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Criminal Investigation > Criminal Investigations 2 > Flashcards

Criminal Investigations 2 Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: The duties and qualifications of criminalists vary greatly from one position to the next.

(Page 95)

A

True

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2
Q

True or False: Forensic firearms examinations may include a trajectory analysis examination

(Page 98)

A

True

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3
Q

True or False: Forensic firearms examinations may include a gunshot residue examination.

(Page 98)

A

True

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4
Q

True or False: Amido black protein is no longer a technique for the development of fingerprints.

(Page 99)

A

False

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5
Q

True or False: Shining a flashlight at an oblique angle is no longer a technique for finding fingerprints at a crime scene.

(Page 105)

A

False

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6
Q

True or False: Nylon or fiberglass brushes are no used for dusting for latent fingerprints at a crime scene.

(Page 106)

A

False

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7
Q

True or False: Developing fingerprints on absorbent surfaces such as paper or unpainted wood is normally done through simple application of fingerprint powders.

(Page 107)

A

False

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8
Q

True or False: The preferred method of developing fingerprints through use of ninhydrin solution is through spraying.

(Page 108)

A

True

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9
Q

True or False: In superglue fuming of latent prints, after the procedure all prints are photographed and the specimens should be powdered.

(Page 110)

A

True

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10
Q

True or False: Lifting tape is still used today as a common medium for fingerprint preservation.

(Page 111)

A

True

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11
Q

True or False: A fingerprint can be recovered from a glove made of latex material.

(Page 111)

A

True

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12
Q

True or False: Tooth pulp can be a source of DNA evidence.

(Page 112)

A

True

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13
Q

True or False: Bone marrow can be a source of DNA evidence.

(Page 112)

A

True

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14
Q

True or False: Urine can be a source of DNA evidence.

(Page 112)

A

True

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15
Q

True or False: Geographic profiling is a criminal investigative technique that analyzes the locations of a connected series of crimes to determine where the offender most likely resides.

(Page 124)

A

True

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16
Q

True or False: An array of photos for a criminal photo lineup should not contain more than one photo of the same suspect.

(Page 127)

A

True

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17
Q

True or False: A properly conducted physical lineup is significantly less suggestive than the show-up.

(Page 127)

A

True

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18
Q

True or False: A properly conducted physical lineup should consist of at least five or six persons.

(Page 127)

A

True

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19
Q

True or False: A physical lineup should be handled by officers who are assigned to the case if possible.

(Page 129)

A

False

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20
Q

True or False: The U.S. Supreme Court has disapproved multiple-witness lineups.

(Page 129)

A

True

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21
Q

True or False: If multiple lineups are to be conducted for the same witness, do not put the suspect in more than one.

(Page 129)

A

True

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22
Q

True or False: The show-up suspect identification has been widely accepted by the courts and should be used whenever possible.

(Page 130)

A

False

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23
Q

True or False: Of all investigative procedures used by police in criminal cases, probably none is less reliable than the eyewitness identification.

(Page 131)

A

True

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24
Q

The two Fourth Amendment clauses that are significant in the realm of criminal investigation cover.

(Page 141)

A

-Unreasonable searches and seizures clause.
-Warrants clause.

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25
Q

The principal Fifth Amendment clause that is significant in the realm of criminal investigation covers:

(Page 141)

A

Privilege against self-incrimination.

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26
Q

The Sixth Amendment clause that is significant in the realm of criminal investigation covers:

(Page 142)

A

Right to counsel & Right to confrontation clause

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27
Q

Simply put, how much information is necessary to constitute “probable cause” to believe a person committed a crime?

(Page 142)

A

The minimum amount necessary.

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28
Q

The Supreme Court has specified which below criteria in evaluating the legitimacy of a stop by the police?

(Page 144)

A

The Totality of the circumstances.

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29
Q

The events leading up to the execution of an anticipatory search warrant are known as what?

(Page 151)

A

Triggering conditions.

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30
Q

Probable cause is analogous to reasonable suspicion in all ways but one. Which one?

