Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CRC EVAL MQF > CRC WPNS MQF > Flashcards

CRC WPNS MQF Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Aircrew, AWO/WDs, and JTAC’s are to be familiar with the capabilities and limitations of ______ for mission accomplishment.
    a. communications and control facilities
    b. coordination requirements
    c. other weapons systems employed
    d. all of the above
A
  1. Aircrew, AWO/WDs, and JTAC’s are to be familiar with the capabilities and limitations of ______ for mission accomplishment.
    a. communications and control facilities
    b. coordination requirements
    c. other weapons systems employed

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WDs are responsible for ______.
    a. knowing the states of alert, readiness, warning, and ROE within the operational command’s assigned AOR
    b. knowing and complying with authentication procedures
    c. knowing the characteristics and capabilities/limitations of the threat
    d. all of the above
A
  1. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WDs are responsible for ______.
    a. knowing the states of alert, readiness, warning, and ROE within the operational command’s assigned AOR
    b. knowing and complying with authentication procedures
    c. knowing the characteristics and capabilities/limitations of the threat

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Aircrews will check-in with the controlling agency, such as AWACS, CRC, or Forward Air Controller (FAC)/TAC, unless restricted by the ATO, with all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. callsign
    b. position
    c. authentication as required
    d. deviations or aborts affecting mission accomplishment
A
  1. Aircrews will check-in with the controlling agency, such as AWACS, CRC, or Forward Air Controller (FAC)/TAC, unless restricted by the ATO, with all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. callsign

b. position

c. authentication as required
d. deviations or aborts affecting mission accomplishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WD will accomplish all of the following upon aircraft check in EXCEPT:
    a. Indicate negative/positive radar contact (if applicable)
    b. Provide a brief to include location of friendly forces, civilians and no fire areas.
    c. If equipped with IFF/SIF, conduct an IFF/SIF check and advise aircrew of status “Sour” or “Sweet”
    d. Obtain post mission requirements
A
  1. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WD will accomplish all of the following upon aircraft check in EXCEPT:
    a. Indicate negative/positive radar contact (if applicable)
    b. Provide a brief to include location of friendly forces, civilians and no fire areas.
    c. If equipped with IFF/SIF, conduct an IFF/SIF check and advise aircrew of status “Sour” or “Sweet”

d. Obtain post mission requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required?
    a. Available Air-to-Air armament
    b. Available Air-to-Surface armament.
    c. Fuel Status
    d. All of the above
A
  1. What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required?
    a. Available Air-to-Air armament
    b. Available Air-to-Surface armament.
    c. Fuel Status

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. During recoveries, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with ______.
    a. weather
    b. callsign and recovery base
    c. mission results and intelligence
    d. both b and c
A
  1. During recoveries, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with ______.
    a. weather
    b. callsign and recovery base
    c. mission results and intelligence

d. both b and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. According to AFI 11-214, what will the AWO/WD accomplish during aircraft recoveries, as conditions require?
    a. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
    b. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance
    c. Pass final shots, kills, and Mode IV results
    d. Log aircraft “Fence Out” on AF Form 0-96
A
  1. According to AFI 11-214, what will the AWO/WD accomplish during aircraft recoveries, as conditions require?

a. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures

b. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance
c. Pass final shots, kills, and Mode IV results
d. Log aircraft “Fence Out” on AF Form 0-96

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Prior to the “FIGHTS-ON” call, exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting ______.
    a. the “VUL” time
    b. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in area, block changes, altimeter setting)
    c. ROE
    d. RTO working frequency
A
  1. Prior to the “FIGHTS-ON” call, exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting ______.
    a. the “VUL” time

b. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in area, block changes, altimeter setting)

c. ROE
d. RTO working frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. During exercises, the______ will brief all participants unfamiliar with AFI 11-214, and ensure they know and understand the Training Rules (TRs).
    a. mission commander
    b. mission crew commander
    c. exercise director
    d. inspector general
A
  1. During exercises, the______ will brief all participants unfamiliar with AFI 11-214, and ensure they know and understand the Training Rules (TRs).
    a. mission commander
    b. mission crew commander

c. exercise director

d. inspector general

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. During exercises, Exercise directors can use which of the following for Separation of Aircraft:
    a. Time and Space
    b. Assigning specific geographical areas of flight
    c. Altitude blocks to deconflict participating aircraft
    d. All of the above
A
  1. During exercises, Exercise directors can use which of the following for Separation of Aircraft:
    a. Time and Space
    b. Assigning specific geographical areas of flight
    c. Altitude blocks to deconflict participating aircraft

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. ______ is used to cease all tactical maneuvering when safety of flight is a factor, where doubt or confusion exists, or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) are met or unattainable for an entire scenario.
    a. TERIMINATE
    b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
    c. PITBULL
    d. BEADWINDOW
A
  1. ______ is used to cease all tactical maneuvering when safety of flight is a factor, where doubt or confusion exists, or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) are met or unattainable for an entire scenario.
    a. TERIMINATE

b. KNOCK-IT-OFF

c. PITBULL
d. BEADWINDOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a “KNOCK-IT-OFF” is ______.
    a. immediately works 90 degrees out of the fight / reset CAP
    b. reset to safe / Fuel Recovery Area
    c. acknowledge with callsign/cease tactical maneuvering and the scenario
    d. all of the above
A
  1. The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a “KNOCK-IT-OFF” is ______.
    a. immediately works 90 degrees out of the fight / reset CAP
    b. reset to safe / Fuel Recovery Area

c. acknowledge with callsign/cease tactical maneuvering and the scenario

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. ______ ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario.
    a. TERMINATE
    b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
    c. PICTURE
    d. BEADWINDOW
A
  1. ______ ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario.

a. TERMINATE

b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
c. PICTURE
d. BEADWINDOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. If transmitting “TERMINATE” during a large scenario, anchor position ______. Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type of aircraft, etc.).
    a. with latitude and longitude coordinates
    b. with UTM coordinates
    c. geographically or with a bullseye reference
    d. relative to the E-3
A
  1. If transmitting “TERMINATE” during a large scenario, anchor position ______. Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type of aircraft, etc.).
    a. with latitude and longitude coordinates
    b. with UTM coordinates

c. geographically or with a bullseye reference

d. relative to the E-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Use “TERMINATE” when safety of flight is not a factor in conjunction with the following:
    a. Reaching BINGO fuel
    b. Exceeding area boundaries
    c. Training rules are met
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Use “TERMINATE” when safety of flight is not a factor in conjunction with the following:
    a. Reaching BINGO fuel
    b. Exceeding area boundaries
    c. Training rules are met

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. In a Communications Jamming environment, transmission required for safety will be prefaced with ______.
    a. BREAK, BREAK
    b. ALL PLAYERS, STANBY
    c. SAFETY, SAFETY
    d. CEASE COMMUNICATIONS
A
  1. In a Communications Jamming environment, transmission required for safety will be prefaced with ______.
    a. BREAK, BREAK
    b. ALL PLAYERS, STANBY

c. SAFETY, SAFETY

d. CEASE COMMUNICATIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. ______ will be used to terminate both comm jamming and maneuvering.
    a. TERMINATE
    b. CEASE BUZZER
    c. KNOCK-IT-OFF
    d. FREEZE
A
  1. ______ will be used to terminate both comm jamming and maneuvering.
    a. TERMINATE
    b. CEASE BUZZER

c. KNOCK-IT-OFF

d. FREEZE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Comm Jamming procedures will not be conducted on _______ frequencies.
    a. Primary Air-to-Air
    b. Guard / predesignated safety
    c. Primary Air-to-Surface
    d. SEAD VHF
A
  1. Comm Jamming procedures will not be conducted on _______ frequencies.
    a. Primary Air-to-Air

b. Guard / predesignated safety

c. Primary Air-to-Surface
d. SEAD VHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. AWOs/WDs and aircrew will confirm altimeter, weapons safe calls, and monitor altitude separation for rendezvous EXCEPT during ______.
    a. EMCON Option 1 and 2
    b. EMCON Option 2 and 3
    c. Emergency refueling
    d. EMCON Option 3 and 4
A
  1. AWOs/WDs and aircrew will confirm altimeter, weapons safe calls, and monitor altitude separation for rendezvous EXCEPT during ______.
    a. EMCON Option 1 and 2
    b. EMCON Option 2 and 3
    c. Emergency refueling

d. EMCON Option 3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. If a tanker experiences problems preventing completion of an air refueling the ______ will ensure aircraft separation and inform the receiver and AWO/WD of intentions.
    a. SD
    b. tanker aircraft commander
    c. flight lead
    d. mission commander
A
  1. If a tanker experiences problems preventing completion of an air refueling the ______ will ensure aircraft separation and inform the receiver and AWO/WD of intentions.
    a. SD

b. tanker aircraft commander

c. flight lead
d. mission commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Effective combat operations in a tactical environment, all players involved in the refueling operation will employ ______ to the maximum extent possible.
    a. chaff and flares
    b. beadwindow procedures
    c. chattermark procedures
    d. emission control (EMCON)
A
  1. Effective combat operations in a tactical environment, all players involved in the refueling operation will employ ______ to the maximum extent possible.
    a. chaff and flares
    b. beadwindow procedures
    c. chattermark procedures

d. emission control (EMCON)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Minimized radio transmissions between command and control, the receivers, and the tankers require a ______.
    a. pre-planned and coordinated off-load
    b. refueling order / ARCP, ARCT
    c. air refueling exit point
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Minimized radio transmissions between command and control, the receivers, and the tankers require a ______.
    a. pre-planned and coordinated off-load
    b. refueling order / ARCP, ARCT
    c. air refueling exit point

