Criminal Flashcards

1
Q

CRIMINAL - 1-General Principles - B-Mens Rea - 4-Model Penal Code

1. Define the four MPC intents.

A

1. PURPOSELY = CONSCIOUS DESIRE RESULT

  • conscious desire to engage in conduct or cause a certain result

2. KNOWINGLY = PRACTICALLY CERTAIN RESULT

  • practical certainty that conduct will cause a certain result; eg, Shafia: bomb on plane, don’t desire to kill each person, but know it probably will

3. RECKLESSLY = CONSCIOUS DISREGARD HIGH RISK

  • conscious disregard of substantial and unjustified risk that conduct will cause a certain result

4. NEGLIGENTLY = SHOULD KNOW HIGH RISK

  • should know of substantial and unjustified risk that conduct will cause a certain result
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2
Q

CRIMINAL - 1-General Principles - E-Responsibility - 2-Intoxication

1. When is involuntary intoxication a defense?

2. When is voluntary intoxication a defense?

A

1. INVOLUNTARY INTOXICATION = COMPLETE DEFENSE

  • Involuntary intoxication is a complete defense
  • Either ingested unknowingly, under duress, or unknown unusual susceptibility
  • Rendered “insane” per insanity definition

2. VOLUNTARY INTOXICATION = ONLY DEFENSE TO SPECIFIC INTENT

  • Voluntary intoxication is only a defense where intoxication negated requisite intent
    • eg, for larceny, lack intent to permanently deprive another of their property
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3
Q

CRIMINAL - 2-Homicide - B-Types of Homicide - 3-Voluntary Manslaughter

1. How does unreasonable self-defense aeffect a murder?

A

1. IMPERFECT SELF-DEFENSE = VOLUNTARY MANSLAUGHTER

  • murder may be reduced to voluntary manslaughter for imperfect self-defense where D contends deadly force was needed, but D either:
    1. started the altercation or
    2. unreasonably but truly believed that deadly force was necessary
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4
Q

CRIMINAL - 3-Other Crimes - A-Crimes Against Property - 6-Robbery

1. What is required for the crime of robbery?

A

1. ROBBERY = LARCENY + FROM PERSON + FORCE OR THREAT

  • robbery is the trespassory taking and carrying away of the personal property of another from their person or presence by force or threat with the intent to permanently deprive them
  • larceny + assault or battery = merge into robbery
  • more force than necessary to effectuate the taking and carrying away
  • threat of serious injury to person or close person
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5
Q

CRIMINAL - 4-Inchoate Crimes - D-Attempt - 0-Attempt

1. What is required for the crime of attempt?

A

1. ATTEMPT = SPECIFIC INTENT + SUBSTANTIAL STEP

  • Attempt requires:
    • specific intent to commit the crime
    • a substantial step toward commission of the crime
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6
Q

CRIMINAL - 4-Inchoate Crimes - D-Attempt - 1-Substantial Step Test

1. What is a substantial step in the crime of attempt?

A

1. SUBSTANTIAL STEP AEFFECTS COMMISSION OF CRIME

  • For attempt, a substantial step test is conduct that tends to aeffect the commission of a crime
    • subjective
    • more than mere preparation
    • could be in dangerous proximity to completion of the crime
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7
Q

CRIMINAL - 4-Inchoate Crimes - D-Attempt - 2-Specific Intent

1. What is required for specific intent?

A

1. SPECIFIC INTENT TO PERFORM ACT OR OBTAIN RESULT

  • specific intent requires either:
    1. intent to engage in certain conduct or
    2. intent to obtain a certain result
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8
Q

CRIMINAL - 5-Defense - A-Generally - 2-Mistake of Fact

1. When is mistake of fact a defense?

A

1. MISTAKE OF FACT CAN NEGATE SPECIFIC INTENT

  • a mistake of fact may negate the specific intent required for guilt
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9
Q