(Page 165)

A

Evidence that establishes a higher probability of guilt.

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31
Q

The Fourth Amendment requires probable cause for which activities below?

(Page 165)

A

-Warrantless arrest
-Issuance of an arrest warrant
-issuance of a search warrant
-Warrantless search and seizure

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32
Q

A Terry stop must be

(Page 168)

A

-Conducted efficiently
-Confined to the investigation the suspicion that prompted the stop, unless further reasonable suspicion is revealed.
-90 minutes maximum.

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33
Q

The Deadly Force Triangle contains which three factors?

(Page 172)

A

Jeopardy, Ability, & Opportunity

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34
Q

In interviews and interrogations, “maximization” can lead to
(Page 183)

A

Coerced internalization & False Confessions

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35
Q

A key psychological factor contributing to successful interrogations is for the interrogator to provide
(Page 187)

A

Privacy

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36
Q

Below are the five (5) most common interrogation styles. If the investigator thinks that the suspect is easily affected by an emotional appeal, which style might be a good technique?
(Page 188)

A

Sympathetic

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37
Q

Below are the five (5) most common interrogation styles. If the investigator wants to show the evidence is overwhelming and the best course of action for the suspect is to “cut a deal”, which style might be a good technique?
(Page 188)

A

Logical

38
Q

Below are the five (5) most common interrogation styles. If the investigator wants to play on the suspect’s sense of pride and mention that the crime took a great deal of planning and intelligence to pull off, which style might be a good technique?
(Page 188)

A

Egotistical

39
Q

Below are the five (5) most common interrogation styles. If the investigator wants to get across that he or she wants to see the suspect punished severely and doesn’t want the suspect to gain leniency in cooperation, which style might be a good technique?
(Page 188)

A

Indifferent

40
Q

Below are the five (5) most common interrogation styles. If the investigator wants to give the suspect a “way out”, which style might be a good technique?
(Page 188)

A

Face Saving

41
Q

If during interrogation, the suspect’s head position is tilted, they are
(Page 192)

A
42
Q

If during interrogation, the suspect’s head position is chin on chest, no tilt, they are
(Page 192)

A

Probably Lying

43
Q

If during interrogation, the suspect’s eyes show the pupils as fully dilated, they are
(Page 192)

A

Probably Lying

44
Q

If during interrogation, the suspect’s hands are covering both eyes, they are
(Page 192)

A

Probably lying

45
Q

If during interrogation, the suspect’s hands are clasped behind their head, they are
(Page 192)

A

Probably truthful

46
Q

If during interrogation a male suspect’s legs are crossed, they are
(Page 192)

A

Probably lying

47
Q

If during interrogation a suspect has one foot tucked beneath the another, they are
(Page 192)

A

Probably truthful

48
Q

The two major subtypes of cognitive interviewing methods are
(Page 195)

A

Think-aloud interviewing and verbal probing techniques

49
Q

Microtremors are indicative of lying when detected in a suspect’s
(Page 200)

A

Voice

50
Q

The VSA measures what in the human voice?
(Page 200)

A

Microtremors

51
Q

What type of information collection uses physical surveillance?
(Page 209)

A

Covert

52
Q

What type of information collection uses personal interaction with people?
(Page 209)

A

Overt

53
Q

Criminal investigators generally work with ________ logic.
(Page 210)

A

Deductive

54
Q

Intelligence unit personnel exercise ________ logic.
(Page 210)

A

Inductive

55
Q

Of the different types of intelligence, which one provides the investigator a tool for long-range planning?
(Page 210)

A

Strategic Intelligence

56
Q

Of the different types of intelligence, which one targets criminal activity considered to be of immediate importance to the investigator?
(Page 210)

A

Tactical Intelligence

57
Q

Of the below phases for intelligence gathering, which one sees the process most commonly break down?
(Page 212-214)

A

Dissemination

58
Q

Of the below phases for intelligence gathering, which one may be done either overtly, covertly or a combination of both?
(Page 212-214)