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a ______ responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) ______ responsibility.
    a. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / joint aircrew and AWO/WD
    b. AWO/WDs / AWO/WD
    c. pilot-aircrew / AWO/WD
    d. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / aircrews
A
  1. According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a ______ responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) ______ responsibility.
    a. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / joint aircrew and AWO/WD
    b. AWO/WDs / AWO/WD
    c. pilot-aircrew / AWO/WD

d. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / aircrews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. ______ will acknowledge all AWO/WD airspace and safety related calls.
    a. SD’s
    b. ATC
    c. Aircrews
    d. MCC’s
A
  1. ______ will acknowledge all AWO/WD airspace and safety related calls.
    a. SD’s
    b. ATC

c. Aircrews

d. MCC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
25. During air-to-air training missions, the AWO/WD will advise aircrew \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard b. when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm c. when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for heavies) or as directed by the ATC agency d. Both a and c
25. During air-to-air training missions, the AWO/WD will advise aircrew \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard b. when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm c. when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for heavies) or as directed by the ATC agency ***_d. Both a and c_***
26
26. The following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live external Air-to-Air missiles for other than WSEP firing EXCEPT: a. Aircrew will make a "WEAPONS SAFE" call upon initial check-in b. Simulate weapons employment, squeeze trigger or depress the pickle button c. Maximum maneuvering category is LIMITED d. Do not use the terms "HOSTILE" or "KILL" at anytime
26. The following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live external Air-to-Air missiles for other than WSEP firing EXCEPT: a. Aircrew will make a "WEAPONS SAFE" call upon initial check-in ***_b. Simulate weapons employment, squeeze trigger or depress the pickle button_*** c. Maximum maneuvering category is LIMITED d. Do not use the terms "HOSTILE" or "KILL" at anytime
27
27. During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The _______ participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category. a. altitude of the lowest b. flight lead of blue forces c. altitude of the highest d. flight lead of red forces
27. During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The _______ participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category. ***_a. altitude of the lowest_*** b. flight lead of blue forces c. altitude of the highest d. flight lead of red forces
28
28. What governs commit authority? a. OPORDs and OPLANS b. Command Authority, ROE, Commit criteria c. Force Commander’s Directions d. All of the above
28. What governs commit authority? a. OPORDs and OPLANS b. Command Authority, ROE, Commit criteria c. Force Commander’s Directions ***_d. All of the above_***
29
29. The commit must be a joint effort between ______ and ______ and may be initiated by either. a. flight leads / SD b. package commanders / ABM/WD c. aircrews / ABM/WD d. ABM/WD / SD
29. The commit must be a joint effort between ______ and ______ and may be initiated by either. a. flight leads / SD b. package commanders / ABM/WD ***_c. aircrews / ABM/WD_*** d. ABM/WD / SD
30
30. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_enables the maximum use of aircrew and AWO/WD, radar and communication, and Situational Awareness to accomplish the mission. a. Close Control b. Tactical Control c. Broadcast Control d. Advisory Control
30. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_enables the maximum use of aircrew and AWO/WD, radar and communication, and Situational Awareness to accomplish the mission. a. Close Control ***_b. Tactical Control_*** c. Broadcast Control d. Advisory Control
31
31. Broadcast control is a means for AWO/WDs to employ ______ communications primarily to pass target information by referencing a designated location (such as bullseye), not a specific flight. a. directive b. comparative c. tactical d. informative
31. Broadcast control is a means for AWO/WDs to employ ______ communications primarily to pass target information by referencing a designated location (such as bullseye), not a specific flight. a. directive b. comparative c. tactical **_d. informative_**
32
32. The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are: a. Unlimited, restricted, non-maneuvering, limited, and controlled b. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous c. Level 5, level 4, level 3, level 2, and level 1 d. Close, Tactical, Unlimited, Broadcast, Advisory
32. The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are: a. Unlimited, restricted, non-maneuvering, limited, and controlled ***_b. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous_*** c. Level 5, level 4, level 3, level 2, and level 1 d. Close, Tactical, Unlimited, Broadcast, Advisory
33
33. Controlled maneuvering provides for ______ conducted with \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Test and evaluation / NVGs b. Air-to-air live fire procedures / CMR aircrews c. Air-to-air 1v1 night visual training / NVGs d. NVG LOWAT training / an non-maneuvering adversary
33. Controlled maneuvering provides for ______ conducted with \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Test and evaluation / NVGs b. Air-to-air live fire procedures / CMR aircrews ***_c. Air-to-air 1v1 night visual training / NVGs_*** d. NVG LOWAT training / an non-maneuvering adversary
34
34. Day, low altitude, visual maneuvering is defined as \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. below 5,000 ft MSL (fixed wing) b. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing) c. below Minimum Safe Altitude d. below 11-2MDS minimums
34. Day, low altitude, visual maneuvering is defined as \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. below 5,000 ft MSL (fixed wing) ***_b. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing)_*** c. below Minimum Safe Altitude d. below 11-2MDS minimums
35
35. Fighters may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions apply. a. All adversaries are beyond 10 nm (15nm for F-22) b. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10 nm exists. c. Fighter verbally confirms adversary's hard altitude and maintains required vertical separation d. Any of the above are correct
35. Fighters may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions apply. a. All adversaries are beyond 10 nm (15nm for F-22) b. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10 nm exists. c. Fighter verbally confirms adversary's hard altitude and maintains required vertical separation ***_d. Any of the above are correct_***
36
36. No more than ______ aircraft may participate in the same visual engagement. a. two b. four c. six d. eight
36. No more than ______ aircraft may participate in the same visual engagement. a. two b. four c. six ***_d. eight_***
37
37. Electronic Warfare (EW) employs __________ to create or exploit weaknesses in an enemy's offensive and defensive supporting capabilities. a. ESM, ECM, and ECCM b. EA (electronic attack), EP (electronic protect), and ES (electronic support) c. EW, SEAD, and CSAR d. Jamming, Spoofing, and Meaconing
37. Electronic Warfare (EW) employs __________ to create or exploit weaknesses in an enemy's offensive and defensive supporting capabilities. a. ESM, ECM, and ECCM ***_b. EA (electronic attack), EP (electronic protect), and ES (electronic support)_*** c. EW, SEAD, and CSAR d. Jamming, Spoofing, and Meaconing
38
38. ______ is defined as "Aircraft within 3nm in azimuth or range." a. HIT b. FLIGHT c. GROUP d. CONTACT
38. ______ is defined as "Aircraft within 3nm in azimuth or range." a. HIT b. FLIGHT ***_c. GROUP_*** d. CONTACT
39
39. A ____ is a prebriefed maneuver to low aspect to stop closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage. This will be used to initiate a Grinder tactic. a. NOTCH b. BEAM c. PUMP d. FLANK
39. A ____ is a prebriefed maneuver to low aspect to stop closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage. This will be used to initiate a Grinder tactic. a. NOTCH b. BEAM ***_c. PUMP_*** d. FLANK
40
40. When a pilot calls \_\_\_\_, he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter. a. SEPARATE b. SLIDE c. BUG OUT d. SCRAM
40. When a pilot calls \_\_\_\_, he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter. ***_a. SEPARATE_*** b. SLIDE c. BUG OUT d. SCRAM
41
41. NAILS is a brevity term meaning: \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. receiving strobes b. any AAI/APPX interrogation return c. RWR indication of AI radar in search d. positive radar lock-on
41. NAILS is a brevity term meaning: \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. receiving strobes b. any AAI/APPX interrogation return ***_c. RWR indication of AI radar in search_*** d. positive radar lock-on
42
42. The AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 codeword for all-aspect missile defensive maneuver to place the threat radar/missile near the beam is ______ (with direction). a. BREAK b. NOTCH c. SNAP d. OUT
42. The AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 codeword for all-aspect missile defensive maneuver to place the threat radar/missile near the beam is ______ (with direction). a. BREAK ***_b. NOTCH_*** c. SNAP d. OUT
43
43. ______ is a brevity term meaning "no RWR indications." a. CLEAN b. BLIND c. NAKED d. SILENT
43. ______ is a brevity term meaning "no RWR indications." a. CLEAN b. BLIND ***_c. NAKED_*** d. SILENT
44
44. HIGH is a brevity term meaning target altitude is greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. 30,000 ft MSL b. 40,000 ft MSL c. 42,000 ft MSL d. 45,000 ft MSL
44. HIGH is a brevity term meaning target altitude is greater than \_\_\_\_\_\_. a. 30,000 ft MSL ***_b. 40,000 ft MSL_*** c. 42,000 ft MSL d. 45,000 ft MSL
45
45. _____ is an informative call that voice deception is being employed. a. BUZZER b. CHATTERMARK c. SNOOZE d. SPOOFING
45. _____ is an informative call that voice deception is being employed. a. BUZZER b. CHATTERMARK c. SNOOZE ***_d. SPOOFING_***
46
46. PAINT is a brevity term meaning \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. any AAI/APX interrogation return b. any IFF/SIF return c. a raw radar return d. an interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria
46. PAINT is a brevity term meaning \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. any AAI/APX interrogation return b. any IFF/SIF return c. a raw radar return ***_d. an interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria_***
47
47. AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 defines SLOW as a target with a ground speed between ____ knots and ____ knots. a. 250 / 350 b. 50 / 150 c. 100 / 300 d. 100 / 250
47. AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 defines SLOW as a target with a ground speed between ____ knots and ____ knots. a. 250 / 350 b. 50 / 150 c. 100 / 300 ***_d. 100 / 250_***
48
48. A ______ call indicates an interrogated Bogey group/radar contact which lacks all the ATO (or equivalent) IFF modes and codes required for the ID criteria. a. DIAMONDS b. CLEAN c. SWEET d. SPADES
