criminal law, part b Flashcards

1
Q

defendant

A

the person who committed the crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

prosecution

A

the state bringing the case to court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

actus reas

A

guilty act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

mens reas

A

guilty mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

omission

A

failure to act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

causation

A

the cause and effect of the event or action of a crime, and the result causing harm or damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

thin skull rule

A

concept under causation: the defendant must take them as they find them, if the victim has something unusual about their physical or mental state, they may make the injury worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

chain of causation

A

must be a direct link from the defendants conduct to the consequence. if the chain breaks, there could be a “new intervening act”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

act of a third party

A

medical treatment unlikely to break the chain. the intervening act must make the defendants actions insignificant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

causation in law

A

defendant can be guilty even though his conduct was not the only cause of the consequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

causation in fact

A

the actual evidence or facts of the case that prove a party is at fault for causing the other persons harm, damages or losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

chain of causation

A

must be a direct link from the defendants conduct to the consequence. if the chain breaks, there could be a “new intervening act”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

victims own act

A

if the defendant causes the victim to react in a foreseeable way then any injury to the victim will be caused by the defendant. if the victims reaction is unreasonable, it may break the chain of causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

highest form of mens rea

A

intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

direct intent

A

the defendant desires a specific outcome, set out to achieve a particular result, hardest to prove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

oblique intent

A

the outcome was not the defendants desire BUT the jury can “infer intention”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

lower form of mens rea

A

recklessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

recklessness

A

covers situations where the defendant has taken an unjustified risk. a subjective test (based on what the defendant was thinking) not as serious as intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

transferred malice

A

the mens rea can be transferred to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

contemporaneity rule

A

defendant must have actus reas and mens rea at the same time, continuing act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cases for statutory duty (1)

A

dangerous dogs act 1991

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cases for act of third party (3)

A

r v jordan, r v cheshire, r v malcherek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cases for victims own act (2)

A

r v williams, r v roberts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cases for the mens rea- intention, direct (1)

A

r v mohan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cases for the mens rea- oblique, (2)

A

r v woollin, r v nedrick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cases for recklessness (1)

A

r v cunningham

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cases for transferred malice (1)

A

r v latimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cases for contemporaneity rule (2)

A

r v fagan, thabo meli v r

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

assault and battery

A

criminal justice act 1988

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

section 47 (2)

A

-assault occasioning actual bodily harm
-any hurt or injury that interferes with the health and comfort of the victim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

section 20

A

malicious wound or inflict (cause) GBH (no intention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

section 18

A

malicious wound or inflict GBH with intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

assault

A

the defendant must intentionally or subjectively recklessly put or seek to put another person in fear of apprehending immediate unlawful personal violence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

fear of violence

A

act or words must cause the victim to fear that immediate force is going to be used against them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

cases for fear of violence (5)

A

r v smith, r v ireland, r v ireland, r v lamb, tuberville v savage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

mens rea of assault

A

either 1) intention to cause (direct, r v mohan, desired consequence) another to fear immediate unlawful personal violence/seeking to put in fear OR 2) recklessness (r v cunningham) as to whether such fear is caused. subjective test- the defendant must realise the risk of his actions/words could cause another to fear unlawful personal violence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

battery

A

defendant directly intended (r v mohan) or subjectively recklessly applies unlawful force to another (r v cunningham, unjustified risk) must be some force, slightest touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

battery cases (5)

A

DPP v K, r v haystead, DPP v santa- bermudez, collins v wilcock, r v Thomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

section 47

A

assault occasioning actual bodily harm (ABH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

section 47: actus reus

A

an assault and/or battery that occasions actual bodily harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

section 47: mens rea

A

intention (r v mohan) or recklessness (r v cunningham) as to the assult and/or battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

actual bodily harm

A

any hurt or injury calculated to interfere with the health or comfort of the victim. covers: bruises, scratches, broken bones. may also include psychiatric injury- but not mere distress or panic. doesn’t have to intend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

section 47: actus reas cases (3)

A

r v smith, r v chan-fook, t v dpp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

section 47: mens rea

A

defendant must intend (r v mohan) or be subjectively reckless (r v cunningham) as to whether the victim fears or is subjected to unlawful force (battery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

section 47: mens rea cases (2)

A

r v savage, r v roberts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

two offences which involve wounding or GBH

A

section 20 and section 18 offences against person act 1861. actus reas same for both offences- only mens rea is different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

case for “inflict” and “cause” meaning the same thing (evaluation) case

A

r v burstow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

actus reas: section 20 and section 18, wound and GBH definitions

A

wound: cut or break in the skin- internal bleeding not specific
GBH: serious harm- does not have to be life-threatening (hospitalised)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

actus reas, section 20 and section 18, wound cases (1)

