Criminal Law Flashcards

1
Q

The doctrine of transferred intent does what?

A

when a defendant acts with the intent to kill or harm one person and that act directly results in harm to another, the defendant’s intent is transferred to the unintentionally harmed person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is an accomplice liable?

A

An accomplice is a person who aids or abets a principal prior to or during the commission of the offense with the purpose of promoting or facilitating the commission of the offense. An accomplice is liable to the same extent as the principal for:

the crime for which the accomplice provided encouragement or assistance and

other crimes committed by the principal that were a natural and probable consequence of the accomplice’s conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define common law burglary

A

Unlawful breaking and entering of another’s dwelling at night and the specific intent to commit a felony therein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the requirements to be guilty of attempt?

A

The specific intent to commit a crime and took a substantial step towards the commission of that crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Defenses to attempt include.

A

Defenses to attempt

Impossibility

Legal – intended act would not be criminal if completed
Factual (no defense) – unknown condition prevents completion of intended crime
Abandonment

Majority/common law (no defense) – attempt complete once overt act committed
Minority/MPC – voluntary & complete withdrawal from crime

Abandonment

Majority/common law (no defense) – attempt complete once overt act committed
Minority/MPC – voluntary & complete withdrawal from crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is a warrant based solely on an anonymous tip valid?

A

No. Facts supporting probable cause may come from several sources, including information from a reliable, known informant. However, information from an unknown informant must be independently verified by police.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Does the 5th amendment protect the custodian of corporate records from self incrimination?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does the Blockburger right to counsel test work?

A

Under the Blockburger test, offenses are not the same if each offense requires proof of an element that the other does not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Must a prosecutor present exculpatory evidence to a grand jury?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Detail the burdens for imposing the death sentence.

A

This holding has been applied to state capital-murder sentencing schemes that require a finding of at least one aggravating circumstance at either the guilt or penalty phase before the death penalty can be imposed. Therefore, a capital-sentencing scheme (as seen here) violates Apprendi if it:

allows a jury to render an advisory sentence recommending the death penalty without specifically finding an aggravating circumstance and

permits the judge to then make that finding independently (Choices C & D).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the effect of the bilateral approach to conspiracy?

A

Conviction requires proof of at least two guilty minds. For this reason, and because of the need for consistency in verdicts returned by a single jury,* a conspirator cannot be convicted if all other coconspirators are acquitted at the same trial.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is a mistrial as a result of a hung jury a bar to a second trial under the protection against double jeopardy?

A

No. There is no bar also when at the defendant’s request or with the defendant’s consent or

due to manifest necessity—i.e., a situation rendering it impossible to continue the trial or reach a fair outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two theories for felony murders and their effects?

A

agency theory (majority rule) – the defendant is responsible for deaths caused by cofelons

proximate cause theory (minority rule) – the defendant is responsible for deaths caused by any person (e.g., cofelon, police, bystander)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Can an accomplice be convicted of a crime that the principal was acquitted for?

A

Yes under the modern view of accomplice liability. An accomplice is a person who (1) aids or abets the principal prior to or during the commission of a crime with (2) the specific intent that the crime be committed.* An accomplice is responsible for the crime to the same extent as the principal regardless of whether the accomplice participated in or was present at the crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When does accomplice liability arise?

A

when a person:

aids or abets another (i.e., the principal) before or during a crime
with the specific intent that the encouraged crime be completed.
Slight aid or encouragement will suffice, even when such assistance is not ultimately necessary to complete the crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Does a change of heart undo a completed larceny?

A

No

17
Q

How does an anticipatory search warrant operate?

A

the probable cause requirement is met if:

at the time of issuance, there is probable cause to believe that the triggering condition will occur and

if the condition does occur, there is a fair probability that contraband or evidence of a crime will be found at the place to be searched.

18
Q

Is in-court identification testimony admissible following an unnecessarily suggestive out of court identification?

A

Therefore, such in-court identification testimony is admissible only if the prosecution demonstrates that it is sufficiently reliable—i.e., poses no substantial likelihood of misidentification.

19
Q

When is an offense considered the same for double jeopardy purposes?

A

if one is a lesser included offense of the other. That is because every element of the lesser offense is included in the greater offense. Therefore, when a conviction of a lesser included offense stems from a guilty plea, the double jeopardy clause bars a subsequent prosecution for the greater offense unless:

an event necessary to establish the greater offense occurred after the plea was entered or
the greater offense was charged before the plea was entered.

20
Q

May a state law impose a strict cutoff for a finding of intellectual disability if the individual has an IQ over 70?

A

NO. This violates the 8th Amendment

21
Q

What are the requirements for a preliminary hearing to determine whether probable cause exists to hold a defendant? (Gerstein hearing)

A

This generally must be held within 48 hours of the D’s arrest. However, there is no need for such a hearing if probable cause has already been determine through a grand jury indictment or an arrest warrant.

22
Q

Elements of false pretenses

A

obtained title to (i.e., ownership of) another’s property (e.g., cash)
by knowingly misrepresenting a past or present material fact upon which the victim relied and
did so with the specific intent to defraud.

To prove reliance, the prosecution must establish that the defendant’s misrepresentation was a significant factor in—or the cause of—the victim’s decision to pass title to the property to the defendant.

23
Q

Is testimony given under a grant of immunity coerced?

A

Yes. Any criminal-trial use of such testimony outside the context of a perjury prosecution constitutes a denial of due process.

24
Q

When is the right to counsel at a probation-revocation hearing required?

A

Sixth Amendment guarantees the right to counsel at probation-revocation proceedings when a sentence for the underlying offense:

has not yet been imposed and
will be imposed if the probation is revoked.

25
Q

The plain feel doctrine allows…

A

an officer conducting a valid frisk who feels an object that is immediately identifiable as a weapon, contraband, or evidence of a crime may seize the object.

26
Q

When would an otherwise accomplice be excluded from being liable?

A

the crime requires more than one participant
the criminal statute imposes liability on only one participant and
the person acts as the nonliable participant.

27
Q

Common-law murder occurs when a person unlawfully kills another with malice aforethought, which requires proof of one of the following mental states

A

Intent to kill

Intent to inflict serious bodily injury

Reckless disregard of an obvious or unjustifiably high risk of causing death or serious bodily injury (i.e., depraved-heart murder)

Intent to commit an inherently dangerous felony (i.e., felony-murder rule)

28
Q

What does the Pinkerton Rule do?

A

Allows a conspirator to also be convicted of all substantive crimes committed by a coconspirator who was acting in furtherance of the conspiracy.