48. A ______ call indicates an interrogated Bogey group/radar contact which lacks all the ATO (or equivalent) IFF modes and codes required for the ID criteria. a. DIAMONDS b. CLEAN c. SWEET ***_d. SPADES_***
49
49. ____________ is a request to provide tactical ground information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseye format. a. STAKE b. SKINNY c. LOWDOWN d. SHOPPING
49. ____________ is a request to provide tactical ground information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseye format. a. STAKE b. SKINNY ***_c. LOWDOWN_*** d. SHOPPING
50
50. _____ is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics. a. RAYGUN b. SKATE c. BANZAI d. CHEAPSHOT
50. _____ is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics. a. RAYGUN b. SKATE ***_c. BANZAI_*** d. CHEAPSHOT
51
51. When a pilot uses the term \_\_\_\_\_, it is a request for target information as requested or closest group in BRAA (with appropriate fill-ins). a. PICTURE b. BOGEY DOPE c. CLEAN d. BLIND
51. When a pilot uses the term \_\_\_\_\_, it is a request for target information as requested or closest group in BRAA (with appropriate fill-ins). a. PICTURE ***_b. BOGEY DOPE_*** c. CLEAN d. BLIND
52
52. _____ is a brevity term describing the Link-16 Network. a. HUSKY b. TIMBER c. TIDS d. CYCLOPS
52. _____ is a brevity term describing the Link-16 Network. a. HUSKY ***_b. TIMBER_*** c. TIDS d. CYCLOPS
53
53. Pilots will use the term _____ to direct the formation to expand laterally within visual limits to maintain a radar contact or prepare for a defensive response. a. BRACKET b. MIRROR BEAM c. CONTAIN d. FLOAT
53. Pilots will use the term _____ to direct the formation to expand laterally within visual limits to maintain a radar contact or prepare for a defensive response. a. BRACKET b. MIRROR BEAM c. CONTAIN ***_d. FLOAT_***
54
54. _____ is a USAF specific codeword meaning a fighter will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a TOI, attempt communications, and report all observations of activity. a. INVESTIGATE b. TARGET c. INSPECT d. HEADBUTT
54. _____ is a USAF specific codeword meaning a fighter will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a TOI, attempt communications, and report all observations of activity. a. INVESTIGATE b. TARGET ***_c. INSPECT_*** d. HEADBUTT
55
55. Which of the following BEST defines the sidelobe reference (SLR) antenna? a. An antenna that interrogates transponders on an aircraft b. A slotted, wave guide, stacked beam antenna that provides azimuth, range, and height information c. A sidelobe antenna that sends and receives and functions as an alternate to the IFF/SIF d. An omni-directional antenna that prevents false returns from being displayed
55. Which of the following BEST defines the sidelobe reference (SLR) antenna? a. An antenna that interrogates transponders on an aircraft b. A slotted, wave guide, stacked beam antenna that provides azimuth, range, and height information c. A sidelobe antenna that sends and receives and functions as an alternate to the IFF/SIF ***_d. An omni-directional antenna that prevents false returns from being displayed_***
56
56. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all link capable players are assumed to be TIMBER SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise. a. True b. False
56. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all link capable players are assumed to be TIMBER SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise. ***_a. True_*** b. False
57
57. _____ is an inner group formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader. a. ECHELON b. OFFSET c. BEARING d. SWEPT
57. _____ is an inner group formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader. a. ECHELON b. OFFSET c. BEARING ***_d. SWEPT_***
58
58. _____ is an informative call indicating violation of assigned procedural deconfliction measure. a. AWOL b. CHECK ANGELS c. RIDER d. GOPHER
58. _____ is an informative call indicating violation of assigned procedural deconfliction measure. ***_a. AWOL_*** b. CHECK ANGELS c. RIDER d. GOPHER
59
59. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all aircraft are assumed to be SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise. a. True b. False
59. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all aircraft are assumed to be SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise. a. True ***_b. False_***
60
60. _____ is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in search mode. a. NAILS b. SINGER c. MUD d. DIRT
60. _____ is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in search mode. a. NAILS b. SINGER c. MUD ***_d. DIRT_***
61
61. _____ is a directive term to verify specified elements of ROE, PID, CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track. a. TARGET b. INVESTIGATE c. SMACK d. INSPECT
61. _____ is a directive term to verify specified elements of ROE, PID, CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track. a. TARGET ***_b. INVESTIGATE_*** c. SMACK d. INSPECT
62
62. _____ is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target/track correlation and CDE must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires. a. TARGET b. INVESTIGATE c. SMACK d. INSPECT
62. _____ is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target/track correlation and CDE must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires. ***_a. TARGET_*** b. INVESTIGATE c. SMACK d. INSPECT
63
63. When controlling F-16s, at "REDEC" range (40 NM or as briefed), ABM/WD will \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Voice the range b. Repeat the picture, if not already labeled c. Anchor each group within targeting depth of the leading edge d. All of the above
63. When controlling F-16s, at "REDEC" range (40 NM or as briefed), ABM/WD will \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Voice the range b. Repeat the picture, if not already labeled c. Anchor each group within targeting depth of the leading edge ***_d. All of the above_***
64
64. TRUE or FALSE. If a fighter calls "SPIKED" with a magnetic bearing or sub-cardinal direction and the group spiking the fighter is within threat range, the ABM/WD will respond with a standard spike response. a. TRUE b. FALSE
64. TRUE or FALSE. If a fighter calls "SPIKED" with a magnetic bearing or sub-cardinal direction and the group spiking the fighter is within threat range, the ABM/WD will respond with a standard spike response. ***_a. TRUE_*** b. FALSE
65
65. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with the ADAFCO? a. Senior Director b. Air Surveillance Officer c. Mission Crew Commander d. Battle Staff Coordinator
65. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with the ADAFCO? ***_a. Senior Director_*** b. Air Surveillance Officer c. Mission Crew Commander d. Battle Staff Coordinator
66
66. What CRC position is responsible for overall supervision, mission crew performance and direction of tactical level BMC2 to include air defense and airspace control activities within the assigned area? a. Air Surveillance Officer b. Mission Crew Commander c. Senior Director d. Air Surveillance Technician
66. What CRC position is responsible for overall supervision, mission crew performance and direction of tactical level BMC2 to include air defense and airspace control activities within the assigned area? a. Air Surveillance Officer ***_b. Mission Crew Commander_*** c. Senior Director d. Air Surveillance Technician
67
67. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with higher, lateral and subordinate BMC2 (Battle Management Command and Control) agencies? a. Air Surveillance Technician b. Senior Director c. Mission Crew Commander d. Air Surveillance Officer
67. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with higher, lateral and subordinate BMC2 (Battle Management Command and Control) agencies? a. Air Surveillance Technician b. Senior Director ***_c. Mission Crew Commander_*** d. Air Surveillance Officer
68
68. The purpose of the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is to: a. document only control activities conducted outside the area of interest b. record mission critical information c. document incidents solely for investigation purposes d. summarize crew operations for data collection and analysis
68. The purpose of the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is to: a. document only control activities conducted outside the area of interest b. record mission critical information c. document incidents solely for investigation purposes ***_d. summarize crew operations for data collection and analysis_***
69
69. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is completed? a. Mission Crew Commander b. Battle Commander c. Battle Staff Commander d. Air Surveillance Officer
69. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is completed? ***_a. Mission Crew Commander_*** b. Battle Commander c. Battle Staff Commander d. Air Surveillance Officer
70
70. The surveillance section of the CRC is responsible for which of the following? a. Managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives b. Reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives c. Detecting, tracking, identifying and reporting airborne entities within the CRC’s operational area, region or sector d. Planning, preparing, and disseminating theater directives such as the Airspace Control Order (ACO)
70. The surveillance section of the CRC is responsible for which of the following? a. Managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives b. Reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives ***_c. Detecting, tracking, identifying and reporting airborne entities within the CRC’s operational area, region or sector_*** d. Planning, preparing, and disseminating theater directives such as the Airspace Control Order (ACO)
71
71. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible to the MCC for surveillance, airspace, and data link functions? a. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC) b. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO) c. Senior Director (SD) d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
71. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible to the MCC for surveillance, airspace, and data link functions? a. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC) ***_b. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO)_*** c. Senior Director (SD) d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
72
72. Which of the following CRC duty positions directs the detection, tracking, and identification of air traffic within the CRC’s area of interest (AOI)? a. Interface Control Technician (ICT) b. Air Surveillance Technician (AST) c. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO) d. Surveillance Technician (ST)
72. Which of the following CRC duty positions directs the detection, tracking, and identification of air traffic within the CRC’s area of interest (AOI)? a. Interface Control Technician (ICT) ***_b. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)_*** c. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO) d. Surveillance Technician (ST)
73
73. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible for control of aircraft within the CRC’s Battle Management Area (BMA)? a. Weapons Director (WD) b. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC) c. Senior Director (SD) d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
73. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible for control of aircraft within the CRC’s Battle Management Area (BMA)? ***_a. Weapons Director (WD)_*** b. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC) c. Senior Director (SD) d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
74