CRIMINAL - 6-4th Amendment – Search & Seizure - A-General 4th Amendment - 2-The Exclusionary Rule

1. What is the exclusionary rule and when does it not apply?

A

1. EXCLUSIONARY RULE

  • Exclusionary rule prohibits introduction of evidence at trial that was seized unlawfully in violation of 4thAm protection against unreasonable searches and seizures
  • doesn’t apply to grand jury, preliminary, bail, sentencing, or parole hearings
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10
Q

CRIMINAL - 6-4th Amendment – Search & Seizure - C-Search & Seizure - 4-Consent Searches

1. Does a child have an expectation of privacy in parent’s house?

A

1. PARENT CAN CONSENT TO CHILD’S ROOM, NOT LOCKED CONTAINER INSIDE

  • a parent may consent to the search of a child’s room, even if an adult; cannot consent to search of a locked container in an older child’s room
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11
Q

CRIMINAL - 6-4th Amendment – Search & Seizure - C-Search & Seizure - 4-Exceptions to the Warrant Requirement

1. What are the 8 exceptions to the warrant requirement?

A

PACE - WAIT 🥫➰🫸

1. WARRANT EXCEPTIONS

  1. Plain-view doctrine
  2. Automobile exception
  3. Consent searches
  4. Exigent circumstances
  5. Wiretapping
  6. Administrative searches
  7. Incident to lawful arrest
  8. Terry stop and frisk
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12
Q

CRIMINAL - 9-Pretrial - A-Eyewitness Identification - 3-Impermissibly Suggestive Identification Procedures – Due Process Rights

1. When will an identification be suppressed for being improper?

A

1. IMPERMISSIBLY SUGGESTIVE ID + IRREPARABLE MISIDENTIFICATION = SUPPRESSION

An ID is improper and will be suppressed if:
Isioat
1. it was impermissibly suggestive and
2. there is a very substantial likelihood of irreparable misidentification, which is determined by
- During Crime: opportunity to view and degree of attention
- After Crime: accuracy of description and certainty of ID
- In Between: elapsed time

  • Even if an impermissibly suggestive pre-trial ID is suppressed, an in-trial ID may be allowed

Impermissibly suggestive

Irreparable misidentification
Substantial likelihood

Opportunity & degree during
Accuracy & certainty after
Time elapsed between

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13
Q

CRIMINAL - 10-Trial - A-Jury Trial - 3-Compliance

1. What is required to show a jury isn’t a fair cross-section?

A

1. VENIRE CAN’T EXCLUDE DISTINCT COMMUNITY GROUP

  • to prove jury wasn’t a fair cross-section of the community, D must show that there was a systematic exclusion of a distinct and numerically significant community in the venire
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14
Q

CRIMINAL - 11-Post-Trial - A-Double Jeopardy - 2-Attachment of Jeopardy

1. When does jeopardy attach?

2. When does jeopardy terminate?

A

1. JEOPARDY ATTACHES WHEN JURY SWORN IN

  • Jury Trial: jeopardy attaches when
    • jury is sworn in
  • Bench Trial: jeopardy attaches when
    • 1st witness is sworn in

2. JEOPARDY TERMINATES UPON CONVICTION, ACQUITTAL, OR MISTRIAL WITHOUT MANIFEST NECESSITY

  • Jeopardy is Terminated by:
    • a conviction, acquittal, or a mistrial
    • mistrial must be without manifest necessity
      • eg, deadlocked jury
    • not terminated if D moves for a mistrial
      • unless P was cause
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15
Q

Rape

A

Rape

__________

Common Law – Rape is the

  1. unlawful sexual intercourse
  2. of a woman by a man (not her husband)
  3. without her consent
  • The burden of proving that the victim did not consent must rest on the prosecution.
  • Modern definition →
    • includes marital rape
    • makes gender irrelevant

__________

MPC

A male who has sex with a female (not his wife) is guilty of rape if:

