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CRC EVAL MQF > CRC WPNS MQF > Flashcards

CRC WPNS MQF Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Aircrew, AWO/WDs, and JTAC’s are to be familiar with the capabilities and limitations of ______ for mission accomplishment.
    a. communications and control facilities
    b. coordination requirements
    c. other weapons systems employed
    d. all of the above
A
  1. Aircrew, AWO/WDs, and JTAC’s are to be familiar with the capabilities and limitations of ______ for mission accomplishment.
    a. communications and control facilities
    b. coordination requirements
    c. other weapons systems employed

d. all of the above

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2
Q
  1. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WDs are responsible for ______.
    a. knowing the states of alert, readiness, warning, and ROE within the operational command’s assigned AOR
    b. knowing and complying with authentication procedures
    c. knowing the characteristics and capabilities/limitations of the threat
    d. all of the above
A
  1. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WDs are responsible for ______.
    a. knowing the states of alert, readiness, warning, and ROE within the operational command’s assigned AOR
    b. knowing and complying with authentication procedures
    c. knowing the characteristics and capabilities/limitations of the threat

d. all of the above

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3
Q
  1. Aircrews will check-in with the controlling agency, such as AWACS, CRC, or Forward Air Controller (FAC)/TAC, unless restricted by the ATO, with all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. callsign
    b. position
    c. authentication as required
    d. deviations or aborts affecting mission accomplishment
A
  1. Aircrews will check-in with the controlling agency, such as AWACS, CRC, or Forward Air Controller (FAC)/TAC, unless restricted by the ATO, with all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. callsign

b. position

c. authentication as required
d. deviations or aborts affecting mission accomplishment

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4
Q
  1. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WD will accomplish all of the following upon aircraft check in EXCEPT:
    a. Indicate negative/positive radar contact (if applicable)
    b. Provide a brief to include location of friendly forces, civilians and no fire areas.
    c. If equipped with IFF/SIF, conduct an IFF/SIF check and advise aircrew of status “Sour” or “Sweet”
    d. Obtain post mission requirements
A
  1. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WD will accomplish all of the following upon aircraft check in EXCEPT:
    a. Indicate negative/positive radar contact (if applicable)
    b. Provide a brief to include location of friendly forces, civilians and no fire areas.
    c. If equipped with IFF/SIF, conduct an IFF/SIF check and advise aircrew of status “Sour” or “Sweet”

d. Obtain post mission requirements

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5
Q
  1. What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required?
    a. Available Air-to-Air armament
    b. Available Air-to-Surface armament.
    c. Fuel Status
    d. All of the above
A
  1. What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required?
    a. Available Air-to-Air armament
    b. Available Air-to-Surface armament.
    c. Fuel Status

d. All of the above

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6
Q
  1. During recoveries, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with ______.
    a. weather
    b. callsign and recovery base
    c. mission results and intelligence
    d. both b and c
A
  1. During recoveries, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with ______.
    a. weather
    b. callsign and recovery base
    c. mission results and intelligence

d. both b and c

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7
Q
  1. According to AFI 11-214, what will the AWO/WD accomplish during aircraft recoveries, as conditions require?
    a. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
    b. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance
    c. Pass final shots, kills, and Mode IV results
    d. Log aircraft “Fence Out” on AF Form 0-96
A
  1. According to AFI 11-214, what will the AWO/WD accomplish during aircraft recoveries, as conditions require?

a. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures

b. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance
c. Pass final shots, kills, and Mode IV results
d. Log aircraft “Fence Out” on AF Form 0-96

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8
Q
  1. Prior to the “FIGHTS-ON” call, exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting ______.
    a. the “VUL” time
    b. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in area, block changes, altimeter setting)
    c. ROE
    d. RTO working frequency
A
  1. Prior to the “FIGHTS-ON” call, exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting ______.
    a. the “VUL” time

b. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in area, block changes, altimeter setting)

c. ROE
d. RTO working frequency

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9
Q
  1. During exercises, the______ will brief all participants unfamiliar with AFI 11-214, and ensure they know and understand the Training Rules (TRs).
    a. mission commander
    b. mission crew commander
    c. exercise director
    d. inspector general
A
  1. During exercises, the______ will brief all participants unfamiliar with AFI 11-214, and ensure they know and understand the Training Rules (TRs).
    a. mission commander
    b. mission crew commander

c. exercise director

d. inspector general

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10
Q
  1. During exercises, Exercise directors can use which of the following for Separation of Aircraft:
    a. Time and Space
    b. Assigning specific geographical areas of flight
    c. Altitude blocks to deconflict participating aircraft
    d. All of the above
A
  1. During exercises, Exercise directors can use which of the following for Separation of Aircraft:
    a. Time and Space
    b. Assigning specific geographical areas of flight
    c. Altitude blocks to deconflict participating aircraft

d. All of the above

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11
Q
  1. ______ is used to cease all tactical maneuvering when safety of flight is a factor, where doubt or confusion exists, or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) are met or unattainable for an entire scenario.
    a. TERIMINATE
    b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
    c. PITBULL
    d. BEADWINDOW
A
  1. ______ is used to cease all tactical maneuvering when safety of flight is a factor, where doubt or confusion exists, or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) are met or unattainable for an entire scenario.
    a. TERIMINATE

b. KNOCK-IT-OFF

c. PITBULL
d. BEADWINDOW

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12
Q
  1. The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a “KNOCK-IT-OFF” is ______.
    a. immediately works 90 degrees out of the fight / reset CAP
    b. reset to safe / Fuel Recovery Area
    c. acknowledge with callsign/cease tactical maneuvering and the scenario
    d. all of the above
A
  1. The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a “KNOCK-IT-OFF” is ______.
    a. immediately works 90 degrees out of the fight / reset CAP
    b. reset to safe / Fuel Recovery Area

c. acknowledge with callsign/cease tactical maneuvering and the scenario

d. all of the above

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13
Q
  1. ______ ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario.
    a. TERMINATE
    b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
    c. PICTURE
    d. BEADWINDOW
A
  1. ______ ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario.

a. TERMINATE

b. KNOCK-IT-OFF
c. PICTURE
d. BEADWINDOW

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14
Q
  1. If transmitting “TERMINATE” during a large scenario, anchor position ______. Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type of aircraft, etc.).
    a. with latitude and longitude coordinates
    b. with UTM coordinates
    c. geographically or with a bullseye reference
    d. relative to the E-3
A
  1. If transmitting “TERMINATE” during a large scenario, anchor position ______. Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type of aircraft, etc.).
    a. with latitude and longitude coordinates
    b. with UTM coordinates

c. geographically or with a bullseye reference

d. relative to the E-3

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15
Q
  1. Use “TERMINATE” when safety of flight is not a factor in conjunction with the following:
    a. Reaching BINGO fuel
    b. Exceeding area boundaries
    c. Training rules are met
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Use “TERMINATE” when safety of flight is not a factor in conjunction with the following:
    a. Reaching BINGO fuel
    b. Exceeding area boundaries
    c. Training rules are met

d. All of the above

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16
Q
  1. In a Communications Jamming environment, transmission required for safety will be prefaced with ______.
    a. BREAK, BREAK
    b. ALL PLAYERS, STANBY
    c. SAFETY, SAFETY
    d. CEASE COMMUNICATIONS
A
  1. In a Communications Jamming environment, transmission required for safety will be prefaced with ______.
    a. BREAK, BREAK
    b. ALL PLAYERS, STANBY

c. SAFETY, SAFETY

d. CEASE COMMUNICATIONS

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17
Q
  1. ______ will be used to terminate both comm jamming and maneuvering.
    a. TERMINATE
    b. CEASE BUZZER
    c. KNOCK-IT-OFF
    d. FREEZE
A
  1. ______ will be used to terminate both comm jamming and maneuvering.
    a. TERMINATE
    b. CEASE BUZZER

c. KNOCK-IT-OFF

d. FREEZE

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18
Q
  1. Comm Jamming procedures will not be conducted on _______ frequencies.
    a. Primary Air-to-Air
    b. Guard / predesignated safety
    c. Primary Air-to-Surface
    d. SEAD VHF
A
  1. Comm Jamming procedures will not be conducted on _______ frequencies.
    a. Primary Air-to-Air

b. Guard / predesignated safety

c. Primary Air-to-Surface
d. SEAD VHF

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19
Q
  1. AWOs/WDs and aircrew will confirm altimeter, weapons safe calls, and monitor altitude separation for rendezvous EXCEPT during ______.
    a. EMCON Option 1 and 2
    b. EMCON Option 2 and 3
    c. Emergency refueling
    d. EMCON Option 3 and 4
A
  1. AWOs/WDs and aircrew will confirm altimeter, weapons safe calls, and monitor altitude separation for rendezvous EXCEPT during ______.
    a. EMCON Option 1 and 2
    b. EMCON Option 2 and 3
    c. Emergency refueling

d. EMCON Option 3 and 4

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20
Q
  1. If a tanker experiences problems preventing completion of an air refueling the ______ will ensure aircraft separation and inform the receiver and AWO/WD of intentions.
    a. SD
    b. tanker aircraft commander
    c. flight lead
    d. mission commander
A
  1. If a tanker experiences problems preventing completion of an air refueling the ______ will ensure aircraft separation and inform the receiver and AWO/WD of intentions.
    a. SD

b. tanker aircraft commander

c. flight lead
d. mission commander

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21
Q
  1. Effective combat operations in a tactical environment, all players involved in the refueling operation will employ ______ to the maximum extent possible.
    a. chaff and flares
    b. beadwindow procedures
    c. chattermark procedures
    d. emission control (EMCON)
A
  1. Effective combat operations in a tactical environment, all players involved in the refueling operation will employ ______ to the maximum extent possible.
    a. chaff and flares
    b. beadwindow procedures
    c. chattermark procedures

d. emission control (EMCON)