74. Which CRC duty position is responsible to the MCC for the assignment of allocated weapons and for coordinating and directing WD and ADAFCO activities? a. Weapons Director (WD) b. Mission Crew Commander (MCC) c. Senior Director (SD) d. Air Defense Artillery Fire Control Officer (ADAFCO)
74. Which CRC duty position is responsible to the MCC for the assignment of allocated weapons and for coordinating and directing WD and ADAFCO activities? a. Weapons Director (WD) b. Mission Crew Commander (MCC) ***_c. Senior Director (SD)_*** d. Air Defense Artillery Fire Control Officer (ADAFCO)
75
75. If a unit reports its Modular Control System (MCS) Operational Level is Level 1, it is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. able to perform all its operations b. able to perform limited operations c. able to perform ONLY manual operations d. limited because data link are inoperative however, the computer is not
75. If a unit reports its Modular Control System (MCS) Operational Level is Level 1, it is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. ***_a. able to perform all its operations_*** b. able to perform limited operations c. able to perform ONLY manual operations d. limited because data link are inoperative however, the computer is not
76
76. All of the following is TRUE of a CRC unit that is at level 3 EXCEPT: a. Computer capability lost b. Surveillance information passed by voice and entered manually c. Data links inoperative or unavailable d. Basic control functions operational
76. All of the following is TRUE of a CRC unit that is at level 3 EXCEPT: ***_a. Computer capability lost_*** b. Surveillance information passed by voice and entered manually c. Data links inoperative or unavailable d. Basic control functions operational
77
77. The ADAFCO is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT: a. Monitor and report current status/changes of assigned ADA systems to the SD b. Managing the information flow between the UCC and the mission crew c. Understand theater ADA weapons capabilities d. Serve as Air Defense advisor to joint and coalition forces
77. The ADAFCO is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT: a. Monitor and report current status/changes of assigned ADA systems to the SD ***_b. Managing the information flow between the UCC and the mission crew_*** c. Understand theater ADA weapons capabilities d. Serve as Air Defense advisor to joint and coalition forces
78
78. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions accomplished by the MCS? a. Battle Management b. Surveillance c. Combat Airspace Management d. Air Defense Artillery
78. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions accomplished by the MCS? a. Battle Management b. Surveillance c. Combat Airspace Management ***_d. Air Defense Artillery_***
79
79. The CRC weapons section is responsible for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives b. managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives c. detecting, tracking, identifying, and reporting airborne objects within the CRC’s Area of Interest (AOI) d. planning, preparing, and disseminating theater directives such as the Airspace Control Order (ACO)
79. The CRC weapons section is responsible for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives ***_b. managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives_*** c. detecting, tracking, identifying, and reporting airborne objects within the CRC’s Area of Interest (AOI) d. planning, preparing, and disseminating theater directives such as the Airspace Control Order (ACO)
80
80. When is the Operations Logbook opened and closed? a. Only when directed by the Director of Operations b. Opens at the beginning of the duty day; closes at 2400Z c. Opens at 0001C; closes at 2400C d. Opens at 0001T; closes at 2400T
80. When is the Operations Logbook opened and closed? a. Only when directed by the Director of Operations ***_b. Opens at the beginning of the duty day; closes at 2400Z_*** c. Opens at 0001C; closes at 2400C d. Opens at 0001T; closes at 2400T
81
81. When an error is made in the Operations Logbook, corrections can be made by doing all the following, EXCEPT: a. Draw a line through the incorrect entry b. Rewrite the entry below the original entry c. Erase the incorrect entry d. Initial the correction
81. When an error is made in the Operations Logbook, corrections can be made by doing all the following, EXCEPT: a. Draw a line through the incorrect entry b. Rewrite the entry below the original entry ***_c. Erase the incorrect entry_*** d. Initial the correction
82
82. All of the following are duties of the WD, EXCEPT: a. Know the significant characteristics and capabilities of friendly, hostile, and neutral air defense systems b. Extract weapons related database input information as directed and provide to the DST through the SD c. Keep the SD informed of all changes to mission requirements, results, and situations affecting mission completion or flight safety d. ensure proper track identification has been assigned to tracks
82. All of the following are duties of the WD, EXCEPT: a. Know the significant characteristics and capabilities of friendly, hostile, and neutral air defense systems b. Extract weapons related database input information as directed and provide to the DST through the SD c. Keep the SD informed of all changes to mission requirements, results, and situations affecting mission completion or flight safety ***_d. ensure proper track identification has been assigned to tracks_***
83
83. The SD is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT: a. conduct the weapons portion of the crew briefing and debriefing b. Ensure accurate and timely air situation data, theater action results, equipment, and weapons status reports are provided to the AOC c. Ensure weapons section communications equipment is configured and cryptographic radio equipment is loaded to meet mission requirements d. Monitor weapons control frequencies to ensure effective mission accomplishment and flight safety
83. The SD is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT: a. conduct the weapons portion of the crew briefing and debriefing ***_b. Ensure accurate and timely air situation data, theater action results, equipment, and weapons status reports are provided to the AOC_*** c. Ensure weapons section communications equipment is configured and cryptographic radio equipment is loaded to meet mission requirements d. Monitor weapons control frequencies to ensure effective mission accomplishment and flight safety
84
84. What is the minimum amount of time that tapes are retained if an aircraft accident or incident has been recorded on the tape? a. 3 months b. 1 year c. 9 months d. 6 months
84. What is the minimum amount of time that tapes are retained if an aircraft accident or incident has been recorded on the tape? a. 3 months b. 1 year c. 9 months ***_d. 6 months_***
85
85. All of the following are DST duties and responsibilities EXCEPT: a. Assist maintenance in troubleshooting equipment problems if required b. performing voice tell when necessary c. monitor the PM & Test function and report equipment discrepancies d. coordinating and planning then initial build of database
85. All of the following are DST duties and responsibilities EXCEPT: a. Assist maintenance in troubleshooting equipment problems if required ***_b. performing voice tell when necessary_*** c. monitor the PM & Test function and report equipment discrepancies d. coordinating and planning then initial build of database
86
86. The Ultra High Frequency (UHF) Radio Group consists of _____ UHF transceivers. a. Two b. Three c. Six d. Four
86. The Ultra High Frequency (UHF) Radio Group consists of _____ UHF transceivers. a. Two b. Three c. Six ***_d. Four_***
87
87. The KG-40 provides encryption and decryption for _______ data to/from the Data Terminal Set (DTS). a. TADIL-A b. TADIL-B c. ATDL-1 d. TADIL-J
87. The KG-40 provides encryption and decryption for _______ data to/from the Data Terminal Set (DTS). ***_a. TADIL-A_*** b. TADIL-B c. ATDL-1 d. TADIL-J
88
88. The ______ is a wide band (WB), tactical, half duplex, encryption device used with UHF and VHF radio communications systems to provide ground-to-air and ground-to-ground secure voice communication. a. KG-40 b. KG-40A c. KY-58 d. HYX-57
88. The ______ is a wide band (WB), tactical, half duplex, encryption device used with UHF and VHF radio communications systems to provide ground-to-air and ground-to-ground secure voice communication. a. KG-40 b. KG-40A ***_c. KY-58_*** d. HYX-57
89
89. The _______ is a small, lightweight, battery-operated device which reads an eight-level punched tape and is used to load crypto key variables into encryption equipment or the KYK-13. a. KY-58 b. KG-84A c. KY-68 d. KOI-18
89. The _______ is a small, lightweight, battery-operated device which reads an eight-level punched tape and is used to load crypto key variables into encryption equipment or the KYK-13. a. KY-58 b. KG-84A c. KY-68 ***_d. KOI-18_***
90
90. TRUE or FALSE: Two computers are required to bring a system of one to four OMs online. a. TRUE b. FALSE
90. TRUE or FALSE: Two computers are required to bring a system of one to four OMs online. a. TRUE ***_b. FALSE_***
91
91. Which of the following is NOT part of the Internal Radio Equipment (IRE)? a. UHF radio group b. VHF radio group c. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP) d. HF radio group
91. Which of the following is NOT part of the Internal Radio Equipment (IRE)? a. UHF radio group b. VHF radio group ***_c. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP)_*** d. HF radio group
92
92. The Radio Patch Panel (RPP) is used to assign crypto to the following internal/external radio circuits a. Nine voice (a combination of two HF, three VHF, four UHF and/or three remote) b. Two TADIL-A c. One TADIL-J d. One TADIL-B
92. The Radio Patch Panel (RPP) is used to assign crypto to the following internal/external radio circuits ***_a. Nine voice (a combination of two HF, three VHF, four UHF and/or three remote)_*** b. Two TADIL-A c. One TADIL-J d. One TADIL-B
93
93. Which of the following BEST describes the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU)? a. a device capable of reproducing the content of the operator control unit display b. an illuminated assembly for alphanumeric input and cursor control c. a six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously d. a high-speed thermal dot matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults
93. Which of the following BEST describes the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU)? a. a device capable of reproducing the content of the operator control unit display b. an illuminated assembly for alphanumeric input and cursor control ***_c. a six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously_*** d. a high-speed thermal dot matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults
94
94. TRUE or FALSE: The KGX-40 provides the remote controls and indicators for operation and maintenance of KG-40. a. TRUE b. FALSE
94. TRUE or FALSE: The KGX-40 provides the remote controls and indicators for operation and maintenance of KG-40. ***_a. TRUE_*** b. FALSE
95
95. Which of the following provides a means to fully initialize, access, and obtain the fault status of any voice channel in a five-OM system? a. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP) b. Radio Patch Panel (RPP) c. Signal Entry Patch Panel (SEPP) d. Digital Data Bus/Voice Control Bus (DDB/VCB)
95. Which of the following provides a means to fully initialize, access, and obtain the fault status of any voice channel in a five-OM system? ***_a. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP)_*** b. Radio Patch Panel (RPP) c. Signal Entry Patch Panel (SEPP) d. Digital Data Bus/Voice Control Bus (DDB/VCB)
