Criminal Law Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What law to apply on the exam?

A

Apply the majority rule (often the modern rule or CL rule if no modern majority rule); apply the MPC only if asked (minority rule).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

General Principles –> Constitutional Issues: Void-for-Vagueness Doctrine

A

Under DPC of 5A and 14A: People must be on notice that certain conduct is forbidden.
–> SCOTUS: criminal statutes must be specific and give a person of ordinary intelligence “fair notice” of what conduct is prohibited.

Void for Vagueness Doctrine
–> Requires statutes to be fair and consistent in their enforcement and not be arbitrarily or erratically enforced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

General Principles –> Constitutional Issues: Ex Post Facto (3 scenarios)

A

EPF laws forbidden. EPF law retroactively:

(1) makes conduct criminal;
(2) enforces a stricter punishment for the same conduct; or
(3) alters procedural or evidentiary rules in such a way that the criminal D may be more easily convicted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: 3 (Sometimes 4) Elements of Pros Case

A

Prosecution must prove:

(1) Actus reus (guilty act)
(2) Mens rea (guilty mind)
(3) Concurrence in time between act and requisite state of mind
(4) Some (but not most) crimes require the occurrence of a result for the crime to be complete (ex: homicide requires victim die)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Actus Reus (2 Scenarios) / Liability for Omission

A

Element Met By:
(1) a voluntary act that causes an unlawful result;
–> Acts that are reflexive, convulsive, performed while.
unconscious, or otherwise involuntary are insufficient,
as are mere bad thoughts unaccompanied by action.
————> However, habitual acts that one is
simply unaware of are conscious and voluntary.
(2) an omission to act where the D is under a legal duty to act; or

A D may be criminally liable for an omission when:

(1) there is a legal duty to act; and
(2) the D can physically perform the act
(3) vicarious liability where the D is responsible for the acts of another party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Mens Rea - 5 Mental States

A

Intentionally
–> D desires that acts cause certain consequences or knows that acts are substantially certain to produce those consequences.

Knowingly
–> D knows the nature and/or result of his conduct; lack of knowledge can often excuse criminal liability under defense of mistake of fact.

Purposely
–> There exists a conscious objective to engage in such conduct or to cause such a result.

Recklessly

  • -> D consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the material element exists or will result from his conduct.
  • -> Risk must be of a nature/degree that its disregard involves a gross deviation from the standard of conduct that a law-abiding person would observe in the D’s situation

Willfully
–> Encompasses concepts of intentionally and purposely (as opposed to accidentally or negligently) and has been used to imply evil purpose in crimes involving moral turpitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Mens Rea - Criminal Negligence

A

Requires D’s conduct create a high degree of risk of death or serious injury.
–> Degree of risk is more than mere ordinary neg, but less than wanton and willful misconduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Mens Rea - Specific Intent Crime + 2 ways to show

A

SIC involves more than the objective fault required by merely doing the proscribed actus reus.

D possesses SI if:

(1) he wants, hopes, or wishes that his conduct will bring about a particular result, regardless of the objective likelihood of the result occurring (unless the result is inherently impossible)
(2) he expects (is substantially certain) that his purposeful act will have that particular result, even though he does not necessarily want a particular result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Mens Rea - General Intent Crime

A

GIC requires commission of an unlawful act (ie nonconsensual intercourse) without a specific mens rea.

  • -> A bad state of mind will suffice where such a criminal act is committed voluntarily and purposely.
  • -> Neg/recklessness sufficient mental state for GIC (AKA criminal neg/gross neg/culpable neg).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Mens Rea - Malice

A

D acts intentionally or with reckless disregard of an obvious or known risk that the particular harmful result will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Mens Rea - Strict Liability

A

Culpability is imposed on a D merely for doing the act that is prohibited by statute.
–> No particular mental state is required for at least some element of a SL crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Mens Rea - Transferred Intent Doctrine

A

Preserves liability where a D intends criminal conduct against one party but instead harms another party, so that his actions bring about an unintended, yet still criminal, result.
–> Applies only to completed crimes, not attempt crimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Mens Rea - Classifications of Crimes Examples

A

SIC examples: attempt, solicitation, conspiracy, larceny, larceny by trick, false pretenses, embezzlement, forgery, burglary, assault, robbery, intent to kill murder, voluntary manslaughter

GIC examples: battery, rape, kidnapping, FI, invol mansla, DH murder

Malicious Crimes: arson, CL murder

SL Crimes: regulatory offenses, public welfare offenses, morality crimes, selling liquor to minors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Concurrence in Time

A

It is not only necessary that D’s criminal intent occur at time he commits the criminal act, but that the mental state should also actuate (or put into action) the act or omission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Occurrence of a Result - Actual Cause 3 Tests

A

The D’s conduct must be both the actual and the proximate cause of the specified criminal result.