  1. he compels her by force/threat of imminent death, serious bodily injury, extreme pain, or kidnapping;
  2. he secretly drugs her;
  3. female is unconscious; OR
  4. female is less than 10 years old.
  • Deviate Sexual Intercourse →
    • has same elements as above, but is gender neutral

__________

Statutory Rape

  1. unlawful sexual intercourse,
  2. with a person,
  3. under the age of consent (as defined by statute).
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16
Q

Burden of Proof – Criminal Cases

A

Burden of Proof – Criminal Cases

Burden of Proof → Prosecution MUST prove every element of a crime beyond a reasonable doubt.

  • Burden of proof CANNOT be shifted to D
    • Shifting the burden to D is UNCNST under DP, irrespective of the level of proof required
  • Making D prove affirmative defenses is allowed
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17
Q

MBE Question Provides a Statute – Knowingly

A

When an MBE question provides a statute, a stringent application of the statute is necessary over common law.

Here, this question provides a statute and asks which of the following, if found by the jury, would be of the most help to the bartender. The bartender is charged with “knowingly violating” a regulation prohibiting the sale of alcoholic beverages to any person under the age of 18 and prohibiting the sale of any alcoholic beverage to a person over the age of 17 and under the age of 22 without the presentation of such person’s driver’s license or other identification.

The key to successfully answering this question is the word “knowingly.” When a crime requires that the defendant act knowingly, he must have been aware that his conduct was of a particular nature, or at least know that his conduct will necessarily or very likely cause a particular result.

D is correct. This answer provides the bartender’s best argument because the statute requires “knowledge,” and if the jury finds that the bartender mistakenly believed the purchaser to be 24 years-old, then he did not “knowingly” violate the regulation. Believing the purchaser was 24 would negate the possibility that he knowingly sold an alcoholic beverage to a person under the age of 18 or that he knowingly sold an alcoholic beverage between 17 and 22 without the presentation of identification.

18
Q

Mens Rea – Criminal

A

Mens Rea – Criminal

The intent element of a crime (mens rea).

Common Law (CL):

  • Specific Intent – intent or desire to engage in the conduct or cause a certain result.
  • General Intent – awareness of acting in a certain way.
  • Malice – reckless disregard of a known risk that harm may occur.
    • Proof of malice does not need to be proof of an actual specific intent to kill or harm another; it can be implied from a defendant’s gross recklessness with regard to human life shown.
  • Strict Liability – no mental state required; only the act is required.

Model Penal Code (MPC):

  • Purposefullyconscious object to engage in conduct or cause a certain result.
  • Knowinglyaware that conduct is of a particular nature or will cause a certain result.
  • Recklessly – consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk + act is a gross deviation from how a reasonable person would act.
    • OR when a person creates such a risk, but is unaware of it solely by reason of voluntary intoxication.
  • Criminal Negligence – should have been aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk + that failure is a gross deviation from the standard of care.

Willful Blindness Standard (majority of states) A person is deemed to act knowingly when he is:
a) Aware that certain facts are highly probable; OR
b) Intentionally ignorant to certain facts.
- Knowledge may be proved by circumstantial evidence.

19
Q

Accomplice Liability

A

Accomplice Liability – an accomplice is one who:
1. aids, abets, or facilitates the commission of the crime
- may be mere encouragement
2. intent to assist the primary party, -AND-
3. intent that the crime be committed

  • An accomplice is liable for all crimes he committed and all foreseeable crimes committed by the primary party.
  • Merely being present or knowing a crime will result DOES NOT create accomplice liability.
    • Urging a criminal perpetrator to flee the scene of a crime is not sufficient to constitute aiding, abetting, or facilitating the perpetrator’s commission of that crime.
  • Cannot be convicted if D is a member of a class protected by the criminal law.
  • Minority of states DO NOT allow accomplice liability for involuntary manslaughter.