96
96. The Radar Interface Unit (RIU) provides the electronic interface between the OM and up to ______ local radar channels via the Radar Data Bus Electro-Optical Converter (RDB EOC) and up to ______ remote radars via the Digital Communications Unit (DCU) controller . a. four, two b. three, one c. four, one d. three, two
96. The Radar Interface Unit (RIU) provides the electronic interface between the OM and up to ______ local radar channels via the Radar Data Bus Electro-Optical Converter (RDB EOC) and up to ______ remote radars via the Digital Communications Unit (DCU) controller . ***_a. four, two_*** b. three, one c. four, one d. three, two
97
97. A single Radar Interface Unit (RIU) can only process radar reports from ________ radars. a. four b. two c. three d. one
97. A single Radar Interface Unit (RIU) can only process radar reports from ________ radars. a. four b. two ***_c. three_*** d. one
98
98. Which of the following is NOT part of the System Level Equipment (SLE)? a. JTIDS Module (JM) b. Power distribution system c. Environmental Control System (ECS) d. Pallet assembly
98. Which of the following is NOT part of the System Level Equipment (SLE)? ***_a. JTIDS Module (JM)_*** b. Power distribution system c. Environmental Control System (ECS) d. Pallet assembly
99
99. The KYK-13 is used to load crypto key variables into all of the following EXCEPT: a. KY-58 b. KY-68 c. KOI-18 d. KG-84A
99. The KYK-13 is used to load crypto key variables into all of the following EXCEPT: a. KY-58 b. KY-68 ***_c. KOI-18_*** d. KG-84A
100
100. The Voice Communication Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ UHF radios, ____ net radios and ______ direct access line(s). a. 6, 8, 1 b. 15, 4, 4 c. 4, 8, 4 d. 4, 5, 6
100. The Voice Communication Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ UHF radios, ____ net radios and ______ direct access line(s). a. 6, 8, 1 b. 15, 4, 4 ***_c. 4, 8, 4_*** d. 4, 5, 6
101
101. The High Frequency (HF) radio operates in a frequency range of _____ to _____ MHz. a. 30, 75.95 b. 30, 88 c. 225, 399.975 d. 1, 30
101. The High Frequency (HF) radio operates in a frequency range of _____ to _____ MHz. a. 30, 75.95 b. 30, 88 c. 225, 399.975 ***_d. 1, 30_***
102
102. What is the nominal range for the Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) radio? a. 250 b. 300 c. 180 d. 60
102. What is the nominal range for the Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) radio? ***_a. 250_*** b. 300 c. 180 d. 60
103
103. What area of the OCUWS displays the real-time tactical air picture? a. Auxiliary Display Subunit 1 (ADS-1) b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2) c. System Status Display d. Display Subunit (DSU)
103. What area of the OCUWS displays the real-time tactical air picture? a. Auxiliary Display Subunit 1 (ADS-1) b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2) c. System Status Display ***_d. Display Subunit (DSU)_***
104
104. Which area of the Auxiliary Display Subunit (ADS) displays textual explanations of OCU alerts and orders? a. Auxiliary Display Subunit 1 (ADS-1) b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2) c. Display Subunit (DSU) d. Display Access Subunit (DAS)
104. Which area of the Auxiliary Display Subunit (ADS) displays textual explanations of OCU alerts and orders? a. Auxiliary Display Subunit 1 (ADS-1) ***_b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2)_*** c. Display Subunit (DSU) d. Display Access Subunit (DAS)
105
105. What area of the OCUWS DSU displays switches for radar and video selections? a. Display Subunit (DSU) b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2) c. Display Access Subunit (DAS) d. System Status Area (SSA)
105. What area of the OCUWS DSU displays switches for radar and video selections? a. Display Subunit (DSU) b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2) ***_c. Display Access Subunit (DAS)_*** d. System Status Area (SSA)
106
106. The maximum number of OMs that can be connected is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. three b. Four c. two d. five
106. The maximum number of OMs that can be connected is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. three b. Four c. two ***_d. five_***
107
107. In a single OM configuration with only one computer operational, all the following functions are available, EXCEPT: a. Reduced tracking capacity b. One TADIL-A link c. Two TADIL-B links d. simulation capability
107. In a single OM configuration with only one computer operational, all the following functions are available, EXCEPT: a. Reduced tracking capacity b. One TADIL-A link c. Two TADIL-B links ***_d. simulation capability_***
108
108. In a single OM configuration, if one of the computers fails, track symbology is displayed in order of priority. Which of the following is NOT one of the top 3 priorities? a. Engagement b. Hostiles c. Friend d. Assigned Weapons
108. In a single OM configuration, if one of the computers fails, track symbology is displayed in order of priority. Which of the following is NOT one of the top 3 priorities? a. Engagement b. Hostiles ***_c. Friend_*** d. Assigned Weapons
109
109. The CLEAR ALERT FFS allows the operator to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Reset to 0 the ALERT ACK switch on the ADS-1 area b. Clear designated alert message from ADS-2 area c. Delete all alerts displayed on the ADS-2 area d. clear the alert displayed on the ADS-1 area
109. The CLEAR ALERT FFS allows the operator to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Reset to 0 the ALERT ACK switch on the ADS-1 area ***_b. Clear designated alert message from ADS-2 area_*** c. Delete all alerts displayed on the ADS-2 area d. clear the alert displayed on the ADS-1 area
110
110. The RESTRT FFS allows the operator to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. clear the hooked track’s speed, heading, and velocity vector b. reposition the track on a radar hit c. initiate tracking on an un-acquired radar hit d. delete an alert that is displayed on the ADS-2 area
110. The RESTRT FFS allows the operator to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. ***_a. clear the hooked track’s speed, heading, and velocity vector_*** b. reposition the track on a radar hit c. initiate tracking on an un-acquired radar hit d. delete an alert that is displayed on the ADS-2 area
111
111. NOTE – Upon detection of an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alert, the operator has _____ seconds to respond. a. 30 b. 15 c. 60 d. 20
111. NOTE – Upon detection of an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alert, the operator has _____ seconds to respond. a. 30 b. 15 c. 60 ***_d. 20_***
112
112. Which of the following statements is TRUE for the System Center? a. It can be established using START BUILD or CONTIN BUILD b. It cannot be changed once data is entered c. It is established using the INIT SYS and MCE DATA VFSs d. It must be established after the Magnetic Variation is established
112. Which of the following statements is TRUE for the System Center? a. It can be established using START BUILD or CONTIN BUILD ***_b. It cannot be changed once data is entered_*** c. It is established using the INIT SYS and MCE DATA VFSs d. It must be established after the Magnetic Variation is established
113
113. To shut down power in the OM, you use the red switch labeled\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. MAIN POWER SAFETY INTERRUPT b. MASTER OFF c. EQUIPMENT SHUTDOWN d. EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN
113. To shut down power in the OM, you use the red switch labeled\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. MAIN POWER SAFETY INTERRUPT ***_b. MASTER OFF_*** c. EQUIPMENT SHUTDOWN d. EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN
114
114. Which character modifier denotes an identity, category, or IFF conflict on a track that is held mutually by two units? a. D b. I c. 3 d. C
114. Which character modifier denotes an identity, category, or IFF conflict on a track that is held mutually by two units? a. D ***_b. I_*** c. 3 d. C
115
115. Which character modifier is displayed when the operator activates data recording for a track? a. I b. R c. C d. D
115. Which character modifier is displayed when the operator activates data recording for a track? a. I b. R c. C ***_d. D_***
116
116. Which track modifier indicates an aircraft emergency involving loss of radio capabilities? a. B b. C c. E d. R
116. Which track modifier indicates an aircraft emergency involving loss of radio capabilities? a. B b. C c. E ***_d. R_***
117
117. What happens when an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alarm message is initiated? a. the SET EMCON FFS blinks at all OCUWSs b. All radars and IFF are set to blink c. EMCON is immediately activated d. All radar decoys are activated
117. What happens when an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alarm message is initiated? ***_a. the SET EMCON FFS blinks at all OCUWSs_*** b. All radars and IFF are set to blink c. EMCON is immediately activated d. All radar decoys are activated
118
118. What is the purpose of the EP PLAN VFS? a. To enter, delete, modify, or display pre-planned EP parameters for radars or IFF b. to turn the EMCON plan on c. to temporarily modify current EMCON settings d. to graphically display current EMCON settings on DSU for four different radars or IFF
118. What is the purpose of the EP PLAN VFS? ***_a. To enter, delete, modify, or display pre-planned EP parameters for radars or IFF_*** b. to turn the EMCON plan on c. to temporarily modify current EMCON settings d. to graphically display current EMCON settings on DSU for four different radars or IFF
119
119. Which of the following choices BEST define the Variable Function Switch (VFS) that enables the operator to determine the status of OM equipment? a. MIG STATUS VFS b. TRKR STATS VFS c. EQUIP STATUS VFS d. PM&TEST FFS
119. Which of the following choices BEST define the Variable Function Switch (VFS) that enables the operator to determine the status of OM equipment? a. MIG STATUS VFS b. TRKR STATS VFS ***_c. EQUIP STATUS VFS_*** d. PM&TEST FFS
120
120. The Computer Unit Performance (CU PRFM) VFS under the PM & TEST Fixed Function Switch (FFS) array allows the operator to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. access the OSs required to modify the data link parameters for TADIL-B b. display CU performance statistics of the computer units c. view the status and communications quality of individual data links in the system d. designate a MASTER CU and a SLAVE CU
120. The Computer Unit Performance (CU PRFM) VFS under the PM & TEST Fixed Function Switch (FFS) array allows the operator to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. access the OSs required to modify the data link parameters for TADIL-B ***_b. display CU performance statistics of the computer units_*** c. view the status and communications quality of individual data links in the system d. designate a MASTER CU and a SLAVE CU
121
121. Which FFS contains the OSs that allows an operator to locate tracks based on IFF and to setup plot history areas? a. SURVL b. SYM DSPL c. OPNL SPRT d. PLOT SETUP
121. Which FFS contains the OSs that allows an operator to locate tracks based on IFF and to setup plot history areas? a. SURVL b. SYM DSPL c. OPNL SPRT ***_d. PLOT SETUP_***
122
122. The three VCAS modes of communication which can be selected using the MODE button are\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. audio, visual, off b. MON, transmit, receive c. internal, external, both d. audio, MON, internal
