Criminal Practice Flashcards

1
Q

explain the custody officers role in the arrest of a suspect

A

a suspect should be put before the custody officer ‘as soon as is practicable’

  1. custody officer responsible for maintaining a custody record for each suspect which contains:
    - suspects name, address, telephone number, dob and occupation
    - the offence + why the arresting officer thought to arrest
    - time of arrest and time of arrival at police station
    - the reason why the suspect’s ongoing detention at the police station has been authorised by the custody officer
    - the time such detention was authorised
    - confirmation that the suspect has been given details of the rights they may exercise whilst detained at the police station, and whether they have requested legal advice
    from a solicitor
    - record of the suspect’s belongings + any medical conditions
  2. detention log
    all significant events which happen when the suspect is in detention
  3. the custody officer must inform the suspect of their ongoing rights
  4. authorise a search of the detained person to the extent the officer considers necessary to ascertain what items the suspect has on their person
  5. seize and retain any items the suspect has on their person
    - only if the custody officer has reasonable grounds for believing that they may be evidence
    - or the custody officer believes they may be used to:
    (a) to cause physical injury to themself or others;
    (b) to cause damage to property;
    (c) to interfere with evidence; or
    (d) to assist them to escape
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2
Q

Looking at the decision to detain a suspect…

After opening the custody record and informing the suspect of their rights,
the custody officer must determine whether there is already ‘sufficient evidence’ to charge the suspect with the offence for which they have been arrested.

How would the custody officer go about doing this?

A
  • will ask the investigating officer – usually in the presence of the suspect – for details of
    the evidence that already exists against the suspect (any comments made by the suspect during this should be noted down)
  • if not = what steps the officer proposes to
    take if the further detention, before charge, of the suspect is authorised (usually an investigative procedure i.e. a recorded interview)
  • the custody officer should not put any questions to the arrested person about their suspected involvement in any offence

unusual for there to be sufficient evidence to charge a suspect at such an early stage but if there is:
- suspect should be charged straight away
and either
- released on bail or
- appear before a mags court at a later date
- or remanded in police custody until the case can be brought before the mags

-

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3
Q

if there is not ‘sufficient evidence’ to charge the suspect immediately, the suspect should be released either on bail or without bail, but not in what circumstances?

A

(a) the custody officer has reasonable grounds for believing that detaining the suspect without charge is necessary to secure or preserve evidence relating to an offence for which they are under arrest
(e.g where the police want to search the suspect’s premises or are still looking for evidence)

or

(b) it is necessary to obtain such evidence by questioning

can choose to detain on both grounds - not mutually exclusive

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4
Q

how often should suspects be visited in their cells whilst in detention

A

at least every hour

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5
Q

Before the custody officer decides whether or not the suspect will be detained before charge, the suspect must first be informed about their ongoing rights which may be exercised at any time whilst the suspect is in custody. What are they?

A

(a) the right to have someone informed of the suspect’s arrest
(b) the right for the suspect to consult privately with a solicitor (the suspect must be told that free, independent legal advice is available) and
(c) the right to consult the Codes of Practice

+ the suspect has the right to be informed about the offence (and any subsequent offences they may be charged with whilst in custody) and why they have been arrested and detained

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6
Q

what must the police do if the suspect states they would like to speak with a solicitor?

A

contact Defence Solicitor Call Centre (DSCC) (even if the suspect wants a specific firm/person)

free telephone advice through Criminal Defence Direct (CDD)

if in person required - either duty sol or suspect’s chosen sol

police officers/staff shouldnt try to dissuade the suspect from obtaining legal advice

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7
Q

in which circumstances can a suspect’s right to legal advice be delayed

which case?

A
  • must be authorised by an officer
    of at least the rank of superintendent
  • only indictable offences
  • max length of delay 36 hours
  • auth can be given orally but must be put in writing as soon as is practicable

delay can only be authorised where the officer has reasonable grounds to believe by exercising their right to legal advice it will:

(a) lead to interference with or harm to evidence connected with an indictable offence, or interference with or physical injury to other persons; or

(b) lead to the alerting of other persons suspected of having committed such an offence but not yet arrested for it; or

(c) hinder the recovery of any property obtained as a result of such an offence (s 58(8)).

R v Samuel - guidelines on power to delay this right

subjective belief that consultation with a legal adviser will result in one of the above three conditions happening and that this ‘will very probably happen’

In other words, that the legal adviser will either deliberately do this or do so
inadvertently.

very rare and that further, the belief must
be towards a particular legal adviser

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8
Q

in what circumstances may the police delay a suspect’s right to have someone informed of their arrest?

A
  • at least inspector rank
  • indictable offences
  • max 36hrs delay from ‘relevant time’
  • authorisation may be given orally but should be put in writing as soon as is practicable

same reasons for delay as with power to delay right to legal advice

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9
Q

Explain the detention time limits and reviews of detention under PACE 1984, Code C

this is prior to charge

A

two different clocks:

  1. The initial maximum period of detention before charge (the ‘detention clock’)
    - 24hrs from relevant time
    - the relevant time is determined as follows:
    - voluntarily at police station = time of arrest
    - to answer ‘street bail’ = time of arrival at station
    - arrested away from the police station = arrives at the first police station (but some exceptions)
  2. Detention reviews (the ‘review clock’)
    - to ensure that the grounds on which the detention was initially authorised by the custody officer are still applicable
    - mandatory and if not done, any detention after that time = false imprisonment
    - review officer = at least inspector and not directly involved in the investigation
    - first review = no later than six hours after the custody officer first authorised
    the detention of the suspect
    - second review = no later than nine hours after the first review
    - subsequent reviews = intervals of not more than nine hours
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10
Q

Can the police extend the maximum period of detention? (before charge)

A
  • max 36 hrs (additional 12 hrs from original 24 granted from relevant time)
  • superintendent or above must have reasonable grounds to believe that:

(a) the detention of the suspect without charge is necessary to secure or preserve evidence relating to an offence for which the suspect is under arrest, or to obtain such evidence by questioning them;

(b) the offence is an indictable offence (ie an either- way or an indictable- only offence); and

(c) the investigation is being carried out diligently and expeditiously.

FURTHER EXTENSIONS:
- mags can provide for additional time as they think fit but max of additional 36hrs on top of existing 36hrs (72 total)
- must have reasonable grounds for believing further detention is justified on the grounds:
(a) the suspect’s detention without charge is necessary to secure or preserve evidence
relating to an offence for which they are under arrest, or to obtain such evidence by
questioning them; and
(b) the investigation is being conducted diligently and expeditiously

additional app to mags if above are satisfied and there are reasonable grounds for justifying further detention:
‘shall be for any period as the court thinks fit’ but cannot:
(a) be longer than 36 hours; or
(b) end later than 96 hours (ie four days) after the ‘relevant time’.

max = 4 days total

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11
Q

what are the main information sources for a solicitor attending a police station?

just list them

A
  1. The custody officer (and the custody record)
  2. The investigating officer
  3. The client.
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12
Q

what information can the sol obtain from the custody officer?

A
  • can provide basic info to sol
  • allow sol to look at custody record and detention log
  • the sol can ask:
    (a) the alleged offence(s) for which the client has been arrested;
    (b) the time at which the custody officer authorised the client’s detention and the reason such authorisation was given
    (c) any significant comments made by the client whilst at the police station
    (d) any samples, fingerprints or impressions of footwear which may already have been taken from the client;
    (e) any identification procedure which may already have taken place
    (f) any interview which may already have taken place at the police station
    (g) whether the client is under any form of physical or mental disability, or requires the
    attendance of an appropriate adult;
    (h) any illness which the client may be suffering from, or any indication that the client is in any way vulnerable or requires medical treatment (or details of any medical treatment which the client has already received whilst at the police station).
    (i) any significant items found as a result of a search either of the client’s person, or of
    any premises owned, used or occupied by the client or premises where the client was
    arrested
    (j) if the client has already been at the police station for six hours or more, details of any
    detention reviews which have been carried out and the reason why the client’s continued detention has been authorised
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13
Q

what information is a sol looking to obtain from an investigating officer

A

(a) disclosure (the facts of the offence and the evidence supporting those facts)
- investigating officer not obliged to but usually does give some details regarding evidence they have e.g. witness statements
- the sol should push to get as much info as they can
- no obligation for disclosure of details at a time which might prejudice the criminal investigation
- record should be made of the investigating officer about what information has been disclosed

(b) significant statements and/ or silence; and

(c) the next steps the investigation officer proposes to take
- the sol’s identity and role (no connection to the police - their role is to advance the client’s rights)
- the offence + its accompanying substantive law (what will the police need to prove)
- client’s version of events / their instructions
- next steps (usually audibly recorded interview)
- prepare the client for interview

Lord Chief Justice recommendation to make a note of any advice given to the suspect and their instructions in the initial meeting

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14
Q

how should a sol prepare their client for a police interview

A

(i) advising the client on whether or not to answer questions put to them in the interview (‘safest option’)
(ii) preparing a written statement on the client’s behalf if the client is to give a ‘no
comment’ interview, but hand the statement to the police so that their defence is put ‘on record’
(iii) advising the client how the interview will be conducted by the police
(iv) advising the client what role the solicitor will play in the interview .

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15
Q

what are the advantages of answering all the questions in a police interview?

what is one of the key disadvantages?

A
  • may be helpful where they want to use a specific defence which imposes an evidential burden on them
  • if come across well police may choose not to charge
  • even if charged the credibility of their evidence at trial will be boosted if it can be shown that the client placed their defence on record at the earliest opportunity
  • likely to ensure that at trial the court or
    jury will not be allowed to draw adverse inferences against them under CJPOA
  • if suspect admits guilt but has no previous convictions or cautions, the police may choose just to caution
  • admission can be used to mitigate sentencing

disadv = may lead to the suspect making an attack on someone else’s character - if the suspect is subsequently prosecuted this may enable the CPS to raise in evidence at trial any previous convictions the client may have

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16
Q

what is the main disadvantage of giving a silent interview?

A

if silent interview and later enter into a not guilty plea, the mags or jury may be able to draw adverse inferences i.e if they fail to discuss a defence they later wish to rely on

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17
Q

a sol may advise their client to give a no comment interview where the client has admitted guilt. in what other circumstances might a no comment interview be advised?

(dont include obvious answers)

A
  1. police have not provided adequate disclosure of the evidence they have obtained against the client (so the sol is unable to properly advise the client on the strength of the police’s case against them)
  2. where there is a risk the police are withholding evidence with a view of ambushing the suspect in the interview
  3. the client is denying involvement and the police do not have enough evidence to charge
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18
Q

what must a sol do if their client decides to give a no comment interview

A

explain the risk of adverse inferences

make a note of their advice

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19
Q

what 4 options does a suspect have during a police interview before charge?

A
  1. answer all Qs
  2. no comment / silent interview
  3. selective silence - bad idea
  4. written statement
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20
Q

a client decides to prepare a written statement which will be handed to the police.

why might a written statement be used?

what should it contain?

A
  • handed to the police either during the interview or after but before the suspect is charged + no comment interview
  • can be before but may provide them with some additional info
  • may choose to withhold in case the police don’t have enough evidence to charge
  • avoid adverse inferences but the sol is concerned the client might perform badly in interview
  • drafted by a sol but in the clients own words
  • sets out all the facts they may later wish to rely on in court
  • should say no more than is necessary to prevent the drawing of adverse inferences at trial
  • statement may need updating if the police make further disclosure of their case

in some circumstances the sol may just keep it on the file. may have doubts as to its contents but may try to use it later to show to the court that they havent just made up a defence - wont however stop the court from drawing adverse inferences (the thinking being they werent confident enough in their story at the time)

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21
Q

interviews that take place at a police station must comply with…

A
  • Codes C + E
  • audibly recorded interview
  • must be recorded
  • if on tape/disc = 2/3 (1 sealed in the presence of the suspect and only re opened at trial if there is dispute over what was said, 1 is a working copy for the sol + sometimes extra one for the suspect)
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21
Q

The steps that an investigating officer can take to secure, preserve or obtain evidence whilst the suspect is detained at the police station will involve one or more of the following…

A
  1. audibly recorded interview
  2. identification procedure carried out by another officer to see if a victim/witness can identify the suspect
  3. taking fingerprints to see if they match those found at the scene or on a weapon
  4. taking samples to see if they match
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22
Q

which suspects should not take part in an audible interview at the police station?

A

suspects who:
(a) appreciate the significance of questions or their answers; or
(b) understand what is happening because of the effects of drink, drugs, or any illness,
ailment or condition, should not generally be interviewed (although there are some
limited exceptions to this in cases where an interview needs to be held as a matter of
urgency).

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23
Q

can a suspect take part in an interview at the police station before they have received legal advice?

A
  • a suspect who requires legal advice should not be interviewed until they have received it
  • if a suspect states they do not want legal advice but during the interview changes the mind = interview must be stopped and advice obtained

EXCEPTIONS
1. police can delay legal advice up to 36hrs
2. if the sol requested from the suspect cannot be contacted or declined to assist and then the suspect has declined the assistance of the duty solicitor
3. if the suspect wants legal advice and then changes their mind the police can interview without legal advice provided:
i ) an officer of inspector or above enquires about the reasons for the change of mind + informs the sol of this decision/reasons
ii) the suspect’s reason for the change of mind and the outcome of the efforts to contact the solicitor are recorded in the custody record
iii) the suspect after being informed of the outcome in (i) confirm in writing they want to proceed without a sol (put an entry to the custody record)
iv) an officer of the rank of inspector or above is satisfied that it is proper for the
interview to proceed in these circumstances and gives authority in writing for the
interview to proceed + put the authority in writing
v) when the interview starts, the interviewer reminds the suspect of their right to legal advice + :
- confirmation the detainee has changed their mind
- authority for the interview to proceed has been given
- that if the solicitor arrives at the station before the interview is completed, the
detainee will be so informed without delay, and a break will be taken to allow
them to speak to the solicitor if they wish UNLESS

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24
Q

what should the interviewing police officer say at the start of an interview?

A
  1. caution
  2. reminder the suspect is entitled to free, independent legal advice (even if they are will the sol)
  3. read out any significant statements/silences and ask the suspect if they confirm/deny or would like to add anything

NOTE (failure to put a significant statement/silent to a suspect in interview may result in the contents of that statement or the nature of that silence being ruled inadmissible at trial)

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25
Q

what is a significant silence?

A

is a failure or refusal to answer a question or to answer satisfactorily when under caution, which might allow the court to draw adverse inferences from that silence at trial

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26
Q

how must an interview be conducted?

when must an interview cease?

A

‘No interviewer may try to obtain answers or elicit a statement by the use of oppression’.

‘no interviewer shall indicate, except to answer a direct question, what action will be taken by the police if the person being questioned answers questions, makes a statement or refuses to do either’

must cease when officer in charge of the investigation is satisfied all the questions they consider relevant to obtaining accurate and reliable information about the offence have been put to the suspect

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27
Q

If interviews with a suspect take place over more than one day, in any period of 24 hours, what must the suspect have?

A

a continuous period of at least 8 hours for rest

must be free from questioning + any other interruption in connection with the offence

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28
Q

when should breaks be taken in an interview?

A

breaks should take place at recognised mealtimes

short refreshment breaks should be taken at approximately 2-hour intervals

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29
Q

a solicitor may be able to intervene in an interview in what circumstances

A

(i) the questioning techniques employed by the police are inappropriate or improper;
(ii) the police are behaving in an inappropriate manner; or
(iii) the client would benefit from further (private) legal advice.

some non-exhaustive examples:

  • The solicitor is unhappy about the seating arrangements for the interview.
  • The police are asking inappropriate questions because they are:

∘ irrelevant questions
∘ making a statement/ asserting facts
∘ misrepresenting the law
∘ misrepresenting the strength of the case against the client
∘ ‘upgrading’ a response from the client/ putting words in the client’s mouth/ making
assumptions
∘ hypothetical/ speculative questions.

  • There is reference to a client’s previous convictions.
  • New information is introduced that was not disclosed earlier.
  • The police ask the client if they would be prepared to take part in further investigative procedures before the solicitor has been able to give the client advice on this.
  • The solicitor is concerned about the client’s behaviour or conduct.
  • The client is making comments that may have adverse consequences later in the case.
  • The police provide an inaccurate summary by the interviewing officer.
  • There is already sufficient evidence to charge.
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30
Q

in what circumstances may a solicitor be excluded from an interview?