A

r v eisenhower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

men’s rea, section 20 and section 18, GBH cases (4)

A

r v dica, r v golding, r v bollom, r v brown and stratton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

men’s rea section 20

A

defendant must intent to cause another person some harm or be subjectively reckless as to whether he suffers some harm. no need for defendant to foresee serious injury but must realise the risk of some injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

men’s rea section 20 cases (1)

A

r v parmenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

mens rea section 18 (2)

A
  • defendant must intend to do some GBH
  • oblique intent applies to section 18: so if that act that the def does is virtually certain to cause GBH and the defendant REALISES this, this is evidence that the defendant had a mens rea for section 18
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

resist or prevent the lawful apprehension or detainer of any person case (1)

A

r v morrison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

defence of consent (4)

A

-where the victim agrees to suffer an injury
-a defence to some,less serious,non-fatal offences
-consent is not a defence, in legal terms
-the other person consents to being touched-there is no battery and no unlawful force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

defence of consent means the actus reas is not present case

A

r v donovan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are the 3 key rules when consent is never allowed

A
  • never available to murder for section 18
  • consent is never available to sado-masochisnic acts (pain for pleasure)
    -consent is never available to street fighting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

consent is never available to street fighting case

A

AGs Ref No. 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

consent to minor injuries (2)

A

-always allowed for a battery
-only allowed for sec 47 or sec 20 if one of the exceptions apply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

5 expections to consent to minor injuries

A

-properly conducted sports and games
-surgery
-piercings and tattoos
-dangerous exhibitions eg. boxing, cage fighting
-horseplay (messing around)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

implied consent (2)

A
  • some situations where consent is implied by the courts
  • minor touching: these are everyday situations where there is a crowd of people and it is impossible not to have some contact
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

defence of consent cases (8)

A

r v wilson, wilson v pringle, r v jones, r v barnes, r v slingsby, r v tabassum, r v olugboja, r v burrell and harmer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

when is self-defence used? (3)

A

-defendant admits to committing the actus reas with the necessary mens rea, but says it was self-defence
-defendant can use force which is reasonable in the circumstances
-defendant can defend himself, another or his property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

common law is now clarified in?

A

section 76 Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008: declares the section is not intended to change the law, but to clarify it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

self-defence: force

A

“such force as its reasonable in the circumstances as he genuinely believes them to be in the defence of himself or another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

definition of reasonable force

A

degree of force must be reasonable and not disproportionate
doing what the person honestly and instinctively thought was necessary for a legitimate purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

case for reasonable force (1)

A

r v hussain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

definition of force must be necessary

A

necessity of force- subjective based on defendants honest, genuine belief as to the facts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

case for force must be necessary

A

r v gladstone williams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

force used must be reasonable: what do the jury have to decide? (2)

A

-what is reasonable? (subjective test)
-no characteristics are taken into account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

cases for force used must be reasonable (2)

A

r v martin, r v clegg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what does sec 76(5A) state? (4)

A

-in a householder case, degree of force will not be regarded as reasonable, only where it was ‘grossly disproportionate’
1. force must be used by defendant while in or partly in a building that is a dwelling
2. defendant must not be a trespasser
3. defendant must have believed that victim was a trespasser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

householder case (1)

A

collins v secretary of state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

section 76 cjia 2008 (2)

A
  • degree of force used must be reasonable not disproportionate/excessive (r v martin) (r v clegg)
  • doing what the person honestly and instinctively thought was necessary for a legitimate purpose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

section 76(3) cjia 2008

A

defendant is judged on the facts as he/she genuinely believed them to be (r v gladstone williams) no characteristics can be taken into account (r v martin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

section 76(6)(a)

A

defendant is not under a duty to retreat when acting for a legitimate purpose. the possibility the defendant could have retreated is considered when deciding whether the degree of force used was reasonable (r v bird)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

section 76(5) cjia 2008

A

if mistake is made because defendant is intoxicated, then he/she cannot relay in this mistake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

defence of intoxication (4)

A
  • intoxication by alcohol or drugs
  • relevant as whether the defendant has the mens rea of the offence
  • not have the mens rea due to intoxicated state he may not be guilty
  • partial defence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

whether the defendant is guilty or not depends on 2 things: (intoxication)

