum possible opportunities are already present, and have been built into the prediction, the proposal will not bring about any changes in the population peak. 
(C) The argument is concerned primarily with developing countries, not industrialized countries. 
(D) It doesn’t matter whether the goal is desirable; the question is concerned with whether the goal will be attained. 
(E) This is outside of the scope. It may be true, but it doesn’t bear on whether the proposal will have the desired effect.
City Council: Cities may issue municipal bonds to fund public projects. Because the interest paid to the bond holder is tax-exempt, municipal bonds are an attractive investment. So, to pay for the five state-of-the-art school buildings needed to accommodate our growing student population, Northopolis should issue a ten-year, $200 million bond, thereby paying for the buildings with revenues from an expanding tax base.
Which of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubt on the likelihood that the bond issue recommended above will have the result that is claimed?
(A) Most Northopolis citizens would be reluctant to support a tax increase to pay for new school buildings.
(B) Because municipal bond interest is tax-exempt, bond issues can severely affect a city’s tax revenues for the life of the bond, despite the short-term benefits.
(C) Many popular investments are created by pooling state and municipal bonds to create tax-exempt index funds.
(D) Estimates of the cost of five new school buildings vary from well below $200 million to well above $200 million.
(E) A significant percentage of municipal bonds issued by cities such as Northopolis are purchased by investors from other cities who aim to diversify their bond portfolios.

Answer: B
Explanation: This is a weaken question. The argument makes a rather odd claim. Much of the passage concerns the benefits of municipal bonds, including a suggesting that Northopolis issue such a bond. Then the conclusion is that the city will pay for new school buildings with tax revenues. Money from bond issues is not the same thing, so it’s unclear what one has to do with the other. To weaken the argument, that distinction–the assumption that issuing a bond will somehow increase tax revenues–must be made clear. Consider each choice:
(A) This is irrelevant, as it doesn’t address either the bond issue or the effect of “reluctance” on tax revenues. 
(B) This is correct. It relates the existence of the proposed bond issue to tax revenues, which would decrease as a result of the bond issue. 
(C) This is irrelevant, as it doesn’t address tax revenues. 
(D) Again, this choice is irrelevant; the cost of the buildings is not what the conclusion of the argument is about. 
(E) This is outside of the scope. If anything, it weakens the argument by suggesting that the bond issue will not have a direct impact on local finances.
For years, anthropologists have viewed as the inevitable result of contact between cultures, the domination and replacement of one culture by another. This scenario was thought to have occurred when Egypt conquered its southern neighbor, Nubia, in 150 B.C. However, a recent study of a burial site of high-ranking Egyptians in Nubia reveals that some were buried according to Egyptian tradition, and other were buried according to Nubian custom. This finding indicates that members of both cultures may share in the ruling of a conquered region.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the argument?
(A) The burial site also housed the remains of several visitors from nations other than Egypt and Nubia, and most of those visitors were buried according to Egyptian tradition.
(B) Nubians who were buried in Egypt during the same period were buried according to Egyptian tradition.
(C) The burial site was not used as the resting place of Egyptians until 25 years after Egypt conquered Nubia.
(D) More than three-quarters of the people interred at the burial site are thought to have been Nubians.
(E) After Egypt conquered Nubia, few Egyptians other than colonial personnel relocated to Nubia.