A

Data Collection

59
Q

Of the below phases for intelligence gathering, which one involves giving meaning to and clarifying all the information?
(Page 212-214)

A

Data Collation and Analysis

60
Q

Of the below phases for intelligence gathering, which one takes into account the factors of utility, probability of success, required resources and objective?
(Page 212-214)

A

Target Selection

61
Q

The court case of U.S. v. Scott dealt with electronic surveillance by law enforcement and established the ______________ requirement for these types of investigations.
(Page 225)

A

Minimization

62
Q

In foot surveillance operations, the ABC method used on crowded streets requires that all officers should generally be
(Page 230)

A

On the same side of the street

63
Q

In foot surveillance operations, the Progressive or Leapfrog method should generally be the
(Page 232)

A

Method avoided b cause of the probability of poor results

64
Q

Which of the below is NOT a type of vehicular or mobile surveillance?
(Page 233)

A

Cross street

65
Q

What is the “advance” stakeout briefing designed to accomplish?

A

Assessing a potential stakeout location.

Developing an initial tactical plan.

66
Q

The FBI refers to its sources of information as

A

Informants and cooperative witnesses

67
Q

Which group of persons below are generally NOT considered one of the four (4) classified general groups of informants?

A

Average Citizens, Fellow law enforcement officers, mentally ill persons, and Criminals or their associates.

68
Q

Successful recruitment and management of informants pivots on the investigator’s ability to recognize the ____________ of the informant.

A

Motivation

69
Q

The “first prong” of the “Aguilar-Spinelli two-prong test” does what?

A

Assesses the credibility of an informant.

70
Q

The “second prong” of the “Aguilar-Spinelli two-prong test” does what?

A

Evaluates the informants basis of knowledge.

71
Q

Murder, according to the UCR program, is the __________ killing of one human being by another.

A

Willfull

72
Q

It is of primary importance that the investigator learn the _________________ as soon as possible after discovery of the body.

A

Manner in which the victim died.

73
Q

Voluntary manslaughter generally

A

Lacks premeditation and requires severe negligence.

74
Q

Causing the death of another person after deliberation on the matter is the definition of

A

First degree murder

75
Q

Causing the death of another person during a criminal act and not under sudden passion is the definition of

A

Second degree murder

76
Q

Recklessly causing the death of another person is the definition of

A

Involuntary manslaughter

77
Q

Causing the death of another person by being certain of taking the victim’s life in the heat of passion is the definition of

A

Voluntary manslaughter

78
Q

Typically, deaths are placed into one of five categories. Which of those listed below is NOT one of those categories?

Murder, suicide, natural, accidental, homicide, or undetermined.

A

Murder

79
Q

At which stage of decomposition does the body enter algor mortis?

A

The fresh stage.

80
Q

At which stage of decomposition does the body have color changes and bloating?

A

The putrefaction stage.

81
Q

At which stage of decomposition does the body experience body cavity ruptures?

A

The black putrefaction stage

82
Q

At which stage of decomposition does the body experience a great increase in insect activity?

A

The black putrefaction stage

83
Q

At which stage of decomposition does the body experience mummification?

A

The butyric fermentation stage

84
Q

At which stage of decomposition does the body begin to dry out?

A

The Butyric fermentation stage

85
Q

At which stage of decomposition does skeletonization occur?

A

The dry decay stage.

86
Q

At how much time after death do the eyes become milky and cloudy in color?

A

8-10 hours

87
Q

In death and wound investigation, the whole point of understanding the shotgun choke is that the choke plays an important role in the

A

Rate at which the shot pellets spread.

88
Q

In the investigation of a shotgun wound, at 5 to 10 feet the shot and wadding mass will produce ________________ in the body.

A

A single large hole

89
Q

Whatever the temperature of the water, all humans when drowning usually lose consciousness within ____ minutes.

A

3 minutes

90
Q

What type of murder case consists of four or more murders in a single incident within a short span of time?

A

Mass murder

Criminal Investigation (3 decks)

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