Actual Cause (cause in fact) satisfied by any of 3 tests:

(1) if the criminal result would not have occurred absent D’s act
(2) when there are multiple causes/other parties responsible for criminal result, cts will find a D responsible if the D’s act was a substantial factor causing the criminal result; or
(3) where a D’s conduct speeds up an inevitable death, even by a very brief amount of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Intervening Cause (dependent v independent)

A

To relieve the D of liability and break the chain of PC, the other force must be a superseding intervening cause.
–> Question: whether the intervening force is dependent on or independent of the D’s act.

Dependent intervening cause

  • -> an intervening force that is a result of or response to the D’s act is a dependent intervening cause.
  • -> will supersede the D’s act only when it is a totally abnormal response to the D’s act

Independent intervening cause

  • -> an independent intervening cause is one that would have occurred regardless of the D’s act.
  • -> will normally supersede the D’s act, EXCEPT when the independent intervening force was foreseeable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Definition

A

Results when there is a killing of a human being caused by another human being (D).
–> Results from some action or actions of the D that cause the death of another human being, with criminal intent, and without legal excuse or justification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Murder (+ 3 reqs)

A

Definition

–> The unlawful killing of a human being w/ malice aforethought.

Requirements

Actus reus
–> A voluntary act, an involuntary act arising from a voluntary act (seizure prone person driving car), or an omission to act where there is a legal duty to do so.

AC

  • -> Acceleration: when victim already dying, if D’s actions bring about death more quickly than if D had not acted, D’s actions were AC.
  • -> May be found responsible for death W/O AC if:
    (1) a D who is an accomplice
    (2) a D who is a member of a conspiracy where the reasonable result of a conspiracy is homicide and the homicide was committed in furtherance of conspiracy
    (3) a D who kills victim together with 3rd party, causation question depends on whether D’s act was direct or indirect cause
    (4) a D causes the death of another (even if not at his own hands) during commission of or in attempt to commit felony (IE felony murder)

PC

  • -> Where victim’s death was natural and probable as a conseq of D’s conduct, does not matter whether D foresaw the exact chain of events resulting in victim’s death.
  • -> CL: if victim died more than one year and one day after D’s act, D’s act not PC (most states have eliminated/extended this rule).

Notes

  • -> People who fail to prevent injury/death not generally liable for victim’s condition unless they have duty to act.
  • -> Where victim has unusual condition that contributes to his death, D can still be guilty of murder (takes him as he finds him)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Murder - Four Forms of Mens Rea

A

(1) Intent to kill - specific intent
(2) Intent to cause serious bodily harm
(3) Depraved heart
(4) Felony murder - BAARK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Murder - Mnemonic for Felony Murder Crimes

A
B - Burglary
A - Arson
R - Robbery
R - Rape
K - Kidnapping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Intent to Kill

A

Conduct where the D consciously desires to kill another person or makes the resulting death inevitable (absent justification, excuse, or mitigation to voluntary manslaughter).

Deadly Weapons Doctrine
–> An inference of intent to kill is raised through the intentional use of any instrument which, judging from its manner of use, is calculated to produce death or serious bodily injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Intent to Cause Serious Bodily Harm

A

Like intent to kill malice, intent to inflict serious bodily injury must be proved by examination of all surrounding circumstances, including words and behavior of D.
–> Similarly, intentional use of deadly weapon in a way that is likely to causes serious injury provides evidence of intent to inflict serious bodily harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Depraved-Heart Murder

A

Unintentional killing resulting from conduct involving a wanton indifference to human life and a conscious disregard of an unreasonable risk of death/serious bodily injury.
–> A D may create a very high risk of death/serious bodily injury for a logical and socially reasonable purpose (then not DH murder).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Felony Murder

A

A killing proximately caused during the commission or attempted commission of a serious/inherently dangerous felony (generally includes both intentional and accidental killings).

  • -> Mental state required: intent to commit underlying felony
  • -> Felony starts when D could be convicted of attempting the underlying felony (no completion requirement); felony terminated when felon reaches place of temporary safety (while fleeing, still may be guilty).