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22
Q
  1. Minimized radio transmissions between command and control, the receivers, and the tankers require a ______.
    a. pre-planned and coordinated off-load
    b. refueling order / ARCP, ARCT
    c. air refueling exit point
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Minimized radio transmissions between command and control, the receivers, and the tankers require a ______.
    a. pre-planned and coordinated off-load
    b. refueling order / ARCP, ARCT
    c. air refueling exit point

d. All of the above

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23
Q
  1. According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a ______ responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) ______ responsibility.
    a. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / joint aircrew and AWO/WD
    b. AWO/WDs / AWO/WD
    c. pilot-aircrew / AWO/WD
    d. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / aircrews
A
  1. According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a ______ responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) ______ responsibility.
    a. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / joint aircrew and AWO/WD
    b. AWO/WDs / AWO/WD
    c. pilot-aircrew / AWO/WD

d. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / aircrews

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24
Q
  1. ______ will acknowledge all AWO/WD airspace and safety related calls.
    a. SD’s
    b. ATC
    c. Aircrews
    d. MCC’s
A
  1. ______ will acknowledge all AWO/WD airspace and safety related calls.
    a. SD’s
    b. ATC

c. Aircrews

d. MCC’s

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25
Q
  1. During air-to-air training missions, the AWO/WD will advise aircrew ______.
    a. bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard
    b. when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm
    c. when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for heavies) or as directed by the ATC agency
    d. Both a and c
A
  1. During air-to-air training missions, the AWO/WD will advise aircrew ______.
    a. bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard
    b. when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm
    c. when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for heavies) or as directed by the ATC agency

d. Both a and c

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26
Q
  1. The following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live external Air-to-Air missiles for other than WSEP firing EXCEPT:
    a. Aircrew will make a “WEAPONS SAFE” call upon initial check-in
    b. Simulate weapons employment, squeeze trigger or depress the pickle button
    c. Maximum maneuvering category is LIMITED
    d. Do not use the terms “HOSTILE” or “KILL” at anytime
A
  1. The following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live external Air-to-Air missiles for other than WSEP firing EXCEPT:
    a. Aircrew will make a “WEAPONS SAFE” call upon initial check-in

b. Simulate weapons employment, squeeze trigger or depress the pickle button

c. Maximum maneuvering category is LIMITED
d. Do not use the terms “HOSTILE” or “KILL” at anytime

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27
Q
  1. During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The _______ participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category.
    a. altitude of the lowest
    b. flight lead of blue forces
    c. altitude of the highest
    d. flight lead of red forces
A
  1. During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The _______ participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category.

a. altitude of the lowest

b. flight lead of blue forces
c. altitude of the highest
d. flight lead of red forces

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28
Q
  1. What governs commit authority?
    a. OPORDs and OPLANS
    b. Command Authority, ROE, Commit criteria
    c. Force Commander’s Directions
    d. All of the above
A
  1. What governs commit authority?
    a. OPORDs and OPLANS
    b. Command Authority, ROE, Commit criteria
    c. Force Commander’s Directions

d. All of the above

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29
Q
  1. The commit must be a joint effort between ______ and ______ and may be initiated by either.
    a. flight leads / SD
    b. package commanders / ABM/WD
    c. aircrews / ABM/WD
    d. ABM/WD / SD
A
  1. The commit must be a joint effort between ______ and ______ and may be initiated by either.
    a. flight leads / SD
    b. package commanders / ABM/WD

c. aircrews / ABM/WD

d. ABM/WD / SD

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30
Q
  1. _______enables the maximum use of aircrew and AWO/WD, radar and communication, and Situational Awareness to accomplish the mission.
    a. Close Control
    b. Tactical Control
    c. Broadcast Control
    d. Advisory Control
A
  1. _______enables the maximum use of aircrew and AWO/WD, radar and communication, and Situational Awareness to accomplish the mission.
    a. Close Control

b. Tactical Control

c. Broadcast Control
d. Advisory Control

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31
Q
  1. Broadcast control is a means for AWO/WDs to employ ______ communications primarily to pass target information by referencing a designated location (such as bullseye), not a specific flight.
    a. directive
    b. comparative
    c. tactical
    d. informative
A
  1. Broadcast control is a means for AWO/WDs to employ ______ communications primarily to pass target information by referencing a designated location (such as bullseye), not a specific flight.
    a. directive
    b. comparative
    c. tactical

d. informative

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32
Q
  1. The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are:
    a. Unlimited, restricted, non-maneuvering, limited, and controlled
    b. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous
    c. Level 5, level 4, level 3, level 2, and level 1
    d. Close, Tactical, Unlimited, Broadcast, Advisory
A
  1. The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are:
    a. Unlimited, restricted, non-maneuvering, limited, and controlled

b. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous

c. Level 5, level 4, level 3, level 2, and level 1
d. Close, Tactical, Unlimited, Broadcast, Advisory

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33
Q
  1. Controlled maneuvering provides for ______ conducted with ______.
    a. Test and evaluation / NVGs
    b. Air-to-air live fire procedures / CMR aircrews
    c. Air-to-air 1v1 night visual training / NVGs
    d. NVG LOWAT training / an non-maneuvering adversary
A
  1. Controlled maneuvering provides for ______ conducted with ______.
    a. Test and evaluation / NVGs
    b. Air-to-air live fire procedures / CMR aircrews

c. Air-to-air 1v1 night visual training / NVGs

d. NVG LOWAT training / an non-maneuvering adversary

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34
Q
  1. Day, low altitude, visual maneuvering is defined as ______.
    a. below 5,000 ft MSL (fixed wing)
    b. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing)
    c. below Minimum Safe Altitude
    d. below 11-2MDS minimums
A
  1. Day, low altitude, visual maneuvering is defined as ______.
    a. below 5,000 ft MSL (fixed wing)

b. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing)

c. below Minimum Safe Altitude
d. below 11-2MDS minimums

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35
Q
  1. Fighters may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions apply.
    a. All adversaries are beyond 10 nm (15nm for F-22)
    b. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10 nm exists.
    c. Fighter verbally confirms adversary’s hard altitude and maintains required vertical separation
    d. Any of the above are correct
A
  1. Fighters may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions apply.
    a. All adversaries are beyond 10 nm (15nm for F-22)
    b. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10 nm exists.
    c. Fighter verbally confirms adversary’s hard altitude and maintains required vertical separation

d. Any of the above are correct

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36
Q
  1. No more than ______ aircraft may participate in the same visual engagement.
    a. two
    b. four
    c. six
    d. eight
A
  1. No more than ______ aircraft may participate in the same visual engagement.
    a. two
    b. four
    c. six

d. eight

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37
Q
  1. Electronic Warfare (EW) employs __________ to create or exploit weaknesses in an enemy’s offensive and defensive supporting capabilities.
    a. ESM, ECM, and ECCM
    b. EA (electronic attack), EP (electronic protect), and ES (electronic support)
    c. EW, SEAD, and CSAR
    d. Jamming, Spoofing, and Meaconing
A
  1. Electronic Warfare (EW) employs __________ to create or exploit weaknesses in an enemy’s offensive and defensive supporting capabilities.
    a. ESM, ECM, and ECCM

b. EA (electronic attack), EP (electronic protect), and ES (electronic support)

c. EW, SEAD, and CSAR
d. Jamming, Spoofing, and Meaconing

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38
Q
  1. ______ is defined as “Aircraft within 3nm in azimuth or range.”
    a. HIT
    b. FLIGHT
    c. GROUP
    d. CONTACT
A
  1. ______ is defined as “Aircraft within 3nm in azimuth or range.”
    a. HIT
    b. FLIGHT

c. GROUP

d. CONTACT

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39
Q
  1. A ____ is a prebriefed maneuver to low aspect to stop closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage. This will be used to initiate a Grinder tactic.
    a. NOTCH
    b. BEAM
    c. PUMP
    d. FLANK
A
  1. A ____ is a prebriefed maneuver to low aspect to stop closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage. This will be used to initiate a Grinder tactic.
    a. NOTCH
    b. BEAM

c. PUMP

d. FLANK

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40
Q
  1. When a pilot calls ____, he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter.
    a. SEPARATE
    b. SLIDE
    c. BUG OUT
    d. SCRAM
A
  1. When a pilot calls ____, he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter.

a. SEPARATE

b. SLIDE
c. BUG OUT
d. SCRAM

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41
Q
  1. NAILS is a brevity term meaning: ______.
    a. receiving strobes
    b. any AAI/APPX interrogation return
    c. RWR indication of AI radar in search
    d. positive radar lock-on
A
  1. NAILS is a brevity term meaning: ______.
    a. receiving strobes
    b. any AAI/APPX interrogation return

c. RWR indication of AI radar in search

d. positive radar lock-on

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42
Q
  1. The AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 codeword for all-aspect missile defensive maneuver to place the threat radar/missile near the beam is ______ (with direction).
    a. BREAK
    b. NOTCH
    c. SNAP
    d. OUT
A
  1. The AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 codeword for all-aspect missile defensive maneuver to place the threat radar/missile near the beam is ______ (with direction).
    a. BREAK

b. NOTCH

c. SNAP
d. OUT

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43
Q
  1. ______ is a brevity term meaning “no RWR indications.”
    a. CLEAN
    b. BLIND
    c. NAKED
    d. SILENT
A
  1. ______ is a brevity term meaning “no RWR indications.”
    a. CLEAN
    b. BLIND

c. NAKED

d. SILENT

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44
Q
  1. HIGH is a brevity term meaning target altitude is greater than ______.
    a. 30,000 ft MSL
    b. 40,000 ft MSL
    c. 42,000 ft MSL
    d. 45,000 ft MSL
A
  1. HIGH is a brevity term meaning target altitude is greater than ______.
    a. 30,000 ft MSL

b. 40,000 ft MSL

c. 42,000 ft MSL
d. 45,000 ft MSL

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45
Q
  1. _____ is an informative call that voice deception is being employed.
    a. BUZZER
    b. CHATTERMARK
    c. SNOOZE
    d. SPOOFING
A
  1. _____ is an informative call that voice deception is being employed.
    a. BUZZER
    b. CHATTERMARK
    c. SNOOZE

d. SPOOFING

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46
Q
  1. PAINT is a brevity term meaning _______.
    a. any AAI/APX interrogation return
    b. any IFF/SIF return
    c. a raw radar return
    d. an interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria
A
  1. PAINT is a brevity term meaning _______.
    a. any AAI/APX interrogation return
    b. any IFF/SIF return
    c. a raw radar return

d. an interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria

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47
Q
  1. AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 defines SLOW as a target with a ground speed between ____ knots and ____ knots.
    a. 250 / 350
    b. 50 / 150
    c. 100 / 300
    d. 100 / 250
A
  1. AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 defines SLOW as a target with a ground speed between ____ knots and ____ knots.
    a. 250 / 350
    b. 50 / 150
    c. 100 / 300

d. 100 / 250

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48
Q
  1. A ______ call indicates an interrogated Bogey group/radar contact which lacks all the ATO (or equivalent) IFF modes and codes required for the ID criteria.
    a. DIAMONDS
    b. CLEAN
    c. SWEET
    d. SPADES
A
  1. A ______ call indicates an interrogated Bogey group/radar contact which lacks all the ATO (or equivalent) IFF modes and codes required for the ID criteria.
    a. DIAMONDS
    b. CLEAN
    c. SWEET

d. SPADES

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49
Q
  1. ____________ is a request to provide tactical ground information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseye format.
    a. STAKE
    b. SKINNY
    c. LOWDOWN
    d. SHOPPING
A
  1. ____________ is a request to provide tactical ground information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseye format.
    a. STAKE
    b. SKINNY

c. LOWDOWN

d. SHOPPING

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50
Q
  1. _____ is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics.
    a. RAYGUN
    b. SKATE
    c. BANZAI
    d. CHEAPSHOT
A
  1. _____ is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics.
    a. RAYGUN
    b. SKATE

c. BANZAI

d. CHEAPSHOT

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51
Q
  1. When a pilot uses the term _____, it is a request for target information as requested or closest group in BRAA (with appropriate fill-ins).
    a. PICTURE
    b. BOGEY DOPE
    c. CLEAN
    d. BLIND
A
  1. When a pilot uses the term _____, it is a request for target information as requested or closest group in BRAA (with appropriate fill-ins).
    a. PICTURE

b. BOGEY DOPE

c. CLEAN
d. BLIND

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52
Q
  1. _____ is a brevity term describing the Link-16 Network.
    a. HUSKY
    b. TIMBER
    c. TIDS
    d. CYCLOPS
A
  1. _____ is a brevity term describing the Link-16 Network.
    a. HUSKY

b. TIMBER

c. TIDS
d. CYCLOPS

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53
Q
  1. Pilots will use the term _____ to direct the formation to expand laterally within visual limits to maintain a radar contact or prepare for a defensive response.
    a. BRACKET
    b. MIRROR BEAM
    c. CONTAIN
    d. FLOAT
A
  1. Pilots will use the term _____ to direct the formation to expand laterally within visual limits to maintain a radar contact or prepare for a defensive response.
    a. BRACKET
    b. MIRROR BEAM
    c. CONTAIN

d. FLOAT

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54
Q
  1. _____ is a USAF specific codeword meaning a fighter will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a TOI, attempt communications, and report all observations of activity.
    a. INVESTIGATE
    b. TARGET
    c. INSPECT
    d. HEADBUTT
A
  1. _____ is a USAF specific codeword meaning a fighter will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a TOI, attempt communications, and report all observations of activity.
    a. INVESTIGATE
    b. TARGET

c. INSPECT

d. HEADBUTT

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55
Q
  1. Which of the following BEST defines the sidelobe reference (SLR) antenna?
    a. An antenna that interrogates transponders on an aircraft
    b. A slotted, wave guide, stacked beam antenna that provides azimuth, range, and height information
    c. A sidelobe antenna that sends and receives and functions as an alternate to the IFF/SIF
    d. An omni-directional antenna that prevents false returns from being displayed
A
  1. Which of the following BEST defines the sidelobe reference (SLR) antenna?
    a. An antenna that interrogates transponders on an aircraft
    b. A slotted, wave guide, stacked beam antenna that provides azimuth, range, and height information
    c. A sidelobe antenna that sends and receives and functions as an alternate to the IFF/SIF

d. An omni-directional antenna that prevents false returns from being displayed

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56
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all link capable players are assumed to be TIMBER SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise.
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all link capable players are assumed to be TIMBER SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise.

a. True

b. False

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57
Q
  1. _____ is an inner group formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader.
    a. ECHELON
    b. OFFSET
    c. BEARING
    d. SWEPT
A
  1. _____ is an inner group formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader.
    a. ECHELON
    b. OFFSET
    c. BEARING

d. SWEPT

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58
Q
  1. _____ is an informative call indicating violation of assigned procedural deconfliction measure.
    a. AWOL
    b. CHECK ANGELS
    c. RIDER
    d. GOPHER
A
  1. _____ is an informative call indicating violation of assigned procedural deconfliction measure.

a. AWOL

b. CHECK ANGELS
c. RIDER
d. GOPHER

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59
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all aircraft are assumed to be SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise.
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all aircraft are assumed to be SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise.
    a. True

b. False

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60
Q
  1. _____ is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in search mode.
    a. NAILS
    b. SINGER
    c. MUD
    d. DIRT
A
  1. _____ is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in search mode.
    a. NAILS
    b. SINGER
    c. MUD

d. DIRT

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61
Q
  1. _____ is a directive term to verify specified elements of ROE, PID, CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track.
    a. TARGET
    b. INVESTIGATE
    c. SMACK
    d. INSPECT
A
  1. _____ is a directive term to verify specified elements of ROE, PID, CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track.
    a. TARGET

b. INVESTIGATE

c. SMACK
d. INSPECT

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62
Q
  1. _____ is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target/track correlation and CDE must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires.
    a. TARGET
    b. INVESTIGATE
    c. SMACK
    d. INSPECT
A
  1. _____ is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target/track correlation and CDE must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires.

a. TARGET

b. INVESTIGATE
c. SMACK
d. INSPECT

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63
Q
  1. When controlling F-16s, at “REDEC” range (40 NM or as briefed), ABM/WD will

__________.

a. Voice the range
b. Repeat the picture, if not already labeled
c. Anchor each group within targeting depth of the leading edge
d. All of the above

A
  1. When controlling F-16s, at “REDEC” range (40 NM or as briefed), ABM/WD will

__________.

a. Voice the range
b. Repeat the picture, if not already labeled
c. Anchor each group within targeting depth of the leading edge

d. All of the above

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64
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE. If a fighter calls “SPIKED” with a magnetic bearing or sub-cardinal direction and the group spiking the fighter is within threat range, the ABM/WD will respond with a standard spike response.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A
  1. TRUE or FALSE. If a fighter calls “SPIKED” with a magnetic bearing or sub-cardinal direction and the group spiking the fighter is within threat range, the ABM/WD will respond with a standard spike response.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

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65
Q
  1. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with the ADAFCO?
    a. Senior Director
    b. Air Surveillance Officer
    c. Mission Crew Commander
    d. Battle Staff Coordinator
A
  1. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with the ADAFCO?

a. Senior Director

b. Air Surveillance Officer
c. Mission Crew Commander
d. Battle Staff Coordinator

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66
Q
  1. What CRC position is responsible for overall supervision, mission crew performance and direction of tactical level BMC2 to include air defense and airspace control activities within the assigned area?
    a. Air Surveillance Officer
    b. Mission Crew Commander
    c. Senior Director
    d. Air Surveillance Technician
A
  1. What CRC position is responsible for overall supervision, mission crew performance and direction of tactical level BMC2 to include air defense and airspace control activities within the assigned area?
    a. Air Surveillance Officer

b. Mission Crew Commander

c. Senior Director
d. Air Surveillance Technician

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67
Q
  1. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with higher, lateral and subordinate BMC2 (Battle Management Command and Control) agencies?
    a. Air Surveillance Technician
    b. Senior Director
    c. Mission Crew Commander
    d. Air Surveillance Officer
A
  1. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with higher, lateral and subordinate BMC2 (Battle Management Command and Control) agencies?
    a. Air Surveillance Technician
    b. Senior Director

c. Mission Crew Commander

d. Air Surveillance Officer

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68
Q
  1. The purpose of the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is to:
    a. document only control activities conducted outside the area of interest
    b. record mission critical information
    c. document incidents solely for investigation purposes
    d. summarize crew operations for data collection and analysis
A
  1. The purpose of the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is to:
    a. document only control activities conducted outside the area of interest
    b. record mission critical information
    c. document incidents solely for investigation purposes

d. summarize crew operations for data collection and analysis

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69
Q
  1. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is completed?
    a. Mission Crew Commander
    b. Battle Commander
    c. Battle Staff Commander
    d. Air Surveillance Officer
A
  1. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is completed?

a. Mission Crew Commander

b. Battle Commander
c. Battle Staff Commander
d. Air Surveillance Officer

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70
Q
  1. The surveillance section of the CRC is responsible for which of the following?
    a. Managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives
    b. Reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives
    c. Detecting, tracking, identifying and reporting airborne entities within the CRC’s operational area, region or sector
    d. Planning, preparing, and disseminating theater directives such as the Airspace Control Order (ACO)
A
  1. The surveillance section of the CRC is responsible for which of the following?
    a. Managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives
    b. Reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives

c. Detecting, tracking, identifying and reporting airborne entities within the CRC’s operational area, region or sector

d. Planning, preparing, and disseminating theater directives such as the Airspace Control Order (ACO)

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71
Q
  1. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible to the MCC for surveillance, airspace, and data link functions?
    a. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC)
    b. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO)
    c. Senior Director (SD)
    d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
A
  1. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible to the MCC for surveillance, airspace, and data link functions?
    a. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC)

b. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO)

c. Senior Director (SD)
d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)

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72
Q
  1. Which of the following CRC duty positions directs the detection, tracking, and identification of air traffic within the CRC’s area of interest (AOI)?
    a. Interface Control Technician (ICT)
    b. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
    c. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO)
    d. Surveillance Technician (ST)
A
  1. Which of the following CRC duty positions directs the detection, tracking, and identification of air traffic within the CRC’s area of interest (AOI)?
    a. Interface Control Technician (ICT)

b. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)

c. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO)
d. Surveillance Technician (ST)

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible for control of aircraft within the CRC’s Battle Management Area (BMA)?
    a. Weapons Director (WD)
    b. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC)
    c. Senior Director (SD)
    d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)
A
  1. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible for control of aircraft within the CRC’s Battle Management Area (BMA)?

a. Weapons Director (WD)

b. Battle Staff Coordinator (BSC)
c. Senior Director (SD)
d. Air Surveillance Technician (AST)

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74
Q
  1. Which CRC duty position is responsible to the MCC for the assignment of allocated weapons and for coordinating and directing WD and ADAFCO activities?
    a. Weapons Director (WD)
    b. Mission Crew Commander (MCC)
    c. Senior Director (SD)
    d. Air Defense Artillery Fire Control Officer (ADAFCO)
A
  1. Which CRC duty position is responsible to the MCC for the assignment of allocated weapons and for coordinating and directing WD and ADAFCO activities?
    a. Weapons Director (WD)
    b. Mission Crew Commander (MCC)

c. Senior Director (SD)

d. Air Defense Artillery Fire Control Officer (ADAFCO)

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75
Q
  1. If a unit reports its Modular Control System (MCS) Operational Level is Level 1, it is ___________.
    a. able to perform all its operations
    b. able to perform limited operations
    c. able to perform ONLY manual operations
    d. limited because data link are inoperative however, the computer is not
A
  1. If a unit reports its Modular Control System (MCS) Operational Level is Level 1, it is ___________.

a. able to perform all its operations

b. able to perform limited operations
c. able to perform ONLY manual operations
d. limited because data link are inoperative however, the computer is not

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76
Q
  1. All of the following is TRUE of a CRC unit that is at level 3 EXCEPT:
    a. Computer capability lost
    b. Surveillance information passed by voice and entered manually
    c. Data links inoperative or unavailable
    d. Basic control functions operational
A
  1. All of the following is TRUE of a CRC unit that is at level 3 EXCEPT:

a. Computer capability lost

b. Surveillance information passed by voice and entered manually
c. Data links inoperative or unavailable
d. Basic control functions operational

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77
Q
  1. The ADAFCO is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. Monitor and report current status/changes of assigned ADA systems to the SD
    b. Managing the information flow between the UCC and the mission crew
    c. Understand theater ADA weapons capabilities
    d. Serve as Air Defense advisor to joint and coalition forces
A
  1. The ADAFCO is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. Monitor and report current status/changes of assigned ADA systems to the SD

b. Managing the information flow between the UCC and the mission crew

c. Understand theater ADA weapons capabilities
d. Serve as Air Defense advisor to joint and coalition forces

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78
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions accomplished by the MCS?
    a. Battle Management
    b. Surveillance
    c. Combat Airspace Management
    d. Air Defense Artillery
A
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions accomplished by the MCS?
    a. Battle Management
    b. Surveillance
    c. Combat Airspace Management

d. Air Defense Artillery

79
Q
  1. The CRC weapons section is responsible for ______________________.
    a. reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives
    b. managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives
    c. detecting, tracking, identifying, and reporting airborne objects within the CRC’s Area of Interest (AOI)
    d. planning, preparing, and disseminating theater directives such as the Airspace Control Order (ACO)
A
  1. The CRC weapons section is responsible for ______________________.
    a. reviewing, monitoring, and implementing Air and Space Operations Center (AOC) directives

b. managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives

c. detecting, tracking, identifying, and reporting airborne objects within the CRC’s Area of Interest (AOI)
d. planning, preparing, and disseminating theater directives such as the Airspace Control Order (ACO)

80
Q
  1. When is the Operations Logbook opened and closed?
    a. Only when directed by the Director of Operations
    b. Opens at the beginning of the duty day; closes at 2400Z
    c. Opens at 0001C; closes at 2400C
    d. Opens at 0001T; closes at 2400T
A
  1. When is the Operations Logbook opened and closed?
    a. Only when directed by the Director of Operations

b. Opens at the beginning of the duty day; closes at 2400Z

c. Opens at 0001C; closes at 2400C
d. Opens at 0001T; closes at 2400T

81
Q
  1. When an error is made in the Operations Logbook, corrections can be made by doing all the following, EXCEPT:
    a. Draw a line through the incorrect entry
    b. Rewrite the entry below the original entry
    c. Erase the incorrect entry
    d. Initial the correction
A
  1. When an error is made in the Operations Logbook, corrections can be made by doing all the following, EXCEPT:
    a. Draw a line through the incorrect entry
    b. Rewrite the entry below the original entry

c. Erase the incorrect entry

d. Initial the correction

82
Q
  1. All of the following are duties of the WD, EXCEPT:
    a. Know the significant characteristics and capabilities of friendly, hostile, and neutral air defense systems
    b. Extract weapons related database input information as directed and provide to the DST through the SD
    c. Keep the SD informed of all changes to mission requirements, results, and situations affecting mission completion or flight safety
    d. ensure proper track identification has been assigned to tracks
A
  1. All of the following are duties of the WD, EXCEPT:
    a. Know the significant characteristics and capabilities of friendly, hostile, and neutral air defense systems
    b. Extract weapons related database input information as directed and provide to the DST through the SD
    c. Keep the SD informed of all changes to mission requirements, results, and situations affecting mission completion or flight safety

d. ensure proper track identification has been assigned to tracks

83
Q
  1. The SD is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT:
    a. conduct the weapons portion of the crew briefing and debriefing
    b. Ensure accurate and timely air situation data, theater action results, equipment, and weapons status reports are provided to the AOC
    c. Ensure weapons section communications equipment is configured and cryptographic radio equipment is loaded to meet mission requirements
    d. Monitor weapons control frequencies to ensure effective mission accomplishment and flight safety
A
  1. The SD is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT:
    a. conduct the weapons portion of the crew briefing and debriefing

b. Ensure accurate and timely air situation data, theater action results, equipment, and weapons status reports are provided to the AOC

c. Ensure weapons section communications equipment is configured and cryptographic radio equipment is loaded to meet mission requirements
d. Monitor weapons control frequencies to ensure effective mission accomplishment and flight safety

84
Q
  1. What is the minimum amount of time that tapes are retained if an aircraft accident or incident has been recorded on the tape?
    a. 3 months
    b. 1 year
    c. 9 months
    d. 6 months
A
  1. What is the minimum amount of time that tapes are retained if an aircraft accident or incident has been recorded on the tape?
    a. 3 months
    b. 1 year
    c. 9 months

d. 6 months

85
Q
  1. All of the following are DST duties and responsibilities EXCEPT:
    a. Assist maintenance in troubleshooting equipment problems if required
    b. performing voice tell when necessary
    c. monitor the PM & Test function and report equipment discrepancies
    d. coordinating and planning then initial build of database
A
  1. All of the following are DST duties and responsibilities EXCEPT:
    a. Assist maintenance in troubleshooting equipment problems if required

b. performing voice tell when necessary

c. monitor the PM & Test function and report equipment discrepancies
d. coordinating and planning then initial build of database

86
Q
  1. The Ultra High Frequency (UHF) Radio Group consists of _____ UHF transceivers.
    a. Two
    b. Three
    c. Six
    d. Four
A
  1. The Ultra High Frequency (UHF) Radio Group consists of _____ UHF transceivers.
    a. Two
    b. Three
    c. Six

d. Four

87
Q
  1. The KG-40 provides encryption and decryption for _______ data to/from the Data Terminal Set (DTS).
    a. TADIL-A
    b. TADIL-B
    c. ATDL-1
    d. TADIL-J
A
  1. The KG-40 provides encryption and decryption for _______ data to/from the Data Terminal Set (DTS).

a. TADIL-A

b. TADIL-B
c. ATDL-1
d. TADIL-J

88
Q
  1. The ______ is a wide band (WB), tactical, half duplex, encryption device used with UHF and VHF radio communications systems to provide ground-to-air and ground-to-ground secure voice communication.
    a. KG-40
    b. KG-40A
    c. KY-58
    d. HYX-57
A
  1. The ______ is a wide band (WB), tactical, half duplex, encryption device used with UHF and VHF radio communications systems to provide ground-to-air and ground-to-ground secure voice communication.
    a. KG-40
    b. KG-40A

c. KY-58

d. HYX-57

89
Q
  1. The _______ is a small, lightweight, battery-operated device which reads an eight-level punched tape and is used to load crypto key variables into encryption equipment or the KYK-13.
    a. KY-58
    b. KG-84A
    c. KY-68
    d. KOI-18
A
  1. The _______ is a small, lightweight, battery-operated device which reads an eight-level punched tape and is used to load crypto key variables into encryption equipment or the KYK-13.
    a. KY-58
    b. KG-84A
    c. KY-68

d. KOI-18

90
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE: Two computers are required to bring a system of one to four OMs online.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A
  1. TRUE or FALSE: Two computers are required to bring a system of one to four OMs online.
    a. TRUE

b. FALSE

91
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the Internal Radio Equipment (IRE)?
    a. UHF radio group
    b. VHF radio group
    c. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP)
    d. HF radio group
A
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the Internal Radio Equipment (IRE)?
    a. UHF radio group
    b. VHF radio group

c. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP)

d. HF radio group

92
Q
  1. The Radio Patch Panel (RPP) is used to assign crypto to the following internal/external radio circuits
    a. Nine voice (a combination of two HF, three VHF, four UHF and/or three remote)
    b. Two TADIL-A
    c. One TADIL-J
    d. One TADIL-B
A
  1. The Radio Patch Panel (RPP) is used to assign crypto to the following internal/external radio circuits

a. Nine voice (a combination of two HF, three VHF, four UHF and/or three remote)

b. Two TADIL-A
c. One TADIL-J
d. One TADIL-B

93
Q
  1. Which of the following BEST describes the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU)?
    a. a device capable of reproducing the content of the operator control unit display
    b. an illuminated assembly for alphanumeric input and cursor control
    c. a six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously
    d. a high-speed thermal dot matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults
A
  1. Which of the following BEST describes the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU)?
    a. a device capable of reproducing the content of the operator control unit display
    b. an illuminated assembly for alphanumeric input and cursor control

c. a six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously

d. a high-speed thermal dot matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults

94
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE: The KGX-40 provides the remote controls and indicators for operation and maintenance of KG-40.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A
  1. TRUE or FALSE: The KGX-40 provides the remote controls and indicators for operation and maintenance of KG-40.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

95
Q
  1. Which of the following provides a means to fully initialize, access, and obtain the fault status of any voice channel in a five-OM system?
    a. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP)
    b. Radio Patch Panel (RPP)
    c. Signal Entry Patch Panel (SEPP)
    d. Digital Data Bus/Voice Control Bus (DDB/VCB)
A
  1. Which of the following provides a means to fully initialize, access, and obtain the fault status of any voice channel in a five-OM system?

a. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP)

b. Radio Patch Panel (RPP)
c. Signal Entry Patch Panel (SEPP)
d. Digital Data Bus/Voice Control Bus (DDB/VCB)

96
Q
  1. The Radar Interface Unit (RIU) provides the electronic interface between the OM and up to ______ local radar channels via the Radar Data Bus Electro-Optical Converter (RDB EOC) and up to ______ remote radars via the Digital Communications Unit (DCU) controller .
    a. four, two
    b. three, one
    c. four, one
    d. three, two
A
  1. The Radar Interface Unit (RIU) provides the electronic interface between the OM and up to ______ local radar channels via the Radar Data Bus Electro-Optical Converter (RDB EOC) and up to ______ remote radars via the Digital Communications Unit (DCU) controller .

a. four, two

b. three, one
c. four, one
d. three, two

97
Q
  1. A single Radar Interface Unit (RIU) can only process radar reports from ________ radars.
    a. four
    b. two
    c. three
    d. one
A
  1. A single Radar Interface Unit (RIU) can only process radar reports from ________ radars.
    a. four
    b. two

c. three

d. one

98
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the System Level Equipment (SLE)?
    a. JTIDS Module (JM)
    b. Power distribution system
    c. Environmental Control System (ECS)
    d. Pallet assembly
A
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the System Level Equipment (SLE)?

a. JTIDS Module (JM)

b. Power distribution system
c. Environmental Control System (ECS)
d. Pallet assembly

99
Q
  1. The KYK-13 is used to load crypto key variables into all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. KY-58
    b. KY-68
    c. KOI-18
    d. KG-84A
A
  1. The KYK-13 is used to load crypto key variables into all of the following EXCEPT:
    a. KY-58
    b. KY-68

c. KOI-18

d. KG-84A

100
Q
  1. The Voice Communication Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ UHF radios, ____ net radios and ______ direct access line(s).
    a. 6, 8, 1
    b. 15, 4, 4
    c. 4, 8, 4
    d. 4, 5, 6
A
  1. The Voice Communication Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ UHF radios, ____ net radios and ______ direct access line(s).
    a. 6, 8, 1
    b. 15, 4, 4

c. 4, 8, 4

d. 4, 5, 6

101
Q
  1. The High Frequency (HF) radio operates in a frequency range of _____ to _____ MHz.
    a. 30, 75.95
    b. 30, 88
    c. 225, 399.975
    d. 1, 30
A
  1. The High Frequency (HF) radio operates in a frequency range of _____ to _____ MHz.
    a. 30, 75.95
    b. 30, 88
    c. 225, 399.975

d. 1, 30

102
Q
  1. What is the nominal range for the Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) radio?
    a. 250
    b. 300
    c. 180
    d. 60
A
  1. What is the nominal range for the Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) radio?

a. 250

b. 300
c. 180
d. 60

103
Q
  1. What area of the OCUWS displays the real-time tactical air picture?
    a. Auxiliary Display Subunit 1 (ADS-1)
    b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2)
    c. System Status Display
    d. Display Subunit (DSU)
A
  1. What area of the OCUWS displays the real-time tactical air picture?
    a. Auxiliary Display Subunit 1 (ADS-1)
    b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2)
    c. System Status Display

d. Display Subunit (DSU)

104
Q
  1. Which area of the Auxiliary Display Subunit (ADS) displays textual explanations of OCU alerts and orders?
    a. Auxiliary Display Subunit 1 (ADS-1)
    b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2)
    c. Display Subunit (DSU)
    d. Display Access Subunit (DAS)
A
  1. Which area of the Auxiliary Display Subunit (ADS) displays textual explanations of OCU alerts and orders?
    a. Auxiliary Display Subunit 1 (ADS-1)

b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2)

c. Display Subunit (DSU)
d. Display Access Subunit (DAS)

105
Q
  1. What area of the OCUWS DSU displays switches for radar and video selections?
    a. Display Subunit (DSU)
    b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2)
    c. Display Access Subunit (DAS)
    d. System Status Area (SSA)
A
  1. What area of the OCUWS DSU displays switches for radar and video selections?
    a. Display Subunit (DSU)
    b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2)

c. Display Access Subunit (DAS)

d. System Status Area (SSA)

106
Q
  1. The maximum number of OMs that can be connected is _______.
    a. three
    b. Four
    c. two
    d. five
A
  1. The maximum number of OMs that can be connected is _______.
    a. three
    b. Four
    c. two

d. five

107
Q
  1. In a single OM configuration with only one computer operational, all the following functions are available, EXCEPT:
    a. Reduced tracking capacity
    b. One TADIL-A link
    c. Two TADIL-B links
    d. simulation capability
A
  1. In a single OM configuration with only one computer operational, all the following functions are available, EXCEPT:
    a. Reduced tracking capacity
    b. One TADIL-A link
    c. Two TADIL-B links

d. simulation capability

108
Q
  1. In a single OM configuration, if one of the computers fails, track symbology is displayed in order of priority. Which of the following is NOT one of the top 3 priorities?
    a. Engagement
    b. Hostiles
    c. Friend
    d. Assigned Weapons
A
  1. In a single OM configuration, if one of the computers fails, track symbology is displayed in order of priority. Which of the following is NOT one of the top 3 priorities?
    a. Engagement
    b. Hostiles

c. Friend

d. Assigned Weapons

109
Q
  1. The CLEAR ALERT FFS allows the operator to __________________.
    a. Reset to 0 the ALERT ACK switch on the ADS-1 area
    b. Clear designated alert message from ADS-2 area
    c. Delete all alerts displayed on the ADS-2 area
    d. clear the alert displayed on the ADS-1 area
A
  1. The CLEAR ALERT FFS allows the operator to __________________.
    a. Reset to 0 the ALERT ACK switch on the ADS-1 area

b. Clear designated alert message from ADS-2 area

c. Delete all alerts displayed on the ADS-2 area
d. clear the alert displayed on the ADS-1 area

110
Q
  1. The RESTRT FFS allows the operator to ___________________.
    a. clear the hooked track’s speed, heading, and velocity vector
    b. reposition the track on a radar hit
    c. initiate tracking on an un-acquired radar hit
    d. delete an alert that is displayed on the ADS-2 area
A
  1. The RESTRT FFS allows the operator to ___________________.

a. clear the hooked track’s speed, heading, and velocity vector

b. reposition the track on a radar hit
c. initiate tracking on an un-acquired radar hit
d. delete an alert that is displayed on the ADS-2 area

111
Q
  1. NOTE – Upon detection of an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alert, the operator has _____ seconds to respond.
    a. 30
    b. 15
    c. 60
    d. 20
A
  1. NOTE – Upon detection of an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alert, the operator has _____ seconds to respond.
    a. 30
    b. 15
    c. 60

d. 20

112
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE for the System Center?
    a. It can be established using START BUILD or CONTIN BUILD
    b. It cannot be changed once data is entered
    c. It is established using the INIT SYS and MCE DATA VFSs
    d. It must be established after the Magnetic Variation is established
A
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE for the System Center?
    a. It can be established using START BUILD or CONTIN BUILD

b. It cannot be changed once data is entered

c. It is established using the INIT SYS and MCE DATA VFSs
d. It must be established after the Magnetic Variation is established

113
Q
  1. To shut down power in the OM, you use the red switch labeled___________.
    a. MAIN POWER SAFETY INTERRUPT
    b. MASTER OFF
    c. EQUIPMENT SHUTDOWN
    d. EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN
A
  1. To shut down power in the OM, you use the red switch labeled___________.
    a. MAIN POWER SAFETY INTERRUPT

b. MASTER OFF

c. EQUIPMENT SHUTDOWN
d. EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN

114
Q
  1. Which character modifier denotes an identity, category, or IFF conflict on a track that is held mutually by two units?
    a. D
    b. I
    c. 3
    d. C
A
  1. Which character modifier denotes an identity, category, or IFF conflict on a track that is held mutually by two units?
    a. D

b. I

c. 3
d. C

115
Q
  1. Which character modifier is displayed when the operator activates data recording for a track?
    a. I
    b. R
    c. C
    d. D
A
  1. Which character modifier is displayed when the operator activates data recording for a track?
    a. I
    b. R
    c. C

d. D

116
Q
  1. Which track modifier indicates an aircraft emergency involving loss of radio capabilities?
    a. B
    b. C
    c. E
    d. R
A
  1. Which track modifier indicates an aircraft emergency involving loss of radio capabilities?
    a. B
    b. C
    c. E

d. R

117
Q
  1. What happens when an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alarm message is initiated?
    a. the SET EMCON FFS blinks at all OCUWSs
    b. All radars and IFF are set to blink
    c. EMCON is immediately activated
    d. All radar decoys are activated
A
  1. What happens when an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alarm message is initiated?

a. the SET EMCON FFS blinks at all OCUWSs

b. All radars and IFF are set to blink
c. EMCON is immediately activated
d. All radar decoys are activated

118
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the EP PLAN VFS?
    a. To enter, delete, modify, or display pre-planned EP parameters for radars or IFF
    b. to turn the EMCON plan on
    c. to temporarily modify current EMCON settings
    d. to graphically display current EMCON settings on DSU for four different radars or IFF
A
  1. What is the purpose of the EP PLAN VFS?

a. To enter, delete, modify, or display pre-planned EP parameters for radars or IFF

b. to turn the EMCON plan on
c. to temporarily modify current EMCON settings
d. to graphically display current EMCON settings on DSU for four different radars or IFF

119
Q
  1. Which of the following choices BEST define the Variable Function Switch (VFS) that enables the operator to determine the status of OM equipment?
    a. MIG STATUS VFS
    b. TRKR STATS VFS
    c. EQUIP STATUS VFS
    d. PM&TEST FFS
A
  1. Which of the following choices BEST define the Variable Function Switch (VFS) that enables the operator to determine the status of OM equipment?
    a. MIG STATUS VFS
    b. TRKR STATS VFS

c. EQUIP STATUS VFS

d. PM&TEST FFS

120
Q
  1. The Computer Unit Performance (CU PRFM) VFS under the PM & TEST Fixed Function Switch (FFS) array allows the operator to ______________________.
    a. access the OSs required to modify the data link parameters for TADIL-B
    b. display CU performance statistics of the computer units
    c. view the status and communications quality of individual data links in the system
    d. designate a MASTER CU and a SLAVE CU
A
  1. The Computer Unit Performance (CU PRFM) VFS under the PM & TEST Fixed Function Switch (FFS) array allows the operator to ______________________.
    a. access the OSs required to modify the data link parameters for TADIL-B

b. display CU performance statistics of the computer units

c. view the status and communications quality of individual data links in the system
d. designate a MASTER CU and a SLAVE CU

121
Q
  1. Which FFS contains the OSs that allows an operator to locate tracks based on IFF and to setup plot history areas?
    a. SURVL
    b. SYM DSPL
    c. OPNL SPRT
    d. PLOT SETUP
A
  1. Which FFS contains the OSs that allows an operator to locate tracks based on IFF and to setup plot history areas?
    a. SURVL
    b. SYM DSPL
    c. OPNL SPRT

d. PLOT SETUP

122
Q
  1. The three VCAS modes of communication which can be selected using the MODE button are_______, _______, and _________.
    a. audio, visual, off
    b. MON, transmit, receive
    c. internal, external, both
    d. audio, MON, internal
A
  1. The three VCAS modes of communication which can be selected using the MODE button are_______, _______, and _________.
    a. audio, visual, off
    b. MON, transmit, receive

c. internal, external, both

d. audio, MON, internal

123
Q
  1. If anti-jam mode is selected for a UHF channel, a ________ border will appear around the channel window.
    a. red
    b. white
    c. gray
    d. green
A
  1. If anti-jam mode is selected for a UHF channel, a ________ border will appear around the channel window.
    a. red

b. white

c. gray
d. green

124
Q
  1. To terminate a call on the VCAS, select the circuit you wish to terminate and then select ________ on the menu bar.
    a. RING/TALK
    b. OFF
    c. MON
    d. AJ/NORM
A
  1. To terminate a call on the VCAS, select the circuit you wish to terminate and then select ________ on the menu bar.
    a. RING/TALK

b. OFF

c. MON
d. AJ/NORM

125
Q
  1. The maximum system capacity for ATDL-1 data links is _________.
    a. one
    b. seven
    c. nine
    d. fourteen
A
  1. The maximum system capacity for ATDL-1 data links is _________.
    a. one
    b. seven
    c. nine

d. fourteen

126
Q
  1. Within the Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system, how many Link-1 data links can be active at one time?
    a. One
    b. Fourteen
    c. Fifteen
    d. Seventeen
A
  1. Within the Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system, how many Link-1 data links can be active at one time?

a. One

b. Fourteen
c. Fifteen
d. Seventeen

127
Q
  1. Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency?
    a. 7100
    b. 7700
    c. 7600
    d. 7500
A
  1. Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency?
    a. 7100
    b. 7700
    c. 7600

d. 7500

128
Q
  1. A Mode 3 code of 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies?
    a. No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency
    b. Hijack Emergency
    c. General Emergency
    d. Fire Emergency
A
  1. A Mode 3 code of 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies?
    a. No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency
    b. Hijack Emergency

c. General Emergency

d. Fire Emergency

129
Q
  1. Which mode 3 indicates a No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency?
    a. 7900
    b. 7600
    c. 7700
    d. 7500
A
  1. Which mode 3 indicates a No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency?
    a. 7900

b. 7600

c. 7700
d. 7500

130
Q
  1. Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target?
    a. XFR CONT
    b. WPNS FREE
    c. ENGAGE
    d. WPNS TIGHT
A
  1. Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target?
    a. XFR CONT
    b. WPNS FREE

c. ENGAGE

d. WPNS TIGHT

131
Q
  1. Orders of an operational or tactical nature received from external agencies by data links are called what?
    a. command orders
    b. Received orders
    c. Transmitting orders
    d. Incoming orders
A
  1. Orders of an operational or tactical nature received from external agencies by data links are called what?
    a. command orders
    b. Received orders
    c. Transmitting orders

d. Incoming orders

132
Q
  1. Which of the following overlays displays the identification (ID) corridors used in the automatic identification process?
    a. Overlay 4, Line, General Areas and Hazard Areas
    b. Overlay 2, ID and Threat Evaluation
    c. Overlay 3, Tactical Boundaries
    d. Overlay 1, Flight Safety
A
  1. Which of the following overlays displays the identification (ID) corridors used in the automatic identification process?
    a. Overlay 4, Line, General Areas and Hazard Areas

b. Overlay 2, ID and Threat Evaluation

c. Overlay 3, Tactical Boundaries
d. Overlay 1, Flight Safety

133
Q
  1. When the system is in medium threat mode and there is a valid response for Mode 4 interrogation, what ID activity does the system perform?
    a. No ID activity is performed by the system; it must be performed by the operator
    b. The system automatically IDs the track as friend and changes the symbology to friend on the DSU and ID field in the HDRO
    c. The system automatically IDs the track as assumed friend and changes the symbology to assumed friend on the DSU and the ID field of the HDRO
    d. The system automatically IDs the track, but any further changes to the DSU and HDRO must be performed by the operator
A
  1. When the system is in medium threat mode and there is a valid response for Mode 4 interrogation, what ID activity does the system perform?
    a. No ID activity is performed by the system; it must be performed by the operator
    b. The system automatically IDs the track as friend and changes the symbology to friend on the DSU and ID field in the HDRO

c. The system automatically IDs the track as assumed friend and changes the symbology to assumed friend on the DSU and the ID field of the HDRO

d. The system automatically IDs the track, but any further changes to the DSU and HDRO must be performed by the operator

134
Q
  1. This type of rendezvous requires the receiver to maintain an agreed track and the tanker to maintain the reciprocal track, the tanker will make the final turn on to the receivers heading.
    a. Emergency rendezvous
    b. RV Delta (Point Parallel)
    c. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous)
    d. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)
A
  1. This type of rendezvous requires the receiver to maintain an agreed track and the tanker to maintain the reciprocal track, the tanker will make the final turn on to the receivers heading.
    a. Emergency rendezvous

b. RV Delta (Point Parallel)

c. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous)
d. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)

135
Q
  1. This type of rendezvous is normally used to vector receivers to tankers operating on an AAR anchor area.
    a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)
    b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous)
    c. RV Delta (Point Parallel)
    d. Emergency Rendezvous
A
  1. This type of rendezvous is normally used to vector receivers to tankers operating on an AAR anchor area.

a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)

b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous)
c. RV Delta (Point Parallel)
d. Emergency Rendezvous

136
Q
  1. This type of rendezvous is normally conducted without a pre-briefed AAR track. It requires the receiver to use an Airborne Intercept (AI) radar to complete the rendezvous.
    a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)
    b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous)
    c. RV Delta (Point Parallel)
    d. Emergency Rendezvous
A
  1. This type of rendezvous is normally conducted without a pre-briefed AAR track. It requires the receiver to use an Airborne Intercept (AI) radar to complete the rendezvous.
    a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on)

b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous)

c. RV Delta (Point Parallel)
d. Emergency Rendezvous

137
Q
  1. For all standard refueling rendezvous the following roll-out criteria applies: _____________
    a. 1-3 NM, +/- 30 degrees
    b. 5 NM, +/- 30 degrees
    c. 5 NM, +/- 20 degrees
    d. 1-3 NM, +/- 20 degrees
A
  1. For all standard refueling rendezvous the following roll-out criteria applies: _____________

a. 1-3 NM, +/- 30 degrees

b. 5 NM, +/- 30 degrees
c. 5 NM, +/- 20 degrees
d. 1-3 NM, +/- 20 degrees

138
Q
  1. What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of Class A airspace?
    a. Restricted Area
    b. Military Operations Area (MOA)
    c. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)
    d. Military Training Route (MTR)
A
  1. What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of Class A airspace?
    a. Restricted Area

b. Military Operations Area (MOA)

c. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)
d. Military Training Route (MTR)

139
Q
  1. Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted?
    a. Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)
    b. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)
    c. Alert Area
    d. Military Training Route (MTR)
A
  1. Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted?
    a. Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)
    b. Air Traffic Control Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)

c. Alert Area

d. Military Training Route (MTR)

140
Q
  1. Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)?
    a. To facilitate the mass movement of large numbers of military aircraft
    b. To alert non-military and non-participating military IFR pilots to areas in which pilot training operations are occurring
    c. To prevent VFR traffic from flying at specific altitudes
    d. To segregate military from non-military aircraft on an as-needed basis
A
  1. Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)?

a. To facilitate the mass movement of large numbers of military aircraft

b. To alert non-military and non-participating military IFR pilots to areas in which pilot training operations are occurring
c. To prevent VFR traffic from flying at specific altitudes
d. To segregate military from non-military aircraft on an as-needed basis

141
Q
  1. According to FAA rules, when an aircraft is less than 40 miles away from the radar, how far from the airspace boundary must the Military Radar Unit (MRU) keep the aircraft?
    a. At least 2.5 miles
    b. At least 1.5 miles
    c. At least 5 miles
    d. At least 3 miles
A
  1. According to FAA rules, when an aircraft is less than 40 miles away from the radar, how far from the airspace boundary must the Military Radar Unit (MRU) keep the aircraft?
    a. At least 2.5 miles

b. At least 1.5 miles

c. At least 5 miles
d. At least 3 miles

142
Q
  1. Link 16 uses the ___________ radio frequencies.
    a. High Frequency (HF)
    b. Very High Frequency (VHF)
    c. Ultra High Frequency (UHF)
    d. Super High Frequency (SHF)
A
  1. Link 16 uses the ___________ radio frequencies.
    a. High Frequency (HF)
    b. Very High Frequency (VHF)

c. Ultra High Frequency (UHF)

d. Super High Frequency (SHF)

143
Q
  1. Where is the emergency exit in the OM located?
    a. Roadside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3
    b. The main door serves as the emergency exit
    c. In the lower center of the entrance door
    d. Curbside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3
A
  1. Where is the emergency exit in the OM located?
    a. Roadside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3
    b. The main door serves as the emergency exit
    c. In the lower center of the entrance door

d. Curbside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3

144
Q
  1. Crew rest will normally begin _____ after the debrief.
    a. 2 hours
    b. 1.5 hours
    c. 8 hours
    d. 1 hour
A
  1. Crew rest will normally begin _____ after the debrief.
    a. 2 hours

b. 1.5 hours

c. 8 hours
d. 1 hour

145
Q
  1. The two types of missions in the Mission Execution phase of CSAR are immediate missions and ___________
    a. Combat Air Patrol missions
    b. Regenerate missions
    c. Pre-planned missions
    d. Isolated recovery missions
A
  1. The two types of missions in the Mission Execution phase of CSAR are immediate missions and ___________
    a. Combat Air Patrol missions
    b. Regenerate missions

c. Pre-planned missions

d. Isolated recovery missions

146
Q
  1. The primary facility for coordination and control of CSAR activities is the ___________
    a. Joint Search and Rescue Center (JSRC)
    b. Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS)
    c. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC)
    d. Control and Reporting Center (CRC)
A
  1. The primary facility for coordination and control of CSAR activities is the ___________

a. Joint Search and Rescue Center (JSRC)

b. Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS)
c. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC)
d. Control and Reporting Center (CRC)

147
Q
  1. Which of the following BEST defines CSAR?
    a. Recovery of isolated personnel
    b. The first line of defense in military operations
    c. An exchange of information among component rescue centers
    d. Use of military personnel for civil evacuation
A
  1. Which of the following BEST defines CSAR?

a. Recovery of isolated personnel

b. The first line of defense in military operations
c. An exchange of information among component rescue centers
d. Use of military personnel for civil evacuation

148
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT used to verify the identity of downed personnel?
    a. ATO SPINS code words
    b. ISOPREP data
    c. Visual signals
    d. Voice recognition
A
  1. Which of the following is NOT used to verify the identity of downed personnel?
    a. ATO SPINS code words
    b. ISOPREP data
    c. Visual signals

d. Voice recognition

149
Q
  1. Which of the following occurs FIRST in a CSAR operation?
    a. Awareness and notification
    b. Mission Planning
    c. Situation Assessment
    d. Mission Execution
A
  1. Which of the following occurs FIRST in a CSAR operation?

a. Awareness and notification

b. Mission Planning
c. Situation Assessment
d. Mission Execution

150
Q
  1. Which of the following BEST describes the mission of the TACP?
    a. Locate, identify, and mark ground targets
    b. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces
    c. Plan, coordinate and direct tactical air support of ground forces
    d. Provide centralized planning, direction, control and coordination of theater air operations
A
  1. Which of the following BEST describes the mission of the TACP?
    a. Locate, identify, and mark ground targets

b. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces

c. Plan, coordinate and direct tactical air support of ground forces
d. Provide centralized planning, direction, control and coordination of theater air operations

151
Q
  1. Which of the following BEST describes a mission of the ASOC?
    a. Provide deep battlefield surveillance
    b. Plan, coordinate, and direct tactical air support of ground forces
    c. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces
    d. Plan, coordinate and direct CSAR operations
A
  1. Which of the following BEST describes a mission of the ASOC?
    a. Provide deep battlefield surveillance

b. Plan, coordinate, and direct tactical air support of ground forces

c. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces
d. Plan, coordinate and direct CSAR operations

152
Q
  1. Which of the following is an input number used to establish a specified system hopping pattern, rate, and dwell time?
    a. Word-of-Day (WOD)
    b. Net Number
    c. Time-of-Day (TOD)
    d. Mickey
A
  1. Which of the following is an input number used to establish a specified system hopping pattern, rate, and dwell time?

a. Word-of-Day (WOD)

b. Net Number
c. Time-of-Day (TOD)
d. Mickey

153
Q
  1. Which of the following assigns several radios to a net and establishes the hop set start frequency?
    a. Word of Day (WOD)
    b. Time of Day (TOD)
    c. Multiple Word of Day (MWOD)
    d. Net number
A
  1. Which of the following assigns several radios to a net and establishes the hop set start frequency?
    a. Word of Day (WOD)
    b. Time of Day (TOD)
    c. Multiple Word of Day (MWOD)

d. Net number

154
Q
  1. The THREE elements necessary for successful system operations of HAVE QUICK are:
    a. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate
    b. encrypted frequencies, time carbonization, and common reference point
    c. encrypted frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate
    d. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common reference point
A
  1. The THREE elements necessary for successful system operations of HAVE QUICK are:

a. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate

b. encrypted frequencies, time carbonization, and common reference point
c. encrypted frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate
d. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common reference point

155
Q
  1. Which of the following is a HAVE QUICK modification to a radio’s ability to clearly receive and process more than one signal without mutual interference?
    a. ACTIVE MODE
    b. SECURE MODE
    c. Conferencing
    d. Time Signal Set (TSS)
A
  1. Which of the following is a HAVE QUICK modification to a radio’s ability to clearly receive and process more than one signal without mutual interference?
    a. ACTIVE MODE
    b. SECURE MODE

c. Conferencing

d. Time Signal Set (TSS)

156
Q
  1. Within the HAVE QUICK system, time is transmitted using a format referred to as ____________.
    a. Net Number
    b. Word of Day (WOD)
    c. Time of Day (TOD)
    d. Mickey
A
  1. Within the HAVE QUICK system, time is transmitted using a format referred to as ____________.
    a. Net Number
    b. Word of Day (WOD)

c. Time of Day (TOD)

d. Mickey

157
Q
  1. The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of _____ nautical miles and a maximum altitude of ______ feet.
    a. 250/85,500
    b. 230/95,500
    c. 240/95,500
    d. 340/95,500
A
  1. The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of _____ nautical miles and a maximum altitude of ______ feet.
    a. 250/85,500
    b. 230/95,500

c. 240/95,500

d. 340/95,500

158
Q
  1. Which of the following is required if a remote radar is to be established?
    a. One kilometer of fiber optic cable
    b. A Data Terminal Set
    c. An HF radio
    d. A dedicated VHF radio circuit
A
  1. Which of the following is required if a remote radar is to be established?
    a. One kilometer of fiber optic cable
    b. A Data Terminal Set
    c. An HF radio

d. A dedicated VHF radio circuit

159
Q
  1. The AN/TPS-75 radar is capable of blanking what size sector?
    a. 357.2 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps
    b. 360 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps
    c. 333.3 degrees, in 10.2 degree steps
    d. 358.1 degrees, in 10.2 degree steps
A
  1. The AN/TPS-75 radar is capable of blanking what size sector?

a. 357.2 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps

b. 360 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps
c. 333.3 degrees, in 10.2 degree steps
d. 358.1 degrees, in 10.2 degree steps

160
Q
  1. The Hooked Data Read Out (HDRO) is divided into three general data areas, which of the following is NOT an area of the HDRO?
    a. Common data area
    b. Track information area
    c. Amplifying data area
    d. Special data area
A
  1. The Hooked Data Read Out (HDRO) is divided into three general data areas, which of the following is NOT an area of the HDRO?
    a. Common data area

b. Track information area

c. Amplifying data area
d. Special data area

161
Q
  1. All of the following will blink to alert the operator EXCEPT:
    a. Mode 3 mismatches
    b. Emergency tracks
    c. Hostile tracks
    d. Category/ID conflicts
A
  1. All of the following will blink to alert the operator EXCEPT:

a. Mode 3 mismatches

b. Emergency tracks
c. Hostile tracks
d. Category/ID conflicts

162
Q
  1. Which of the following will cause the symbology to expand?
    a. First hostile track is initiated in the system
    b. Track is designated as a lost track
    c. Hostile air-to-surface missile detected
    d. Emergency track
A
  1. Which of the following will cause the symbology to expand?
    a. First hostile track is initiated in the system

b. Track is designated as a lost track

c. Hostile air-to-surface missile detected
d. Emergency track

163
Q
  1. The AUTO TRACK FFS does all the following EXCEPT:
    a. initiates an auto-track on radar data
    b. changes a rate-aided track to auto-track
    c. repositions symbology onto radar data
    d. changes any track to an auto track
A
  1. The AUTO TRACK FFS does all the following EXCEPT:
    a. initiates an auto-track on radar data
    b. changes a rate-aided track to auto-track

c. repositions symbology onto radar data

d. changes any track to an auto track

164
Q
  1. When track trace is selected for a track, the displayed trace will not be longer than the last ____ minutes of the track’s movement.
    a. 20
    b. 15
    c. 30
    d. 10
A
  1. When track trace is selected for a track, the displayed trace will not be longer than the last ____ minutes of the track’s movement.
    a. 20

b. 15

c. 30
d. 10

165
Q
  1. What is the legal range of entry for entering a mode 1 in the SELECT M/CODE VFS?
    a. first digit is 0-7, second digit is 0-3
    b. first digit is 0-3, second digit is 0-7
    c. four digit octal within the range of 0000-7777
    d. first digit is 0-7, second digit 0-7
A
  1. What is the legal range of entry for entering a mode 1 in the SELECT M/CODE VFS?

a. first digit is 0-7, second digit is 0-3

b. first digit is 0-3, second digit is 0-7
c. four digit octal within the range of 0000-7777
d. first digit is 0-7, second digit 0-7

166
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valid Mode 1 code?
    a. 211
    b. 21
    c. 099
    d. 09
A
  1. Which of the following is a valid Mode 1 code?
    a. 211

b. 21

c. 099
d. 09

167
Q
  1. Crew members will enter crew rest a minimum of _____ hours before show time.
    a. 12
    b. 24
    c. 6
    d. 8
A
  1. Crew members will enter crew rest a minimum of _____ hours before show time.
    a. 12
    b. 24
    c. 6

d. 8

168
Q
  1. If video recordings of missions are made, the minimum classification of the tapes is _______.
    a. Classified
    b. Secret
    c. Top-Secret
    d. For Official Use Only
A
  1. If video recordings of missions are made, the minimum classification of the tapes is _______.
    a. Classified

b. Secret

c. Top-Secret
d. For Official Use Only

169
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a CRC to call Ops Normal?
    a. Radar and IFF operating and correlation checks are complete and within acceptable parameters
    b. Aircraft are under control
    c. At least one operational data link is established with participating units
    d. A minimum amount of radios area available to conduct the tasked mission
A
  1. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a CRC to call Ops Normal?
    a. Radar and IFF operating and correlation checks are complete and within acceptable parameters

b. Aircraft are under control

c. At least one operational data link is established with participating units
d. A minimum amount of radios area available to conduct the tasked mission

170
Q
  1. During all operations, WD/AWOs will ensure track symbology and sensor data of controlled aircraft are within ___ NM of each other.
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 5
A
  1. During all operations, WD/AWOs will ensure track symbology and sensor data of controlled aircraft are within ___ NM of each other.
    a. 1

b. 2

c. 3
d. 5

171
Q
  1. While aircraft are under control, the following crew positions will monitor UHF guard EXCEPT?
    a. MCC
    b. SD
    c. ASO
    d. WD/AWO
A
  1. While aircraft are under control, the following crew positions will monitor UHF guard EXCEPT?
    a. MCC
    b. SD

c. ASO

d. WD/AWO

172
Q
  1. During contingency operations, who is the point of contact with the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) and Job Control (JC)?
    a. MCC
    b. BSC
    c. SD
    d. AST
A
  1. During contingency operations, who is the point of contact with the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) and Job Control (JC)?
    a. MCC

b. BSC

c. SD
d. AST

173
Q
  1. TRUE or FALSE: During routine training missions of no greater than a 4v4, the SD may conduct red air or flight follow control.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A
  1. TRUE or FALSE: During routine training missions of no greater than a 4v4, the SD may conduct red air or flight follow control.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

174
Q
  1. Which of the following has the authority to waive all or any part of the 8-hour crew rest period?
    a. Squadron Commander
    b. Parent/Deployed Operations Group Commander
    c. Squadron DO
    d. Crew MCC
A
  1. Which of the following has the authority to waive all or any part of the 8-hour crew rest period?
    a. Squadron Commander

b. Parent/Deployed Operations Group Commander

c. Squadron DO
d. Crew MCC

175
Q
  1. System Control (SYSCON) is responsible for which of the following:
    a. Managing the unit’s communications/data systems
    b. Facilitating maintenance and repair of mission equipment
    c. Ensures personnel have medical, food, water, and billeting
    d. Developing the site defense plan
A
  1. System Control (SYSCON) is responsible for which of the following:

a. Managing the unit’s communications/data systems

b. Facilitating maintenance and repair of mission equipment
c. Ensures personnel have medical, food, water, and billeting
d. Developing the site defense plan

176
Q
  1. During CONUS weapons control missions, which crew positions will monitor the handoff frequency/shout line at all times?
    a. MCC
    b. SD
    c. WD/AWOs
    d. Both B and C
A
  1. During CONUS weapons control missions, which crew positions will monitor the handoff frequency/shout line at all times?
    a. MCC
    b. SD
    c. WD/AWOs

d. Both B and C

177
Q
  1. Who is responsible for ensuring all crew members read and initial items in the read file prior to performing duties on scope?
    a. SQ/CC
    b. MCC or DO/ADO at FTU
    c. SD
    d. Chief, Stan/Eval
A
  1. Who is responsible for ensuring all crew members read and initial items in the read file prior to performing duties on scope?
    a. SQ/CC

b. MCC or DO/ADO at FTU

c. SD
d. Chief, Stan/Eval

178
Q
  1. What is the correct sequence for initiating a multiple cursor association ?
    a. Activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the first item, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch
    b. Activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the target, hook the interceptor, activate the ENTER switch
    c. Hook the first item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch
    d. Hook the first item, hook the second item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, activate the ENTER switch
A
  1. What is the correct sequence for initiating a multiple cursor association ?
    a. Activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the first item, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch
    b. Activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the target, hook the interceptor, activate the ENTER switch

c. Hook the first item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch

d. Hook the first item, hook the second item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, activate the ENTER switch

179
Q
  1. Site Support is responsible for all of the following duties EXCEPT:
    a. Ensures personnel issues to include medical, food, water, billeting are met
    b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC
    c. Facilitates protocol, public affairs, services, administrative supply and transportation issues
    d. Facilitates the unit transition to a steady state operation
A
  1. Site Support is responsible for all of the following duties EXCEPT:
    a. Ensures personnel issues to include medical, food, water, billeting are met

b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC

c. Facilitates protocol, public affairs, services, administrative supply and transportation issues
d. Facilitates the unit transition to a steady state operation

180
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the AN/TPS-75 Radar Set is NOT TRUE?
    a. It operates independently of weather and jamming environments
    b. It records a permanent, three dimensional picture and log of the airspace status
    c. It is capable of simultaneous long-range search and height finding
    d. It transmits, receives and presents data
A
  1. Which of the following statements about the AN/TPS-75 Radar Set is NOT TRUE?
    a. It operates independently of weather and jamming environments

b. It records a permanent, three dimensional picture and log of the airspace status

c. It is capable of simultaneous long-range search and height finding
d. It transmits, receives and presents data

181
Q
  1. Which component of the AN/TPS-75 radar receives the digital returns from the receive channels and is responsible for generating the required video types and height data?
    a. Moving Target Indicator (MTI)
    b. Sensitivity Time Control (STC)
    c. Post-processor
    d. Signal Processor
A
  1. Which component of the AN/TPS-75 radar receives the digital returns from the receive channels and is responsible for generating the required video types and height data?
    a. Moving Target Indicator (MTI)
    b. Sensitivity Time Control (STC)
    c. Post-processor

d. Signal Processor

182
Q
  1. Which of the following BEST defines the printer unit?
    a. A high speed thermal dot-matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults
    b. An illuminated assembly for alphanumeric input and cursor control
    c. A device capable of reproducing the content of the operator control unit display
    d. A six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously
A
  1. Which of the following BEST defines the printer unit?

a. A high speed thermal dot-matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults

b. An illuminated assembly for alphanumeric input and cursor control
c. A device capable of reproducing the content of the operator control unit display
d. A six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously

183
Q
  1. All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT:
    a. an external telephone line
    b. a STU-III telephone
    c. AN/ARC-164 UHF radio
    d. a six-channel troposcatter radio
A
  1. All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT:
    a. an external telephone line

b. a STU-III telephone

c. AN/ARC-164 UHF radio
d. a six-channel troposcatter radio

184
Q
  1. Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but to continue to intercept the target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept the target?
    a. CEASE FIRE
    b. WPNS FREE
    c. CEASE ENGAGE
    d. HOLD FIRE
A
  1. Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but to continue to intercept the target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept the target?

a. CEASE FIRE

b. WPNS FREE
c. CEASE ENGAGE
d. HOLD FIRE

185
Q
  1. Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing at a designated air track, missiles already in flight are to be prevented from intercepting if technically possible?
    a. ASSIGN
    b. CEASE FIRE
    c. HEADS UP
    d. HOLD FIRE
A
  1. Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing at a designated air track, missiles already in flight are to be prevented from intercepting if technically possible?
    a. ASSIGN
    b. CEASE FIRE
    c. HEADS UP

d. HOLD FIRE

186
Q
  1. Which of the following equipment houses the environmental control units (ECU), external cables and OM maintenance tools?
    a. Power Distribution System
    b. Internal Cables
    c. Environmental Control System
    d. Pallet Assembly
A
  1. Which of the following equipment houses the environmental control units (ECU), external cables and OM maintenance tools?
    a. Power Distribution System
    b. Internal Cables
    c. Environmental Control System

d. Pallet Assembly

187
Q
  1. If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the code on the transmission authentication table?
    a. The sum of all the numerals in the actual transmission table
    b. The number that stands for the transmission time rounded up to the next even number
    c. The actual transmission time plus one number
    d. The actual transmission time minus one number
A
  1. If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the code on the transmission authentication table?
    a. The sum of all the numerals in the actual transmission table
    b. The number that stands for the transmission time rounded up to the next even number
    c. The actual transmission time plus one number

d. The actual transmission time minus one number

188
Q
  1. Which order dictates that units assume a posture where weapons systems may be fired only at targets positively identified as hostile?
    a. WPNS FREE
    b. ENGAGE
    c. INVES/INTRG
    d. WPNS TIGHT
A
  1. Which order dictates that units assume a posture where weapons systems may be fired only at targets positively identified as hostile?
    a. WPNS FREE
    b. ENGAGE
    c. INVES/INTRG

d. WPNS TIGHT

189
Q
  1. What is the main reason for holding mission crew debriefings?
    a. To fulfill the requirements of the AFI
    b. To document what occurred during the mission in case of questions later
    c. To plan the next mission
    d. To capture lessons learned and improve system performance
A
  1. What is the main reason for holding mission crew debriefings?
    a. To fulfill the requirements of the AFI
    b. To document what occurred during the mission in case of questions later
    c. To plan the next mission

d. To capture lessons learned and improve system performance

190
Q
  1. Authenticators are used to ______________________.
    a. Determine if the person you are communicating with has up-to-date authenticators
    b. Counter the enemies’ attempts at intercepting your communications
    c. Counter the enemies’ attempts to use electronic communications jamming
    d. Counter the enemies’ attempts at mechanical jamming
A
  1. Authenticators are used to ______________________.
    a. Determine if the person you are communicating with has up-to-date authenticators

b. Counter the enemies’ attempts at intercepting your communications

c. Counter the enemies’ attempts to use electronic communications jamming
d. Counter the enemies’ attempts at mechanical jamming

191
Q
  1. All of the following statements are FALSE concerning the reasons for using authentication procedures EXCEPT:
    a. Allow the operator to transmit the maximum amount of information using minimum transmission time
    b. Minimizes overall transmission time resulting in lessening the time the frequency is vulnerable to communications jamming
    c. To counter spot, sweep, and barrage communications jamming
    d. Friendly forces and enemy forces may be using the same frequency
A
  1. All of the following statements are FALSE concerning the reasons for using authentication procedures EXCEPT:
    a. Allow the operator to transmit the maximum amount of information using minimum transmission time
    b. Minimizes overall transmission time resulting in lessening the time the frequency is vulnerable to communications jamming
    c. To counter spot, sweep, and barrage communications jamming

d. Friendly forces and enemy forces may be using the same frequency

192
Q
  1. From the following options, select the one that BEST applies to the use of authenticators.
    a. MUST be handled ONLY IAW COMSEC User Procedures
    b. MUST be ONLY during war
    c. MUST be used ONLY in a training environment
    d. Treat all authenticators as TOP SECRET
A
  1. From the following options, select the one that BEST applies to the use of authenticators.

a. MUST be handled ONLY IAW COMSEC User Procedures

b. MUST be ONLY during war
c. MUST be used ONLY in a training environment
d. Treat all authenticators as TOP SECRET

193
Q
  1. Which of the following CANNOT be used as the FIRST letter of the challenge for ground-to-air challenge and reply authentication?
    a. Delta
    b. Bravo
    c. Charlie
    d. Alpha
A
  1. Which of the following CANNOT be used as the FIRST letter of the challenge for ground-to-air challenge and reply authentication?

a. Delta

b. Bravo
c. Charlie
d. Alpha

194
Q
  1. Authenticator users must follow the procedures detailed in which of the following?
    a. COMSEC User manual
    b. Form 16
    c. AFI 16
    d. AFI 33-211
A
  1. Authenticator users must follow the procedures detailed in which of the following?
    a. COMSEC User manual
    b. Form 16
    c. AFI 16

d. AFI 33-211

CRC EVAL MQF (3 decks)

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