Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CRC EVAL MQF > AETC MQF > Flashcards

AETC MQF Flashcards

1
Q
  1. General Aircrew, ABM/WD, and JTAC responsibilities include knowing the capabilities and limitations of_____.
    a. Communications
    b. Control facilities
    c. Weapons systems
    d. All of the above
A
  1. General Aircrew, ABM/WD, and JTAC responsibilities include knowing the capabilities and limitations of_____.
    a. Communications
    b. Control facilities
    c. Weapons systems

d.All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Aircrews will check-in with the controlling agency with _____, unless restricted by the ATO. Some or all ofthe calls may be omitted as required for Operations Security (OPSEC) or Communications Security(COMSEC).
    a. Call sign and location
    b. Authentication (as required).
    c. Deviations or aborts affecting mission accomplishment
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Aircrews will check-in with the controlling agency with _____, unless restricted by the ATO. Some or all ofthe calls may be omitted as required for Operations Security (OPSEC) or Communications Security(COMSEC).
    a. Call sign and location
    b. Authentication (as required).
    c. Deviations or aborts affecting mission accomplishment

d.All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. During initial check-in, the ABM/WD will conduct an IFF/SIF (if equipped) check and advise aircrew
    a. Only if “Sour”
    b. Only if “Sweet”
    c. If either “Sour” or “Sweet”
    d. Only if the aircrew requests the information
A
  1. During initial check-in, the ABM/WD will conduct an IFF/SIF (if equipped) check and advise aircrew
    a. Only if “Sour”
    b. Only if “Sweet”

c.If either “Sour” or “Sweet”

d.Only if the aircrew requests the information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. During initial check-in, ABM/WDs will provide a brief to include the locations of all of the followingEXCEPT:
    a. GCI
    b. Civilians
    c. No fire areas
    d. Friendly forces
A

4.During initial check-in, ABM/WDs will provide a brief to include the locations of all of the followingEXCEPT:

a.GCI

b. Civilians
c. No fire areas
d. Friendly forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. The controlling agencies/aircrews will provide additional information by stating number of _____ air-to-air armament available (for example 2x2xG). Which of the following is the correct order for the types of air-to-air armament the aircrew is carrying?
    a. Active missiles, IR missiles and Gun available
    b. IR missiles, Active missiles, and Semi-active missiles
    c. IR missiles, Semi-active missiles, and Gun available
    d. Semi-active missiles, Active missiles, and IR missiles
A

5.The controlling agencies/aircrews will provide additional information by stating number of _____ air-to-air armament available (for example 2x2xG). Which of the following is the correct order for the types of air-to-air armament the aircrew is carrying?

a.Active missiles, IR missiles and Gun available

b. IR missiles, Active missiles, and Semi-active missiles
c. IR missiles, Semi-active missiles, and Gun available
d. Semi-active missiles, Active missiles, and IR missiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. During check-out, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with which of the following:
    a. Call sign, location, and recovery base or recovery request.
    b. If available for additional Air-to-Air or Air-to-Surface tasking, transmit “PLAYTIME” and ordnanceremaining.
    c. Mission results and intelligence.
    d. All of the above
A
  1. During check-out, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with which of the following:
    a. Call sign, location, and recovery base or recovery request.
    b. If available for additional Air-to-Air or Air-to-Surface tasking, transmit “PLAYTIME” and ordnanceremaining.
    c. Mission results and intelligence.

d.All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following types of control enables the maximum use of aircrew and ABM/WD radar,communication, and SA to accomplish the mission; it is the standard employment level for the execution ofoperational and training missions and employs informative, comparative, and directive communications.
    a. Close Control
    b. Tactical Control
    c. Broadcast Control
    d. Advisory Control
A
  1. Which of the following types of control enables the maximum use of aircrew and ABM/WD radar,communication, and SA to accomplish the mission; it is the standard employment level for the execution ofoperational and training missions and employs informative, comparative, and directive communications.
    a. Close Control

b.Tactical Control

c. Broadcast Control
d. Advisory Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Upon hearing ________ all jammers on the frequency(s) will cease jamming to allow the transmission.
    a. Stop Jamming
    b. Spoofing, Spoofing my voice only
    c. Cease Buzzer
    d. “SAFETY, SAFETY”
A
  1. Upon hearing ________ all jammers on the frequency(s) will cease jamming to allow the transmission.
    a. Stop Jamming
    b. Spoofing, Spoofing my voice only
    c. Cease Buzzer

d.“SAFETY, SAFETY”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Use _____ procedures to cease all tactical maneuvering; ending the overall scenario when safety of flight is afactor, a dangerous situation is developing, weather is below minimums, aircraft malfunctions, loss ofsituational awareness exists or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) are met or unattainable for an entirescenario.
    a. RTB
    b. DELOUSING
    c. TERMINATE
    d. KNOCK-IT-OFF
A
  1. Use _____ procedures to cease all tactical maneuvering; ending the overall scenario when safety of flight is afactor, a dangerous situation is developing, weather is below minimums, aircraft malfunctions, loss ofsituational awareness exists or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) are met or unattainable for an entirescenario.
    a. RTB
    b. DELOUSING
    c. TERMINATE

d.KNOCK-IT-OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Situations requiring “KNOCK-IT-OFF” procedures include _____.
    a. Weather below minimums required to safely conduct the scenario
    b. Dangerous situation is developing
    c. Unbriefed or unscheduled flight enters working area and is detrimental to the safe conduct of themission
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Situations requiring “KNOCK-IT-OFF” procedures include _____.
    a. Weather below minimums required to safely conduct the scenario
    b. Dangerous situation is developing
    c. Unbriefed or unscheduled flight enters working area and is detrimental to the safe conduct of themission

d.All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. When hearing a “KNOCK-IT-OFF” call, all participating aircraft will:
    a. Acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion.
    b. Cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario.
    c. Deconflict flight paths and climb/descend to a safe altitude, block, or as briefed.
    d. All of the above
A
  1. When hearing a “KNOCK-IT-OFF” call, all participating aircraft will:
    a. Acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion.
    b. Cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario.
    c. Deconflict flight paths and climb/descend to a safe altitude, block, or as briefed.