Collateral
–> Some states have limited FM by requiring underlying felony be independent of homicide so that every felonious attack on a victim which is ultimately fatal does not become escalated to murder by the rule.

Inherently Dangerous Req

  • -> Abstract test (majority): consider only the elements of the felony in the abstract and not the factual circumstances of the felony as committed
  • -> Contextual test (minority): look at particular circumstances of the case to determine whether underlying offense is inherently dangerous

Foreseeable Outgrowth
–> Resulting death must have been a FO of D’s actions (most deaths considered foreseeable, very liberal test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Murder by Degrees - 1D Murder

A

Includes intent to kill murder committed w/ premeditation and deliberation, felony murder, and (in some jdxs) murder accomplished by lying in wait, poison, terrorism, or torture.

  • -> Some jdxs require little/nothing more than intent to kill to find premeditation and deliberation, but MOST jdxs require MORE.
  • -> Most jdxs require a reasonable period of time for premeditation and some evidence of reflection in order to distinguish 1D murder from “spur of the moment killings”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Murder by Degrees - 2D Murder

A

Any murder that does not meet the requisite elements of 1D murder.

Examples:

(1) where the D’s malice is intent to inflict serious bodily injury
(2) where the D acted with wanton and willful misconduct; or
(3) FM, where underlying felony is not specifically listed in applicable 1D murder statutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Murder by Degrees - Voluntary Manslaughter

A

An intentional killing by adequate provocation or other circumstances negating malice aforethought (AKA heat of passion killing).

Adequate provocation

  • -> Measured objectively, must be such that a reasonable person would lose self-control.
  • -> Causal connection must exist between legally adequate grounds for provocation and the killing.
  • -> The time period between the heat of passion and the fatal act must not be long enough that a reasonable person would have cooled off.
  • -> Exchange of mere words generally not considered adequate provocation.

Other mitigating circumstances: imperfect self defense
–> May mitigate murder to VM where a D was either at fault in starting an altercation or unreasonably, but honestly, believed that harm was imminent or deadly force was necessary.

Diminished capacity may mitigate murder to manslaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Homicide: Murder by Degrees - Involuntary Manslaughter

A

An unintentional killing resulting w/o malice aforethought caused either by recklessness, criminal neg, or during the commission or attempted commission of an unlawful act.
–> Gross neg or criminally neg conduct is required, but majority of jdxs do NOT require D be consciously aware of risk created.

Misdemeanor-Manslaughter rule
–> An unintentional killing that occurs during the commission of a misdemeanor that is malum in se, or a felony that is not inherently dangerous type required for FM, is classified as involuntary manslaughter under this rule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Battery: Elements

A

Definition

  • -> Criminal battery is the intentional, reckless, or criminally neg unlawful application of force to the person of the victim.
  • ————> Act of applying force may be direct or indirect

Intent (GIC)

  • -> D may be guilty where he acts:
    (1) recklessly;
    (2) negligently;
    (3) w/ knowledge that his act (or omission) will result in criminal liability

Common circumstances elevating battery to agg battery:

(1) D causing victim serious bodily injury
(2) D using a deadly weapon to commit the battery
(3) D battering a woman, child, or LE officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Battery: Defenses

A

(1) Consent
- -> Valid defense where it is not coerced or obtained by fraud, but no defense to breach of the peace.

(2) Self defense and defense of others
(3) Where D commits offensive touching to prevent someone from committing a crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Assault: Elements

A

Modern law, D may commit by:

(1) attempting to commit battery; or
(2) intentionally causing the victim to fear an immediate battery

(1) Intended Battery
- -> Fact that victim was not aware of attempted battery no defense to assault.
- -> Most states do not allow D to avoid liability for attempt assault because the D lacked present ability to consummate battery.

(2) Intentional Fear
- -> A D who is guilty of fear of battery assault must intend to either cause the actionable apprehension or cause the victim to suffer bodily harm.