A

if the interviewer is ‘unable properly unable to put questions to the suspect

  • ‘unacceptable conduct’, such as answering questions on behalf of their client or writing down answers for the client to read out
  • should not be removed from the interview simply because they tell their client not to answer questions, or because they intervene when they consider the
    police are asking questions in an inappropriate manner.

interviewer must stop the interview
and consult an officer of at least the rank of superintendent

this officer must then decide if the interview should continue in the presence
of the solicitor or not

If it is decided that the solicitor should be excluded from the interview, the suspect must be given the opportunity to consult another solicitor before the interview
continues, and that other solicitor must be given an opportunity to be present at the interview.

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31
Q

give some examples of conduct issues that may arise at a police station

A
  • if a suspect tells the sol they are guilty but wants to deny guilt when they are interviewed = the sol cannot be party to a client giving info to the police they know to be false > suggest no comment interview > if client persists > sol cannot act
  • sol may be asked to act for suspects jointly > investigating officer may suggest there is a conflict but this is a decision for the sol alone > speak with the first suspect > if conflict inform police the second needs separate legal advice
  • if sol has seen both suspects and decided there is a conflict > should cease acting for both > duties of confidentiality and disclosure factor here
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32
Q

If a solicitor decides that there is no conflict of interest and they are able to represent both suspects, they must still not disclose to one client anything they have been told by the other (in order to comply with their duty of confidentiality to the other client), UNLESS:

A

(a) the solicitor has obtained the other client’s consent (preferably in writing) to disclose this information (ie the client waives their right to confidentiality)

(b) both clients are putting forward consistent instructions; and

(c) the solicitor considers it in their clients’ best interests for the information to be disclosed.

  • even if the above satisfied sol must have regard to their overriding duty not to mislead the court > Co- accused who are represented by the same solicitor may attempt to use that solicitor to pass information between each other so that
    they can jointly fabricate a defence and give the police a consistent ‘story’ > sol should get them to give their accounts first before any disclosure of the others
  • if the stories are inconsistent the sol will need to withdraw from the case
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33
Q

when might a sol be able to disclose information about their clients case to a third party e.g. the sol for the co-accused

A

only when it is in their clients best interests

should explain any reasoning to their client and obtain the clients authority (ideally in writing) to disclose this information

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34
Q

if a sol withdraws from acting for a client it should what?

A

explain to the client its reasoning
explain their right to free legal advice from another sol or the duty sol
ongoing duty of confidentiality - wont tell police
tell custody officer they can no longer act for professional reasons (no more details than that)

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35
Q

who falls under the special categories of suspect and whom are considered vulnerable?

A
  1. juveniles (10-17 - note police should treat anyone who appears to be under 18 as a juvenile in absence of clear evidence to the contrary)
  2. mental health condition or disorder (if the police suspect that someone suffers from such a condition, then in the absence of any clear evidence to dispel such suspicion, they should treat that person as suffering from such a condition)
  3. deaf, unable to speak or blind
  4. cannot speak or do not understand english
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36
Q

what rights do juveniles have when at the police station?

can any of these rights be delayed?

A
  • everyone has rights to have (1) someone notified about their arrest + (2) free, independent legal advice
    AND FOR A JUVENILE:
  • the custody officer must if practicable try to (3) find out the person responsible for their welfare and inform them of the arrest and reasons for detention
  • could be parent, someone who has assumed responsibility for them or someone from the local care authority if they are in care or …
  • if the juvenile is known to be subject to a court order under which a person/org (‘responsible officer’) is given statutory responsibility to supervise and monitor them, reasonable steps should also be taken to notify them
  • juvenile’s arrest and reasons for detention
    this right cannot be delayed
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37
Q

what provisions are they regarding girls under the age of 18 and their detention at a police station?

A

they must be under the care of a woman

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38
Q

what is an appropriate adult, how does this work?

A
  • person who attends the police station to provide support for juveniles or someone with a mental health condition / disorder
  • JUVENILE hierarchy of who the police should contact with a view to them becoming the appropriate adult:
    a) parent or guardian (someone from local authority)
    b) if no one available > social worker for local authority
    c) if social worker not available > another responsible adult who is aged 18 or over and not connected to the police e.g. aunt/uncle or grandparent
  • MENTAL HEALTH hierarchy:
  • a relative, guardian or other person responsible for that person’s care or custody;
  • someone experienced in dealing with vulnerable people; or
  • some other responsible adult.
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39
Q

who should not be an ‘appropriate adult’?

A
  1. sol
  2. police
  3. an interested party e.g the victim or witness of an offence
  4. a person, such as a parent or social worker, to whom the juvenile has made admissions prior to that person being asked to attend the police station to fulfil the role of an appropriate adult; and
  5. an estranged parent (but only when the juvenile expressly and specifically objects to the presence of such a person).
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40
Q

what is the role of the appropriate adult?

A

not just an observer - there to make sure the suspect knows what is happening to them and why

key roles/responsibilities:
(a) to support, advise and assist the suspect, particularly when the suspect is being
questioned;
(b) to ensure that the suspect understands their rights whilst at the police station, and the role played by the appropriate adult in protecting those rights;
(c) to observe whether the police are acting properly, fairly and with respect for the rights of the suspect; and
(d) to assist with communication between the suspect and the police.

should not provide legal advice but should consider whether legal advice from a solicitor is required

even if the juvenile or mentally vulnerable suspect indicates that they do not want legal advice, the appropriate adult has the right to ask for a solicitor to attend if this would be in the best interests of the suspect

however, the suspect cannot be
forced to see the solicitor if they are adamant that they do not wish to do so

the custody officer should explains the juveniles rights in front of them alongside the AA - if already explained to juvenile without AA, should be repeated in the presence of the AA

a sol should also explain the role of the AA to the AA

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41
Q

are conversations between the appropriate adult and the suspect covered by legal privilege?

A

no

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42
Q

explain some of the rules around interviewing a vulnerable suspect/witness

A
  1. if a juv / mc has been cautioned in the absence of the AA, they must receive the caution again in the presence of the AA
  2. they must not normally be interviewed, or asked to provide or sign a written
    statement under caution or record of interview in the absence of an AA
  3. the interviewer must inform the AA they are not in the interview to act as an observer they should:
    (a) advise the person being interviewed;
    (b) observe whether the interview is being conducted properly and fairly; and
    (c) facilitate communication with the person being interviewed
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43
Q

what would happen if the appropriate adult was preventing the interviewer from properly putting questions to the juvenile / person with mental health condition?

A

the AA may be asked to leave > consult an officer not below superintendent rank, if one is readily available > otherwise an officer not below inspector rank, not connected with the investigation > the officer should remind the AA their role does not enable them to obstruct + give the AA a chance to respond > if the officer decides the interview should carry on without the AA, another AA must be obtained before the interview can continue

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44
Q

where a juvenile / person with mental health condition is asked to consent to taking part in an identification procedure, who must give the consent?

A

(a) if the suspect is a juvenile aged 14 or over = juvenile + parent/ guardian consent

(b) if the suspect is a juvenile aged under 14 = parent/guardian consent

(c) If the suspect is suffering from a mental health condition or mental disorder, then the consent must be given in the presence of the appropriate adult.

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45
Q

after a juvenile has been charged, what should be given to the appropriate adult?

A

the written notice (the ‘charge sheet’), which gives the particulars of the offence
with which the suspect has been charged

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46
Q

what will happen to a juvenile who is refused bail after charge?

A
  1. usually put in local authority rather than police custody, pending their appearance at youth court

the only two situations where a juvenile may be kept in police custody after charge =

(a) if it is impracticable to move the suspect to local authority accommodation; or

(b) if the juvenile is aged at least 12, there is no secure local authority accommodation
available and keeping them in other local authority accommodation would not be
adequate to protect the public from serious harm from them

if kept in police custody the juvenile must be kept away from adult suspects and must not be detained in a cell (usually put in juvenile detention room) unless it is not practicable to supervise them outside a cell

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47
Q

who makes decisions on whether to authorise a youth caution or conditional youth caution?

A

dependent on the severity of the offence:

  1. Indictable- only offences = CPS
  2. first- time summary and either- way offences = police
  3. second and subsequent offences = joint decision from the police, following assessment by the Youth Offending Team
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48
Q

what is a common resolution?

A
  • out of court disposal
  • for minor offence or anti- social behaviour
  • informal agreement between the parties
  • first time offenders + admission of guilt + victim’s views have been taken into account
  • doesnt form part of the offender’s criminal record retained by the police
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49
Q

in what circumstances may a youth caution be given?

A

(a) there is sufficient evidence to charge the offender with an offence;
(b) the offender admits that they committed the offence; and
(c) the police do not consider that the offender should be prosecuted or given a youth conditional caution in respect of the offence, ie it is not in the public interest to deal with the matter in another way.

given to someone 17 or under in the presence of an AA

the police must take into account the seriousness of the offence

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50
Q

what conditions must be met before a youth conditional caution is given?

A

(a) there is sufficient evidence against the offender to provide a realistic prospect of
conviction;
(b) it must be determined that a youth conditional caution should be given to the offender;
(c) the offender admits to having committed the offence;
(d) the effect of the youth conditional caution must be explained to the offender and they must be warned that failure to comply with any of the conditions may result in prosecution for the original offence (where the young person is aged 16 years or under, the explanation and warning must be given in the presence of an appropriate adult); and
(e) the offender must sign a document containing details of the offence, their admission, consent to be given to a youth conditional caution and details of the conditions attached.

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51
Q

the type of conditions attached to a youth conditional caution must be what?

and in what time frame must the conditions be capable of being completed in?

A

they must have one of the following objectives in mind:

rehabilitation, reparation and punishment

  1. summary-only offence = 16 weeks of the date of the original offence
  2. triable either way or an indictable- only offence = period of longer than 16 weeks may be suitable (depending on the facts of the case) but must not exceed 20 weeks
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52
Q

The solicitor must also ensure that they do not persuade a client to agree to a youth caution and a youth conditional caution in what circumstances?

A

where the client is adamant they did not commit the offence

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53
Q

what are the advantages of accepting a youth caution / youth conditional caution?

A
  • avoids the client being charged with the offence and having to appear in the youth court
  • such cautions are not criminal convictions
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54
Q

what are the disadvantages of accepting a youth caution / youth conditional caution?

A

(a) A record of such cautions will be retained by the police; this includes having
fingerprints, photographs and DNA samples taken.

(b) will form part of the client’s criminal record retained by the police and may be referred to if an employer makes a Criminal Records Bureau check. In addition, the fact that a caution has already been
issued will be taken into consideration before a decision is made regarding a future offending disposal.

(c) It may also need, in certain circumstances, to be disclosed to an employer or prospective employer.

(d) The police must refer the client to the appropriate Youth Offending Team who will assess the client and must arrange for them to participate in a rehabilitation programme (unless it is inappropriate to do so).

(e) Failure to comply with any conditions imposed under a conditional youth caution can result in prosecution for the original offence.

(f) Any youth cautions given and/ or any report on a failure by a person to participate in a rehabilitation programme may be cited in criminal proceedings similar to how a conviction may be cited.

(g) If the offence is covered by Part 2 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003, the client will be
placed on the sex offenders register.

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55
Q

when may a court not be allowed to draw adverse inferences from a defendant’s silence?

A

if that silence occurred at a time when the defendant had not been allowed the
opportunity to consult a solicitor to obtain independent legal advice

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56
Q

can you only draw adverse inferences from ‘no comment’ interviews?

A

No - terms of s 34 CJPOA may be satisfied even where a defendant has answered every question put to them, if at trial they raise some other fact in their defence that they did not mention, but could reasonably have been expected to mention, when interviewed.

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57
Q

in R v Argent the Court of Appeal say that certain conditions had to be satisfied before adverse inferences could be drawn from a defendant’s silence in police interview…what are these pre-conditions?

can a court draw adverse inferences from silence alone?

A

(a) the interview had to be an interview under caution;

(b) the defendant had to fail to mention any fact later relied on in his defence at trial;

(c) the failure to mention this fact had to occur before the defendant was charged;

(d) the questioning of the defendant at the interview in which the defendant failed to mention the fact had to be directed to trying to discover whether or by whom the alleged offence had been committed; and

(e) the fact which the defendant failed to mention had to be a fact which, in the
circumstances existing at the time, the defendant could reasonably have been expected to mention when questioned.

a jury should only be directed to draw adverse inferences from a D’s silence only if the court are satisfied that the real reason for the defendant’s silence is that they have no answer to the questions that were being put to them, or no answer that would stand up to scrutiny

+

if a D remained silent at their first interview and then answered questions during a subsequent interview, inferences from their failure to answer questions in the first
interview might still be drawn at trial.

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58
Q

explain the position on adverse inferences when looking at the use of written personal statements

A

In R v Knight [2003], the Court of Appeal held that the purpose of s 34 was
to encourage defendants to make an early disclosure of their defence to the police, not to allow the police to scrutinise and test that defence in interview

Therefore, as long as a written statement which is handed to the police contains all the facts which a defendant later relies on in their defence at court, the court will not be able to draw an adverse inference under s 34 if, having handed in the statement, the defendant then refuses to answer
questions from the police based on the contents of that written statement

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59
Q

Can a defendant avoid an adverse inference by claiming their refusal to answer questions was based on legal advice?

A
  • this will not automatically prevent the court from drawing adverse inferences
  • European Court of HR said doesn’t breach Art 6 right to a fair trial but because legal advice if a fundamental part of a fair trial the fact that a defendant was advised by his
    solicitor to not answer questions in the police station must be given appropriate weight at trial
  • the jury will now be directed by the trial judge that adverse inferences should not be drawn under s 34 (and ss 36 and 37) if the jury believe that the defendant genuinely and reasonably relied on the legal advice to remain silent
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60
Q

Conversations between a suspect and their solicitor at the police station are protected by legal privilege. under what circumstances may legal privilege be waived?

A
  • If at trial, in order to prevent an adverse inference being drawn by the court, a defendant gives evidence that they remained silent in interview only following advice from their solicitor, this will not in itself waive privilege
  • However, if an adverse inference is
    to be avoided, the court is likely to want to know the reasons for the solicitor’s advice. Once a defendant gives this information, legal privilege is said to be waived
  • This means that if a defendant, when giving evidence- in- chief, gives the reasons
    for the legal advice they received, the defendant (and conceivably their solicitor, should the solicitor give evidence on the defendant’s behalf) may then be cross- examined as to any other reason for the solicitor’s decision to advise their client to remain silent.
  • Similarly, the prosecution will be entitled to cross- examine the defendant (and their solicitor) on the instructions which the defendant gave to their solicitor whilst at the police station which led to the solicitor advising them to remain silent in interview.
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61
Q

explain adverse inferences under s 34 CJPOA

A
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62
Q

explain adverse inferences under s36 CJPOA

A
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63
Q

explain adverse inferences under s 37 CJPOA

A
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64
Q

what are the distinctions between s34/36 and 37 CJPOA and how they can be used to draw adverse inferences?

A
  • s 34 will apply only if a defendant raises a fact which they failed to mention at the police station, in their defence at trial
    VS
  • s 36/37 will operate irrespective of any defence put forward. It may apply even if no
    defence is raised at trial, because the inference arises from the defendant’s failure to account for the object/substance/mark or their presence at a particular place at or about the time of the offence at the time of interview
  • s36/37 require the suspect to have been given a special caution
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65
Q

looking at s36/37 of CJPOA, what is a ‘special caution’?

A

inferences may be drawn under s 36/37 only if the police officer requesting the explanation for the object, substance or mark/presence in said location has told the
suspect certain specified matters before requesting the explanation:

(a) what the offence under investigation is;
(b) what fact the suspect is being asked to account for;
(c) that the officer believes this fact may be due to the suspect taking part in the commission of the offence in question
(d) that a court may draw an adverse inference from failure to comply with the request; and
(e) that a record is being made of the interview and that it may be given in evidence if the suspect is brought to trial

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66
Q

where will a D make their first court appearance?

A

the mags

(if over 18)

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67
Q

if a D is charged with an indictable offence, which court will the D appear in?

A

first appearance at the mags but they will then immediately send the D to the Crown Court

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68
Q

Between April and December 2007, the implementation of CJSSS – ‘Criminal Justice: Simple,
Speedy, Summary’ - was rolled out in England and Wales, intending to speed up proceedings before the Mags and deal with cases as quickly as possible.

What are some of the key principles of CJSSS?