Answer: C
Explanation: This is a strengthen question. The argument claims that, because of the evidence in a burial site, both the conquering Egyptians and the conquered Nubians shared in the ruling of Nubia. The argument assumes that all of the evidence from the burial site stems from an era after Egypt conquered Nubia. If some of the evidence predated that time, the fact that some people were buried according to Nubian tradition would not say anything about who ruled the region after Egypt took over. Consider each choice, looking for one that strengthens that assumption:
(A) This choice doesn’t have to do with the burial of Egyptians or Nubians, so it is outside of the scope. 
(B) This choice is also outside of scope, as it has to do with burials in Egypt, where the local culture and the ruling culture were (as far as we know from the passage) the same. 
(C) This is correct. This confirms the assumption that the evidence from the burial site pertains to the period after Egypt took over, solidifying the claim that Nubians had some control over burial practices even after the area was conquered. 
(D) The number of people buried at the site is unimportant; the focus is on the burial practices used. 
(E) Given the reference in the passage to “high-ranking Egyptians,” it seems likely that the argument refers mainly to colonial officials. Thus, the claim that few others moved to Nubia is not relevant to the argument.
Geologist: The element tantalum, which originates as a mineral ore known as coltan, is used as a capacitor in computers and cell phones. Most tantalum is exported by Canada, China, South America, and Australia. However, a small percentage of the world supply comes from poorly governed or conflict-torn regions of Africa and is mined using objectionable practices such as child labor. A group of scientists has begun working on a method that I believe will be able to detect chemical signatures that can distinguish tantalum samples according to their location of origin. Their technique needs to be further developed into a standardized and widely reproducible method of testing. If such testing becomes standard use among manufacturers and suppliers, it would allow companies and consumers a way to sanction human rights abuses through the marketplace.

In the geologist’s argument, the two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?
(A) The first presents a circumstance for which the geologist offers an explanation; the second is part of that explanation.
(B) The first acknowledges a consideration that weighs against the conclusion of the argument; the second is that conclusion.
(C) The first acknowledges a consideration that weighs against the conclusion of the argument; the second provides evidence in support of that conclusion.
(D) The first provides evidence in support of the conclusion of the argument; the second acknowledges a consideration that weighs against that conclusion.
(E) The first is a judgment advanced in support of the conclusion of the argument; the second is that conclusion.

Answer: E
Explanation: This is a boldface question. Read carefully for the structure of the argument. The first bolded statement is a claim made by the geologist. The second is the conclusion of the argument, which relies on that claim in the first bolded statement. You’ll rarely be able to predict the exact words used in the answer choices, but once you’ve figured out how the bold statements function, you should be able to identify a choice that matches reasonably well. In this case, choice (E) is correct. Only (B) and (E) refer to the second statement as a conclusion; (B) mistakenly refers to the first statement as something weighing against the conclusion.

Since the 1950s, jets have steadily replaced smaller propeller planes as the preferred method of transportation within the island nation of Kawaii. Jets are quieter and more comfortable for passengers, and can fly faster and higher. The fuel efficiency of jets has steadily improved as much as 70% since the 1950s, and travel at cruising altitude is especially efficient, as motion relies mainly on aerodynamics. However, turboprop planes are now enjoying resurgence in Kawaii, replacing jets for short trips between the islands.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain why turboprop planes are enjoying resurgence in Kawaii?
(A) Because trips within Kawaii are relatively short, planes spend little time at cruising altitude.
(B) As jets have become more popular, their increased price has erased the financial advantages of their fuel efficiency.
(C) Turboprop planes have also enjoyed resurgence in other island nations, especially those with extreme climates.
(D) Many of the independent airlines that once served Kawaii have been purchased by larger multinational airlines.
(E) Due to Kawaii’s remote location, jet fuel is more expensive there than in most other parts of the world.

Answer: B
Explanation: This is an explanation question. The passage describes the various benefits of jets–their fuel efficiency, comfort, and ability to fly higher and faster than smaller planes–but then notes that turboprop planes are enjoying resurgence. We’re looking for a choice that resolves the apparent paradox.
(A) This choice addresses one of the benefits of jet travel, but it doesn’t suggest why turboprop planes have overtaken jets despite the other clear advantages. 
(B) This is correct. While it acknowledges the benefits of jet travel, it relates their very popularity with an increasing price that makes other alternatives more attractive. 
(C) This is a common form of incorrect choice. Just because the same phenomenon is observed elsewhere does not explain why it is occurring as described in the passage. 
(D) This is off-topic. It doesn’t matter who owns the planes. We’re looking for a choice that explains why jets are losing popularity despite several benefits. 
(E) This choice suggests one cost of travel by jet, but it doesn’t suggest that turboprop planes escape the same fate, nor does it confirm that the increase in cost is enough to offset the benefits of jet operation and travel.
A product’s design can be more valuable than the product itself. With the advent of the personal computer in the 1970s, the computer-manufacturing sector, an industry then dominated by those giants able to afford incredibly specialized knowledge and to produce equally expensive products, suddenly found its brightest lights shining in the garages of clever engineers. 