Reasonable Apprehension
–> Element of apprehension in this type of assault connotes expectation more than fear

Present/Immediate
–> Promise of future action generally not assault

Simple assault –> agg assault

(1) where D commits an assault w/ dangerous weapon
(2) where D acts w/ intent to serious injure, rape, or murder the victim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Kidnapping: Elements

A

Elements; D:

(1) abducts or steals away any person;
- -> Can be met where victim is taken from one place to another or when they are secretly confined where the person is not likely to be found.
(2) without lawful authority or warrant; and
(3) holds that person against his/her will

CL: unlawful restraint of person’s liberty by force/show of force so as to send the victim to another country

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Kidnapping: Classification

A

CL: Misdemeanor; ML: felony

Number of states define certain types of kidnapping as being agg type, and thus deserving of higher punishment. Examples:

(1) where offense is committed and actor uses/exhibits a deadly weapon
(2) where the victim suffers serious bodily injury or sexual assault
(3) where the victim is held for ransom; or
(4) where the victim is a small child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Rape: Definition and Elements

A

ML: sexual intercourse against a victim’s will by force, threat, or intimidation (requires proof of sexual intercourse w/ another compelled by force and against victim’s will or compelled by threat of bodily injury).

  • -> Regardless of gender
  • -> rebuttable presumption male under 14 incapable of rape

CL: unlawful sexual intercourse by a male person w/ a female person w/o her consent (penetration required, emission not).
–> male under 14 presumed incapable of rape

Any penetration, however slight, will satisfy requirements for rape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Rape: Resistance

A

Some rape statutes have been amended to eliminate any req that victim resist.

Where resistance remains element of rape:
(CL): Resistance or opposition by mere words typically not enough (must resist by acts).
(ML): verbal resistance sufficient for rape to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Rape: Consent

A

If the victim is incapable of consenting, the intercourse is rape.
–> Inability to consent may be caused by the effect of drugs or intoxicating substances or by unconsciousness

Two Types of Consent Defenses:

(1) Consent defense
(2) Reasonable belief in consent defense
- -> A Ds reasonable and good faith mistake of fact re a victim’s consent to sexual intercourse is a defense to rape ————->Objective component: whether the D’s mistake re consent was reasonable under the circumstances (society views as reasonable)
- ————>Subjective component: whether the D honestly and in good faith (albeit mistakenly) believed that the victim consented to sexual intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Statutory Rape

A

Where a female is under the statutorily prescribed age of consent (usually 16) an act of intercourse constitutes rape despite her apparent consent (some jdxs extend to males).

  • -> A Ds mistake as to age of consent generally no defense
  • -> Where parties are validly married, no statutory rape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Theft Crimes: Key Distinctions

A

Larceny - requires you obtain possession unlawfully

False Pretenses - requires you obtain title falsely

Embezzlement - requires you convert (misuse) property entrusted to you

39
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Larceny: Elements

A

5 Elements:

(1) the taking
(2) and carrying away
(3) of the property
(4) of another
(5) with intent to permanently deprive the owner thereof

40
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Larceny: Element - Carrying Away

A

AKA Asportation

Complete upon even the slightest movement (6 inches will suffice).

Must concur in time w/ the intent to permanently deprive.

41
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Larceny: Element - Property

A

CL: larceny limited to tangible personal property.
ML: expanded to include theft of services and other intangibles (gas, electric power, written instruments w/ property rights).

Abandoned Property

  • -> Cannot be the subject of larceny (although lost/mislaid property can)
  • -> 2 Requirements for abandoned property larceny; the finder:
    (1) must intent to permanently deprive the owner of it; and
    (2) must either know who the owner is or have reason to believe that he can find out the owner’s identity
42
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Larceny: Element - Of Another

A

B/C the property must be of another, a good faith claim of right is a valid defense.
–> Under certain circumstances, an owner can be guilty of larceny of his own property (such as when another is in lawful possession of the owner’s property).

43
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Larceny: Element - Intent to Permanently Deprive

A

At the time of taking, if the D intends to return the property to the victim unconditionally and within a reasonable time, there is no intent to permanently deprive.
–> D must have ability to return the property, even if something unanticipated stops the actual return of the property.

At time of taking, if D has a good faith belief that he is entitled to possession, there is no intent to permanently deprive, even if that belief is both incorrect and unreasonable.

Doctrine of Continuing Trespass
-A person who takes another’s property w/o authorization and intending only to use it temporarily before restoring it unconditionally to its owner may nevertheless be guilty of larceny if he later changes his mind and decides not to return the property after all.

44
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Embezzlement and Conversion

A

Embezzlement Elements

(1) the fraudulent conversion or misappropriation;
(2) of the property of another;
(3) by one who is already in lawful possession.

Conversion

  • Some action toward property (such as selling, consuming, pledging, donating, discarding, heavily damaging, or claiming title to it), which seriously interferes w/ the rights of the owner.
  • -> Not fraudulent if the D honestly believed he had a right to so use the property.
45
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Robbery

A

2 Elements:

(1) taking must be from the person/presence of the victim (w/in his control); and
(2) taking must be accomplished either by force or violence; or by intimidation of violence.