Withdrawal – is a defense if D withdraws before the crime becomes unstoppable, and requires:

  1. repudiating the encouragement given; AND
  2. neutralizing any assistance.
  • Under modern accomplice liability theory, an accomplice may be convicted even if the principal is not convicted, or is not charged, or even if the principal’s identity is unknown. (Otherwise, members of criminal syndicates could avoid incurring accomplice liability simply by not revealing their identities to each other.) The prosecution must prove that someone committed the underlying crime, and then may pursue accomplice liability for one who aided, abetted, or facilitated that commission of that crime.
  • Innocent Agent – Whena person uses someone else to commit a crime on the first person’s behalf, and the person being used is unaware of the criminal nature of her acts, that second person is an innocent instrumentality or innocent agent. An innocent agent may complete the actus reus of a crime, but she does not possess the necessary mens rea and therefore, is not guilty of that crime. The person who used her, however, is liable as the principal, regardless of whether that person is present at the scene of the crime.
20
Q

Automobile Exception

A

Automobile Exception – allows a warrantless search if probable cause exists that contraband/evidence of a crime will be found in the vehicle.

  • An automobile stop constitutes a seizure not only of the automobile’s driver, but also of any current passengers.
  • If the passenger exits the car before the stop, and there is otherwise no probable cause as to that passenger, they may not be searched.
  • Police can search entire vehicle, PLUS packages, luggage, containers that may reasonably contain the items for which there is probable cause.
  • In order to search after a traffic stop → police need probable cause prior to the search.
21
Q

Search & Seizure – Government Action & Standing

A

Search & Seizure – Government Action & Standing

Govt. Action – 4th Amend. grants a person protection from unlawful government searches and seizures.

  • Acts by private individuals are NOT protected.

Standing – Is required to challenge a search. Person MUST have a reasonable expectation of privacy regarding the place or item searched.

  • Reasonable Expectation of Privacy = that which they own or possess
    • applies to overnight guest spaces
  • Supreme Court has held NO privacy rights for objects held out to public:
  1. paint scrapings taken from a car;
  2. bank account records;
  3. anything visible from public airspace;
  4. garbage left on the curb;
  5. the sound of one’s voice;
  6. odors;
  7. handwriting; and
  8. anything that can be seen in or across areas outside one’s home.
  • Open Fields Doctrine – areas outside the curtilage (house, attached garage) are subject to entry and search
22
Q

4th Amendment

A

4th Amendment

The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.

23
Q

Exceptions to Warrant Requirement

A

Exceptions to Warrant Requirement

  1. Plain View Doctrine
  2. Exigent Circumstances
  3. Automobile Exception
  4. Search Incident to Arrest
  5. Consent
  6. Inventory Search
  7. Stop & Frisk
  8. Good Faith
  9. Special Need
24
Q

Consent to Search

A

Consent to Search – must be given freely, voluntarily, and intelligently.