Based on the information given above, which of the following was an advantage possessed by large computer manufacturers prior to the emergence of small computer-makers? 

A. Their ability to produce expensive products 
B. The substantial resources at their disposal 
C. Their ability to adapt quickly to changes in the computer industry 
D. The high quality computers they were able to produce 
E. Their development of the earliest personal computer prototypes
Answer: B
Explanation: an industry then dominated by those giants able to afford incredibly specialized knowledge and to produce equally expensive products

United Energy recently invested in a series of large windmills which are able to produce renewable energy with minimal negative effect to the environment. The company has not drilled oil wells in the same area, even though greater revenues and profits could be generated from oil wells. Because any drilling would disrupt the native habitat of certain marine species in the area, some environmentalists assert that, by foregoing this drilling, United Energy has established that it places environmental impact over financial returns. However, United Energy may be acting in a manner consistent with its financial goals. Recent patterns of increasing annual hurricane activity have some experts questioning the long-term viability and profitability of oil wells in the area. 

The two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles? 
A. The first supports the conclusion of the argument; the second calls that conclusion into question. 
B. The first states the conclusion of the argument; the second supports that conclusion. 
C. The first supports the environmentalists’ conclusion; the second states that conclusion. 
D. The first states the environmentalists’ conclusion; the second provides a consideration in support of that conclusion. 
E. The first supports the conclusion of the argument; the second also supports the conclusion of the argument.

Answer: C

In Patton City, days are categorized as having heavy rainfall (more than two inches), moderate rainfall (more than one inch, but no more than two inches), light rainfall (at least a trace, but no more than one inch), or no rainfall. In 1990, there were fewer days with light rainfall than in 1910 and fewer with moderate rainfall, yet total rainfall for the year was 20 percent higher in 1990 than in 1910.

If the statements above are true, then it is also possible that in Patton City 
A. the number of days with heavy rainfall was lower in 1990 than in 1910 
B. the number of days with some rainfall, but no more than two inches, was the same in 1990 as in 1910 
C. the number of days with some rainfall, but no more than two inches, was higher in 1990 than in 1910 
D. the total number of inches of rain that fell on days with moderate rainfall in 1990 was more than twice what it had been in 1910 
E. the average amount of rainfall per month was lower in 1990 than in 1910

Answer: A
Explanation: There are four kinds of days: 
1) days with no rainfall; 
2) days with light rainfall, which is more than zero up to (and including) one inch; 
3) days with moderate rainfall, which is more than one and up to (and including) two inches; and 
4) days with heavy rainfall, which is anything more than two inches. 

In 1990, there were fewer days with light and moderate rainfall than in 1910. Also, in 1990, there was more total rainfall. This does not necessarily mean that there were more heavy rainfall days in 1990. Remember, we’re talking ranges here. All of the light days in 1910 could have been close to zero while all of the light days in 1990 could have been closer to one. So, the excess rain in 1990 could be due either to more heavily rainy days or else the light and moderate days being more “rainy” than they were in 1910.

Therefore, choice A could be true or is possible (matches the above deduction). Because we’ve found a match to our prediction, and because there can be only one credited response, we are done. Seriously, you are better off taking an extra moment confirming that this could be true, then trying to prove that the other four choices must be false (or impossible). You don’t get rewarded for figuring four reasons why four wrong answers are wrong. (Steps 3 and 4 are predict and match). 

