Crim Law Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

____ is a criminal’s state of mind:

A
CRIM K
C – CRIMINALLY negligently
R – RECKLESSLY (a.k.a. wantonly) 
I – INTENTIONALLY
M – MALICIOUSLY 
K – KNOWINGLY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A principal in the 2nd degree (aider or abettor) eats ____

A

PEAS
P – Is PRESENT at the crime scene
E – ENCOURAGES the crimes commissions
A – Renders ASSISTANCE or stands by with an intent to render assistance
S – SHARED mens rea with principal first degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Think ____ for the more severe ARSONS

A

PIES
P – There was a PECUNIARY motive for setting fire,
I – An INCENDIARY device was used (Molotov cocktail),
E – EXPLOSIVES were used, or
S – Someone is SERIOUSLY injured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ kills:

A

FIGS MAN
F – FELONY murder
I – INTENTIONAL murder
G – Defendant’s conduct created a GRAVE risk of death. Defendant was aware of the risk
and consciously disregarded it displaying a depraved indifference to the victim’s life
S – Intent to cause SERIOUS bodily harm that results in death
MAN – MANSLAUGHTER (voluntary or involuntary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____ MPC § 210.2(1)(b) can commit felony murder, but not in a ____:

A
BRAKERS        LAB
B – BURGLARY
R – ROBBERY
A – ARSON
K – KIDNAPPING
E – ESCAPE from police custody after arrest 
R – RAPE
S – Criminal SEXUAL act

L – LARCENY
A – ASSAULT
B – BATTERY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A ____ can’t be sentenced to death for felony murder:

A

CUB
C – D didn’t COMMIT, command, or request the homicide
U – D was UNARMED with a deadly instrument or substance readily capable of causing
death or serious physical injury AND
B – D had no reason to BELIEVE another co-conspirator was armed or intended to engage
in conduct likely to result in death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____ negates a murderous intent:

A

HIS
H – Committed in the HEAT of passion (HOP) or under extreme emotional disturbance
I – INSANITY or an INFANT under the age of seven
S – SELF-DEFENSE or defense of others/justification (*if established it’s a complete defense)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An unintended homicide is murder if it was a ____ death

A

BIG
B – It occurred during a BRAKERS felony (felony murder);
I – The defendant’s INTENT was to cause serious injury resulting in death; or
G – The defendant created a GRAVE risk of death and the defendant consciously disregarded the risk
(Depraved mind murder).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

____ to commit common law burglary

A
I BEND
 I – INTENT to commit a felony therein
B – BREAKING
E – ENTERING the dwelling
 N – NIGHTIME
D - DWELLING
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Common law larceny requires a ____:

A

TIP
T – Wrongful TAKING of property
I – Specific INTENT to permanently deprive the owner of that property
P – PERSONAL property of another is taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

There are 5 types of ____ “theft”:

A
FLEET
F – FALSE pretenses
L – Common law LARCENY (TIP) 
E – EMBEZZLEMENT
E – EXTORTION
T – Larceny by TRICK
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_____ raise criminal defenses:

A
NICE MICE EVADE WASPS
N – NECESSITY a.k.a. Choice of Evils Defense
I – INFANCY
C – CLAIM of title or claim of right
E – EXCESSIVELY broad penal statute
M – Legal or factual MISTAKE
I – INSANITY or intoxication
C – CUB status as a defense to felony murder 
E – EXTREME emotional disturbance     
E – ENTRAPMENT
V – VAGUE criminal statute
A – Bill of ATTAINDER
D – DURESS
E – EX POST FACTO criminal law
W – WITHDRAWAL from the crime (a.k.a. renunciation) 
A – ALIBI Defense
S – SELF-DEFENSE/justification
P – Heat of PASSION
S – STATUTE of limitations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Retroactive criminal laws are prohibited by a ___ piper:

A

PIED
P – The law made PAST conduct a crime, which, at the time it occurred, was not a crime
I – The law INCREASED the punishment for a past crime
E – The law altered the rules of EVIDENCE after the crime was committed by making it easier to
convict the defendant, e.g. eliminating spousal testimonial privilege, or reducing the number of
jurors for a convictions from 12 to 11.
D – The law eliminated DEFENSES that were available on the date the crime was committed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____ allows no reflection, but ____ does:

A

HOP EED
HEAT OF PASSION;
EXTREME EMOTIONAL DISTURBANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most of NICE MICE EVADE WASPS are “affirmative defenses” except for ___ which are “element negating defenses”:

A

C.I.A.
C – CLAIM of right defense
I – INFANCY defense (the defendant is under 7 or under 18)
A – ALIBI defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In asserting justification, D can ____ on the violent victim by presenting evidence of the victim’s violent:

A

RAT
R – REPUTATION
A – Violent ACTS
T – THREATS of violence against D

17
Q

To challenge a search, the D must have a good ____

A

REP:

REASONABLE EXPECTATION of PRIVACY

18
Q

allow warrantless searches:

A
BACH’S PIES
B – BORDER searches
A – AUTOMOBILE searches
C – CONSENT searches
H – HOT pursuit
S – SCHOOL searches
P – PLAIN view searches
I – Searches INCIDENT to arrest 
E – EMERGENCY searches
S – STREET encounters
19
Q

Consider the _____ factors for a hot pursuit search:

A
PAGE
P – Clear showing of PC
A – Whether the suspect was ARMED
G – GRAVITY of the offense
E – Likelihood that the suspect will ESCAPE
20
Q

A ____ seizure is constitutional:

A

FAR
F – Stop & FRISK requiring reasonable suspicion
A – Stop & ARREST requiring probable cause
R – Stop & REQUEST info requiring an articulable basis

21
Q

When deciding whether to grant D’s motion to dismiss for violating D’s right to a speedy trial, the
court will consider the ____ D paid:

A

PRICE
P – PREJUDICE in the form of loss of witnesses
R – REASON for the delay
I – Whether D is INCARCERATED during delay
C – Severity of the CHARGE
E – EXTENT of the delay