  • Voluntary: not due to duress or coercion – express or implied
    • if person has condition unknown to police - it’s voluntary - eg, 48 hour memory loss
  • A third-person with authority MAY consent.
  • If 2 or more people share authority → any one of them may consent, but police cannot search private areas (that only the non-consenting person has authority to give [i.e. private bedroom]).
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**Murder**
**Murder** **_Common Law & 2nd Degree Murder_** – Murder is the 1. unlawful killing, 2. of a person, 3. with malice aforethought. **_Malice Aforethought_** 1. intent to kill, 2. intent to inflict great bodily harm, 3. reckless disregard of an extreme risk to human life - depraved-heart murder) _-OR-_ 4. intent to commit an inherently dangerous felony - felony murder rule **_1st Degree Murder_** – The killing was ***willful, deliberate, _-AND-_ premeditated***. **_MPC Murder_** – Killing of a person committed: 1. ***purposefully or knowingly*** _-OR-_ 2. ***recklessly*** under circumstances manifesting an extreme indifference to the value of human life. **_Felony Murder Rule_** – Felony murder is a killing committed during the commission of an inherently dangerous felony such as robbery, burglary, arson, rape, and kidnapping. - The intent required for a felony murder conviction is the intent necessary to commit the underlying felony. - The underlying felony for felony murder cannot itself be a killing. __________ - To be guilty of murder, D's actions must have been both the actual and proximate cause of the victim's death. - Proximate cause requires that the death was a reasonably foreseeable result of D's acts.
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**Criminal Causation**
**Criminal Causation** **_Causation_** – Requires both: 1. Actual Cause _‐AND‐_ 2. Proximate Cause **_Actual Cause_** → harm would not have occurred "***but for***" D's conduct **_Proximate Cause_** → harm must be a ***reasonably foreseeable*** result from D's act – it was a ***natural probable consequence*** __________ **_Superseding Intervening Cause_** – A 3rd-party's act will break the chain of causation if the act was: 1. Independent; _-AND-_ 2. Not foreseeable – it’s so out-of-the-ordinary that it’'s not fair to hold D liable for the crime. __________ - To be guilty of murder, D's actions must have been both the actual and proximate cause of the victim's death. - Proximate cause requires that the death was a reasonably foreseeable result of D's acts.
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**Conspiracy**
**_Conspiracy_** – is a specific intent crime, and requires: 1. An ***agreement between two or more persons*** - express or implied 2. ***Intent to enter*** into the agreement 3. ***Intent to pursue*** an unlawful objective _-AND-_ - CL = all parties - MPC & Modern = only require one party’s intent) 4. Commission of an ***overt act*** in furtherance of the unlawful objective - any act taken by a coconspirator is sufficient - CL = no overt act required – the agreement is enough - **Liability** – A conspirator is liable for the conspiracy, PLUS all foreseeable crimes committed by co-conspirators in furtherance of the unlawful objective. - **Withdrawal** is NOT a defense for the conspiracy, but it is a defense for crimes committed by co-conspirators _after_ the withdrawal. - In jurisdictions that require an overt act, one may withdraw from a conspiracy before that overt act takes place. - **CL Bilateral Approach** – A conspiracy requires at least two "guilty minds," ie, persons who are actually committed to the illicit plan. If one person in a two-party agreement is only feigning agreement, the other party cannot be convicted of conspiracy. - **MPC & Modern Unilateral Approach** – A conspiracy requires only one party to have genuine criminal intent. If one person in a two-party agreement is only feigning agreement, eg, undercover cop, the other party can still be convicted of conspiracy.
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**Good Faith Warrant Exception**
**_Good Faith Warrant Exception_** Generally, if a search warrant is invalid for any reason, (eg, not supported by probable cause), any search done pursuant to it will be unconstitutional. The exclusionary rule will apply and any evidence seized will likely be excluded. However, the SC has held that if the police ***reasonably believe*** in ***good faith*** that the warrant they have been issued is valid, the exclusionary rule will not apply to bar the items seized from being introduced at the trial of the person whose rights were violated by the search.
29