122. The three VCAS modes of communication which can be selected using the MODE button are\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. audio, visual, off b. MON, transmit, receive ***_c. internal, external, both_*** d. audio, MON, internal
123
123. If anti-jam mode is selected for a UHF channel, a ________ border will appear around the channel window. a. red b. white c. gray d. green
123. If anti-jam mode is selected for a UHF channel, a ________ border will appear around the channel window. a. red ***_b. white_*** c. gray d. green
124
124. To terminate a call on the VCAS, select the circuit you wish to terminate and then select ________ on the menu bar. a. RING/TALK b. OFF c. MON d. AJ/NORM
124. To terminate a call on the VCAS, select the circuit you wish to terminate and then select ________ on the menu bar. a. RING/TALK ***_b. OFF_*** c. MON d. AJ/NORM
125
125. The maximum system capacity for ATDL-1 data links is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. one b. seven c. nine d. fourteen
125. The maximum system capacity for ATDL-1 data links is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. one b. seven c. nine ***_d. fourteen_***
126
126. Within the Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system, how many Link-1 data links can be active at one time? a. One b. Fourteen c. Fifteen d. Seventeen
126. Within the Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system, how many Link-1 data links can be active at one time? ***_a. One_*** b. Fourteen c. Fifteen d. Seventeen
127
127. Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency? a. 7100 b. 7700 c. 7600 d. 7500
127. Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency? a. 7100 b. 7700 c. 7600 ***_d. 7500_***
128
128. A Mode 3 code of 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies? a. No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency b. Hijack Emergency c. General Emergency d. Fire Emergency
128. A Mode 3 code of 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies? a. No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency b. Hijack Emergency ***_c. General Emergency_*** d. Fire Emergency
129
129. Which mode 3 indicates a No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency? a. 7900 b. 7600 c. 7700 d. 7500
129. Which mode 3 indicates a No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency? a. 7900 ***_b. 7600_*** c. 7700 d. 7500
130
130. Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target? a. XFR CONT b. WPNS FREE c. ENGAGE d. WPNS TIGHT
130. Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target? a. XFR CONT b. WPNS FREE ***_c. ENGAGE_*** d. WPNS TIGHT
131
131. Orders of an operational or tactical nature received from external agencies by data links are called what? a. command orders b. Received orders c. Transmitting orders d. Incoming orders
131. Orders of an operational or tactical nature received from external agencies by data links are called what? a. command orders b. Received orders c. Transmitting orders ***_d. Incoming orders_***
132
132. Which of the following overlays displays the identification (ID) corridors used in the automatic identification process? a. Overlay 4, Line, General Areas and Hazard Areas b. Overlay 2, ID and Threat Evaluation c. Overlay 3, Tactical Boundaries d. Overlay 1, Flight Safety
132. Which of the following overlays displays the identification (ID) corridors used in the automatic identification process? a. Overlay 4, Line, General Areas and Hazard Areas ***_b. Overlay 2, ID and Threat Evaluation_*** c. Overlay 3, Tactical Boundaries d. Overlay 1, Flight Safety
133
133. When the system is in medium threat mode and there is a valid response for Mode 4 interrogation, what ID activity does the system perform? a. No ID activity is performed by the system; it must be performed by the operator b. The system automatically IDs the track as friend and changes the symbology to friend on the DSU and ID field in the HDRO c. The system automatically IDs the track as assumed friend and changes the symbology to assumed friend on the DSU and the ID field of the HDRO d. The system automatically IDs the track, but any further changes to the DSU and HDRO must be performed by the operator
133. When the system is in medium threat mode and there is a valid response for Mode 4 interrogation, what ID activity does the system perform? a. No ID activity is performed by the system; it must be performed by the operator b. The system automatically IDs the track as friend and changes the symbology to friend on the DSU and ID field in the HDRO ***_c. The system automatically IDs the track as assumed friend and changes the symbology to assumed friend on the DSU and the ID field of the HDRO_*** d. The system automatically IDs the track, but any further changes to the DSU and HDRO must be performed by the operator
134
134. This type of rendezvous requires the receiver to maintain an agreed track and the tanker to maintain the reciprocal track, the tanker will make the final turn on to the receivers heading. a. Emergency rendezvous b. RV Delta (Point Parallel) c. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous) d. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)
134. This type of rendezvous requires the receiver to maintain an agreed track and the tanker to maintain the reciprocal track, the tanker will make the final turn on to the receivers heading. a. Emergency rendezvous ***_b. RV Delta (Point Parallel)_*** c. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous) d. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)
135
135. This type of rendezvous is normally used to vector receivers to tankers operating on an AAR anchor area. a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on) b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous) c. RV Delta (Point Parallel) d. Emergency Rendezvous
135. This type of rendezvous is normally used to vector receivers to tankers operating on an AAR anchor area. ***_a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)_*** b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous) c. RV Delta (Point Parallel) d. Emergency Rendezvous
136
136. This type of rendezvous is normally conducted without a pre-briefed AAR track. It requires the receiver to use an Airborne Intercept (AI) radar to complete the rendezvous. a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on) b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous) c. RV Delta (Point Parallel) d. Emergency Rendezvous
136. This type of rendezvous is normally conducted without a pre-briefed AAR track. It requires the receiver to use an Airborne Intercept (AI) radar to complete the rendezvous. a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on) ***_b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous)_*** c. RV Delta (Point Parallel) d. Emergency Rendezvous
137
137. For all standard refueling rendezvous the following roll-out criteria applies: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. 1-3 NM, +/- 30 degrees b. 5 NM, +/- 30 degrees c. 5 NM, +/- 20 degrees d. 1-3 NM, +/- 20 degrees
137. For all standard refueling rendezvous the following roll-out criteria applies: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ***_a. 1-3 NM, +/- 30 degrees_*** b. 5 NM, +/- 30 degrees c. 5 NM, +/- 20 degrees d. 1-3 NM, +/- 20 degrees
138
138. What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of Class A airspace? a. Restricted Area b. Military Operations Area (MOA) c. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA) d. Military Training Route (MTR)
138. What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of Class A airspace? a. Restricted Area ***_b. Military Operations Area (MOA)_*** c. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA) d. Military Training Route (MTR)
139
139. Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted? a. Altitude Reservation (ALTRV) b. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA) c. Alert Area d. Military Training Route (MTR)
139. Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted? a. Altitude Reservation (ALTRV) b. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA) ***_c. Alert Area_*** d. Military Training Route (MTR)
140
140. Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)? a. To facilitate the mass movement of large numbers of military aircraft b. To alert non-military and non-participating military IFR pilots to areas in which pilot training operations are occurring c. To prevent VFR traffic from flying at specific altitudes d. To segregate military from non-military aircraft on an as-needed basis
140. Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)? ***_a. To facilitate the mass movement of large numbers of military aircraft_*** b. To alert non-military and non-participating military IFR pilots to areas in which pilot training operations are occurring c. To prevent VFR traffic from flying at specific altitudes d. To segregate military from non-military aircraft on an as-needed basis
141
141. According to FAA rules, when an aircraft is less than 40 miles away from the radar, how far from the airspace boundary must the Military Radar Unit (MRU) keep the aircraft? a. At least 2.5 miles b. At least 1.5 miles c. At least 5 miles d. At least 3 miles
141. According to FAA rules, when an aircraft is less than 40 miles away from the radar, how far from the airspace boundary must the Military Radar Unit (MRU) keep the aircraft? a. At least 2.5 miles ***_b. At least 1.5 miles_*** c. At least 5 miles d. At least 3 miles
142
142. Link 16 uses the ___________ radio frequencies. a. High Frequency (HF) b. Very High Frequency (VHF) c. Ultra High Frequency (UHF) d. Super High Frequency (SHF)
142. Link 16 uses the ___________ radio frequencies. a. High Frequency (HF) b. Very High Frequency (VHF) ***_c. Ultra High Frequency (UHF)_*** d. Super High Frequency (SHF)
143
143. Where is the emergency exit in the OM located? a. Roadside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3 b. The main door serves as the emergency exit c. In the lower center of the entrance door d. Curbside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3
143. Where is the emergency exit in the OM located? a. Roadside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3 b. The main door serves as the emergency exit c. In the lower center of the entrance door ***_d. Curbside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3_***
144
144. Crew rest will normally begin _____ after the debrief. a. 2 hours b. 1.5 hours c. 8 hours d. 1 hour
144. Crew rest will normally begin _____ after the debrief. a. 2 hours ***_b. 1.5 hours_*** c. 8 hours d. 1 hour
145
145. The two types of missions in the Mission Execution phase of CSAR are immediate missions and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. Combat Air Patrol missions b. Regenerate missions c. Pre-planned missions d. Isolated recovery missions
145. The two types of missions in the Mission Execution phase of CSAR are immediate missions and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. Combat Air Patrol missions b. Regenerate missions ***_c. Pre-planned missions_*** d. Isolated recovery missions
146
146. The primary facility for coordination and control of CSAR activities is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ a. Joint Search and Rescue Center (JSRC) b. Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS) c. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) d. Control and Reporting Center (CRC)
146. The primary facility for coordination and control of CSAR activities is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ***_a. Joint Search and Rescue Center (JSRC)_*** b. Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS) c. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) d. Control and Reporting Center (CRC)