But let’s look at the other choices: 
B. these are the days with light and moderate rainfall. There were more of these days in 1910 than in 1990. Therefore, this must be false (impossible). 
C. This choice must be false for the same reason that choice B must be false. 
D. This is mathematically impossible. We know there are fewer moderately rainy days in 1990 than in 1910, and the range is less than one inch. Even if we were to maximize moderate rainy days in 1990 and minimize in 1910, and minimize rain per moderately rainy day in 1910 while maximizing rain per moderately rainy day in 1990, this is still impossible. For example, let’s say there are 11 moderately rainy days in 1910 with 1.1 inch per day, and 10 moderately rainy days in 1990 with 1.9 inches per day. Then we would have 111.1 = 12.1 inches of rainfall on moderately rainy days in 1910 while we would have 101.9 = 19 inches of rainfall on moderately rainy days in 1990. It is impossible that the rainfall on moderately rainy days in 1990 is more than twice as great as the amount of rain that fell on moderately rainy days in 1910. 
(But see how long that took to figure out? Honestly, process of elimination is not efficient). 

Finally, choice E: 
E. because the total amount of rain in 1990 was greater than it was in 1910, then the average rainfall per month will also be greater. For example, if total rainfall in 1910 was 100 and in 1990 was 120 (20% greater), then obviously 120/12 is greater than 100/12. Therefore, this choice also must be false (impossible). 
Choose A.

David is a 26 years old, very successful entrepreneur and he argues that money and time invested in acquiring a degree in management administration are totally wasted. As evidence supporting his view, he recounts the story of his brother who, at considerable expense of money and time, completed his MBA at a top tier business school and then married an heiress and abandoned a promising career to stay at home and care for their children. 

David makes the unsupported assumption that: 
A) what was unacceptable to the previous generation has no hope of being embraced today. 
B) Marriage with children cannot be as fulfilling as lifelong bachelorhood. 
C) Professional success is a function of the quality of one’s formal education. 
D) An education in management administration is useful only in pursuing career related activities. 
E) A MBA lost its prestige and weight it once carried in the world of business.

Answer: D
Explanation: David is not making an argument about the “prestige and weight of an MBA.” Instead, he is making an argument about how useful it is: “David…argues that…that money and time invested in acquiring a degree in management administration are totally wasted.” 

While prestige and weight may be related ideas to usefulness, they are different from usefulness. As such, choice E is (slightly) outside the scope of the argument. Because it is outside the scope, it can’t be the case that his argument depends on assuming it. 

Why is D right? 
Well David supports his conclusion (that MBA is a waste or not useful), by offering up the example of his brother, who got an MBA but then did not use it in a professional or work-related capacity. 

So, he is assuming that the ONLY WAY an MBA can be useful (not a waste) is if it were used to pursue a career. While this is a reasonable assumption, it is still an assumption (the fact that it is a reasonable assumption makes it harder to identify).

Panda corp is a large is a large American manufacturer of children clothing that has recently undertaken sharp measures to remain competitive in today’s global market. In response to offshore pricing pressure, Panda corp laid off over 500 employees, reducing operational expenses by 18%. Since clothing manufacturers realize a one percentage point of increase in sales margins for every percentage point decrease in operational costs, the board of directors is satisfied that these measures will ensure panda corp long term sustainability. 

Which, if true, most weakens the board stance? 
A) a panda corp main competitor is also an American manufacturer. 
B) Panda corp main competitor is based in China. 
C) The largest manufacturer of children clothes in China has just reduced its operational costs by 15% 
D) US consumers do not want to buy clothes manufactured offshore. 
E) A large US manufacturer of children clothes plans to relocate its business to China.

Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is definitely C. Choice D is definitely incorrect. As usual on the GMAT, there is one and only one correct answer (it is not an issue of which answer is “better” than another). This is because if there wasn’t a categorical distinction between the correct answer and the four incorrect ones, then the test would lose its’ meaning, and would no longer be an objective way of testing test-takers’ ability. 

When working on arguments, it is important to understand the conclusion and evidence precisely. Ask yourself what the evidence establishes (the evidence is always “given” to the author). Then ask yourself what the

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