A

(a) There is a common presumption that a plea will be entered at the first hearing.
(b) For guilty pleas which will be sentenced in the magistrates’ court it is expected that sentence should take place on the same day unless a more detailed pre- sentence report is required.
(c) For not guilty pleas, it is expected that the trial issues should be identified, and a trial date fixed within six to eight weeks.
(d) The CPS should provide sufficient information at the first hearing to ensure the hearing is effective.

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69
Q

criminal offences fall into three categories:

  • those triable only on indictment;
  • those triable either way; and
  • those triable only summarily.

where an Act refers to the phrase ‘indictable offence’ without any further qualification, which of the above is it referring to?

A

referring to the first two categories

either must or may be tried in the Crown Court on indictment

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70
Q

which court deals with an either-way offence?

A
  • mags or the crown court
  • first appearance is at the mags
  • if D pleads not guilty, Mags decide whether to keep the case before them or send to the Crown if too serious
  • if Mags keep it = D then has the right to elect trial by a judge and jury in the Crown Court or consent to summary trial
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71
Q

which court deals with ‘low-value shoplifting’?

A
  • summary offence
  • where the value of the goods does not exceed £200
  • NOTE if the defendant is charged at the same time with more than one allegation of shop theft then the
    ‘aggregate’ value must be under £200 for it to be treated as a summary offence
  • if they opt for a plea of not-guilty, they still have the option to elect whether to elect trial in the Crown Court
  • if guilty plea they cannot be committed to Crown for sentence
  • max sentence of mags in low value shoplifting is 6 months custody
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72
Q

which court deals with criminal damage?

A
  • criminal damage = either way
  • where the value of the property is less than £5k = summary offence unless the damage was caused by fire or to a memorial
  • where damage is caused by fire or is caused to a memorial the value isnt relevant and it will always be treated as an either way offence
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73
Q

what is classed as a memorial for the purposes of criminal damage?

A

defined widely

  • a building or other structure or any other thing erected or installed on land, or
  • a garden or any other thing planted or grown on land

where they have a commemorative purpose in relation to any living or deceased person or animal.

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74
Q

where a defendant does not have sufficient means, they may receive legal aid.

who applies for legal aid and who do you apply to?

A

the defence sol applies on the D’s behalf
and applies to the Legal Aid Agency

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75
Q

The public funding of a defendant’s legal representation in a criminal case is
specifically provided for by Article 6(3) of the European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR),
which states that defendants who do not have sufficient means to pay for legal assistance
should receive this free from charge when this is in the ___________________________________________

A

interests of justice

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76
Q

who is entitled to free legal advice at the police station?

A

everyone regardless of their means

work done by a sol in a police station will be claimed under one fixed fee regardless of how long they have been there (although special provision is made for cases that are either of the most serious type or are very time consuming)

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77
Q

who other than solicitors can charge (through legal aid) for their work at the police station?

A

Non- solicitors (such as trainees) can attend the police station and charge for this work as long as they are either accredited or probationary police station representatives

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78
Q

where does the duty solicitor scheme operate and how does it work?

A
  • mags court
  • the particular solicitor on duty that day will be available to advise any defendants who do not have their own solicitor but who require legal advice and/ or representation
  • The duty solicitor will claim their costs in attending
    court from the LAA under the Advocacy Assistance (Court Duty Solicitor) Scheme.
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79
Q

a D who seeks legal aid in the mags applies for a representation order. they must satisfy two tests, what are they?

how do they apply for the legal aid?

A

(a) the interests of justice test
(b) the means test – the defendant must demonstrate that their finances are such that they are unable to pay for the cost of their legal representation.

online application form
- if they do not automatically satisfy the means test, they must submit a financial statement with any supporting evidence

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80
Q

when assessing whether providing legal aid to a D would be in the interests of justice, consideration is given to which factors?

A

(a) whether the individual would, if any matter arising in the proceedings is decided against them, be likely to lose their liberty or livelihood or suffer serious damage to their reputation

  • offence is likely to result in a criminal record or previous criminal record which will aggravate the sentence
  • a sol would refer to the Sentencing Guidelines
  • the sol should take the prosecution’s case at its most serious in order to justify legal aid
  • whether the D is to be remanded in custody or bailed is also relevant
  • only applies to Ds who either have no previous convictions or convictions for very minor offences
  • position of standing in the community

(b) whether the determination of any matter arising in the proceedings may involve consideration of a substantial question of law;

  • P’s evidence is in dispute
  • or the defendant wishes to adduce evidence which the CPS may argue is inadmissible
  • e.g. turnbull guidelines, adverse inferences, hearsay, confession should be excluded, bad character evidence/previous convictions

(c) whether the individual may be unable to understand the proceedings or to state their own case;
- mental or physical disability
- poor knowledge of english
- age
- vulnerability

(d) whether the proceedings may involve the tracing, interviewing or expert cross- examination of witnesses on behalf of the individual; and
- witnesses or experts
- D will need to explain why they need legal representation to trace or interview the witnesses

(e) whether it is in the interests of another person that the individual be represented.
- someone else should cross-examine the witness/victim
- e.g. D shouldnt cross examine the victim of sexual assault

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81
Q

which defendants receive legal aid automatically without having to satisfy the means test?

A

(a) applicants who receive income support, income- based jobseeker’s allowance, guaranteed state pension credit, income- based employment and support allowance or universal credit; and

(b) applicants who are under the age of 18.

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82
Q

The means test considers the applicant’s
income and expenses, but not the applicant’s ___________.

the purpose of the means test is to assess the applicant’s _____________.

A

capital e.g. inheritance, assets

disposable income

This is done by deducting the following items from the applicant’s gross annual income:
(a) tax and national insurance
(b) annual housing costs
(c) annual childcare costs
(d) annual maintenance to former partners and any children and
(e) an adjusted annual living allowance.

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83
Q

does an applicant have the right to appeal a decision refusing their legal aid based on them failing the means test?

A

no

but if an applicant does not satisfy the means test
but can demonstrate that they genuinely cannot fund their own defence, the applicant may ask that their entitlement to criminal legal aid be reviewed on the grounds of hardship by completing an application for review on the grounds of hardship (Form CRM16).

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84
Q

what is the difference between legal aid in the mags and legal aid in the crown court?

A

mag = legal aid is either free or not available

crown = legal aid is available but may be subject to the D contributing towards the costs

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85
Q

If a defendant satisfies both the interests of justice test and the means test, the magistrates’
court will grant a ________________________ and it will be sent to their sol.

A

criminal defence representation order

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86
Q

The representation order granted to a defendant for a summary- only matter, or an eitherway matter which is dealt with by the magistrates’ court, will cover all the work done by the solicitor in connection with those proceedings in the magistrates’ court.

Are there any other circumstances the above would cover?

A

may be extended to cover an appeal to the Crown Court against conviction and/ or sentence

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87
Q

if for an either- way matter, the magistrates decline jurisdiction or the defendant elects trial in the
Crown Court, what will the criminal defence representation order cover?

A

the representation order will extend automatically to cover the proceedings in the Crown Court

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88
Q

a representation order granted for an indictable only offence will cover proceedings in which courts?

A

both mags and crown court

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89
Q

explain the funding for a D who is being tried for an either- way offence, and has failed the magistrates’ court means test and the case is subsequently committed to the Crown Court.

A
  • funding will not start until the day after the sending hearing
  • will only cover work done in the Crown Court
  • and only if the defendant passes the means eligibility test in the Crown Court
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90
Q

may a D who’s application for legal aid has been refused on the interests of justice test appeal the decision?

A

either by
- adding further details to their original Form CRM14 and resubmitting this
- or by requesting an appeal.

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91
Q

At the conclusion of the case, the defence solicitor will then claim costs incurred under the _______________________________ from the ___________.

A

representation order

Legal Aid Agency

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92
Q

which application forms are submitted to request legal aid in the mags court?

A

CRM14

and if they do not automatically satisfy the means test they must submit CRM15 together with any supporting evidence

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93
Q

what happens at a first hearing?

A
  1. classification of the offence
  2. the plea the defendant enters in respect of summary or either- way offences
  3. the level of detail provided by the CPS of the prosecution case; and
  4. whether public/ private funding has been secured.
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94
Q

there may be rare occasions where the D is not reading to enter into a plea on the first hearing.

in what circumstances may this be the case?

what happens?

A
  • funding has not been finalised
  • where the prosecution has not been able to disclose any of their evidence

case is adjourned and the judge make a decision on whether to bail or remand in custody

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95
Q

what should the CPS do at the first hearing?

A

CPS = provide sufficient disclosure so the D can enter into a plea

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96
Q

explain the procedure for the first hearing of a summary offence

A
  • D enters into plea

GUILTY PLEA ENTERED
- if pleads guilty, CPS present facts of the case and record of previous convictions (if relevant)
- if D is represented = plea in mitigation on the defendant’s behalf
- either sentence straight away or adjourn if they want to obtain any reports before sentencing
- if D pleads guilty but disputes the specific factual allegations = adjourn for Newton hearing

NON GUILTY PLEA ENTERED
- court fixes a date for trial
- case management directions

BOTH GUILTY + NON GUILTY PLEA = if adjourned, need to decide bail or remand in custody

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97
Q

explain the procedure for the first hearing of an either-way offence

A

GUILTY PLEA:
- treated as having been tried summarily and
convicted (so same procedure applies = CPS relevant facts, D’s sol = plea of mitigation)
BUT
- mags decide whether they should sentence or remit to Crown because the sentencing powers of the mags are insufficient
- may need to adjourn to see reports before sentencing
- may need to adjourn awaiting for sentencing hearing at Crown

NOT GUILTY PLEA
- before anything else decide whether the D is tried in the mags or Crown = ‘plea before venue and allocation procedure’
- if adjourned, mags decide if remanded in custody or bail

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98
Q

explain the procedure for the first hearing of an indictable offence

A

preliminary hearing at mags

then sent straight to crown

mags decide whether on adjournment = bail or remanded

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99
Q

what is the role of the defence sol in the first hearing?

A

(a) obtaining funding from the LAA to pay for the work they will do on their client’s behalf (unless the client is paying for their legal costs privately)

(b) obtaining details of the prosecution case from the CPS (for summary and either- way offences);

(c) taking a statement from the client;

(d) advising the client on the strength of the prosecution evidence and the plea the client
should enter (for summary and either- way offences); and

(e) in the case of an either- way offence where the client is indicating a not guilty plea, informing the client that their case may be dealt with either by the magistrates’ court or by the Crown Court, and advising the client about the advantages and disadvantages of
each court; and

(f) making an application for bail, where necessary

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100
Q

need to know which offences are summary / either way / indictable

A
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101
Q

a sol who has represented their client in the police station may have some information about the CPS’ case but after charge, why is it so important for the defendant’s solicitor to see all the prosecution evidence as soon as possible?

A

so that they may give timely advice to the defendant on their plea, which in part will be based on the
strength of the case against them, and take instructions on what the prosecution witnesses
are saying

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102
Q

a D is entitled to receive ______________ for all offences

A

IDPC - initial details of the prosecution case

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103
Q

what happens where the CPS wishes
to introduce information contained in a document that the defence is entitled to and that
document/ information has not been made available to the defence?

A

the court must not allow the prosecutor to introduce that information unless the court first allows the defendant sufficient time to consider it

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104
Q

what information is included in IDPC?

A

(a) where the defendant was in police custody for the offence charged immediately before the first hearing in the magistrates’ court:
(i) a summary of the circumstances of the offence; and
(ii) the defendant’s criminal record, if any; or

(b) in all other cases:
(i) a summary of the circumstances of the offence;
(ii) any account given by the defendant in interview, whether contained in that summary or in another document;
(iii) any written witness statement or exhibit that the prosecutor has available and considers material to plea, or to the allocation of the case for trial or to sentence;
(iv) the defendant’s criminal record, if any; and
(v) if available, a victim impact statement.

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105
Q

how does the list of information required in the IDPC change where the D has been released on bail after charge and is not expected to enter into a guilty plea at the first hearing?

A
  • the list of material expands
  • the following material should be made available before the first hearing at the mags:

(a) a summary of the circumstances of the offence and any account given by the defendant in interview;

(b) statements and exhibits that the prosecution has identified as being of importance for the purpose of plea or initial case management, including any relevant CCTV that would be relied upon at trial and any Streamlined Forensic Report;

(c) an indication of any medical or other expert evidence that the prosecution is likely to
adduce in relation to a victim or the defendant;

(d) any information as to special measures, bad character or hearsay, where applicable

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106
Q

After the solicitor has obtained details of the prosecution case, the defendant’s solicitor will
then need to take further instructions from their client.

what matters will have to be discussed when advising a D on their plea at the first hearing?

A
  1. the client’s response to the prosecution case
  2. the strength of the prosecution’s case
  3. Whether it is necessary to obtain any further evidence in support of the defendant’s case.
  4. Where the client has been charged with an either- way offence and is pleading not guilty - are they electing for the case to be heard in the mags or in the crown?

also appropriate for the sol to raise that an early guilty plea may reduce sentencing

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107
Q

If the magistrates consider that an either- way case is suitable for summary trial, the defendant will then have a choice as to whether they want the trial to take place in the magistrates’ court or the Crown Court.

what are the factors in favour of the crown court?

A
  1. greater chance of acquittal
  2. Better procedure for challenging admissibility of prosecution evidence
  • in the crown jury dismissed when deciding admissibility
  • mags judge decides on matters of fact and law so may be influenced by the evidence they have seen even if they decide it is inadmissible
  • note most magistrates’ courts do now attempt to determine issues of admissibility of evidence at pre- trial hearings (heard by a different bench of mags) rather than at the hearing itself
  1. more time to prepare the case for trial
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108
Q

If the magistrates consider that an either- way case is suitable for summary trial, the defendant will then have a choice as to whether they want the trial to take place in the magistrates’ court or the Crown Court.

what are the factors in favour of the mags court?

A
  1. limited sentencing powers
    - maximum sentence which the magistrates may impose is six months’ imprisonment for a single either-way offence
    - note the mags still have the power to commit the trial to the crown
  2. speed and stress
    - relevant to Ds who have been denied bail and are being remanded in custody
    - no wigs and gowns in mags
  3. prosecution costs
    - if D convicted in either court = contribution to CPS’ costs
    - costs usually higher in Crown due to greater amount of work required
  4. defence costs
    - if granted legal aid at mags = no contribution towards defence
    - if crown = financial eligibility test and may be asked to contribute to their own defence
  5. no requirement to serve defence statement
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109
Q

if the D tells their sol they are guilty of an offence but wants to enter into a not-guilty plea, can a sol still represent them at trial?

A

yes but the sol is limited due to their overriding duty not to mislead the court
- able to cross- examine prosecution witnesses
- able to put the prosecution to proof of their case,
- would be able to make a submission of no case to
answer at the end of the prosecution case and to ask the magistrates to dismiss the case e.g. if the prosecution failed to discharge their evidential burden

however

  • unable to continue acting if the submission of no case to answer was unsuccessful and the D insisted on entering the witness box to give evidence which the solicitor knew to be false
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110
Q

what are the sentencing powers of the mags for either-way offences?

A
  • up to 6 months imprisonment for one either way offence
  • up to a total of 12 months’ imprisonment for two or
    more either-way offences
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111
Q

In most cases where a defendant pleads guilty at the plea before venue hearing and is committed to the Crown Court for sentence, the magistrates will not alter the position as regards bail or custody.

what is the effect of this?

A

if you’ve been remanded in custody prior to the first hearing, in a period of adjournment you are likely to stay remanded in custody

same applies to bail

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112
Q

If the defendant indicates a not guilty plea to an either- way offence, there are some circumstances where the D will be sent to the Crown. What are these circumstances?

what happens if a D doesn’t fall under those categories

A

(a) the defendant is sent to the Crown Court for trial for a RELATED offence;
(b) the defendant is charged jointly with another adult defendant who is sent to the Crown Court for trial for a RELATED offence;
(c) the defendant is charged jointly, or charged with a RELATED either- way offence, with a youth defendant who is sent to the Crown Court for trial.

In all other cases where a not guilty plea is indicated (or where the defendant refuses to enter a plea, as they are entitled to do), the court must determine whether the offence appears more suitable for summary trial or trial on indictment,

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113
Q

does a D have to enter a guilty/not guilty plea at the first hearing?

A

no

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114
Q

In certain circumstances, either- way offences will be sent straight to the Crown Court in
accordance with s 50A of the CDA 1998.

which circumstances are these?

A

limited number of circumstances, including serious/ complex fraud cases; some cases involving children and an either- way offence LINKED to an offence triable only on indictment.

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115
Q

indication of sentence

A
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116
Q

Occasionally a defendant who is charged with more than one either- way offence will indicate different pleas at the plea before venue hearing. The defendant may indicate a plea of guilty to one offence, but a plea of not guilty to the other.

how does the mags allocate in these situations?

A
  • the mags continue with allocation of the offence to which the defendant has indicated a not guilty plea
  • to the offence the D has plead guilty = either sentence, commit or adjourn

note this is as long as the two separate offences are NOT LINKED

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117
Q

a ‘remand’ is an adjournment where the court will want to ensure that the defendant attends the next hearing.

what are the three ways in which a D can be remanded?

A

(a) a remand in custody;
(b) a remand on bail with conditions attached to that bail; or
(c) a remand on unconditional bail.

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118
Q

looking at remands before conviction.

what are the rules regarding a D being remanded in custody?

A
  • a defendant may not be remanded in custody for more than eight clear days at a time
  • if the defendant’s case is still in the magistrates’ court, where there are successive remands in custody, the defendant needs to be brought before the court on
    every fourth remand, provided they have consented to this and have legal representation
  • also, the court may remand a D in custody for 28 days if:

(a) it has previously remanded them in custody for the same offence; and
(b) they are before the court; and
(c) it can set a date to remand them to on which it expects the next stage of the proceedings to take place.

119
Q

what is the overall maximum period of remand in custody/custody time limit in the mags?

A
  • summary- only offence = 56 days before trial
  • either- way offence = 70 days before trial
    HOWEVER if the allocation hearing takes place within 56 days, the custody time limit for the either- way offence is reduced to 56 days
120
Q

looking at remands before conviction, the prosecution may apply to the court to extend the custody time limit.

what would they need to show?

A
  1. on the balance of probabilities that there is good and sufficient cause to do this
  2. they have acted with due diligence and expedition
121
Q

how can an application by the prosecution to extend the custody time limit before conviction be made?

orally or in writing?

A

can be made both orally and in writing

although a written notice of intention MUST be served on the court and the defendant NOT LESS THAN 2 DAYS before the hearing in the magistrates’ court

122
Q

if the mags grants the P’s application to extend the custody time limits before conviction, can the D appeal?

A

yes to the Crown Court

123
Q

if the mags refuse the P’s application to extend the custody time limit before conviction, can the P appeal?

A

yes to the Crown

124
Q

when the custody time limit before conviction has expired, what must happen?

A

provided the P has not made a successful application to extend the time limit;

the defendant must be released on bail until his trial

125
Q

where will a D be kept when remanded in custody before conviction?

A
  • prison or remand centre
  • can be kept in police custody for up to three days if this is necessary for the purposes of making enquiries in relation to offences other than the offence for which the defendant has been charged

e.g. where D has been arrested for one offence, but the police suspect their involvement in other matters and wish to interview them

note - whilst remanded in police custody, the D is entitled to the same rights as if they had been arrested and detained prior to charge

  • once the need to make further enquiries has ceased, the remanded D must be brought before the Mags
126
Q

A defendant who is on bail may be remanded prior to conviction for _______________, subject to the __________________________.

A

any period of time

subject to the defendant’s consent

127
Q

how long may a D who is committed to the Crown for sentencing or who’s case has been sent to the Crown for trial be remanded for?

A

may be remanded in custody or on bail until the case comes before the Crown Court

128
Q

following a conviction, a D may be remanded before sentence for how long?

A
  • remanded in custody = for successive periods of not more than 3 weeks
  • remanded on bail = this may be for successive periods of not more than 4 weeks
129
Q

Under s 4 of the Bail Act 1976, there is a presumption that bail will be granted to the following types of defendants (unless one or more exceptions apply):

A

(a) all defendants prior to conviction;
(b) defendants who have been convicted if their case has been adjourned for the court to obtain reports before sentencing
(c) defendants who are appearing before the court for breach of a community sentence.

130
Q

the presumption in favour of bail does not apply to which defendants?

A
  1. who have been committed to the Crown Court for sentence or
  2. who are appealing against conviction or sentence
  3. D’s charged with the most serious offences
  • if D is charged with one of the below or has been previously charged with one of the below a court may grant bail to that defendant only if exceptional circumstances exist
  • the specified offences are:
    (a) murder
    (b) attempted murder
    (c) manslaughter
    (d) rape
    (e) attempted rape
    (f) a number of other serious sexual offences.

NOTE any of the above Ds can still apply for bail but they will bear the burden of convincing the court they should be granted bail, rather than the prosecution
being required to persuade the court why the normal right to bail should be withheld

131
Q

where a D has been charged with murder and has applied for bail, which kind of judge could grant this?

in what time limit would they have to decide whether to grant bail?

and when would they not grant bail?

A

only a Crown Court judge

  • the mags then transfers the D to the Crown
  • the Crown must then decide within 48 hrs whether to grant bail
  • bail MAY NOT be granted here, unless the court is of the opinion that there is no significant risk of the defendant committing, whilst on bail, an offence likely to cause physical or mental injury to another
132
Q

there is a presumption in favour of bail, except for D’s who are 1) committed to the Crown 2) appealing a sentence/conviction 3) have committed one of the most serious of offences.

there is a restriction on these exceptions. what is it?

A

‘no real prospect of custody’ restriction

(a) the defendant has attained the age of 18;
(b) the defendant has not been convicted of an offence in those proceedings; and
(c) it appears to the court that there is no real prospect that the defendant will be sentenced
to a custodial sentence in the proceedings.

In such circumstances, a magistrates’ court will not have power to remand a defendant in custody before his case is dealt with.

133
Q

what is the position regarding bail for offences triable only on indictment and either-way imprisonable offences?

A
  1. The defendant need not be granted bail if the court is satisfied that there are substantial grounds for believing that the defendant, if released on bail (whether subject to conditions or not) would:
    (a) fail to surrender to custody, or
    (b) commit an offence while on bail, or
    (c) interfere with witnesses or otherwise obstruct the course of justice, whether in relation to himself or any other person.

^ MOST COMMON GROUNDS FOR CPS

NOTE ^ is a high threshold - if the court thinks the D MAY do any of the three things = NOT SATISFIED

  1. need not be granted bail if the court is satisfied the D should be kept in custody for their own protection, or if child/young person, for their own welfare
  2. D need not be granted bail where it has not
    been practicable to obtain sufficient information for the purpose of taking the decisions required regarding bail
  3. The defendant need not be granted bail if, having previously been released on bail in, or in connection with, the proceedings, the defendant has been arrested in pursuance of section 7. (i.e. where a person released on bail has then refused to surrender to custody when told to do so)
  4. if arrested on murder = same restriction i.e. the court must be satisfied no significant risk of the defendant committing, whilst on bail, an offence likely to cause physical or mental injury to another
134
Q

in reviewing whether any of the grounds for refusing bail where the offence is indictable or either way imprisonable, the court must take into account which factors?

A

(a) the nature and seriousness of the offence (and the probable sentence the defendant will receive for it)
- most likely to be relevant to a prosecution
argument that there are substantial grounds for believing that the defendant would fail to
surrender to custody if they were to be granted bail
- if a v serious offence and CPS case is strong = arguably more likely to abscond

(b) the character, antecedents, associations and community ties of the defendant
- reference to the D’s previous convictions - argument there are substantial grounds to believe the D would reoffend if released on bail
- also relevant where the reason for the offence is ongoing e.g. D shoplifts to pay for heroine addiction
- associations with criminals = likely to reoffend
- associations - if witness known to the D = argument D may try to interfere
- no community ties e.g no fixed abode, no relatives or only lived in the area for a short time = no tie to the area = likely to abscond and therefore wont surrender to custody

(c) the defendant’s record in respect of previous grants of bail in criminal proceedings; and

(d) the strength of the evidence against the defendant.

135
Q

on which grounds may bail be refused to summary-only offences?

A

(a) failure to surrender (if the defendant has previously failed to surrender);

(b) commission of further offences (if the instant offence was committed on bail);

(c) fear of commission of offences likely to cause another person to suffer or fear physical or
mental injury;

(d) defendant’s own protection (or welfare if a youth)

(e) defendant serving custody

(f) fear of failure to surrender, commission of offences, interference with witnesses or obstruction of justice (if the defendant has been arrested for breach of bail in respect of the instant offence); and

(g) lack of sufficient information.

136
Q

It is extremely rare for a defendant charged with a non- imprisonable offence not to be
granted bail, as there are only very limited circumstances in which the CPS would ever oppose
the grant of bail to such a defendant.

On which grounds may a D be refused bail for a non-imprisonable offence?

A

(a) the defendant was granted bail in previous criminal proceedings but failed to answer this bail and the court believes that, if granted bail in the current proceedings, the defendant would again fail to surrender to custody;

(b) the defendant needs to be kept in custody for his own protection or, in the case of a defendant under 18 years of age, for his own welfare

(c) the defendant is currently serving a custodial sentence in respect of a separate offence; or

(d) the defendant was granted bail at an earlier hearing in the same proceedings, but has been arrested either for failing to answer his bail or for breaking any conditions of his bail, and the court is satisfied that there are substantial grounds for believing that, if
released on bail, the defendant would fail to surrender to custody, commit an offence or interfere with witnesses or otherwise obstruct the course of justice.

137
Q

if the mags are are not minded to consider bailing the D on an unconditional basis, the defence sol will usually invite the sol to consider making bail conditional.

the conditions to the bail must be necessary to meet any of 6 aims. what are the 6 aims?

A
  1. prevent D from absconding
  2. prevent the D from committing further offences whilst on bail
  3. prevent the defendant interfering with witnesses or obstructing the course of justice;
  4. ensure that the defendant makes himself available for the purpose of obtaining medical or other reports;
  5. ensure that the defendant keeps an appointment with his solicitor; or
  6. ensure the defendant’s own protection or, in the case of a defendant aged under 18, for
    his own welfare or in his own interests.
138
Q

Electronic monitoring can only be imposed to do what?

A

monitor compliance with another bail condition e.g. curfew or an exclusion zone

139
Q

Electronic monitoring can only be imposed if the court is satisfied of two things. what are they?

A
  1. without the EM requirements, the D would not be granted bail AND
  2. the necessary arrangements for electronic monitoring are in place
140
Q

when considering whether to impose electronic monitoring during bail, does the court have to get over a low or high threshold?

A

high

may only be considered by the court once it is satisfied it would otherwise remand the person into custody

141
Q

what age is electronic monitoring available for?

A

12 and over

the imposition for juveniles aged 12 and over is much stricter than it is for adults

142
Q

what is a certificate of full argument

A

a record of the mags decision regarding bail and their reasoning for such a decision

a copy of it must be given to a D where their bail app refused + same to CPS where their bail app has been refused

143
Q

what does the contested bail application procedure look like?

A
144
Q

if bail is refused, when is a D’s sol able to make a subsequent full bail application?

A

a defendant who is refused bail is entitled to have their advocate make one further full bail application in the magistrates’ court, but if this is refused, the advocate may make a further bail application to the Crown Court on the same or different facts.

following this, a bail application would only be reheard if new matters of fact or law have come to light

145
Q

if bail is refused, what duty are the mags under at all subsequent hearings regarding bail?

A

under a duty to consider the question of bail at any
subsequent hearing if the defendant is still in custody and the presumption in favour of bail still applies

BUT this does not mean the D’s sol can keep making full bail applications (two full apps after first refusal, one to mags, then to crown court, then need new legal/factual argument to have full subsequent hearing)

146
Q

A defendant who is refused bail by the magistrates’ court (or who has been refused an application to vary a bail condition) may appeal against this decision to the Crown Court provided the magistrates have issued the ___________________________ .

A

certificate of full argument

147
Q

a D’s bail application is refused by the mags. a D’s sol can appeal this decision to the Crown, why in practice might they not?

A
  • most defence solicitors will usually delay
    making an appeal to the Crown Court until they have made two full applications for bail before
    the magistrates’ court as this maximises the number of potentially successful applications (end up with 3 full hearings instead of 2)
148
Q

what is the procedure for D’s appealing a mags bail decision?

A
  • D’s sol must complete notice of application (on the prescribed form) as soon as practicable after the magistrates’ court’s decision
  • copy of the application needs to go to the mags, the Crown, the CPS and any surety affected or proposed
  • the notice will state the decision the D wants the Crown to make for each offence the D has been charged with e.g. grant bail or vary a bail condition
  • notice should also set out reasons why Crown should grant bail/vary the conditions as appealed by the D as well as including any additional info that has come to light since the mags decision
  • notice should also set out any suggested conditions to bail
  • if P opposes the appeal they should notify the Crown and include reasons for their opposition
149
Q

unless the Crown Court otherwise directs, an appeal on a decision by the mags as to bail, should be heard in what time scale?

A

as soon as practicable and in any event no later than the business day after it was served

(although the Crown can vary these time limits)

150
Q

The judge will need to have which documents before them when considering the application?

A

(a) the notice of application;
(b) the ‘certificate of full argument’; and
(c) a record of the defendant’s previous convictions (if applicable).

151
Q

where does an appeal on a mags decision regarding bail usually take place?

A

Crown Court chambers

at the hearing in chambers, the judge will hear arguments from the CPS and the D’s sol

152
Q

if on appeal from the magistrates, the judge grants bail a copy of the judge’s order must be sent where?

A

prison or remand centre where the defendant is being held so that the defendant may be released from custody

153
Q

If the magistrates grant bail to a defendant who has been charged with an imprisonable offence, the CPS has the right to appeal this to a Crown Court judge in chambers.

what are the deadlines for the CPS to appeal a decision to grant bail?

A
  • Oral notice must be given by the prosecutor at the end of the hearing during which the court granted bail; and before the defendant is released from custody.
  • This notice must be confirmed in writing and served on the defendant not more than 2 hours after telling the court of the decision to appeal.
  • The Crown Court must hear the appeal as soon as possible and in any event not later than 2 business days after the appeal notice was served (and this takes place as a re-hearing).
154
Q

if the CPS choose to appeal a decision by the mags to grant bail, what happens to the D in between the decision in the first hearing and the appeal?

A

The defendant will therefore be remanded in custody by the magistrates until the appeal is heard.

155
Q

what does The Code for Crown Prosecutors say about the CPS decision to appeal a mags decision on bail?

A
  • this power should be used ‘judiciously and responsibly’
  • the power to appeal is not to be used merely because the Crown Prosecutor disagrees with the decision
  • ‘it should only be used in cases of grave concern.’
156
Q

A defendant who is granted bail (either by the police after they have been charged, or by the court following a hearing) is under a duty to surrender to the court at the time and place appointed for the next hearing.

If the defendant fails to attend court to answer their bail at the appointed time and date, what happens?

A
  • mags issues an arrest warrant
  • the warrant will either be:

i) backed by bail
means that the police, having arrested the defendant, will then release them again pending their next court appearance

ii) not backed with bail (more common)
the police must arrest the defendant and then keep them in police custody until they can be brought before the court

brought before the mags at the next hearing

157
Q

a D absconds and is arrested by the police after the court has finished sitting on a Friday.

what happens?

A
  • specially arranged remand court organised for the Saturday
  • no such arrangement on a Sunday, so if D arrested on Saturday night they would remanded in police custody until the Monday
158
Q

a D is bailed, absconds, is arrested and is brought before the court.

the D could be charged with failing to surrender to custody.

who decides whether to charge the D for this?

A

option 1:
if in breach of police bail = CPS decides whether to charge they for failing to surrender to custody

option 2:
if in breach of court bail = decision is with the court on whether to commence proceedings

159
Q

The Bail Act 1976 creates two offences with which a defendant who fails to surrender to custody at the appointed time and date may be charged with.

what are they?

A

(a) If the defendant fails without reasonable cause to surrender to custody, they will be guilty of the offence of absconding, contrary to s 6(1).

R v Scott (1/2 an hour late to a hearing)

(b) If the defendant did have a reasonable cause for failing to surrender, they will still be guilty of an offence under s 6(2) UNLESS they surrendered to custody as soon as it was reasonably practicable for them to do so.

e.g. Kevin is unable to answer his bail because he is injured in a road traffic accident and has to go to hospital. Kevin will still be guilty of an offence under s 6(2) unless he answers his bail as soon as reasonably practicable after he has been discharged from hospital.

160
Q

The Sentencing Council has published a definitive guideline on failure to surrender to bail, stating a sentence for such an offence should be imposed ‘as soon as is practicable’.

what does this look like in practice?

A

depending on the facts of the case it may be appropriate to sentence D immediately or wait until the end of the substantive case

161
Q

if the mags decide not to impose a separate penalty on a D for failing to surrender to bail, can the D’s absconding be factored into in subsequent hearings?

A

Even if the magistrates decide not to impose a separate penalty for the absconding offence,
they may decide to refuse the defendant bail in the substantive proceedings, or grant bail but with a much more stringent package of conditions.

162
Q

A defendant who breaches any bail conditions other than a condition to attend the next court
hearing commits an offence.

true or false

A

breaching a condition other than the condition to attend the next court hearing e.g. breach of curfew is not a criminal offence

However, a defendant who breaches their bail conditions is likely to have their bail reviewed by the magistrates, who may decide that the failure to comply with the conditions requires a remand in custody.

163
Q

a police officer has the power to arrest a person who has been bailed to attend court (either by the police following charge, or by the court at a previous
hearing) if the officer reasonably believes that the person….

A

(a) is not likely to surrender to bail; or
(b) has broken, or is likely to break, their bail conditions.

A defendant who is arrested will be detained in police custody and must then be brought before the magistrates’ court within 24 hours.

The magistrates’ court will then decide whether
to remand the defendant in custody, or whether to grant bail with or without conditions pending the next substantive hearing in the case.

  • using two-stage approach:
    (a) The court will first determine if there has been a breach of the bail conditions previously imposed
    (may have evidence from the police)

(b) If the magistrates determine that there has been a breach of bail conditions, they will decide whether the defendant should be remanded in custody or on bail pending the next hearing (unless the case can be disposed of at that hearing).
- likely remanded unless persuaded to grant bail with more stringent conditions

164
Q

the factors taken into consideration when looking at the interest of justice test, are repeated in the CRM14 form. how are they repeated in the form/what do they say?

A
  1. It is likely that I will lose my liberty if any matter in the proceedings is decided against me.
  2. I have been given a sentence that is suspended or non- custodial. If I break this, the court may be able to deal with me for the original offence.
  3. It is likely that I will lose my livelihood.
  4. It is likely that I will suffer serious damage to my reputation.
  5. A substantial question of law may be involved (whether arising from an act, judicial authority or other source).
  6. I may not be able to understand the court proceedings or present my own case
  7. Witnesses may need to be traced or interviewed on my behalf.
  8. The case involves expert cross- examination of a prosecution witness (whether an expert or not).
  9. It is in someone else’s interests that I am represented.
  10. Any other reasons.
165
Q

There is a statutory presumption that a defendant who is
convicted of a further offence during the period of suspension will have their earlier sentence
activated and so will go to prison (CJA 2003, Sch 12, para 8).

A
166
Q

do Ds have to plead on their first hearing?

A

no they don’t have to enter a plea

if they do not, they will be treated as if they have entered into a not-guilty plea

167
Q

There are two basic requirements which need to be satisfied if the jury or the magistrates are
to take a piece of evidence into account in deciding what the facts in issue are.

what are they?

A

(a) evidence must be relevant to the facts in issue in the case; and

(b) evidence must be admissible. This means that the rules which comprise the law of evidence must allow such evidence to be used in a criminal trial.

168
Q

the legal burden of proof is always with the prosecution to prove beyond reasonable doubt D committed the offence.

there are some circumstances where the burden of proof falls to the D…

what are they?

what is the standard of proof when it shifts?

A

when a D raises a defence e.g. insanity or duress

the standard of proof that is required is proof on the balance of probabilities

A defendant who raises a specific defence (for example, a defendant who claims they have an alibi, or were acting in self- defence), does not have the burden of proving that defence – they only have what is called an evidential burden to raise it.

the burden then falls on the P to prove it is not true

169
Q

explain what is meant by the prosecution failing to discharge their evidential burden

A
  • at trial = prosecution will present their case first
  • at the conclusion of its case, the prosecution must have presented sufficient evidence to the court to justify a finding of guilt and to show that the defendant has a case to answer (this is before the defendant has
    adduced any evidence)
  • if the prosecution fails to do this, the defendant’s solicitor (or counsel) will be entitled to make a submission of no case to answer, and to ask the court to dismiss the case
  • the above would be described as the P failing to meet their evidential burden
170
Q

what evidential burden does the defence have?

A
  • D is not oblige to put any evidence before the court to show that they are innocent unless they are raising a specific defence e.g. alibi
  • where they raise a specific defence = must place some evidence of that defence before the court if they want the magistrates or jury to consider that defence when deciding the verdict
    (this is the D’s evidential burden)
  • then it falls back to the P to prove beyond all reasonable doubt the defence is not true
171
Q

how would the defence challenge the admissibility of disputed visual identification evidence

A
  • Section 78 of PACE 1984 provides the court with a discretion to exclude evidence upon which the prosecution seek to rely if ‘the admission of such evidence would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of proceedings that the court ought not to admit it’
  • commonly raised by the D’s sol when the methods employed by the police to obtain evidence constitute a SIGNIFICANT AND SUBSTANTIAL either of PACE or the Codes of Practice
    e.g. they breach the rules for holding identification procedures
  • Only if the court declines to exercise its discretion under s 78 should the solicitor then consider how:
    i) in cross- examination, to undermine the quality of the evidence of the original sighting of the defendant which the witness claims to have made, and
    ii) what representations to make to the court in respect of the Turnbull guidelines
172
Q

Special guidelines apply when a witness who gives evidence for the CPS visually identifies the defendant as the person who committed the crime, and the defendant disputes that identification.

what are the Turnbull guidelines?

A

A witness will identify the defendant as the person who committed the offence if:
(a) the witness picks out the defendant informally; or
(b) the witness identifies the defendant at a formal identification procedure at the police station; or
(c) the witness claims to recognise the defendant as someone previously known to them.

Such a witness is known as a ‘Turnbull witness’.

In all three cases, the Turnbull guidelines will apply only if the defendant disputes the visual identification made by the witness.

173
Q

what happened in R v Thornton. contrast this with the case of R v McEvoy.

what is their relevance to the Turnbull guidelines?

A

R v Thornton:
- public order incident where it was alleged that the accused was one of the aggressors
- accused he admitted to being present at the scene, but he denied that he had been involved in the fighting and claimed that the witnesses who alleged this were mistaken
- the Turnbull guidelines applied in this case since, on the facts, there were a number of people present who were of a similar description to the accused

R v McEvoy:
- similar public order situation, the only difference being that there was no one else present who could have resembled the accused in height, clothing and hair colour
- Turnbull guidelines didn’t apply

174
Q

which factors will the court look at when assessing the quality of identification evidence?

A
  1. length of time
  2. distance
  3. lighting
  4. conditions
  5. how much of the suspect’s face did the witness actually see?
  6. Whether the person identified was someone who was already known to the witness (a recognition case), or someone the witness had never seen before.
  7. How closely does the original description given by the witness to the police match the actual physical appearance of the defendant?
175
Q

what happens if the judge decides the quality of identification evidence is good?

A
  • when the judge sums up the case to the jury before they retire to consider their verdict, the judge will give a Turnbull warning:

the judge will tell the jury that it is very easy for an honest witness to be mistaken as to identity, and will direct the jury to examine closely the circumstances of the original sighting and take into account the factors listed above when considering the quality of the identification evidence

176
Q

what happens if the judge decides the quality of the identification evidence is poor but supported?

A
  • turnbull warning + judge will also draw to the specific attention of the jury the weaknesses in the identification evidence which has been given
  • the judge will normally warn the jury about the dangers of convicting on the basis of the identification evidence alone and tell the jury to look for other supporting evidence
  • the jury will be directed to what other evidence may amount to supporting evidence
  • Examples of supporting evidence include:

(a) a confession made by the defendant;
(b) other evidence placing the defendant at the scene of the offence (such as fingerprints or DNA evidence);
(c) in a theft case, stolen property being found in the defendant’s possession;
(d) adverse inferences being drawn from the defendant’s silence when questioned at the
police station.

177
Q

looking at identification evidence….

identification evidence is poor but supported - what does this mean?

A

Supporting evidence means some other evidence which suggests that the identification made by the witness is reliable.

178
Q

what happens when the identification evidence is poor and unsupported?

A
  • the judge should stop the trial at the end of the prosecution case and direct the jury to acquit the defendant
  • this will normally follow a submission of no case to answer being made by the defendant’s advocate
179
Q

how does the operation of the turnbull guidelines slightly change in the mags?

A
  • the magistrate is deciding on matters of fact and law whereas when it is a trial by jury the jury decides on the facts and the judge decides on the law
  • this means it is up to the defence’s sol to address the mags on the Turnbull guidelines (as opposed to the judge addressing the jury on it)
180
Q

the court has the discretionary power under s 78 PACE to exclude evidence. section 78 (1). how has this power been interpreted?

A
  • broadly
  • the court is only likely to exercise its discretion to exclude prosecution evidence under s 78 if there is something unreliable about the evidence which the police have obtained, which in turn means that it
    would be unfair to allow the CPS to rely on such evidence
  • if the evidence is relevant to the charge faced by the defendant, and there is nothing in the way in which it has been obtained which casts doubt on its reliability, the evidence is unlikely to be excluded under s 78, even
    if the police have breached the provisions of PACE 1984 and/ or the Codes of Practice when obtaining it
  • s78 applications will only be granted where the police’s breach is ‘significant and substantial’
  • also article 6 ECHR factors ‘right to a fair trial’ > key question is whether the proceedings as a whole were fair
181
Q

explain the position on evidence obtained by entrapment and abuse of process

A
  • r v sang confirmed there is no defence known s entrapment
  • instead, in order to challenge the admissibility of the evidence, the court should be invited to exercise its common law power to stop the case on the basis that it would represent an abuse of process to allow such a prosecution to continue
  • combined appeal of R v Loosely; AG’s Reference No 3 of 2000 the undercover officers had lured the D to commit an offence and then prosecuted them for it which the court said was an abuse of power
  • this case provided guidelines to judges when deciding whether or not to stay proceedings for an abuse of power:
    (1) The nature of the investigation – the more intrusive the investigation, the harder the courts should scrutinise it.
    (2) The nature of the offence. Certain offences can only be committed in a covert way such as drug trafficking and therefore police can only crack them in a covert way.
    (3) The nature of the police involvement. For example, how they behaved, how persistent they were in trying to persuade the defendant to take part in the offence, for example did they behave like a ‘normal customer’ might and no more.
    (4) The defendant’s criminal record – usually this would not be relevant unless there was evidence of recent similar involvement.
    (5) The level and extent of supervision of the undercover officers.
182
Q

when must an identification procedure be held?

A

(a) a witness has identified or purported to have identified a suspect; or

(b) a witness thinks they can identify the suspect, or there is a reasonable chance that the witness can identify the suspect, and the suspect disputes being the person the witness claims to have seen, para 3.12 of Code D states that an identification procedure SHALL (must) be held unless
- it is not practicable or
- would serve no useful purpose in proving or disproving whether the suspect was involved in committing the offence

note an identification procedure must also be held if a witness to a crime has purported to identify the suspect in the street some time after the crime was committed

183
Q

under Code D of PACE, there are four different types of identification procedures. what are they?

A

(a) video identification;
(b) an identification parade;
(c) a group identification; and
(d) confrontation by a witness.

184
Q

how do the police decide which identification procedure should be used?

A

suspect should initially be offered a video
identification unless:
(a) a video identification is not practicable;
(b) an identification parade is both practicable and more suitable than a video identification; or
(c) the officer in charge of the investigation considers that a group identification is more suitable than a video identification or identification parade, and the identification officer considers it practicable to arrange a group identification

decision made by investigating officer + identification officer

185
Q

Can an identification procedure be used if a witness has recognised a suspect from a photograph?

A
  • relevant to previous offenders (who the police will have pictures of)
  • before a witness is shown any photographs, that witness’ first description of the suspect must have been recorded
  • the witness must be shown 12 photographs at a time
  • as soon as the witness makes a positive identification, no other witnesses should be shown the photographs
  • the witness who made the identification and any other witnesses should then be asked to take part in one of the four identification procedures
  • the suspect of their sol must be informed that the witness attending the identification procedure has been shown photographs, or a computerised or artist’s composite
  • if the case goes to trial, when giving evidence the witness will not be allowed to say that they originally identified the suspect from photographs shown to them by the police
186
Q

what procedure should be followed when carrying out a video identification procedure?

A
  • must include the suspect and ‘at least eight other people who, so far as possible, resemble the suspect in age, general appearance and position in life’
  • where two suspects (in the same ID procedure) of roughly similar appearance are shown in the same images they must be shown together with at least 12 other people
  • must be in the same positions or carrying out the same sequence of movements
  • the suspect or their sol must be given the chance to inspect the images before they are shown to a witness
  • If there is a ‘reasonable objection’ to the images or to any of the other participants, the police must take steps, if practicable, to remove the grounds for objection
  • if a suspect has any unusual features (such as a facial scar, a tattoo or distinctive hair style or colour) which do not appear on the images of the other people, the police may take steps to conceal those features on the video or to replicate those features on the images of the other people
  • note the witness can ask for the concealment/replication to be removed
  • the suspect’s sol should be given reasonable notice of when the video will be recorded so they can attend
  • only one witness should see the video at once
  • video can be frozen and can be seen an unlimited amount of times by the witness
  • Before they see the set of images, witnesses must not be able to:
    (a) communicate with each other about the case;
    (b) see any of the images which are to be shown;
    (c) see, or be reminded of, any photograph or description of the suspect, or be given any other indication as to the suspect’s identity; or
    (d) overhear a witness who has already seen the material
  • the police should not inform subsequent witnesses about any previous positive identifications
187
Q

explain the procedure for an identification parade

A
  • consist of at least eight people (in addition to the suspect) who, so far as possible, resemble the suspect in age, height, general appearance and position in
    life
  • same provisions re distinct features
  • police must ensure that prior to the parade the witness must not:
    (a) communicate with each other about the case, or overhear a witness who has already seen the identification parade;
    (b) see any member of the identification parade;
    (c) see, or be reminded of, any photograph or description of the suspect, or be given any other indication as to the suspect’s identity; or
    (d) see the suspect before or after the identification parade
  • the suspect can choose their position in the line and alter their position in between witnesses (their sol should inform them of this)
  • witness should be told not to make a decision about a suspect before they have looked at the line twice
  • witness can ask a suspect to move/speak/stand in certain way but before the member of the parade does so the police should ask whether the witness can identify just based on appearance
  • asking to speak etc > judge will direct jury to treat the evidence with the utmost caution
  • colour photo or video should be taken of each lineup
188
Q

can the police compel a suspect to take part in an identification procedure?

A
  • video procedure and identification parade = no cannot be compelled
  • group identification = can be done covertly if the suspect does not consent
  • confrontation = can compel
189
Q

explain the procedure for group identification

A
  • held in a place where other people are
    passing by or waiting around informally
  • the suspect should join
  • the witness should be able to see the suspect and the others at the same time
  • the other people’s appearance should be broadly similar to that of the suspect but other than that no obligation for likeness
  • if done covertly, the police will be required to take the witness to a place where the suspect is likely
    to be at a given time
190
Q

explain the procedure for a confrontation

A
  • when a witness is brought face- to- face with a suspect in the police station
  • Prior to a confrontation taking place, the witness must be told that the person they saw may, or may not, be the person they are to confront and that if they are not that person, the witness should say so
  • suspect’s sol can be there whilst it takes place
  • usually occurs where the suspect hasn’t agreed to other identification procedures
191
Q

Identification procedures are the responsibility of an officer not below the rank of _______________________
who is not involved with the investigation.

known as the identification officer

A

inspector

note - must be in uniform throughout the identification procedure

192
Q

when should an identification procedure take place?

A

‘it must be held as soon as practicable’.

193
Q

how does the police’s decision to hold and identification procedure impact bail?

A

If the police decide to hold an identification procedure, the suspect will normally be released on police bail with a requirement to re- attend the police station at a
later date when the identification procedure will take place.

194
Q

who has no involvement in the conduct of the identification procedure?