147
147. Which of the following BEST defines CSAR? a. Recovery of isolated personnel b. The first line of defense in military operations c. An exchange of information among component rescue centers d. Use of military personnel for civil evacuation
147. Which of the following BEST defines CSAR? ***_a. Recovery of isolated personnel_*** b. The first line of defense in military operations c. An exchange of information among component rescue centers d. Use of military personnel for civil evacuation
148
148. Which of the following is NOT used to verify the identity of downed personnel? a. ATO SPINS code words b. ISOPREP data c. Visual signals d. Voice recognition
148. Which of the following is NOT used to verify the identity of downed personnel? a. ATO SPINS code words b. ISOPREP data c. Visual signals ***_d. Voice recognition_***
149
149. Which of the following occurs FIRST in a CSAR operation? a. Awareness and notification b. Mission Planning c. Situation Assessment d. Mission Execution
149. Which of the following occurs FIRST in a CSAR operation? ***_a. Awareness and notification_*** b. Mission Planning c. Situation Assessment d. Mission Execution
150
150. Which of the following BEST describes the mission of the TACP? a. Locate, identify, and mark ground targets b. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces c. Plan, coordinate and direct tactical air support of ground forces d. Provide centralized planning, direction, control and coordination of theater air operations
150. Which of the following BEST describes the mission of the TACP? a. Locate, identify, and mark ground targets ***_b. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces_*** c. Plan, coordinate and direct tactical air support of ground forces d. Provide centralized planning, direction, control and coordination of theater air operations
151
151. Which of the following BEST describes a mission of the ASOC? a. Provide deep battlefield surveillance b. Plan, coordinate, and direct tactical air support of ground forces c. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces d. Plan, coordinate and direct CSAR operations
151. Which of the following BEST describes a mission of the ASOC? a. Provide deep battlefield surveillance ***_b. Plan, coordinate, and direct tactical air support of ground forces_*** c. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces d. Plan, coordinate and direct CSAR operations
152
152. Which of the following is an input number used to establish a specified system hopping pattern, rate, and dwell time? a. Word-of-Day (WOD) b. Net Number c. Time-of-Day (TOD) d. Mickey
152. Which of the following is an input number used to establish a specified system hopping pattern, rate, and dwell time? ***_a. Word-of-Day (WOD)_*** b. Net Number c. Time-of-Day (TOD) d. Mickey
153
153. Which of the following assigns several radios to a net and establishes the hop set start frequency? a. Word of Day (WOD) b. Time of Day (TOD) c. Multiple Word of Day (MWOD) d. Net number
153. Which of the following assigns several radios to a net and establishes the hop set start frequency? a. Word of Day (WOD) b. Time of Day (TOD) c. Multiple Word of Day (MWOD) ***_d. Net number_***
154
154. The THREE elements necessary for successful system operations of HAVE QUICK are: a. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate b. encrypted frequencies, time carbonization, and common reference point c. encrypted frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate d. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common reference point
154. The THREE elements necessary for successful system operations of HAVE QUICK are: ***_a. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate_*** b. encrypted frequencies, time carbonization, and common reference point c. encrypted frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate d. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common reference point
155
155. Which of the following is a HAVE QUICK modification to a radio’s ability to clearly receive and process more than one signal without mutual interference? a. ACTIVE MODE b. SECURE MODE c. Conferencing d. Time Signal Set (TSS)
155. Which of the following is a HAVE QUICK modification to a radio’s ability to clearly receive and process more than one signal without mutual interference? a. ACTIVE MODE b. SECURE MODE ***_c. Conferencing_*** d. Time Signal Set (TSS)
156
156. Within the HAVE QUICK system, time is transmitted using a format referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Net Number b. Word of Day (WOD) c. Time of Day (TOD) d. Mickey
156. Within the HAVE QUICK system, time is transmitted using a format referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Net Number b. Word of Day (WOD) ***_c. Time of Day (TOD)_*** d. Mickey
157
158. The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of _____ nautical miles and a maximum altitude of ______ feet. a. 250/85,500 b. 230/95,500 c. 240/95,500 d. 340/95,500
158. The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of _____ nautical miles and a maximum altitude of ______ feet. a. 250/85,500 b. 230/95,500 ***_c. 240/95,500_*** d. 340/95,500
158
159. Which of the following is required if a remote radar is to be established? a. One kilometer of fiber optic cable b. A Data Terminal Set c. An HF radio d. A dedicated VHF radio circuit
159. Which of the following is required if a remote radar is to be established? a. One kilometer of fiber optic cable b. A Data Terminal Set c. An HF radio ***_d. A dedicated VHF radio circuit_***
159
160. The AN/TPS-75 radar is capable of blanking what size sector? a. 357.2 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps b. 360 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps c. 333.3 degrees, in 10.2 degree steps d. 358.1 degrees, in 10.2 degree steps
160. The AN/TPS-75 radar is capable of blanking what size sector? ***_a. 357.2 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps_*** b. 360 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps c. 333.3 degrees, in 10.2 degree steps d. 358.1 degrees, in 10.2 degree steps
160
161. The Hooked Data Read Out (HDRO) is divided into three general data areas, which of the following is NOT an area of the HDRO? a. Common data area b. Track information area c. Amplifying data area d. Special data area
161. The Hooked Data Read Out (HDRO) is divided into three general data areas, which of the following is NOT an area of the HDRO? a. Common data area ***_b. Track information area_*** c. Amplifying data area d. Special data area
161
162. All of the following will blink to alert the operator EXCEPT: a. Mode 3 mismatches b. Emergency tracks c. Hostile tracks d. Category/ID conflicts
162. All of the following will blink to alert the operator EXCEPT: ***_a. Mode 3 mismatches_*** b. Emergency tracks c. Hostile tracks d. Category/ID conflicts
162
163. Which of the following will cause the symbology to expand? a. First hostile track is initiated in the system b. Track is designated as a lost track c. Hostile air-to-surface missile detected d. Emergency track
163. Which of the following will cause the symbology to expand? a. First hostile track is initiated in the system ***_b. Track is designated as a lost track_*** c. Hostile air-to-surface missile detected d. Emergency track
163
164. The AUTO TRACK FFS does all the following EXCEPT: a. initiates an auto-track on radar data b. changes a rate-aided track to auto-track c. repositions symbology onto radar data d. changes any track to an auto track
164. The AUTO TRACK FFS does all the following EXCEPT: a. initiates an auto-track on radar data b. changes a rate-aided track to auto-track ***_c. repositions symbology onto radar data_*** d. changes any track to an auto track
164
165. When track trace is selected for a track, the displayed trace will not be longer than the last ____ minutes of the track’s movement. a. 20 b. 15 c. 30 d. 10
165. When track trace is selected for a track, the displayed trace will not be longer than the last ____ minutes of the track’s movement. a. 20 ***_b. 15_*** c. 30 d. 10
165
166. What is the legal range of entry for entering a mode 1 in the SELECT M/CODE VFS? a. first digit is 0-7, second digit is 0-3 b. first digit is 0-3, second digit is 0-7 c. four digit octal within the range of 0000-7777 d. first digit is 0-7, second digit 0-7
166. What is the legal range of entry for entering a mode 1 in the SELECT M/CODE VFS? ***_a. first digit is 0-7, second digit is 0-3_*** b. first digit is 0-3, second digit is 0-7 c. four digit octal within the range of 0000-7777 d. first digit is 0-7, second digit 0-7
166
167. Which of the following is a valid Mode 1 code? a. 211 b. 21 c. 099 d. 09
167. Which of the following is a valid Mode 1 code? a. 211 ***_b. 21_*** c. 099 d. 09
167
168. Crew members will enter crew rest a minimum of _____ hours before show time. a. 12 b. 24 c. 6 d. 8
168. Crew members will enter crew rest a minimum of _____ hours before show time. a. 12 b. 24 c. 6 ***_d. 8_***
168
169. If video recordings of missions are made, the minimum classification of the tapes is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Classified b. Secret c. Top-Secret d. For Official Use Only
169. If video recordings of missions are made, the minimum classification of the tapes is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Classified ***_b. Secret_*** c. Top-Secret d. For Official Use Only
169
170. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a CRC to call Ops Normal? a. Radar and IFF operating and correlation checks are complete and within acceptable parameters b. Aircraft are under control c. At least one operational data link is established with participating units d. A minimum amount of radios area available to conduct the tasked mission
170. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a CRC to call Ops Normal? a. Radar and IFF operating and correlation checks are complete and within acceptable parameters ***_b. Aircraft are under control_*** c. At least one operational data link is established with participating units d. A minimum amount of radios area available to conduct the tasked mission
170
171. During all operations, WD/AWOs will ensure track symbology and sensor data of controlled aircraft are within ___ NM of each other. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
171. During all operations, WD/AWOs will ensure track symbology and sensor data of controlled aircraft are within ___ NM of each other. a. 1 ***_b. 2_*** c. 3 d. 5
171
172. While aircraft are under control, the following crew positions will monitor UHF guard EXCEPT? a. MCC b. SD c. ASO d. WD/AWO
172. While aircraft are under control, the following crew positions will monitor UHF guard EXCEPT? a. MCC b. SD ***_c. ASO_*** d. WD/AWO
172
173. During contingency operations, who is the point of contact with the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) and Job Control (JC)? a. MCC b. BSC c. SD d. AST
173. During contingency operations, who is the point of contact with the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) and Job Control (JC)? a. MCC ***_b. BSC_*** c. SD d. AST
173
174. TRUE or FALSE: During routine training missions of no greater than a 4v4, the SD may conduct red air or flight follow control. a. TRUE b. FALSE
174. TRUE or FALSE: During routine training missions of no greater than a 4v4, the SD may conduct red air or flight follow control. ***_a. TRUE_*** b. FALSE
174
175. Which of the following has the authority to waive all or any part of the 8-hour crew rest period? a. Squadron Commander b. Parent/Deployed Operations Group Commander c. Squadron DO d. Crew MCC