**Search Incident to Arrest**
**_Search Incident to Arrest_** – police may ***contemporaneously*** search a ***suspect’s person + area within suspect’s immediate control*** – ie, their reaching distance or wingspan). - **If arrested in a home** → may also search other ***immediately adjoining spaces from where an attack may be launched***. - **If arrested in an automobile** → may also search entire interior AND passenger’s compartment if: 1. reason to believe ***evidence of the crime arrested for*** might be found; OR 2. arrested ***person is unsecured and could gain access to the vehicle***. - A search incident to a lawful arrest is a valid exception to the warrant requirement of the 4th Amendment. Authorities may conduct a warrantless search incident to a lawful arrest as long as the scope of the search is constrained to the defendant's wingspan and performed contemporaneously with the arrest.
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**Attempt**
**_Attempt_** – when a person 1. had ***specific intent*** to commit a crime, _-AND-_ 2. took an ***overt act*** sufficiently beyond mere preparation - _most states & MPC_ = substantial step - _minority of states_ = proximate or dangerously proximate - **Merger** – Attempt merges with the underlying crime. **Abandonment / Withdrawal Defense:** ‐ _Most States_ → NOT a defense once D has taken a substantial step toward the crime (conduct beyond mere preparation). - _Minority States & MPC_ → Abandonment before the completion of the crime is an affirmative defense if: (1) D voluntary renounces his criminal purpose; AND (2) Completely abandons the effort to commit the crime or otherwise prevents its commission.
31
**Robbery**
**_Robbery_** – is the 1. trespassory taking and carrying away 2. of the personal property of another 3. in their ***presence*** 4. by the use of force or fear - threat of imminent physical harm 5. with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property - The taking must be accomplished as a ***result of force or fear*** - D must actually use force or V must actually be afraid - if neither, then could just be attempt - **Armed Robbery** = above elements + use of a dangerous weapon.
32
**5th Amendment Self-Incrimination – Immunity**
**_5th Amendment Self-Incrimination – Immunity_** A witness may be compelled to answer questions if ***granted adequate immunity*** from prosecution. - **Use & Derivative Use Immunity** guarantees that the ***testimony*** obtained and ***evidence located by means of the testimony*** will not be used against the witness. - SC has held that granting is sufficient to extinguish the privilege. - **Transactional Immunity** guarantees immunity from prosecution for ***any crimes related to the testimony*** of the witness.
33
**Burglary**
**_Burglary_** – is the 1. breaking - actual or constructive, as done with force or threats 2. and entering 2. of a dwelling 3. of another 4. at night 5. with the intent of committing a felony inside. - Most jurisdictions extend burglary to include breaking into ***any structure*** at ***any time***.
34
**Accessory After the Fact**
**_Accessory After the Fact_** – An accessory after the fact is someone who : 1. ***assists*** a person who has committed a crime 2. ***after*** the person has committed the crime 3. with ***knowledge*** that the person committed the crime; and 4. with the ***intent to help the person avoid punishment***. ‐ A person can be convicted of accessory after the fact, even if the principal is not prosecuted or has been tried and acquitted for the offense. - A person can be liable for a crime even though they did not commit it and the person who did commit the crime was not convicted because, if D helps another get away with a crime, punishing the accessory for that crime is appropriate.
35
**Solicitation**
**_Solicitation_** 1. D ***requests another person*** to commit a crime - or join in the commission of a crime 2. With ***specific intent*** that the crime be committed AND 3. The other person ***receives the request*** - **Merger** – Solicitation merges with the substantive crime. - **Renunciation** – is an affirmative defense if D: (1) voluntarily and completely renounces; AND (2) prevents the commission of the crime. - Solicitation is complete once the person invites, requests, commands, hires, or encourages another to commit a particular offense with the intent that the offense be committed.
36
**Larceny**
**_Larceny_** – is a specific intent crime 1. trespassory taking - obtaining control or possession 2. and carrying away - the slightest movement is sufficient 3. of the personal property of another without consent - against the victim’s free will, which includes duress 4. with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property - the specific intent to dispossess must exist at the time of taking - Factual impossibility, where the substantive crime is incapable of completion because of a fact unknown to the defendant, is not a valid defense. __________ **Larceny by Trick** 1. obtain possession (not title) 2. of the personal property of another 3. by trick or deception. - using false statements of past or existing fact __________ **False Pretenses** - is a specific intent crime where a person: 1. obtains title - obtains ownership rather than mere possession 2. to personal property of another 3. through an intentional false statement of material fact - using false statements of past or existing fact 4. with intent to defraud - V must be deceived or must act in reliance of defendant’s false statement in passing title - Because it is a specific intent crime, a mistake by D, no matter how unreasonable, is a defense __________ **Embezzlement** 1. fraudulent or wrongful 2. conversion 3. of personal property of another 4. by a person with lawful possession of the property. 