If the victim is in fear (though baseless) there may still be a robbery (AKA fear based on lies qualifies as threats for constituting robbery).

Use of force must be contemporaneous w/ taking (all one occurrence) .

Larceny, assault, and battery are all lesser-included offenses of robbery (all elements of the lesser offense are included w/in the greater offense).

46
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Obtaining Property by False Pretenses

A

Elements:

(1) a false representation of a present or past material fact by the D;
(2) that causes the victim to pass title to his property;
(3) to the D;
(4) who knows his representation to be false; and
(5) intends thereby to defraud the victim.

-Title passes to the D even though it is voidable due to the D’s fraud.

47
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Bad Checks

A

The giving of the check is an implied representation of suff funds, absent postdating or some other means of notification of inadequate credit by the drawer.
–> Requisite mental state: knowledge of the insuff funds and the intent to defraud

48
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Larceny by Trick

A

Form of larceny whereby the D obtains possession of the personal property of another by means of a representation or promise that he knows is false at the time he takes possession.
–> D’s fraud is used to cause the victim to convey possession, not title (as in false pretenses).

49
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Extortion

A

CL: misdemeanor involving the corrupt demand or receipt of an unlawful fee by a public official under color of his office.

Modern statutory law: extortion commonly called blackmail (obtaining the property of another by the use of threats of future harm to the victim or his property).

50
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Receiving Stolen Property

A

ML Elements:

(1) the receiving of stolen property;
(2) known to be stolen;
- -> An honest but unreasonable belief that the property is not stolen would likely prevent a conviction for receiving stolen property
- -> However, constructive knowledge (through notice of facts and circumstances from which guilty knowledge may be fairly inferred) will also suffice
(3) with the intent to permanently deprive the owner

51
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Forgery

A

Elements:

(1) the fraudulent making;
(2) of a false writing w/ apparent legal significance; and
(3) w/ the intent to make wrongful use of the forged document

–> D does not have to actually use the forged document to be found guilty of forgery (the making is enough)

52
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Crimes Against the Habitation: Burglary

A

ML Elements:

(1) the breaking;
- -> Constructive breaking: D gains entry by fraud, deception or threat of force
(2) and entering;
(3) of the structure;
(4) of another;
(5) w/ the intent to commit a felony / theft offense therein
- -> Intent to commit felony needs to be simultaneous w/ entering; any intent formed after entry is insufficient (absent an additionally entry once inside).

CL

  • -> Had to be a dwelling house
  • -> Had to be done at night
  • -> D can be convicted of both burglary and felony offense committed therein.
  • -> Does not matter if D actually completes felony
53
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Crimes Against the Habitation: Arson

A

ML Elements:

(1) the malicious;
(2) burning;
(3) of property (expanded to virtually any structure)

CL:

  • -> required dwelling house
  • -> required property be of another (ML: expanded to include maliciously burning one’s own property - ie insurance fraud).
54
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Possession Offenses: Controlled Substances

A

Uniform Controlled Substances Act
–> Except as otherwise authorized, a person may not knowingly or intentionally manufacture, distribute, or deliver a controlled substance, or possess a controlled substance w/ intent to manufacture, distribute, or deliver.

Federal Law
–> Same as above + to create, distribute, or dispense, or possess w/ intent to distribute or dispense, a counterfeit substance.

55
Q

Crimes Against Property –> Possession Offenses: Firearms

A

The National Firearms Act
–> prohibits the possession of certain firearms and accessories in violation of the registration, authorization, and notification reqs that the Act sets forth.

56
Q

Inchoate Crimes –> Attempt

A

A specific intent to bring about a criminal result and a significant overt act in furtherance of that intent.

  • Significant Overt Act
  • -> An act (or an act of perpetration) beyond an act of “mere” preparation.
  • -> CL: D had to perform the last act necessary to achieve intended results; ML: Acts prior to the last act are usually sufficient
  • -> Proximity test: how close in time and physical distance a D was to the time and place the target crime was to be committed
  • -> Equivocality test: reqs D conduct to have no other purpose than the commission of the crime attempted
  • -> MPC: Act must constitute substantial step toward offense that corroborates the criminal intent required (such as scouting scene of crime)

Abandonment

  • -> Voluntary means a true change of heart, not simply giving up in the face of difficulties or an increased likelihood of being caught.
  • -> Complete means that the D is not merely postponing commission of the crime
57
Q

Inchoate Crimes –> Conspiracy: Liability Issues

A

Doctrine of accomplice liability
–> all jdxs recognize liability for crimes a conspirator aids and abets.

Pinkerton Doctrine

  • -> Where conspirator does not have suff mens rea for liability as an accomplice, each conspirator is liable for the crimes of all other co-conspirators where crimes wee both:
    (1) a foreseeable outgrowth of the conspiracy; and
    (2) committed in furtherance of the conspiratorial goal
58
Q

Inchoate Crimes –> Conspiracy: Procedural Issues

A

Acquittal of one co-conspirator
–> Traditionally results in acquittal of a single remaining co-conspirator because at least two guilty parties are required for conspiracy conviction; however, not necessary to try more than one conspirator.

CL (majority rule)
–> No conspiracy exists if only one of the conspirators truly agrees and the other conspirators feign agreement (must be a meeting of at least two guilty minds)

MPC
–> Unilateral approach: all of the co-conspirators, having feigned agreement or having been acquitted, will not alone prevent a D from conviction for conspiracy

Wharton Rule
–> In crimes where 2 or more people are necessary for commission of the crime, there is no conspiracy unless the agreement involves an additional person who is not essential to the definition of that crime.

59
Q

Inchoate Crimes –> Conspiracy: Defenses

A

Withdrawal may cut off further liability for crimes committed in furtherance of the conspiracy if the withdrawing conspirator communicates his withdrawal to each of the co-conspirators.

MPC: withdrawal by co-conspirator may be valid affirmative defense to charge of conspiracy where renouncing party gives timely notice of his plans to all members of the conspiracy and performs an affirmative act to “thwart” the success of the conspiracy.

60
Q

Parties to Crime and Accomplice Liability –> Accomplice: Definition

A

An individual is criminally liable as an accomplice if he gives assistance or encouragement or fails to act where he has a legal duty to oppose the crime of another (actus reus), and purposefully intends to effectuate commission fo the crime (mens rea).

61
Q

Parties to Crime and Accomplice Liability –> Accomplice: The Act Requirement

A

Even slight assistance or encouragement is suff, but the D must actually assist or encourage.

  • -> Assistance/encouragement need not be a cause in fact of the commission of the crime.
  • -> Words alone may be suff if they assisted or encouraged.
62
Q

Parties to Crime and Accomplice Liability –> Accomplice: Mental State Requirement

A

CL: person must intend to commit the acts of assistance or encouragement and must further intend to encourage or assist another to commit the crime charged.

Minority ML: lower mental state - that of knowingly assisting or encouraging a crime (such as in cases where a seller, knowing of the buyer’s intent to commit arson, sells him an explosive device).

63
Q

Parties to Crime and Accomplice Liability –> Accomplice: Withdrawal or Abandonment

A

An accomplice may sever liability for future crimes by withdrawal or abandonment.

  • -> must five no further assistance/encouragement, and must communicate his withdrawal to his accomplices.
  • -> many jdxs require him to make efforts to neutralize his prior assistance/encouragement (but does not have to try to thwart the commission of the crime).
64
Q

Parties to Crime and Accomplice Liability –> Principals

A

The actual perp who performs the criminal act w/ the requisite mental state is the principal in the 1D.

One who is present at the scene of the felony and aids, abets, or otherwise encourages the commission of the crime w/ the requisite intent is guilty as principal in the 2D.

65
Q

Parties to Crime and Accomplice Liability –> Accessory Before the Fact

A

One who aids, abets, counsels, or otherwise encourages the commission of a felony, but is not present at the scene, is guilty as an accessory before the fact.
–> May be punished to the same extent as the principal for all crimes within the scope of the conspiracy

Conviction of the Principal

  • -> Majority: principal need not be convicted in order for the accessory before the fact to be convicted.
  • -> CL: conviction of the principal was required for conviction of an accessory
66
Q

Parties to Crime and Accomplice Liability –> Accessory After the Fact

A

3 Requirements:

(1) a completed felony must have been committed;
(2) the accessory must have known the commission of the felony; and
(3) the accessory must have personally given aid to the felon to hinder the felon’s apprehension, conviction, or punishment

67
Q

Defenses –> Responsibility: Insanity - 4 Tests

A

M’Naghten Test
–> A D is relieved of criminal responsibility upon proof that at the time of commission of the act, he was laboring under such a defect of reason from a disease of the mind as not to know the nature and quality of the act he was doing, OR (if he did know it) not to know that what he was doing was wrong.

MPC Test
–> A D not responsible for criminal conduct if (at the time of such conduct) as a result of mental disease or defect, he lacked substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality (wrongfulness) of his conduct or to conform his conduct to the requirements of law.

Irresistible Impulse Test
–> A D will be not guilty where he had a mental disease that kept him from controlling his conduct.

Durham Rule
–> A D is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act was the product of mental disease or defect (meaning it would not have been committed but for the defect/disease).

Notes:

  • -> D must bear burden of proof in fed ct for federal violations and must prove the D of insanity by clear and convincing evidence (where at the time of commission D was unable to appreciate nature and quality or wrongfulness of his acts).
  • -> In state ct, for state violations, majority rule: preponderance of the evidence and placing the burden on the D as an affirmative defense.
68
Q

Defenses –> Responsibility: Competency

A

Incompetency refers to doctrine that prevents Ds from being tried, convicted, or punished unless they have suff present ability to consult counsel w/ a reasonable and rational understanding of proceedings.

  • -> If D is found incompetent, he can later be tried and punished if competency is restored.
  • -> Burden of proof on ct is preponderance of the evidence
69
Q

Defenses –> Responsibility: Diminished Capacity

A

Some jdxs allow defense of diminished capacity (short of insanity) to prove that as a result of mental defect, D did or did not have a state of mind that is an element of the offense.

70
Q

Defenses –> Responsibility: Intoxication

A

Voluntary/involuntary intoxication (alcohol or drugs) is a defense to a crime when it negates the existence of an element of the crime.

Voluntary intox

  • -> Majority: may be a valid defense for specific intent crime if it negates the requisite mental state, and may negate a purposeful or knowing mental state.
  • ———> Not a defense to GIC and will not negate recklessness, neg, or SL.

Involuntary intox
–> a defense to a crime, even if it does not negate an element of the crime, under the same circumstances as insanity

71
Q

Defenses –> Justification: Self-Defense

A

If a person has a reasonable belief that he is in imminent danger of unlawful bodily harm, he may use that amount of force in self-defense that is reasonably necessary to prevent such harm, unless he is the initial aggressor.

Deadly force: threatens death/serious bodily injury
Non-deadly force: threatens only bodily harm
Reasonable force: amount necessary to avoid threatened harm

Aggressor: One who strikes first blow or commits a crime against the victim.
–> Can regain right to self-defense if: (1) upon complete withdrawal perceived by the other party; or (2) escalation of force by the victim of the initial aggression.

Rule of retreat
–> General: person who did not initiate conflict has not duty to retreat in face of deadly attack; however, number of jdxs require retreat if it is feasible and can be done safely before deadly force (not reqd where not safe or D in own home, car, work).

72
Q

Defenses –> Justification: Defense of a Third Person

A

Person justified in using force to defend 3rd person to the same extent that the 3rd person would be justified in using force to defend himself.

Majority: focuses on reasonableness of D’s belief that 3rd person was being unlawfully attacked (protects mistake if reasonable
Minority: D has no more right to use deadly force than the 3rd person ostensibly being protected

73
Q

Defenses –> Justification: Defense of Property

A

Reasonable, non-deadly force justified in defending one’s own property from theft, destruction, or trespass where D has a reasonable belief that property is in immediate danger and no greater force is used than necessary.
–> Deadly force can never be used to defend property (but can be used where defender reasonably believes entry will be made in dwelling by one w/ intent to commit felony within).

74
Q

Defenses –> Justification: Necessity

A

Reasonable force is justified to avoid imminent injury resulting from natural (non-human) forces or where an individual reasonably believes that his criminal conduct is necessary to avoid a greater harm that would result from compliance w/ the law. (ex: A kills B to save C and D)

75
Q

Defenses –> Justification: Law Enforcement Defenses

A

Police

  • -> PO may use amount of non-deadly force that he reasonably believes necessary to effect a lawful arrest or prevent escape of arrestee.
  • -> PO may use deadly force to prevent commission of a dangerous felony or to effectuate an arrest of a person reasonably believed to have committed a felony where it reasonably appears necessary to the officer.

Private citizen

  • -> Privileged to sue amount of non-deadly force that reasonably appears necessary to prevent commission of a felony or misdemeanor amount to breach of the peace.
  • -> May use same amount of deadly force as a PO only if a dangerous felony is involved and the person against whom he used the force is actually guilty of the crime.