175. Which of the following has the authority to waive all or any part of the 8-hour crew rest period? a. Squadron Commander ***_b. Parent/Deployed Operations Group Commander_*** c. Squadron DO d. Crew MCC
175
176. System Control (SYSCON) is responsible for which of the following: a. Managing the unit’s communications/data systems b. Facilitating maintenance and repair of mission equipment c. Ensures personnel have medical, food, water, and billeting d. Developing the site defense plan
176. System Control (SYSCON) is responsible for which of the following: ***_a. Managing the unit’s communications/data systems_*** b. Facilitating maintenance and repair of mission equipment c. Ensures personnel have medical, food, water, and billeting d. Developing the site defense plan
176
177. During CONUS weapons control missions, which crew positions will monitor the handoff frequency/shout line at all times? a. MCC b. SD c. WD/AWOs d. Both B and C
177. During CONUS weapons control missions, which crew positions will monitor the handoff frequency/shout line at all times? a. MCC b. SD c. WD/AWOs ***_d. Both B and C_***
177
178. Who is responsible for ensuring all crew members read and initial items in the read file prior to performing duties on scope? a. SQ/CC b. MCC or DO/ADO at FTU c. SD d. Chief, Stan/Eval
178. Who is responsible for ensuring all crew members read and initial items in the read file prior to performing duties on scope? a. SQ/CC ***_b. MCC or DO/ADO at FTU_*** c. SD d. Chief, Stan/Eval
178
179. What is the correct sequence for initiating a multiple cursor association ? a. Activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the first item, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch b. Activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the target, hook the interceptor, activate the ENTER switch c. Hook the first item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch d. Hook the first item, hook the second item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, activate the ENTER switch
179. What is the correct sequence for initiating a multiple cursor association ? a. Activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the first item, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch b. Activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the target, hook the interceptor, activate the ENTER switch ***_c. Hook the first item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch_*** d. Hook the first item, hook the second item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, activate the ENTER switch
179
180. Site Support is responsible for all of the following duties EXCEPT: a. Ensures personnel issues to include medical, food, water, billeting are met b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC c. Facilitates protocol, public affairs, services, administrative supply and transportation issues d. Facilitates the unit transition to a steady state operation
180. Site Support is responsible for all of the following duties EXCEPT: a. Ensures personnel issues to include medical, food, water, billeting are met ***_b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC_*** c. Facilitates protocol, public affairs, services, administrative supply and transportation issues d. Facilitates the unit transition to a steady state operation
180
181. Which of the following statements about the AN/TPS-75 Radar Set is NOT TRUE? a. It operates independently of weather and jamming environments b. It records a permanent, three dimensional picture and log of the airspace status c. It is capable of simultaneous long-range search and height finding d. It transmits, receives and presents data
181. Which of the following statements about the AN/TPS-75 Radar Set is NOT TRUE? a. It operates independently of weather and jamming environments ***_b. It records a permanent, three dimensional picture and log of the airspace status_*** c. It is capable of simultaneous long-range search and height finding d. It transmits, receives and presents data
181
182. Which component of the AN/TPS-75 radar receives the digital returns from the receive channels and is responsible for generating the required video types and height data? a. Moving Target Indicator (MTI) b. Sensitivity Time Control (STC) c. Post-processor d. Signal Processor
182. Which component of the AN/TPS-75 radar receives the digital returns from the receive channels and is responsible for generating the required video types and height data? a. Moving Target Indicator (MTI) b. Sensitivity Time Control (STC) c. Post-processor ***_d. Signal Processor_***
182
183. Which of the following BEST defines the printer unit? a. A high speed thermal dot-matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults b. An illuminated assembly for alphanumeric input and cursor control c. A device capable of reproducing the content of the operator control unit display d. A six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously
183. Which of the following BEST defines the printer unit? ***_a. A high speed thermal dot-matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults_*** b. An illuminated assembly for alphanumeric input and cursor control c. A device capable of reproducing the content of the operator control unit display d. A six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously
183
184. All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT: a. an external telephone line b. a STU-III telephone c. AN/ARC-164 UHF radio d. a six-channel troposcatter radio
184. All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT: a. an external telephone line ***_b. a STU-III telephone_*** c. AN/ARC-164 UHF radio d. a six-channel troposcatter radio
184
185. Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but to continue to intercept the target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept the target? a. CEASE FIRE b. WPNS FREE c. CEASE ENGAGE d. HOLD FIRE
185. Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but to continue to intercept the target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept the target? ***_a. CEASE FIRE_*** b. WPNS FREE c. CEASE ENGAGE d. HOLD FIRE
185
186. Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing at a designated air track, missiles already in flight are to be prevented from intercepting if technically possible? a. ASSIGN b. CEASE FIRE c. HEADS UP d. HOLD FIRE
186. Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing at a designated air track, missiles already in flight are to be prevented from intercepting if technically possible? a. ASSIGN b. CEASE FIRE c. HEADS UP ***_d. HOLD FIRE_***
186
187. Which of the following equipment houses the environmental control units (ECU), external cables and OM maintenance tools? a. Power Distribution System b. Internal Cables c. Environmental Control System d. Pallet Assembly
187. Which of the following equipment houses the environmental control units (ECU), external cables and OM maintenance tools? a. Power Distribution System b. Internal Cables c. Environmental Control System ***_d. Pallet Assembly_***
187
188. If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the code on the transmission authentication table? a. The sum of all the numerals in the actual transmission table b. The number that stands for the transmission time rounded up to the next even number c. The actual transmission time plus one number d. The actual transmission time minus one number
188. If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the code on the transmission authentication table? a. The sum of all the numerals in the actual transmission table b. The number that stands for the transmission time rounded up to the next even number c. The actual transmission time plus one number ***_d. The actual transmission time minus one number_***
188
189. Which order dictates that units assume a posture where weapons systems may be fired only at targets positively identified as hostile? a. WPNS FREE b. ENGAGE c. INVES/INTRG d. WPNS TIGHT
189. Which order dictates that units assume a posture where weapons systems may be fired only at targets positively identified as hostile? a. WPNS FREE b. ENGAGE c. INVES/INTRG ***_d. WPNS TIGHT_***
189
190. What is the main reason for holding mission crew debriefings? a. To fulfill the requirements of the AFI b. To document what occurred during the mission in case of questions later c. To plan the next mission d. To capture lessons learned and improve system performance
190. What is the main reason for holding mission crew debriefings? a. To fulfill the requirements of the AFI b. To document what occurred during the mission in case of questions later c. To plan the next mission ***_d. To capture lessons learned and improve system performance_***
190
191. Authenticators are used to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Determine if the person you are communicating with has up-to-date authenticators b. Counter the enemies’ attempts at intercepting your communications c. Counter the enemies’ attempts to use electronic communications jamming d. Counter the enemies’ attempts at mechanical jamming
191. Authenticators are used to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. a. Determine if the person you are communicating with has up-to-date authenticators ***_b. Counter the enemies’ attempts at intercepting your communications_*** c. Counter the enemies’ attempts to use electronic communications jamming d. Counter the enemies’ attempts at mechanical jamming
191
192. All of the following statements are FALSE concerning the reasons for using authentication procedures EXCEPT: a. Allow the operator to transmit the maximum amount of information using minimum transmission time b. Minimizes overall transmission time resulting in lessening the time the frequency is vulnerable to communications jamming c. To counter spot, sweep, and barrage communications jamming d. Friendly forces and enemy forces may be using the same frequency
192. All of the following statements are FALSE concerning the reasons for using authentication procedures EXCEPT: a. Allow the operator to transmit the maximum amount of information using minimum transmission time b. Minimizes overall transmission time resulting in lessening the time the frequency is vulnerable to communications jamming c. To counter spot, sweep, and barrage communications jamming ***_d. Friendly forces and enemy forces may be using the same frequency_***
192
193. From the following options, select the one that BEST applies to the use of authenticators. a. MUST be handled ONLY IAW COMSEC User Procedures b. MUST be ONLY during war c. MUST be used ONLY in a training environment d. Treat all authenticators as TOP SECRET
193. From the following options, select the one that BEST applies to the use of authenticators. ***_a. MUST be handled ONLY IAW COMSEC User Procedures_*** b. MUST be ONLY during war c. MUST be used ONLY in a training environment d. Treat all authenticators as TOP SECRET
193
194. Which of the following CANNOT be used as the FIRST letter of the challenge for ground-to-air challenge and reply authentication? a. Delta b. Bravo c. Charlie d. Alpha
194. Which of the following CANNOT be used as the FIRST letter of the challenge for ground-to-air challenge and reply authentication? ***_a. Delta_*** b. Bravo c. Charlie d. Alpha
194
195. Authenticator users must follow the procedures detailed in which of the following? a. COMSEC User manual b. Form 16 c. AFI 16 d. AFI 33-211
195. Authenticator users must follow the procedures detailed in which of the following? a. COMSEC User manual b. Form 16 c. AFI 16 ***_d. AFI 33-211_***

CRC EVAL MQF (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions