criminal litigation Flashcards

1
Q

Which police ranking can Custody Officer (C.O.)?

A

Sergeant

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2
Q

Inspector can:
(POLICE RANKING)

A
  • can delay rights to be incommunicado (but must allow when the risk goes/fades away)
  • can conduct the custody review
  • can be a c.o.
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3
Q

When will ‘Review of detention’ take place?

A

First review not more than 6 hours after authorisation of detention THEN every 9 hours.
Relevant time = authorisation of detention

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4
Q

Superintendent can:
(POLICE RANKING)

A
  • confirm up to 36 of detention (+12h) (indictable offence)
    (can only delay AFTER 2nd review of detention (6+9+9) and BEFORE 24h is up)
    ( Relevant time = arrival at the station )
  • delay right to consult a solicitor (indictable offence)
  • can remove a solicitor from the interview
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5
Q

If detention time limit should be extended over 36h since the relevant time, then:

A

must apply to Magistrates Court to obtain a ‘warrant of further detention’.
24+12+36+24 = 96

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6
Q

First hearings when D° is on bail:

A
  • 14 days if a guilty plea is expected in MC
  • 182 days if indictable in CC
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7
Q

PTPH takes place

A

Generally 28 days after allocation/sending to CC.

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8
Q

Can VIPER be conducted without D°’s consent?

A

NO but if D does not consent, adverse inferences can be drawn.

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9
Q

When should identification ‘ID’ procedure be conducted by the police?

A

if identification is in dispute/is an issue.
Police has obligation to conduct ID procedures arises when:
- suspect is known to police
- offence is eye witnessed
- suspect diputes being the person seen by eye-witness
=> it would be a breach of CODE D (and later evidence can be excluded s78)

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10
Q

Covert procedure can be used when

A

as a last resort, if all procedures are considered & refused.

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11
Q

When should the prosecution serve IDPC?

A

Max the beginning of the day of the first hearing.

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12
Q

When does PTPH take place?

A

If case sent to CC or must be tried in the CC, usually after 28 days of being sent to CC.

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13
Q

When should defence statement be served?

A

In CC = mandatory, within 28 days of P complying with the initial disclosure duty

In MC = voluntary, within 10 days of P complying with the initial disclosure duty

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14
Q

Csq of not serving a defence statement

A

Only possible in MC not to serve.
If they do NOT serve, the defence CANNOT apply for ‘specific disclosure’ [s8 application].

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15
Q

When can the D change their plea from NG to G?

A

ANYTIME BEFORE JURY RETURNS THEIR VERDICT

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16
Q

When can the D change their plea from G to NG?

A

Anytime before sentencing BUT D must ask court for ‘leave’ (judge has discretion)

17
Q

Until when the duty to retain material by Prosecution lasts?

A
  • D’s acquittal; or
  • D’s conviction [non-custod]
  • 6 months from the release from custody
18
Q

What needs to be filed for case prep management [CMC]?

A
  • in MC, the PET form
  • in CC, PTPH form
19
Q

Special applications for P’s disclosure duty

A
  • specific disclosure (particular item) [when demanded, P must reply within 10 days in writing]
  • TP disclosure (if TP refuses, issue summons)
  • public interest immunity (ie. there is a risk of serious prejudice to an important public interest)
20
Q

When should notice of intention be served to call a defence witness?

A
  • within 28 days in CC
  • within 10 days in the MC
21
Q

When should evidence be served by P in the CC?

A
  • 50 days if D is in custody
  • 70 days if D is on bail
22
Q

When do confessions are admitted?

A
  • if partly adverse to their case
  • if fully confessed
23
Q

Skeleton arguments by defence - time limits

A

MC: min 10 days before trial & prosecution replied within 5 days

CC: prior to trial or at the time of, before the opening speech of P.

24
Q

At what stage exclusion of confession can be initiated

A

in MC: s76 application is a preliminary issue
but s78 applications can be heard at a later stage.

in CC a voir dire will be required both for s76 and s78 applications

25
when does voir dire become a requirement?
only required if a factual matter relating to the substance of legal argument requires resolution. If background facts are agreed, no voir dire will take place.
26
When should TURNBULL direction be given by the judge to the jury?
the case rests wholly or substantially on the ID evidence and; 1-judge assessed the quality of the ID evidence using ADVOKATE and decided it is of good quality. OR 2- decided it was poor quality but there are supporting evidences
27
When can D's spouse become a compellable witness?
1- is competent 2- compellable by P only if # domestic violence # child abuse, sex offence, attempts to against child under 16 y.o.
28
Loss of control limitations
* considered desire for revenge (planned/premeditated) * excuse to use violence (not enough that D started it to qualify as an excuse) * sexual infidelity exceptions to SI: o was in the background, not the true or sole trigger (jury to have whole story) o there hasn’t been SI, someone lied/made it up to taunt D o SI has not taken place yet * attempted murder
29
BoP for loss of control and diminished responsibility
The prosecution proves beyond reasonable doubt when loss of control once the issue is raised BUT for diminished responsibility it is the defence which proves on balance of probabilities that the partial defence applies.
30
Diminished responsibility & intoxication If the D was intoxicated at the time of the killing, the jury should then ask themselves:
has the defendant satisfied you that, despite the drink, (1) he was suffering from mental abnormality; and (2) his mental abnormality substantially impaired his mental responsibility for his fatal acts?' Alcohol dependency syndrome (ADS) If the defendant’s AMF arises from the ‘ADS’: * D must have an AMF- at the time of the killing due to ADS. Factors to be considered include the extent and severity of the ADS. * AMF must arise from a recognised medical condition- the ADS. * AMF must have substantially impaired the defendant's ability to do one of the things in s 2(1A). * AMF must provide an explanation for D’s conduct, even if it is not the only cause, s 2(1B).
31