A

1) whether the intoxication was voluntary or involuntary
2) whether the offence charged is one of specific or basic intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

specific intent offences

A

those which require specific intention for their mens rea (theft, robbery, burglary or sec 18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

basic intent offences

A

those which recklessness is sufficient for the mens rea (sec 47/20, assault/battery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

voluntary intoxication

A

only available for specific intent offences-if the mens rea is negated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

voluntary intoxication case

A

r v sheerhan and moore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

voluntary intoxication, mens rea is not negated case

A

r v gallagher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

voluntary intoxication is never a defence to basic intent crimes case

A

r v majewski

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

involuntary intoxication (2)

A

-covers situations where the defendant did not know he was taking an intoxicated substance
-also covers where prescribed drugs have an unexpected effect of making defendant intoxicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what is the TEST for intoxication

A

did the defendant have the necessary mens rea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

involuntary intoxication is a defence to all crimes but mens rea must be negated case

A

r v kingston

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

involuntary intoxication covers both specific and basic intent crimes case

A

r v hardie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is the defence of insanity based on (4)

A

-case of M’Naughten (1843)
-suffered from extreme paranoia
-thought he was being persecuted by the tories. he tried to kill a member of parliament but killed his secretary instead
-due to his mental state he was found not guilty of murder, and instead got taken to a mental hospital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what are the 3 elements in insanity that need to be considered

A
  • a defect of reason
  • must be the result of a disease of the mind
    -this causes the defendant not to know the nature and quality of his act or not to know that what he was doing was wrong
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

insanity: burden of proof

A

burden of providing insanity is on the defence, who must prove it on the balance of probabilities. where a defendant is found to be insane the verdict is, ‘not guilty by reason of insanity.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

insanity: defect of reason (2)

A
  • defendants powers of reasoning must be impaired
  • if defendant is capable of reasoning, but has failed to use those powers, then this is not a defect of reason
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

insanity: defect of reason case

A

r v clarke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

insanity: disease of the mind (2)

A

-defect of reason must be due to disease of the mind
-legal term, not medical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

insanity: disease can be mental or physical case

A

r v kemp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

insanity: epilepsy does come under insanity case

A

r v sullivan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

insanity: sleep-walking within the legal defence of insanity case

A

r v burgess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

insanity: defendant cannot use defence defence of insanity due to voluntary intoxication and causing a psychiatric episode case

A

r v coley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

hypoglycaemia

A

low blood sugar, taken insulin-not eaten =insane automatism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

hyperglycaemia

A

high blood sugar, not taken insulin = insanity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

diabetes cases (2)

A
  • r v quick
  • r v hennessy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

not knowing that nature and quality of the act or not knowing that it is wrong (4)

A

-nature and quality refers to the physical character of the act
-2 ways in which the defendant may not know the nature and quality of the act
- because he is in a state of unconsciousness or impaired unconsciousness
- or where he is conscious but due to his mental condition he does not understand or know what he is doing wrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

insanity: defendant must ejther not know the nature and quality of their act case

A

r v windle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

special verdict (4)

A
  • when a defendant successfully proves insanity, then the jury must return a verdict of ‘not guilty by reason of insanity.’
    -up till 1991 the judge then just had to send the defendant to a mental hospital, regardless of the cause of the insanity or the offence committed
  • not suitable for cases where the defendant suffered from diabetes, epilepsy or hardening of the arteries
  • in the criminal procedure (insanity or unfitness to plea) act 1991 was passed to extend the options for the judge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

leading case of automatism

A

bratty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

insane automatism

A

where the cause of the automatism is a disease of the mind within the McNaughten rules-defence will be insanity and the verdict not guilty by reason of insanity (external factor, trigger, disease of the mind)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

non-insane automatism, case and examples (5)

A

defence because actus reas done by defendant is not voluntary. the defendant does also not have required mens rea for the offence. (hill v baxter) examples: 1. a blow to the head 2. an attack by swarm of bees 3. sneezing 4. hypnotism 5. the effect of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

automatism: exceptional stress can be an external factor

A

r v t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

automatism: reduced or partial control of one’s actions is not sufficient to constitute non-insane automatism

A

AG’s Ref No 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

self induced automatism

A

defendant knows that his conduct is likely to bring on an automatistic state eg. diabetic failing to eat after taking insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

self induced automatism case

A

r v bailey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

murder

A

killing someone with intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

voluntary manslaughter

A

charged with murder but can raise a defence, had intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

involuntary manslaughter

A

no intention to kill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

murder: 4 points to remember

A
  • common law offence
  • not defined by parliament
  • defined by judges decisions
  • definition based on one given by 17th century- Lord Coke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Lord Coke- 17th century

A

‘the unlawful killing of a reasonable person in being and under the kings peace with malice aforethought, express or implied.’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

actus reas of murder (5)

A

-the unlawful killing of a reasonable person in being
-under the kings peace
-can be an act or an omission
- must cause the death, causation will apply
-murder = result crimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

mens rea of murder

A

malice aforethought express or implied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

reasonable person in being and the two problems

A
  • means human being
    1. is a foetus in the womb a reasonable being 2. brain dead or life support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

foetus

A

homocide offence cannot be charged in respect of killing a foetus, but If foetus injured and born alive, but died afterwards as a result of injuries then can be acts real for murder or manslaughter

122
Q

murder: foetus is not a ‘reasonable person in being’ until it takes its first breath case

A

AG’S REF NO.3

123
Q

murder: kings peace (3)

A
  • killing an enemy in course of war not murder
  • killing prisoner of war would be sufficient for actus reas of murder
  • a soldier on leave will not have the right to kill - ao2 establish that defendant is not a soldier
124
Q

murder: malice aforethought express (4)

A

-intention
-direct (mohan-desired consequence)
- or oblique (woolin-outcome of death is virtually certain)
- not recklessness

125
Q

murder: malice aforethought implied (3)

A
  • intention
  • direct or oblique
  • to cause GBH: knowing death would result
126
Q

murder: the intention to cause GBH is enough for a conviction of murder. defendant must be aware that the action could of resulted in death case

A

r v vickers

127
Q

intention for murder can be…

A

direct: desired consequence ( r v mohan)
OR
oblique: jury can infer intention (r v woolin) if the outcome of death or serious harm is virtually certain and the defendant realises this

128
Q

voluntary manslaughter: a person charged with murder will have the charge reduced to manslaughter if he satisfies the requirements of either: (2)

A
  • diminished responsibility
  • loss of control
    these cannot be used elsewhere
129
Q

diminished responsibility: statutes

A

section 2 (1) homocide act 1957 as amended by section 52 coroners and justice act 2009

130
Q

homocide act 1957- amended by section 52, coroners and justice act 2009: section 52 (1)

A

a person who kills or is a party to the living of another is not to be convicted of murder if defendant was suffering from an abnormality of mental functioning

131
Q

homocide act 1957- amended by section 52, coroners and justice act 2009: section 52(1)(a)

A

arose from a recognised medical condition

132
Q

homocide act 1957- amended by section 52, coroners and justice act 2009: section 52 (1) (b)

A

substantially impaired defendants ability to do one or more of the things mentioned in subsection 19

133
Q

homocide act 1957- amended by section 52, coroners and justice act 2009: section 52 (1) (c)

A

provides an explanation for defendants act and omissions in doing or being a party to the willing

134
Q

homocide act 1957- amended by section 52, coroners and justice act 2009: section 52 (1)(A)

A

(a) to understand the nature of the defendants conduct
(b) to form a rational judgement
(c) to exercise self control

135
Q

homocide act 1957- amended by section 52, coroners and justice act 2009: section 52 (1)(B)

A

for the purpose of subsection (1) (c) an abnormality of mental functioning provides an explanation for the defendants conduct if it causes or is a significant contributing factor in causing defendant to carry out that conduct

136
Q

definition of the abnormality of the mind: a state of mind so different from that of a reasonable person case

137
Q

abnormality of mental functioning

A

the defendant must prove that the condition was excessive when compared to that experienced by a reasonable person

138
Q

arising from a recognised medical condition

A

section 52(1)(a)- abnormality of mental functioning must arise from a recognised medical condition

139
Q

pre-menstrual tension is a recognised medical condition case

140
Q

loss of control: battered wife syndrome is a recognised medical condition case

A

r v aluwalia

141
Q

loss of control: severe depression is a recognised condition case

A

r v gittens

142
Q

loss of control: jealousy is a recognised medical condition cases (2)

A

r v vinagre, r v miller

143
Q

must substantialy impair the loss of control: defendants ability to one or more of the three things listed in section 52 (1)(A)

A

-to understand the nature of his conduct
-to form a rational judgement
-to exercise self control

144
Q

substantial does not mean total nor trivial or minimal- something in-between as is for the jury to decide cases (2)

A

r v lloyd, r v gold

145
Q

understand the nature of his conduct (manslaughter)

A

covers situations where defendant is in an automatic state and don’t know what they are doing

146
Q

ability to form a rational judgement (manslaughter)

A

are they suffering from paranoia, schizophrenia?

147
Q

ability to exercise self control (manslaughter)

A

do they know what they are doing? can they control themselves?

148
Q

section 52 (1) (B), explanation is provided if the abnormality: (3)

A

(1) causes,
(2) or was at least a significant contributory factor in causing,
(3) the defendant to carry out the conduct

149
Q

diminished responsibility and intoxication: two situations which can arise

A

(1) defendant is suffering from diminished responsibility and is intoxicated
(2) the intoxication is due to an addiction (ADS) alcohol dependant syndrome

150
Q

diminished responsibility and intoxication: the jury must

A

disregard intoxication (existing case law) and decide whether the abnormality of mental functioning itself substantially impaired defendants ability

151
Q

the jury should disregard intoxication (existing case law) and decide whether the abnormality of mental functioning itself impaired defendants ability case

A

r v dietschmann

152
Q

transient effect of drink or drugs on the brain must be disregarded case

153
Q

the intoxication is due to an addiction, the jury must consider… (2)

A

(1) was syndrome such an extent that is constituted an abnormality of mind induced by illness or disease, if yes,
(2) then was defendants mental responsibility at the time substantially impaired

154
Q

test for alcohol dependant syndrome case

155
Q

if intoxication caused a disease of the mind, then diminished responsibility case

A

r v inseal

156
Q

clarification of alcohol dependant syndrome case

A

r v stewart

157
Q

3 stage test for r v stewart

A

(1) was the defendant suffering from an ‘abnormality of mental functioning?’
(2) if so, was defendants abnormality caused by alcohol dependant syndrome
(3) if so, was defendants mental responsibility impaired?

158
Q

relevant issues the court will consider: diminished responsibility (4)

A

-the extent of and of seriousness of defendants dependency
-extent to which defendants ability to control his drinking, or to choose whether to drink or not was reduced
- whether defendant was capable of abstinence from alcohol and if so, how long?
- whether defendant was choosing for a particular reason, such as a celebration

159
Q

loss of control (3)

A

-defence to only murder, will reduce the charge to voluntary manslaughter
-statute: section 54 of the coroners and justice act
- involves snapping, in fear for life

160
Q

loss of control: section 54(1)

A

where a person (d) like or is a party to the killing of another (v) d is not convicted of murder if…

161
Q

loss of control: section 54 (1)(a)

A

defendants acts and omissions in doing or being a party to the killing resulted from defendants loss of self control

162
Q

loss of control: section 54(1)(b)

A

the loss of self control has a qualifying trigger set out in sec 55(3)-(5)

163
Q

loss of control: section 54(1)(c)

A

a person of defendant sex and age with a normal tolerance of self-restraint and in the circumstances of defendant, might have reacted in the same or in a similar way to the defendant

164
Q

defendant must have lost self-co trip, feeling unwell or unable to think straight is not sufficient case

A

r v jewell

165
Q

there can be a time lapse in loss of control, but threat must still be hanging over you 54(2) case

A

r v ibrams and gregory

166
Q

qualifying triggers: sec 55(3)

A

defendants fear of serious violence from victim against defendant or another identified person

167
Q

qualifying triggers: sec 55(4)

A

thing(s) done/ said which not only constituted circumstances of an extremely grave character but also caused defendant to have a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged

168
Q

qualifying triggers: section 55(5)

A

a combination of section 55(3) and section 55(4)

169
Q

fear of violence on another person is sufficient 55(3) case

170
Q

sec 55(4)- 2 points which have to be shown if defendant is relying on things said or done

A

(1) they were of an ‘extremely grave character’ and
(2) they caused the defendant to have a justifiable sense of being seriously wronged

171
Q

if defendant has incited the violence, then defendant cannot rely on the qualifying trigger of fear of violence sec 55(6)(a) case

172
Q

things said or done - circumstances must be extremely grave and defendants sense of being seriously wronged must be justified case

A

r v hatter

173
Q

things said done must constitute circumstances of extremely grave character or sense of being seriously wronged, must be directed at defendant cases (2)

A

r v zebedee, r v bowyer

174
Q

excluded matters: voluntary man slaughter which the courts will not accept (3)

A
  • 55(6)(a) defendants fear of serious violence is to be disregarded if defendant incited something to be done or said to provide him with the excuse to use violence
    -55(6)(b) makes same point, if defendant incited a thing to be done or said that caused in him a sense of being seriously wronged
    -55(6)(c) anything said or done in connection with sexual infidelity is to be disregarded
175
Q

sexual infidelity alone cannot amount to a qualifying trigger 55(6)(c) case

A

r v clinton

176
Q

standard of self control (3)

A

-2009 act requires that whichever qualifying trigger is relied on, it is necessary for the defendant to show that
- a person of defendants sex and age , with a normal degree of tolerance and self-restraint, might have reacted in the same or similar way
- defendant is expected to show a normal degree of tolerance, the fact that defendant is particularly hot-tempered cannot be taken into account

177
Q

objective test is compared to a person of defendants sex and age with a normal degree of tolerance, hot tempered cannot be taken into account case

A

r v mohammed

178
Q

intoxication must be disregarded, it is not a circumstance case

A

r v asmelash

179
Q

involuntary manslaughter: 4 elements of unlawful act (constructive)

A
  1. unlawful criminal act
  2. act must be ‘dangerous’ (risk of seeing some harm
  3. causation: act must cause the death
  4. defendant must have the mens rea for the unlawful act
180
Q

first element: must be a criminal, unlawful act case

181
Q

first element: civil wrong is not enough case

A

r v franklin

182
Q

first element: there must be an act, an omission is not enough

A

r v gibbons and procter

183
Q

the definition of dangerous is

184
Q

second element: the act must be dangerous: ‘reasonable person needs to be at a risk of some harm resulting from the act’ case

A

r v church

185
Q

second element: it is not necessary for the reasonable person to forsee that particular type of harm, enough to force harm case

A

r v jm and sm

186
Q

second element: the ‘risk of harm’ must must be physical- something which causes fear and apprehension is not sufficient case

A

r v dawson

187
Q

second element: act does not have to be aimed at a person, can be aimed at a property case

A

r v goodfellow

188
Q

third element: where a reasonable person would be aware of the victims frailty and the risk of physical harm the defendant will be liable case

A

r v watson

189
Q

fourth element: it is not necessary for the defendant to realise that the act is unlawful or dangerous

A

r v newbury and jones

190
Q

gross negligent manslaughter (4)

A
  • defendant breaking a duty that is owed to the victim
  • based on tort (civil wrong)
  • leading case = adomako
  • causing death to the victim
191
Q

4 point test: 1. duty of care 2. defendant breaches duty 3. breaches duty in a very negligent (gross) way and causes death 4. risk of death from omission case

A

r v adomako

192
Q

duty of care (2)

A
  • a duty of c are must be owed to the victim by the defendant
  • basic principles of CAPARO
193
Q

duty of care: proximity

A

relationship in time and place, could be the same road, room consumer of product

194
Q

duty of care: foreseeable harm

A

based on the situation, harm must be foreseeable (r v adomako) does not have to be specific harm

195
Q

duty of care: fair, just and reasonable

A

is it fair to put the duty on the defendant

196
Q

there is a duty owed by the landlord to maintain property to a safe standard case

197
Q

duty based on policy, moral duty case

A

r v wacker

198
Q

defendant must breach their duty and it must cause the death, what is a breach?

A

going below the standard of a reasonable person doing that task

199
Q

the breach must be ‘gross’. what is the definition of gross?

A

showed such disregard for the life and safety of others as to amount to a crime against the state

200
Q

definition of gross case

A

r v adomako

201
Q

the breach must be gross case

A

r v bateman

202
Q

risk of death (4)

A
  • not totally clear whether there has to be a risk of death
  • of if the risk needs only be to health and welfare
  • r v stone and dobinson- health and welfare
  • matter now resolved on r v mirsa
203
Q

must be a risk of death from the defendants omission case

204
Q

what is an attempt/preliminary offence? (2)

A

-where a person tries to commit an offence
- but fails to complete it

205
Q

definition of attempt

A
  • sec 1(1) of the criminal attempts act 1981
  • ‘if, with intent, to commit an offence to which this section applies, a person does an act which is more than merely preparatory to the commission of the offence.’
206
Q

the act must be more than merely preparatory cases (2)

A

r v campbell, r v gullefer

207
Q

an attempt begins when, ‘the merely preparatory acts have come to an end and the defendant embarks upon the crime proper case

A

r v geddes

208
Q

attempts should be considered by asking 2 questions:

A

(1) had the accused moved from planning or preparation to execution and implementation?
(2) had the accused done an act showing that he was actually trying to commit the full offence, or had he got only as far as getting ready or putting himself in a position to do so?

209
Q

the act has to be more than merely preparoty (actus reas) must embark on the crime proper cases (3)

A

r v boyle and boyle, r v tosti, r v jones

210
Q

for attempted theft, if the defendant had conditional intent and this can be proved, then they are guilty cases (2)

A

r v husseyn, r v easom

211
Q

mens rea for attempted murder (3)

A
  • involves proving a higher level of intention then for a full offence of murder
  • full offence requires that the prosecution proves the defendant had the full intention to kill
  • malice aforethought express
212
Q

for attempts murder, we need to prove the intention to kill case

A

r v whybrow

213
Q

recklessness is not sufficient, need desired consequence case

A

r v millard and vernon

214
Q

for attempted theft, if defendant had a conditional intent, and this can be proved, then they are guilty case

A

r v AG’s REF No 1+2

215
Q

recklessness is not sufficient for an attempt, only exception is that if it endangers life case

A

AG’s REF No3

216
Q

sec1(2) criminal attempts act

A

a person may be guilty of an attempt offence…even though the facts are such the commission of the offence is impossible

217
Q

criminal attempts act sec 1(2) case

A

anderton v ryan

218
Q

can be guilty for attempting the impossible case

A

r v shivpuri

219
Q

sec 1 theft act 1968

A

‘a person is guilty of theft if he dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it’

220
Q

theft: section 3 appropriation

A

any assumption by a person of the rights of the owner

221
Q

theft: rights of an owner include… (4)

A
  • selling the property
  • destroying
  • lending
  • hiring
222
Q

theft: rights can be all or part case

A

r v morris

223
Q

theft: consent can amount to appropriation case

A

r v lawrence

224
Q

theft: “dishonest appropriation” can be with consent of the owner case

225
Q

theft: “dishonest appropriation” can be with consent of the owner case

226
Q

theft: appropriation can be with the consent of the owner, even if it was given as a gift case

227
Q

theft: property sec 4(1)

A

‘property includes money and all other property real or personal, including things in action and other intangible property.’

228
Q

5 main types of property

A
  • money: coins, bank notes
  • real property
  • personal property: all moveable items: books, ads,cars,jewellery
  • things in actions
  • other intangible property (can pick up and move)
229
Q

dead bodies and body parts are personal property case

A

r v kelly and lindsay

230
Q

you cannot steal knowledge/information case

A

Oxford v moss

231
Q

flowers and wild animals section 4(3)

A

plants and fungi growing wildly, unless for commercial purposes

232
Q

flowers and wild animals section 4(4)

A

wild creatures, but not for commercial purposes

233
Q

property section 5 (1)

A

‘property shall be regarded as belonging to to any person having possession or control of it, or having in it any prophetary right or interest.’

234
Q

what is possession and control? (2)

A
  • owner of the property normally has possession and control
  • many situations in which a person can have either possessions control eg. hire a car, have possessions and control , but if someone steals, its theft from hirer
235
Q

you can steal your own property (possession and control) case

A

r v turner

236
Q

obligation to deal with property in a certain way section 5(3) case

A

r v davidge and bunt

237
Q

property obtained by mistake section 5(4) case

A

r v AGS ref No.1

238
Q

property obtained by mistake, except in gambling situations, section 5(4) case

239
Q

theft: section 2(1) dishonesty

A

‘it is immaterial whether the appropriation is made with a view to gain, or is made for the chiefs own benefit.’

240
Q

behaviour that is not dishonest (based on the honest belief of the defendant) section (1)(a)

A

he was in law the right to deprive the other of it

241
Q

behaviour that is not dishonest (based on the honest belief of the defendant) section (1)(b)

A

he would have the owners consent if the other knew of the appropriation

242
Q

behaviour that is not dishonest (based on the honest belief of the defendant) section (1)(c)

A

the person to whom the property belongs to cannot be discovered by taking reasonable steps

243
Q

definition of dishonesty case

A

r v barton and booth

244
Q

theft act section 6

A

defendant must have the intent to permentantly deprive, intent to never return

245
Q

you must replace the item with the exact same item case

A

r v velumyl

246
Q

theft act section 6 definition

A

if we can prove appropriation, it is probably enough to satisfy section 6

247
Q

dispose is extended to mean deal case

A

r v lavender

248
Q

there is an intention to deprive if the goodness or practical value has gone from the article case

249
Q

where can robbery be found?

A

sec 8 theft act 1968

250
Q

definition of robbery

A

you will be found guilty of robbery if you steal and immediately before or at the time of doing so use force or put or seek to put any person in fear of violence

251
Q

actus reas of robbery: 2 elements

A
  1. completed theft
  2. force or putting or seeking to put any person in fear of violence
252
Q

when does the robbery need to occur? (2)

A
  1. immediately before
  2. at the time off the theft
253
Q

mens rea of robbery (2)

A
  1. mens rea of theft
  2. intention to use the force in order to steal
254
Q

theft: there must be a completed theft case

A

r v corcoran and anderton

255
Q

theft: force can be minimal case

A

r v dawson and james

256
Q

theft: force can be indirect case

A

r v clouden

257
Q

theft can be ongoing cases (2)

A

r v hale, r v lockley

258
Q

theft: force in order to steal (2)

A
  • force must be used in order to steal
  • if force is not used for this purpose, then any later theft will not make it a robbery
259
Q

mens rea for robbery (4)

A
  • def must have the mens rea for theft
  • eg. he must be dishonest and must intend to deprive and the other of the property permenantly
  • must intent (Mohan)
  • include dishonesty and intention to permenantly deprive (sec 2 and 6)
260
Q

burglary: sec 9(1)(a) (4)

A
  • enters a building or part of a building as a trespasser with the intention to:
    1. steal
    2. inflict gbh
    3. do unlawful damage
261
Q

burglary: sec 9(1)(b) (3)

A
  • having entered a building or part of a building as a trespasser
  • steals or attempts to steal or
  • inflicts or attempts to inflict gbh
262
Q

burglary: entry can be effective or substantial case

A

r v collins

263
Q

burglary: entry can just be effective case

264
Q

burglary: entry does not have to be effective case

265
Q

burglary: a building is a solid structure, has doors and locks and connected to utilities case

A

r v leathley

266
Q

burglary: a building is a solid structure, has doors and locks and connected to utilities case

A

r v leathley

267
Q

burglary: if the structure is mobile then it is not a building case

A

r v seekings and gould

268
Q

part of a building definition

A

defendant may have permission to be in one part of the building, but not the other

269
Q

part of a building definition case

A

r v walkington

270
Q

definition of a trespasser: someone who does not have permission to be there case

A

r v collins

271
Q

burglary: if you go beyond the permission given, you will become a trespasser case

A

r v smith and jones

272
Q

mens rea of burglary (2)

A
  1. enter as a trespasser
  2. the ulterior offence
273
Q

9(1)(a)

A

defendant must have the intention to steal, commit gbh or cause criminal damage, don’t have to do it, jusr intention

274
Q

9(1)(b)

A

defendant must have the men’s rea for theft and a trespasser, steals or attempts to steal, inflicts or attempts to inflict gbh

275
Q

defence of duress (2)

A
  • based on the fact that the defendant has been forced to commit the crime
  • defendant must be threatened with death or serious injury
276
Q

duress was held to not be a defence: what did lord hailsham say?

A

‘the ordinary man of reasonable fortitude is not supposed to be capable of heroism if he is asked to take an innocent life rather than his own’

277
Q

the defence of duress cannot be used for murder case

278
Q

duress cannot be used for murder or attempted murder case

A

r v wilson

279
Q

obiter dicta

A

statements or remarks made by a judge, considered persuasive but not legally binding

280
Q

ratio decidendi

A

legal principle or rule that is the basis for a courts decision in the case

281
Q

duress: threats (2)

A
  • must be a threat of death or serious injury
  • must cause the defendants will to be so over born by the threats that they commit an act which they will not otherwise do
282
Q

accumulative effect of threats can be considered case

A

r v vaderrama-vega

283
Q

subjective test- graham test

A

was the defendant compelled to act as he did because he reasonably believed he had good cause to fear serious injury or death

284
Q

objective test- graham test

A

if so, would a sober person of reasonable firmness, sharing the same characteristics as the confused have responded in the same way?

285
Q

2 stage gets (subjective and objective) case

A

r v graham

286
Q

jury can take into account any special characters the defendant may be suffering from (2)

A

r v martin

288
Q

if the police protection is possible then the defendant cannot rely on duress case

289
Q

how is age a relevant characteristic in duress

A

very young people and the very old could be more susceptible to threats

290
Q

how is pregnancy a relevant characteristic in duress

A

there is the additional fear for the safety of the unborn child

291
Q

how is serious physical disability a relevant characteristic in duress

A

could make it more difficult for the defendant to protect himself

292
Q

how is recognised medical condition a relevant characteristic in duress

A

could include ptsd or any other disorder which meant that a person might be more susceptible to threats

293
Q

how is gender a relevant characteristic in duress

A

although the court of appeal thought that many women might have as much more courage as men

294
Q

the threat need not be immediate - but had to be imminent in the sense that is was hanging over them case

A

r v abdul-hussain

295
Q

defence can only be used if the threats are in order to make him commit a specific offence case

296
Q

self induced duress cases (2)

A

r v sharp, r v shepherd

297
Q

duress of circumstance

A

a defendant may be forced to act because of the surrounding circumstances

298
Q

the circumstance is life threatening, so the defendant has committed an offence cases (3)

A

r v willer, r v conway, r v martin

299
Q

defence of circumstances is a defence to all crimes but murder and attempted murder, which is down for the jury to decide case

A

r v pommell

300
Q

your honest belief as to the threat case