5. with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property. __________ **Receiving Stolen Property** 1. when a person receives possession of stolen property - must be actually stolen at the time of receipt by D 2. who knows the property is stolen when receiving it 3. with the intent to permanently deprive the owner of the property.
37
**Arson**
**_Arson_** – is the 1. malicious 2. burning 3. of a dwelling 4. of another. - Malice means that D either - intended to burn the structure - knew their actions would result in the burning of the structure - intentionally created a fire hazard that threatened the structure - Since the mens rea requirement is malice, if a defendant burns a structure through an act of negligence, they cannot be convicted of arson. - _Majority of States_ → includes damage (1) caused by explosives, and (2) to other types of buildings and vehicles.
38
**Manslaughter**
**_Manslaughter_** **Voluntary Manslaughter** 1. Intentional killing of a person 2. upon adequate provocation - without malice aforethought **Adequate Provocation** 1. D was provoked - sudden and intense passion causing a loss of control 2. a reasonable person would have been provoked 3. not enough time to cool off _-AND-_ 4. D in fact did not cool off. **Involuntary Manslaughter** – Unintentional killing of a person committed: 1. recklessly 2. under the misdemeanor-murder rule 3. during a non-dangerous felony _-OR-_ 4. with criminal negligence - in some states **MPC Manslaughter** – Killing of a person committed: 1. recklessly _-OR-_ 2. under the influence of extreme mental or emotional disturbance for which there is a reasonable explanation or excuse.
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**Miranda Rights**
**_Miranda Rights_** – Rights attach when a person is in a ***custodial interrogation***. **Miranda Warnings** – Police must give Miranda warnings when a person is taken into custodial interrogation: 1. right to remain silent 2. anything said can be used against suspect in court 3. right to talk to an attorney and have one present when they are questioned, and 4. if cannot afford an attorney, one will be provided. - Statements made in violation of a suspect’s Miranda rights are subject to the Exclusionary Rule. **Custodial Interrogation** - _Custody_ = the person reasonably believes they are not free to leave. - _Interrogation_ = police knew / should have known they were likely to elicit an incriminating response. **Statements / Acts Protected** – only protects statements and acts that are communicative or testimonial in nature. - DO NOT apply to spontaneous statements - Crying is NOT a testimonial communication **Waiver of Rights** – A valid waiver must be made knowingly, intelligently, _AND_ voluntarily. - D must understand the nature of the right being waived and the consequence for waiving it - Police failure to provide outside info DOES NOT invalidate a waiver - unless the info was essential to D’s ability to waive rights **Invoking Miranda Rights** – Invocation must be clear and unambiguous. - Once invoked, police must stop ANY questioning. - D’s silence CANNOT be commented on at trial **Reinstating Questioning** – Police may reinitiate questioning if: 1. Suspect is re-advised of his Miranda rights 2. Has provided a knowing and intelligent waiver; AND 3. Either 1. suspect initiates the communication 2. counsel is present or 3. 14 days have passed since the suspect was released from custody. **Public Safety Exception** – A limited interrogation without Miranda warnings IS ALLOWED when police ask questions reasonably prompted by a public safety concern or safety of the officer (ie, to secure a weapon).
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**Mistake of Fact or Law**
**_Mistake of Fact or Law_** **Mistake of Fact** → is a defense if it negates the mental state required for the crime - Mistake of fact may be a defense only if it negates the state of mind required for the crime. - For specific intent crimes, the mistake can negate that intent. - For malice and general intent crimes, including murder and manslaughter, there is an extra requirement that the mistake of fact must be reasonable (ie, the type of mistake that a reasonable person would have made under the circumstances). - If the jury believes that the mistake of fact made by D is reasonable, it is a valid defense to the crime. **Mistake of Law** → generally NOT a defense