Proper Mistake (good faith and reasonable)

  • -> A proper mistake as to use of deadly force may justify a homicide committed in self defense or to prevent the commission of a dangerous felony.
  • -> However, a PC D who mistakenly uses deadly force to precent the escape of a fleeing felon is not justified (POs who mistakenly use deadly force in such fleeing felon situations may be justified).
76
Q

Defenses –> Justification: Duress

A

Justifies criminal conduct where the D reasonably believes that the only way to avoid unlawful threats of great bodily harm or imminent death is to engage in unlawful conduct.
–> Duress, or coercion, is not available as a defense to murder.

77
Q

Defenses –> Other Defenses: Entrapment

A

Where the criminal act is the product of creative activity originating w/ law enforcement officials and the D is in no way predisposed to commit the crime.

78
Q

Defenses –> Other Defenses: Mistake of Fact

A

Negates the existence of a mental state required to establish a material element of the crime (AKA there would be no crime if the facts were such as the D thought them to be).

  • -> To negate existence of GI, a mistake of fact must be reasonable to the extent that, under the circumstances, a reasonable person would have made that type of mistake.
  • -> To negate existence of SI, mistake of fact need not be reasonable; it may be unreasonable, provided it is honest.
  • -> Mistake or ignorance of fact not a defense to SL, which itself requires no mental state.
79
Q

Defenses –> Other Defenses: Mistake of Law

A

Where the D is unaware that his acts are criminally proscribes, such ignorance of the law is not a defense.

Exceptions:

(1) where a statute proscribing D’s conduct has not been reasonably made available or where the D has reasonably relied on a statute or judicial decision that is later overruled or declared unconstitutional.
(2) where a D relies in good faith upon an erroneous official statement of law contained in an administrative order or in an official interpretation by a public officer or dept; and
(3) where some element of a crime involves knowledge or awareness of the law by the D

80
Q

Defenses –> Other Defenses: Consent

A

Not a defense to a crime except when it negates a specific element of the offense, such as in rape/kidnapping.

81
Q

Defenses –> Other Defenses: Condonation

A

Subsequent forgiveness by the victim is generally not a defense to the commission of a crime.

82
Q

Defenses –> Other Defenses: Condonation

A

.

83
Q

General Principles –> Types of Crimes: Felony

A

A crime punishable by death or imprisonment for more than one year.

84
Q

General Principles –> Types of Crimes: Misdemeanor

A

A crime punishable by imprisonment for less than one year or by a fine only.

85
Q

General Principles –> Types of Crimes: Malum Prohibitum

A

An act that is wrong only because it violates a statute

86
Q

General Principles –> Types of Crimes: Malum in Se

A

An act that is inherently wrong or evil; an act that involves a general criminal intent or moral turpitude.

87
Q

General Principles –> Types of Crimes: Infamous

A

At common law, involves fraud or dishonesty.

88
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Occurrence of a Result - Proximate Cause

A

The D’s conduct must be both the actual and the proximate cause of the specified criminal result.

Resulting harm must be within the risk created by the D’s conduct (crimes involving neg or recklessness), OR sufficiently similar to that intended (crimes requiring intent).

89
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Occurrence of a Result - Indirect Cause

A

In indirect cause situations, the other force that combines w/ the D’s act to bring about the harm is called an intervening cause.
–> To relieve the D of liability and break the chain of PC, the other force must be a superseding intervening cause.

90
Q

General Principles –> Elements of Crimes: Occurrence of a Result - Indirect Cause

A

In indirect cause situations, the other force that combines w/ the D’s act to bring about the harm is called an intervening cause.
–> To relieve the D of liability and break the chain of PC, the other force must be a superseding intervening cause.

91
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Mayhem

A

Elements

(1) An unlawful act by means of physical force;
(2) Resulting in an injury which either: (a) deprives a human of a member of his/her body; (b) disables, disfigures, or renders such limb useless; or (c) cuts or disables the tongue, puts out an eye, or slits the nose, ear, or lip; and
(3) Was done maliciously.

92
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> False Imprisonment

A

The intentional, unlawful confinement of one person by another.

93
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Bigamy

A

The crime of marriage by one individual to more than one other person.

94
Q

Crimes Against the Person –> Incest

A

The crime of sexual relations between individuals who are closely related to one another.
–> Degree of relationship required varies by state.