A

the investigating officer

195
Q

Before a video identification, identification parade or group identification is arranged, the identification officer must explain the following matters to the suspect…

A

(a) the purpose of the identification procedure to be used;

(b) the suspect’s entitlement to free legal advice;

(c) the procedure to be followed, including the suspect’s right to have a solicitor or friend present;

(d) that if the suspect refuses to consent to the identification procedure taking place, such refusal may be given in evidence at trial, or the police may proceed covertly without the suspect’s consent (ie by holding a covert video or group identification), or make other arrangements to test whether a witness can identify the suspect (ie by arranging a confrontation);

(e) that if the suspect has significantly altered their appearance between being offered an identification procedure and the time of the procedure, this may be given in evidence at trial and the identification officer may consider other forms of identification;

(f) whether, before the suspect’s identity became known, the witness was shown photographs, or a computerised or artist’s composite likeness or image by the police; and

(g) that the suspect or their solicitor will be provided with details of the description of the suspect as first given by any witnesses who are to attend the identification procedure before the procedure takes place

196
Q

what is the legal adviser’s role around identification procedures?

A
  • identification procedure will generally take place after the suspect’s first interview
  • if the suspect is then positively identified at such a procedure, they are then likely to be either re- interviewed in light of the positive identification and/ or charged with the offence
  • if the witness cannot identify the suspect, they may be released without charge
  • if the suspect is not prepared to take part in an identification procedure, the sol should warn them then police may hold a less satisfactory form of proecdure
  • Refusal to take part in an identification procedure is admissible at trial, and the court may therefore draw an adverse inference from the refusal of a suspect to take part in an identification procedure
  • if the police are not holding an identification procedure when they should be (ie breaching code D), the sol should inform them they think an ID procedure should occur and their representations should be recorded in the custody record

generally make representations to the identification officer if they have any concerns about the procedure taking place

197
Q

what should the suspect’s sol do if they feel a video ID pr identification procedure has been contaminated?

A

If the solicitor considers that the identification has been contaminated in any way, they should ask the witness if they have discussed the description of the offender with anyone, either before attending or whilst at the police station.

They should also ask that a note of their concerns
be made by the identification officer in the written record of the identification procedure.

198
Q

a suspect’s sol should keep a detailed written report of what happens in an ID procedure.

what should they record?

A
  • should ensure the |ID officer complies with procedural requirements and any objections are noted by the ID officer
  • any comments made during the procedure (whether by the witness, the identification officer or
    anyone else) should also be recorded.
199
Q

Criminal damage 5k or less tried summarily

A
200
Q

A woman is standing at a bus stop when she sees a man who has been spreading malicious rumours about her. Angry, the woman shouts at the man to come and speak to her, or she will beat him up. The man hears the woman’s threats and in response, runs away from her. The woman chases after the man, continuing to threaten him. The man is very large, strong, and highly skilled in martial arts; he is not afraid of the woman but wants to avoid a confrontation. In the police interview, the woman admits she only wished to frighten the man.

A

Yes, because the woman caused the apprehension of immediate unlawful personal force and intended it.

The actus reus for simple assault is causing the apprehension of immediate unlawful personal force. The man hears the woman’s threats and then runs in response, so this is satisfied. The mens rea is that the individual intends or is reckless as to that apprehension. The woman ‘admits she wished to frighten the man’ and so she intends the apprehension.

note - the actus reus only requires the victim to apprehend the force, to be aware of it; they do not have to fear it in the sense of being frightened or afraid. Thus, as long as the victim thinks he will be touched, that is sufficient

201
Q

what is hearsay evidence? (Criminal Justice Act 2003)

A

‘a statement, not made in oral evidence, that is relied on as evidence of a matter in it’

  • statement = ‘any representation of fact or opinion made by a person by whatever means; and it includes a representation made in a sketch, photofit or other pictorial form’
  • the purpose, or one of the purposes, of the person making the statement must appear to the court to have been to cause another person to believe that the matter, or to cause another person to act (or a machine to operate) on the basis that the matter
  • R v Knight (diary entries - the girl hadn’t intended anyone to read them so they fell outside the scope of hearsay)
202
Q

give some common examples of hearsay evidence

A

(a) a witness repeating at trial what they had been told by another person

(b) a statement from a witness being read out at trial instead of the witness attending court to give oral evidence

(c) a police officer repeating at trial a confession made to them by the defendant

(d) a business document being introduced in evidence at trial

203
Q

hearsay evidence is either:

i) first hand or
ii) multiple

what does this mean and what effect does it have?

A

i) first hand = e.g D makes statement to police officer
ii) multiple = details/statements have passed through multiple people

effect = the circumstances in which a statement containing multiple hearsay is admissible in evidence
are more limited than when a statement contains only first- hand hearsay

204
Q

s. 114 CJA = hearsay evidence will be admissible if it falls within one of four categories. What are the four categories?

A

In criminal proceedings a statement not made in oral evidence in the proceedings is admissible as evidence of any matter stated if, but only if:

(a) any provision of this Chapter or any other statutory provision makes it admissible,

(b) any rule of law preserved by section 118 makes it admissible,

(c) all parties to the proceedings agree to it being admissible, or

(d) the court is satisfied that it is in the interests of justice for it to be admissible.

205
Q

explain the law on hearsay evidence where a witness is unavailable to attend court

A

s. 116 CJA = hearsay evidence will be admissible as evidence even if the witness is unavailable to attend court where:

  1. the statement = first-hand hearsay
  2. the person who made the statement (the relevant person) is identified to the court’s satisfaction
  3. any one of the below five conditions are satisfied:

s116 (2)
(a) the relevant person is dead;
(b) the relevant person is unfit to be a witness because of his bodily or mental condition;
(c) the relevant person is outside the UK and it is not reasonably practicable to secure his attendance;
(d) the relevant person cannot be found, although such steps as it is reasonably practicable to take to find him have been taken;
(e) through fear the relevant person does not give oral evidence in the proceedings, either at all or in connection with the subject matter of the statement, and the court gives leave for the statement to be given in evidence

206
Q

s 116 (4) of the Criminal Justice Act requires the court to give leave to admit hearsay evidence on where…

A

the statement ought to be admitted in the INTERESTS OF JUSTICE having regard to:

i) the contents
ii) to any risk of unfairness (in particular how difficult it would be to challenge the statement)
iii) the fact that (in appropriate cases) a special measures direction could be made

207
Q

explain the law on hearsay evidence regarding business and other documents

A

s 117 CJA = hearsay evidence in the form of business or other documents may be admissible where:

(a) oral evidence given in the proceedings would be evidence of that matter,
(b) the requirements of subsection (2) are satisfied, and

SECTION 117 SUBSECTION 2 REQUIREMENTS:
(a) the document (or the part of it containing the statement) must have been created or received by a person in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation, or as the holder of a paid or unpaid office;
(b) the person who supplied the information contained in the statement (the relevant person) had, or may reasonably be supposed to have had, personal knowledge of the matters dealt with; and
(c) each person (if any) through whom the information was supplied from the relevant person to the person mentioned in paragraph (a) received the information in the course of a trade, business, profession or other occupation, or as the holder of a paid or unpaid office.

^ BOTH FIRST-HAND AND MULTIPLE HEARSAY ARE ADMISSABLE

(c) the requirements of subsection (5) are satisfied, in a case where subsection (4) requires them to be.

If the statement was prepared for ‘the purposes of pending or contemplated criminal proceedings, or for a criminal investigation’ (s 117(4)), the requirements of s 117(5) must be satisfied. The requirements of s 117(5) will be satisfied if:

(a) any of the five conditions mentioned in s 116(2) is satisfied, or
(b) the relevant person cannot reasonably be expected to have any recollection of the matters dealt with in the statement (having regard to the length of time since he supplied the information and all other circumstances).

208
Q

explain the law regarding hearsay evidence admissible under a preserved common law exception – s 114(1)(b)

A

Section 118(1) of the CJA 2003 preserves several common law exceptions to the rule excluding
hearsay evidence.

The most important exceptions preserved by s 118(1) are:
(a) evidence of a confession or mixed statement made by the defendant; and
(b) evidence admitted as part of the res gestae
- provides that a statement made contemporaneously with an event will be admissible as an exception to the hearsay rule because the spontaneity of the statement meant that any possibility of concoction can be disregarded
- R v Andrews > Ackner criteria

209
Q

in R v Andrews, Lord Ackner laid down the Ackner criteria for the admission of evidence as part of the res gatae.

what are the criteria?

A

(1) The primary question which the judge had to ask himself in such a case was: Can the possibility of concoction or distortion be disregard?

(2) To answer this the judge first had to consider the circumstances in which the particular statement was made in order to satisfy himself that the event was so
unusual or dramatic as to dominate the thoughts of the victim so that his utterance was an instinctive reaction to that event thus giving no real opportunity for reasoned reflection.

(3) In order for the statement to be sufficiently spontaneous it had to be so closely associated with the event which had excited the statement that it could fairly be said that the mind of the declarant was still controlled by the event.

(4) Quite apart from the time factor there might be special features in a case which related to the possibility of distortion.

(5) As to the possibility of error in the facts narrated in such a statement: If only the ordinary fallibility of human recollection was relied upon that went to the weight to be attached and not to the admissibility of the statement and was therefore a matter for the jury.

210
Q

s 114 (d) CJA provides for the admission of hearsay evidence where it is in the interests of justice to do so, explain this

A
  • give the courts a very wide discretion to admit hearsay evidence which is cogent and reliable
  • when deciding on this the court must have regard
    to the factors in s 114(2):
    (a) probative value
    (b) what other evidence has been, or can be, given on the matter
    (c) how important the matter or evidence mentioned in para (a) is in the context of the case as a whole;
    (d) the circumstances in which the statement was made;
    (e) how reliable the maker of the statement appears to be;
    (f) how reliable the evidence of the making of the statement appears to be;
    (g) whether oral evidence of the matter stated can be given and, if not, why not;
    (h) the amount of difficulty involved in challenging the statement; and
    (i) the extent to which that difficulty would be likely to prejudice the party facing it.
  • in regarding these factors the court must also have regard to the D’s right to a fair trial under Art 6 ECHR

Maher v DPP
R v Z

211
Q

The procedural rules to be followed should a party seek to rely on hearsay evidence at trial (or to challenge the admissibility of hearsay evidence on which another party seeks to rely) are contained in Part 20 of the CrimPR.

However the rules in Part 20 only apply to certain types of cases… what are they?

A

(a) it is in the interests of justice for the hearsay evidence to be admissible (s 114(1)(d));
(b) the witness is unavailable to attend court (s 116);
(c) the evidence is multiple hearsay (s 121); or
(d) either the prosecution or the defence rely on s 117 for the admission of a written witness statement prepared for use in criminal proceedings (CrimPR, r 20.2).

WILL NOT APPLY WHERE:
i) hearsay evidence is admissible on any other grounds, than the above
ii) where the hearsay evidence is admissible under one of the common law exceptions to the rule excluding hearsay evidence

212
Q

what is the significance of the Part 20 Crim PR not applying?

A

the party seeking to rely on that evidence will not
need to serve on the other party notice of its intention to rely on such evidence

a party wishing to adduce hearsay evidence to which Part 20 applies, or to oppose another party’s application to introduce such evidence, must give notice of its intention to do this both to the court and to the other parties in the case

213
Q

where a party wishes to adduce hearsay evidence which falls under Part 20 CrimPR, it must give notice of its intention to do this both to the court and to the other parties in the case.

how must notice be given?

A
  • using a set of prescribed forms
  • as part of the standard directions that will be given in both the magistrates’ court and the Crown Court, the court will impose time limits for the CPS and the defendant to give notice of their intention to adduce hearsay evidence at trial
  • r 20.5 of the CrimPR allows the court to dispense with the requirement to give notice of hearsay evidence, to allow notice to be given orally rather than in writing, and to shorten or extend the time limits for giving notice.
214
Q

When either the CPS or the defendant has made an application to adduce hearsay evidence at trial, and this application is opposed by the other party, at what point will the court determine the admissibility of such evidence?

A
  • the court will usually determine the admissibility of such evidence at a pre- trial hearing
  • mags = likely to be at the case management hearing/ pre- trial review, or at a specific pre- trial hearing to
    resolve disputes about the admissibility of evidence
  • Crown = this is likely to be at the PTPH, or at a specific pre- trial hearing
215
Q

what is confession evidence?

A

‘any statement wholly or partly adverse to the person who made it, whether made to a person in authority or not and whether made in words or otherwise’

  • Anything said by a defendant that constitutes an admission of any element of the offence with which they are subsequently charged, or that is in any way detrimental to their case, will satisfy the definition of a confession
  • a confession will be admissible at trial to prove the truth of its contents and is therefore also an exception to the hearsay rule
216
Q

what are mixed statements?

A
  • a confession may sometimes also include a statement which is favourable to the defendant
  • the whole statement = admissible
217
Q

Is a confession made by a defendant admissible in evidence against a co- defendant?

A
  • any evidence given by a co-defendant at trial which implicates a defendant = admissible as evidence against the D
  • if the co-defendant has pleaded guilty at an earlier hearing and is giving evidence for the prosecution at the trial of the D = any evidence given implicating the defendant in the commission of the offence will be admissible in evidence against the defendant
218
Q

A defendant who is alleged to have made a confession may challenge the admissibility of this confession at trial by arguing one of two things. What are they?

A

(a) that they did make the confession, but it should not be admitted in evidence; or

(b) that they did not make the confession, and that the person who claims that the confession was made was either mistaken as to what they heard or has fabricated evidence of the confession.

219
Q

how would a D challenge the admissibility of confession evidence under s 76(2) of PACE 1984?

A

if the D argues the confession was obtained in either of the following manners/circumstances the court must not allow that confession to be used as evidence by the prosecution, unless the prosecution prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the confession was not so obtained

(a) by oppression of the person who made it; or
(b) in circumstances which render the confession unreliable
- something must have been said or done (usually by the police) which might have caused the defendant to make a confession for reasons other than the fact that they had actually committed the offence and wanted to admit guilt
- any breach of PACE or Code C will not in itself lead to the exclusion of evidence > there must be a causal link between the breach and the unreliability
- e.g. if D tries to rely on denial of legal advice as a reason to exclude evidence, a defendant will find
it hard to establish a causal link if they are an experienced criminal who is fully aware of their
rights when detained at the police station

R v Trussler
R v Alladice

220
Q

Can a co- defendant rely on a confession made by another defendant?

A
  • Section 76A(1) of PACE allows a defendant to adduce evidence that a co- defendant has made a confession where both defendants plead not guilty and are tried jointly
  • if the confession is obtained via oppression or in circumstances that render it unreliable, the court must exclude the evidence unless the court is satisfied that ON THE BALANCE OF PROBABILITIES the confession was not obtained in such a way
221
Q

Section 76 of PACE deals exclusively with the court’s power to exclude evidence of a confession made by the defendant where the defendant accepts that they made the confession.

Under s 78, the court has a more general discretion to exclude prosecution evidence. This includes evidence of a confession.

Under what circumstances could the court exclude prosecution evidence through s.78 PACE?

A
  • if the court considers that the admission of the confession would have such an adverse effect on the
    fairness of proceedings that it ought not to be admitted
  • s78 may be relied on either :

i) when the defendant admits making a confession but claims that the confession is untrue, or
- where D alleges there have been SIGNIFICANT AND SUBSTANTIAL breaches of PACE or Code C to obtain the confession

ii) when the defendant denies making the confession at all
- e.g. a confession allegedly made by the defendant when questioned by the police in an interview ‘outside’ the police station is likely to be excluded under s 78 if the police breached the provisions of Code C of PACE 1984 by:
(a) failing to make an accurate record of the defendant’s comments
(b) failing to give the defendant an opportunity to view the record of their comments and to sign this record as being accurate, or to dispute the accuracy of the record
(c) failing to put this admission or confession to the defendant at the start of his subsequent interview at the police station
R v Canale

222
Q

what are significant statements?

A

something said by a suspect in the presence and hearing of a police officer or other member of police staff outside a formal police interview that appears to be capable of being used in evidence against the suspect, in particular a direct admission of guilt

  • significant statements fall under the statutory definition of of a confession under s 82(1) of
    PACE
  • admissibility of confession rules also apply to SSs
  • Code C requires the police at the start of a formal interview, to put to them any significant statements and to ask them whether they confirm or deny that earlier statement and if they want to add anything further.
223
Q

what is the procedure for challenging the admissibility of confession evidence in the crown court?

A
  • the admissibility of disputed confession evidence will be determined by the trial judge in the absence of the jury at a voir dire (a trial within a trial)
  • will hear from both the prosecution and defence and the officer whom the confession is alleged to have been made
  • judge makes a ruling
  • if judge decides inadmissible > the jury hear nothing about the confession
  • if admissible > officer who the confession was made to will give evidence to the jury
  • the D can still attack the evidence in an attempt to persuade the jury to give little weight to it
224
Q

what is the procedure for challenging the admissibility of confession evidence in the magistrates court?

A
  • a ruling on admissibility is sought when the interviewing officer is giving evidence

3 scenarios:

  1. D seeks to exclude evidence of the confession under s 76(2) of PACE = mags must hold a voir dire
  2. D raises submissions under s 76(2) and s 78 = both arguments should be dealt with at the same voir dire
  3. If the defendant seeks to rely only on s 78 = no obligation to hold a voir dire
    - a challenge to the admissibility of the confession
    may be left either to the close of the prosecution case (if the defendant’s solicitor wishes to make a submission of no case to answer), or to the end of the trial when the defendant’s solicitor makes their closing speech
225
Q

what is the legal position regarding evidence obtained from an inadmissible confession?

A
  • the exclusion of confession evidence will not affect
    the admissibility in evidence of any facts discovered as a result of the confession (s 76(4) PACE 1984)
  • however, the CPS will not be able to tell the court that such facts were discovered as a result of a confession made by the defendant
226
Q

what does s 98 CJA define ‘bad character’ as?

A

‘evidence of, or a disposition towards, misconduct’,
other than evidence connected with the offence for which the defendant has been charged

  • ‘Misconduct’ is defined in s 112 as ‘the commission of an offence or other reprehensible behaviour’
  • NOTE - if the alleged misconduct by the defendant is connected to the offence with which he has been charged = will not fall within the definition of bad character in s 98, and will therefore be admissible in evidence without needing to consider whether it satisfies the test for admissibility of bad character evidence
227
Q

Evidence of a defendant’s bad character may be raised at trial through one or more of the 7 ‘gateways’ which are set out in s 101(1) of the CJA 2003.

List the 7 gateways…

A

(a) all parties to the proceedings agree to the evidence being admissible,

(b) the evidence is adduced by the defendant himself or is given in answer to a question asked by him in cross- examination and intended to elicit it,

(c) it is important explanatory evidence,

(d) it is relevant to an important matter in issue between the defendant and the prosecution,

(e) it has substantial probative value in relation to an important matter in issue between the defendant and a co- defendant,

(f) it is evidence to correct a false impression given by the defendant, or

(g) the defendant has made an attack on another person’s character.

228
Q

does bad character evidence in itself prove a D’s guilt?

A

As with the drawing of adverse inferences, a defendant’s bad character cannot of itself prove
guilt.

The prosecution must adduce other evidence to substantiate their case before the jury or magistrates are allowed to take bad character into account.

229
Q

explain how Gateway (b) operates

(the evidence is adduced by the defendant himself or is given in answer to a question asked by him in cross- examination and intended to elicit it)

A
  • allows D to introduce evidence of their own bad character

EXAMPLES OF WHERE THEY WOULD DO THIS:
i) where D only has very minor previous convictions and do not want the jury or magistrates to think that, because they are not adducing evidence of their
own good character, they may have extensive previous convictions
ii) where D has pleaded guilty on previous occasions but are pleading not guilty to the current matter

230
Q

explain how Gateway (c) operates

(it is important explanatory evidence)

A
  • only the prosecution can adduce bad character evidence under this gateway

evidence is important explanatory evidence if:

(a) without it, the magistrates or jury would find it impossible or difficult properly to understand the case; and

(b) the value of the evidence for understanding the case as a whole is substantial
(CJA 2003, s 102) (‘substantial’ in this context is likely to mean more than merely trivial or marginal)

r v campbell

  • if the prosecution can satisfy the above two criteria, the court has no power under the CJA 2003 to
    prevent the admission of this evidence
  • however, court retains the discretionary power to exclude such evidence under s 78 of PACE
231
Q

explain how Gateway (d) operates

(it is relevant to an important matter in issue between the defendant and the prosecution)

A
  • only prosecution may adduce bad character evidence under this gateway

Important matters in issue between the defendant and prosecution include:

(a) the question whether the defendant has a propensity to commit offences of the kind with
which he is charged (except where his having such propensity makes it no more likely that he is guilty of the offence)
- e.g. previous convictions of the same kind
- the CPS must first satisfy the court that establishing such propensity makes it more likely that the D committed the offence
- propensity may be established where D has been convicted of:
(a) an offence of the same description as the one with which he is charged, or
(b) an offence of the same category as the one with which he is charged
- two categories:
i) the sexual offences category, which specifies a number of sexual offences committed against children under 16 years of age
ii) the theft category including:
(i) theft
(ii) robbery
(iii) burglary
(iv) aggravated burglary
(v) taking a motor vehicle or conveyance without authority
(vi) aggravated vehicle taking
(vii) handling stolen goods
(viii) going equipped for stealing
(ix) making off without payment
(x) any attempt to commit any of the above substantive offences
(xi) aiding, abetting, counselling, procuring or inciting the commission of any of the above offences.

  • the above does not apply where as a result of the time which has passed since the conviction (or for any other reason), it would be unjust for it to be applied

AND

(b) the question whether the defendant has a propensity to be untruthful (except where it is not suggested that the defendant’s case is untruthful in any respect) (CJA 2003, s 103(1)).

232
Q

looking at Gateway (d) - it is relevant to an important matter in issue between the defendant and the prosecution (because it shows propensity to commit the same kind of offences or the propensity to be untruthful)

Even if an earlier offence is not of the same description or in the same category as the offence charged, can it still be admissible as bad character evidence?

A
  • if there are significant factual similarities between the offences = yes
  • because the above shows D’s propensity to commit offences of the kind with which the defendant is charged
  • R v Brima
    here D had two previous convictions for assault and robbery both with a knife. bad character evidence adduced as D was accused of murder with a knife - previous convictions show propensity to commit violent offences with a knife
233
Q

In R v Hanson, Gilmore & Pickstone = guidelines for judges or magistrates to consider when the CPS seeks to adduce evidence of a defendant’s previous convictions in order to demonstrate his propensity to commit offences of the kind with which he is charged.

Three questions should be considered, what are they?

A

(i) Does the defendant’s history of offending show a propensity to commit offences?

(ii) If so, does that propensity make it more likely that the defendant committed the current offence?

(iii) If so, is it just to rely on convictions of the same description or category, having in mind the overriding principle that proceedings must be fair?

Only if the answer to each of these questions is in the affirmative should the convictions be allowed in evidence.

If the defendant has only one previous conviction of the same description or category, this is unlikely to show propensity unless there are distinguishing circumstances or a tendency towards unusual
behaviour. The Court gave examples of unusual behaviour as including fire starting and the sexual abuse of children.

234
Q

looking at gateway (d)…

In R v Hanson, Gilmore & Pickstone, the Court of Appeal held that a defendant’s previous convictions will not be admissible to show that the defendant has a propensity to be untruthful unless …

A

(a) the manner in which the previous offence was committed demonstrates that the defendant
has such a propensity (because they had made false representations); or
- must be untruthful not just dishonest
- the only types of offence that would demonstrate such a propensity were offences where the
defendant had actively sought to deceive or mislead another person by the making of false representations
e.g. perjury, fraud by false misrep
- MR of dishonesty isn’t sufficient

(b) the defendant pleaded not guilty to the earlier offence but was convicted following a trial at which the defendant testified and was not believed.

235
Q

Under s 101(3) of the CJA 2003, the court must not admit bad character evidence via Gateway (d) if on an application by the defendant to exclude it, it appears to the court that the admission of the evidence would
have __________________________________________________________________________________________________ .

A
  • such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that the court ought not to admit it

note this is similar to s 78 PACE but with s 78 the court has discretion to exclude the evidence, whereas here the court MUST exclude the evidence if admitting it would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that the court not to admit it

EXAMPLES of where s 101(3) is likely to apply:

(a) when the nature of a defendant’s previous convictions is such that the jury are likely to convict a defendant on the basis of these convictions alone, rather than examining the other evidence placed before them, or where the evidence of the previous convictions is more prejudicial than probative
(b) when the CPS seeks to adduce previous convictions to support a case which is otherwise weak
(c) when the defendant’s previous convictions are ‘spent’ - see timescales attached

236
Q

explain how Gateway (e) operates

(it has substantial probative value in relation to an important matter in issue between the defendant and a co- defendant)

A
  • may be used by one defendant to admit evidence of another defendant’s bad character
  • cannot be used by the CPS
  • A co- defendant is likely to want to admit evidence of a defendant’s bad character to demonstrate that the other defendant has a :
    i) propensity to be untruthful or
  • most relevant where the D’s enter into a ‘cut-throat defence’
  • each defendant pleads not guilty and blames the other(s) as having committed the offence
  • e.g. crimes of perjury of fraud by misrep
    or convictions for any offence where the defendant was convicted at trial after entering a not guilty plea and testifying but not being believed by the court

ii) to show that the other defendant has a propensity to commit the kind of offence with which they have both been charged (thereby suggesting that it is the other defendant, rather than the co- defendant, who committed the offence)
- such convictions must be relevant to an important matter in issue between the co-defendant and the defendant, and that the relevance of such convictions is more than merely marginal or trivial

237
Q

If the co- defendant can establish that the test for admitting evidence of the defendant’s bad character through gateway (e) is satisfied, the court _________________________________________ to prevent the admission of this evidence.

A

has no power under the CJA 2003

238
Q

explain how Gateway (f) operates

(it is evidence to correct a false impression given by the defendant)

A
  • only the prosecution can use gateway (f)
  • a defendant will give a false impression ‘if he is responsible for the making of an express or implied assertion which is apt to give the court or jury a false or misleading impression about the defendant’

A defendant will be treated as being responsible for making such an assertion if the assertion is:
(a) made by the defendant in the proceedings (for example, when giving evidence in the witness box, or in a defence statement served on the CPS);
(b) made by the defendant when being questioned under caution by the police before charge, or on being charged;
(c) made by a witness called by the defendant;
(d) made by any witness in cross- examination in response to a question asked by the defendant that is intended to elicit it; or
(e) made by any person out of court, and the defendant adduces evidence of it in the proceedings (CJA 2003, s 105(2)).

239
Q

If the prosecution can establish that the test for admitting evidence of the defendant’s bad
character through gateway (f) is satisfied, the court has _________________________ to prevent the admission of this evidence.

A

no power under the CJA 2003

the court does, however, retain the discretionary
power to exclude such evidence under s 78 of PACE

240
Q

explain how gateway (g) operates

(an attack on another person’s character)

A
  • usually attacking character of a witness for the prosecution who is attending court to give evidence
  • the attack doesn’t need to take place at trial
  • only the prosecution can use gateway (g)

Evidence attacking another person’s character is evidence to the effect that the other person has:
(a) committed an offence (whether a different offence from the one with which the defendant is charged or the same one); or
(b) behaved, or is disposed to behave, in a reprehensible way (CJA 2003, s 106(2))

  • interpreted very widely
  • but stating the complainant or a witness fabricated evidence = not enough
  • R v Ball
  • R v Williams - claiming the police officers are setting you up = attack on person’s character
241
Q

As with gateway (d), the court __________________________ that would otherwise be admitted under gateway (g) if, on an application by the defendant, the admission of the evidence would have ____________________________________________________________

A
  • must exclude evidence
  • such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that the court ought not to admit it
242
Q

The court has no power under the provisions of the CJA 2003 to exclude bad character evidence admitted under any gateway ______________________ .

Are there any other powers the court has to exclude bad character evidence?

A
  • other than (d) and (g)
  • bad character evidence under gateways (a), (b), (c), (e) and (f) is automatically admissible if the requirements for each of these gateways are satisfied
  • s 78 of PACE = court can exclude evidence on which the prosecution propose to rely if the admission of the evidence would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that it ought not to be
    admitted
  • s78 will apply to bad character evidence which the prosecution seek to adduce under gateways (c) and (f)
  • must have regard to D’s art. 6 ECHR right to a fair trial
  • key question = whether the proceedings as a whole were fair
243
Q

what does s.107 CJA provide regarding stopping contaminated cases?

A

s 107 allows a judge in the Crown Court either to direct the jury to acquit the defendant, or to order a retrial in circumstances where evidence of the defendant’s
bad character is ‘contaminated’

Contamination may occur if witnesses have colluded in order to fabricate evidence of the defendant’s bad character.

Section 107 does not apply to trials in the magistrates’ court.

244
Q

explain the procedure of the CPS admitting bad character evidence…

A
  • notice must be given by the CPS to the court and the other parties in the case
  • prescribed form with a written record of the previous convictions the party giving the notice or making the application is seeking to adduce being attached to the form
  • if a D opposes the introduction of bad character evidence > D must apply to the court for such evidence to be excluded
  • must be sent to court and the other side
245
Q

explain how the bad character of persons other than the defendant (e.g. a witness) may be admissible…

A
  • very limited grounds set out in s 100 (1) CJA 2003:

(a) it is important explanatory evidence,

(b) it has substantial probative value in relation to a matter which—
(i) is a matter in issue in the proceedings, and
(ii) is of substantial importance in the context of the case as a whole, or

(c) all parties agree to the evidence being admissible.

246
Q

explain how gateway (b) in admitting bad character evidence of persons other than the defendant (e.g. a witness) operates

(it has substantial probative value in relation to an important matter in issue in the proceedings)

A
  • most likely to arise when the defendant seeks to adduce evidence of the previous convictions of a witness for the prosecution in order to support an allegation that either:

(a) the witness is lying or has fabricated evidence against the defendant; or

  • in assessing the probative value of the evidence of another person’s previous convictions, the court must have regard to:
    (i) the nature and number of the events, or other things, to which the evidence relates; and
    (ii) when those events or things are alleged to have happened or to have existed (s 100(3)).

(b) the witness themselves is either guilty of the offence with which the defendant has been charged or has engaged in misconduct in connection with the alleged offence
- the court will have regard to the nature and extent of the similarities and dissimilarities between his
previous convictions and the facts of the current offence
- if the suggestion is the witness themselves are guilty = the court will have regard to the extent to which the evidence shows or tends to show that the same person was responsible each time (for their previous convictions)

246
Q

explain how gateway (a) in admitting bad character evidence of persons other than the defendant (e.g. a witness) operates

(the evidence will be important explanatory evidence)

A

The evidence will be important explanatory evidence only if:

(a) without it, the court or jury would find it impossible or difficult properly to understand other evidence in the case; and

(b) its value for understanding the case as a whole is substantial
- substantial = more than merely trivial or marginal

note - leave of the court (permission) will be required

247
Q

Previous convictions of a witness for the prosecution may be used to suggest that the evidence given by the witness lacks credibility in what circumstances?

A

(a) convictions for offences where the witness has made a false statement or representation
(such as perjury, fraud by false representation, or theft, where the witness has lied to another person as part of the commission of the theft); or

(b) convictions where the witness has been found guilty of an offence to which they pleaded not guilty but were convicted following a trial at which their version of events was disbelieved

NOTE a different approach is taken here than to gateway (d) of bad character evidence for the defendant.

dishonesty is sufficient here (whereas it is not in gateway (d))

so the previous convictions of a witness dont have to show a propensity to be untruthful, dishonesty offences may be allowed e.g. burglary, robbery

248
Q

when looking at gateways (a) (b) and (c) for the admission of bad character evidence for persons other than the defendant, which gateways require the leave of the court to be admissible?

A

(a) - it is important explanatory evidence + (b) substantial probative value = require leave

(c) - the parties agree to evidence being admissible = no leave required

249
Q

the defendant was convicted of various road traffic offences after crashing her vehicle into another car (owned by X) and then leaving the scene without leaving her contact details. The evidence against the defendant came from a witness who claimed to have seen the accident and left a note attached to X’s car
giving the registration number of the defendant’s car. X’s partner saw the note and telephoned the police, who made a record of the registration number on their incident log. The note was subsequently lost.

under what (if any) grounds could this be admitted into evidence under hearsay?

A

the court decided this could be admitted under
under s 114 (d) - interests of justice test

there was nothing to suggest it would not be in the interests of justice to admit the log

the evidence was substantial and reliable

250
Q

when are case management directions given in the mags?

A
  • usually at the same hearing at which the defendant enters their plea of not guilty (and, for an either- way offence, after the plea before venue/ allocation hearing)
  • or sometimes at a subsequent hearing
251
Q

how long do the standard case management directions allow parties to prepare for trial?

A

8 weeks (or 14 where expert evidence is required)

252
Q

on what form are case management directions put on for the mags?

A

Magistrates’ Court Trial Preparation Form

253
Q

how can a sol secure the attendance of a witness for a trial in the mags?

A

witness summons from the court
- the court will issue a summons where:
i) it is satisfied that the witness can give material
evidence in the proceedings and
ii) it is in the interests of justice for a summons to be issued

  • a D’s sol will usually write to a witness to confirm their attendance > if negative response received > can obtain witness summons
254
Q

what obligations does a D have to comply with regarding the calling of witnesses where the D has plead not guilty?

A
  1. serve a defence statement
  2. serve a notice to the Crown Prosecution Service (CPS) detailing the names, addresses, and dates of birth of any witnesses they intend to call
    - the CPS can then interview these witnesses but there are guidelines on how this should be done
    - notice = within 28 days of the prosecutor fulfilling or attempting to fulfill their disclosure duties
    - failure to comply = adverse inferences
255
Q

does a D need to serve the CPS with copies of witness statements?

A
  • no unless it is expert evidence
  • expert evidence must be served on the CPS
256
Q

do all witnesses need to attend trial?

A
  • witnesses who’s evidence is not in dispute do not need to attend
  • a written statement from a witness can be used in court instead of the witness attending in person, provided the statement is:
    i) signed
    ii) declaration of truth
    iii) has been shared with all parties before the trial
    iv) none of the other parties has objected within seven days
  • if any objections to the content of the written statement and if wish to cross examine = object within 7 days
257
Q

looking at documentary evidence…

Any plans or photographs should be verified by a _________________________ from the person who prepared the plan or took the photographs.

A

witness statement

258
Q

The ________________________________ framework, implemented in magistrates’ courts, outlines key expectations for case management and practitioner behaviour to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the justice process.

A

Transforming Summary Justice

259
Q

a defendant who is sent for trial in respect of
an either- way offence may also be charged with another offence that is summary- only. which linked summary offences mean the D may be tried in the Crown (if they plead not guilty or opt for crown)?

A
  1. common assault
  2. taking a conveyance without consent
  3. driving whilst disqualified
  4. criminal damage

and
- where the summary-only offence is punishable with imprisonment or disqualification from driving; and
- appears to the court to be related to the either- way offence

260
Q

Natalie is sent for trial to the Crown Court on a charge of ABH (an either way offence). She also faces a charge for the summary- only public order offence of using threatening behaviour. Both charges arise out of the same incident.

where should the trial take place if:
1. Natalie is convicted of ABH (either way) and pleads guilty to the public order offence (summary)
2. Natalie is acquitted of the ABH and is pleading not guilty to the public order offence

A
  1. trial can be held at the Crown court
    - note the sentencing powers of the Crown for the summary offence are capped at the mags powers
  2. remitted back to the mags
261
Q

in what circumstances may a preliminary hearing take place?

A
  • indictable offence but only if:
    (a) there are case management issues which the Crown Court needs to resolve;
    (b) the trial is likely to exceed four weeks;
    (c) it is desirable to set an early trial date;
    (d) the defendant is under 18 years of age; or
    (e) there is likely to be a guilty plea and the defendant could be sentenced at the preliminary hearing.
  • the preliminary hearing must take place within 10 business days of the date on which the magistrates send the case to the Crown Court
262
Q

For those cases sent to the Crown Court where a preliminary hearing is not required, the first hearing in the Crown Court will be the PTPH.

What is the purpose of the PTPH?

A
  • enable the D to enter their plea
  • if they are pleading not guilty > judge gives further case management directions
263
Q

At the start of the PTPH the defendant will be arraigned. What does this mean?

A
  • the counts on indictment will be put before the D
  • the counts the D pleads guilty to > jury not told about
  • a D facing multiple charges may agree with the CPS to plead guilty to certain charges in exchange for the CPS not pursuing others
  • at the arraignment, the CPS may offer no evidence on the charges they are dropping, and the judge will enter a not guilty verdict on those charges, formally discharging the D
  • the CPS may choose for some counts to “lie on the court file” rather than offering no evidence
  • this occurs when the CPS has strong evidence for the serious charges but agrees to leave lesser charges on file if the defendant pleads guilty to the more serious ones
  • a not guilty verdict is not entered, and with the court’s permission, the CPS could potentially reopen the case at a later time
  • if D pleads guilty, Crown may sentence then, or adjourn awaiting pre-sentence report or arrange a Newton hearing
  • if for some reason, arraignment hasn’t yet taken place before the trial, it will take place before the jury is empanelled
264
Q

what is a goodyear indication?

A
  • judge may at the PTPH give a D an advance indication of the likely sentence they would receive if they were to enter a guilty plea at that stage
  • D must specifically ask for such an indication
  • if the judge gives an indication and the defendant
    then enters a guilty plea, the indication given by the judge will be bindin
265
Q

at the PTPH, a judge will either fix a trial date or place the case in the warned list. what is the warned list?

A
  • a list of cases awaiting trial that have not been given a fixed date for the trial to start
266
Q

when may a D change their plea from not guilty to guilty?

A
  • at any time before the jury return their verdict (this is at the judge’s discretion)
  • during the trial if the judge makes a ruling on a point of law or the admissibility of a piece of evidence which
    deprives the defendant of a defence on which they wanted to rely
  • defendant must apply, in writing, as soon as practicable after becoming aware of the grounds for making such an application to change a plea of guilty (eg if the defendant had misunderstood the prosecution case)
267
Q

explain the prosecution’s duty of disclosure

A
  • serve on the defendant all the evidence on which it wishes to rely at trial to prove the defendant’s guilt
  • CPS has a continuing obligation to disclose any of its unused material in its possession that ‘might reasonably be considered capable of undermining the case for the prosecution … or of assisting the case for the accused’
268
Q

what should a defendant’s sol do if they consider that the disclosure made by the CPS is incomplete?

A
  • they can request disclosure of any ‘missing’ items when drafting the defence statement
  • if the CPS refuses disclosure of these items, the solicitor may apply to the court to request the specific disclosure
  • defendant will only be allowed to make such an application if they have set out in detail in their defence statement the material which they consider the CPS has in its possession which it has not subsequently disclosed
269
Q

Can the prosecution withhold disclosure of unused material?

A
  • sensitive items:
    (a) material relating to matters of national security or intelligence;
    (b) material relating to the identity of police informants or undercover police officers;
    (c) material revealing techniques and methods relied upon by the police (eg covert surveillance techniques used); and
    (d) material relating to a child witness (such as material generated by a local authority social services department).
  • the CPS can make an app to the court for a finding that it is not obliged to disclose the relevant material because it is protected by ‘public interest immunity’
  • these apps will often be made ex parte (without notice to the defendant)
270
Q

what are the defence’s disclosure obligations?

A
  • more limited than the CPS
  • obligation in Crown Court for defence to provide defence statement
  • failure to provide one may lead to the drawing of adverse infererences
  • under ongoing obligation to update the defence statement if new facts come to light
271
Q

what are the time limits for the service of a defence statement in:
i) the mags
ii) the crown

does a D HAVE to provide a defence statement?

A
  • mags = within 10 business days of the CPS making initial disclosure of any unused material it has
  • D’s sol should consider serving a defence statement on the CPS only if they think that the CPS will, in the light of the information disclosed in the statement, be in a position to disclose additional unused material that may assist the defence case
  • crown = 20 days + compulsory disclosure of defence statement

if complex case and 20 is insufficient = can apply to court for more time

272
Q

defence statements will be deemed to be given with the authority of the defendant unless the contrary is proved

true or false

A

true - D’s sol should therefore ensure the D has seen and approved the defence statement before it is served

273
Q

when may a court draw adverse inferences for a D’s failure to serve a defence statement in the Crown Court?

A
  • defence statements are obligatory for Ds pleading not guilty in the Crown
  • if there are any ‘faults’ in disclosure given by the defence, the court may draw adverse inferences
  • ‘faults’:
    (a) failing to provide a defence statement at all;
    (b) late service of the defence statement;
    (c) serving a defence statement that is incomplete;
    (d) serving a defence statement which is not consistent with the defence put forward at trial; and
    (e) failing to update a defence statement.

If any of these faults occurs the court or, with leave, any other party (such as the prosecution or any co- accused) may make such comments as appear appropriate, and the court or jury may draw such inferences as appear proper when deciding whether the defendant is guilty.

274
Q

An adult defendant charged with an offence triable only on indictment will be sent straight to the Crown Court for trial following a hearing in the magistrates’ court.

What is this hearing known as and what is its purpose?

A

s.51 hearing

to determine whether an offence triable only on
indictment is charged and whether there are related offences which should also be sent to the Crown Court

275
Q

where an adult appears before a magistrates’ court charged with an offence triable only on indictment, the court must send them to the Crown Court for trial.

where there are other offences including the indictable offence, in what situation would they need to be sent to the Crown?

A

(i) the either- way or summary offence appears to the court to be related to the offence triable only on indictment; and
(ii) in the case of a summary- only offence, it is punishable with imprisonment, or involves
obligatory or discretionary disqualification from driving

known as the requisite conditions

276
Q

The difficulty faced by the defendant’s solicitor when conducting a voir dire in the magistrates’ court is that the magistrates decide matters of both law and fact.

This means that even if the magistrates decide that a piece of prosecution evidence is inadmissible, the magistrates will still be aware of the existence of that item of evidence.

Are there any ways in which the mags can overcome this?

A

hold pre- trial hearings to determine the admissibility of disputed evidence heard by a different bench of mags

277
Q

when would a submission of no case to answer be made?

A
  • P bears the evidential burden of proving a D’s guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • the P must provide sufficient evidence
  • if they do not, the D can enter a submission of no case to answer at the conclusion of the prosecution case asking the mags to dismiss the case

the galbraith test:
(a) the prosecution has failed to put forward evidence to prove an essential element of the alleged offence; or

(b) the evidence produced by the prosecution has been so discredited as a result of crossexamination, or is so manifestly unreliable, that no reasonable tribunal could safely convict on it.

R v Sadar:
- when there is direct evidence capable of proving the charge, a case to answer will always exist, regardless of how weak the evidence is
- however, when the prosecution relies solely on circumstantial evidence, there is no case to answer only if the evidence cannot, even when fully accepted, support a conviction.

278
Q

what happens after a D’s sol makes a submission of no case to answer (only in the mags), but it is rejected?

A
  • D may present their case and call their witnesses
  • just because P has satisfied their evidential burden, doesnt mean they have a conviction
  • the D will not have heard from the defence or any of their witnesses
279
Q

A defendant is a competent witness for the defence but is not _____________.

A

compellable

280
Q

what is the main advantage of a D testifying?

A

avoids s.35 adverse inference

281
Q

if the defendant intends to give witness evidence, when must they be called?

A

before any other of the defence witnesses (unless the court otherwise directs)

  • note all other witnesses aren’t allowed in court until they have testified to avoid the risk of collusion
282
Q

how is a verdict reached in the mags?

A

most trials in the mags = bench of three mags

decision doesn’t have to be unanimous

283
Q

what are we talking about when we refer to the i) admissibility and ii) cogency of evidence?

A

admissibility = will the evidence go in

cogency = evidence has gone in, so this is referring to the weight the judge/jury gives to it (Turnbull warnings become applicable)

284
Q

when is the defence allowed to make an opening speech to the jury (in the Crown)?

A
  • only if the defence intends to call more witnesses than just the D
285
Q

what majority is required from a jury?

A
  • unanimous
  • although a majority verdict of 11:1 or 10:2 will be accepted if, after at least 2 hours and 10 minutes, unanimity is not possible
  • note the judge will wait longer if the case is complex
  • if any jurors have been discharged during the trial then the majority verdict requirements reflect this, so where there were only 11 jurors, the majority must be 10:1
  • where there are only nine jurors (two jurors discharged) then only a unanimous verdict is acceptable
286
Q

how should a judge be addressed in:
i) the mags
ii) the crown

A

Sir or Madam = chair of the bench of three mags or to a DJ

Your Honour = when trial is in the crown

287
Q

for criminal advocates, when you address the court
or are examining witnesses, the default position is that you are required to stand up if the proceedings are taking place in open court, which most criminal proceedings are.

in what circumstances can you remain seated?

A
  • when representing a juvenile client in the youth court;
  • where a defendant appears via videolink from prison;
  • where a witness appears via secure link, normally because of special measures
  • where witnesses are located far from court (especially police officers) and need to give evidence via videolink;
  • where an advocate has requested to appear over videolink (the court videolink facility is called CVP or Cloud Video Platform);
  • when making a bail appeal before a judge in chambers in the Crown Court
288
Q

what is the purpose of examination in chief

A
  • to allow the witness to tell their story
  • the advocate is not allowed to ask leading questions
289
Q

what is meant by ‘putting your case’ to a witness?

why must a party conducting a cross-examination, put their case to the witness giving evidence?

A
  • suggesting to a witness that the version of events which that witness has just put forward in examination- in- chief is incorrect and suggesting an alternative version of events
  • it is always necessary for an advocate to put their client’s version of events to a witness in cross- examination
  • e.g. in an assault case where the defendant is claiming
    they acted only in self- defence, the defendant’s solicitor must, when cross- examining the
    alleged victim of the assault, put to the victim that they (the victim) attacked the defendant first and that the defendant was acting only in self- defence
  • if the defendant’s solicitor fails to put to the witness that the defendant was acting in self- defence, the defendant will then not be entitled to enter the witness box and say that they were acting in self- defence
290
Q

what kind of questions are asked in cross examination?

A

closed and leading questions

291
Q

At the end of the cross- examination, the party who called the witness may, if they choose, briefly re- examine their witness.

A
  • should only be in relation to matters that
    have arisen in cross- examination and as with examination- in- chief
  • only open, non- leading questions are allowed
292
Q

what is the general rule on competency to give evidence at trial?

what are the exceptions?

A
  • general rule = all persons are competent to give evidence at a criminal trial

EXCEPTIONS:
A person is not competent to give evidence in criminal proceedings if it appears to the court that he is not a person who is able to:
(a) understand questions put to him as a witness; and
(b) give answers to them which can be understood.

  • e.g. children > although age is not determinative (only issue is whether the witness can provide intelligible testimony)
  • but they dont get sworn in until the age of 14
  • where a D has defective intellect, they may be able to provide unsworn evidence, so long as they can meet the above test for competence
293
Q

what is the general rule regarding compellability?

what are the exceptions?

A
  • general rule = all competent persons are compellable

EXCEPTIONS:
- the accused is not a competent witness

  • the same rule prevents the Crown from calling one co- accused to testify against another
  • 4 situations where the Crown can call the co-accused as a witness:
    1. AG may file a nolle prosequi (a formal notice abandoning the prosecution)
    2. An order may be made for separate trials but note that in such a case, a co- accused from the first trial may be called at the second, but not vice versa.
    3. The accused may be formally acquitted, for example if the prosecution offers no evidence.
    4. The accused may plead guilty and may then give evidence for the Crown against a coaccused; it is usually considered desirable that the accused should be sentenced first before giving evidence.
  • spouse is not compellable unless:
  • the offence charged involves an assault on or injury or threat of injury to the spouse or a person who was under l6; or
  • the charge is a sexual offence, or such an attempted offence involving a person under l6 or aiding and abetting such offences.
294
Q

Youth Justice and Criminal Evidence Act (YJCEA) 1999 introduced a number of ‘special measures’ which are available to assist witnesses (other than the
defendant) who might otherwise have difficulty in giving evidence in criminal proceedings, or
who might be reluctant to do so.

which categories of witness may apply to the court for the assistance of special measures?

A

(a) children aged under 18;
(b) those suffering from a mental or physical disorder, or having a disability or impairment that is likely to affect their evidence;
(c) those whose evidence is likely to be affected by their fear or distress at giving evidence in the proceedings;
(d) complainants in sexual offences;
(e) those who are witnesses in specified gun and knife crimes

Witnesses who are alleged to be the victims of sexual offences will automatically be considered eligible for special measures under (c) above when giving evidence, unless the witness tells the court that he or she does not want such assistance.

In all other cases, it is for the court to determine whether a witness falls into any of these categories.

295
Q

where special measures are used for witness evidence, what is the trial judge obliged to do?

A

to warn the jury that the fact that special measures have been used should not in any way prejudice
them against the defendant or give rise to any suggestion that the defendant has behaved in
any way improperly towards the witness