d.All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Use terminate procedures when safety of flight is NOT a factor in conjunction with the following:
    a. Reaching BINGO fuel.
    b. DLOs are met or are unattainable for a local engagement within a larger scenario.
    c. Training rules or other limits met (e.g., 180-degree turn)
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Use terminate procedures when safety of flight is NOT a factor in conjunction with the following:
    a. Reaching BINGO fuel.
    b. DLOs are met or are unattainable for a local engagement within a larger scenario.
    c. Training rules or other limits met (e.g., 180-degree turn)

d.All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Under which of the following situations would terminate procedures NOT be required?

a. Reaching JOKER fuel
b. Below minimum altitude or within minimum range which does not compromise safety
c. Desired learning objectives are met or are unattainable for local engagement within a larger scenario
d. Reaching BINGO fuel

A

Under which of the following situations would terminate procedures NOT be required?

a.Reaching JOKER fuel

b. Below minimum altitude or within minimum range which does not compromise safety
c. Desired learning objectives are met or are unattainable for local engagement within a larger scenario
d. Reaching BINGO fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Both aircrews and AWO/WDs share joint responsibilities in avoiding lateral spill-outs. It is _____responsibility to avoid vertical spill-outs.
    a. The aircrews’
    b. The ABM/WDs’
    c. The weapons technicians’
    d. Both A and B
A

14.Both aircrews and AWO/WDs share joint responsibilities in avoiding lateral spill-outs. It is _____responsibility to avoid vertical spill-outs.

a.The aircrews’

b. The ABM/WDs’
c. The weapons technicians’
d. Both A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures is/are the responsibility of the AWO/WD during air-to-air training?
    a. Make a “Check Fuel” call
    b. Advise aircrews when they approach airspace boundaries (3NM for fighters and 5NM for non-fighters)
    c. Advise aircrews when the controlling agency cannot support a minimum of broadcast control
    d. Both B and C
A
  1. Which of the following procedures is/are the responsibility of the AWO/WD during air-to-air training?
    a. Make a “Check Fuel” call
    b. Advise aircrews when they approach airspace boundaries (3NM for fighters and 5NM for non-fighters)
    c. Advise aircrews when the controlling agency cannot support a minimum of broadcast control

d.Both B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. AWO/WDs will advise aircrews of the bearing, range, heading, and altitude (if available) of previouslyunreported aircraft within _____ nm that are a potential hazard.
    a. 3
    b. 5
    c. 10
    d. 15
A
  1. AWO/WDs will advise aircrews of the bearing, range, heading, and altitude (if available) of previouslyunreported aircraft within _____ nm that are a potential hazard.
    a. 3
    b. 5

c.10

d.15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Use separate frequencies for opposing forces provided AWOs/WDs and/or RTOs _____.
    a. Are all monitoring the assigned frequencies from the same location
    b. Have simultaneous monitor and broadcast capability on each working frequency
    c. Will immediately pass all KNOCK-IT-OFFs, TERMINATEs and safety of flight information to allparticipating aircraft.
    d. Both B or C
A
  1. Use separate frequencies for opposing forces provided AWOs/WDs and/or RTOs _____.
    a. Are all monitoring the assigned frequencies from the same location
    b. Have simultaneous monitor and broadcast capability on each working frequency
    c. Will immediately pass all KNOCK-IT-OFFs, TERMINATEs and safety of flight information to allparticipating aircraft.

d.Both B or C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. _____ maneuvering category states that an engagement will continue until a defender reaches 180 degrees ofturn at the start of the threat reaction. If neither aircraft can be clearly identified as the defender, theengagement will be terminated after the first aircraft reaches 180 degrees of turn after 3/9 line passage.
    a. UNLIMITED
    b. LIMITED
    c. CONTROLLED
    d. RESTRICTED
A
  1. _____ maneuvering category states that an engagement will continue until a defender reaches 180 degrees ofturn at the start of the threat reaction. If neither aircraft can be clearly identified as the defender, theengagement will be terminated after the first aircraft reaches 180 degrees of turn after 3/9 line passage.
    a. UNLIMITED

b.LIMITED

c. CONTROLLED
d. RESTRICTED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. _____ maneuvering category provides air-to-air training with heading changes of up to 60 degrees either side ofcourse.
    a. UNLIMITED
    b. LIMITED
    c. CONTROLLED
    d. RESTRICTED
A
  1. _____ maneuvering category provides air-to-air training with heading changes of up to 60 degrees either side ofcourse.
    a. UNLIMITED
    b. LIMITED
    c. CONTROLLED

d.RESTRICTED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. _____ is the maximum night air-to-air training maneuvering category unless flying CONTROLLEDmaneuvering exercises.
    a. UNLIMITED
    b. RESTRICTED
    c. LIMITED
    d. RESERVED
A
  1. _____ is the maximum night air-to-air training maneuvering category unless flying CONTROLLEDmaneuvering exercises.
    a. UNLIMITED
    b. RESTRICTED

c.LIMITED

d.RESERVED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Assign _____ to provide vertical separation for non-visual set-ups.
    a. Altimeters
    b. Hard altitudes or altitude blocks
    c. Floor
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Assign _____ to provide vertical separation for non-visual set-ups.
    a. Altimeters

b.Hard altitudes or altitude blocks

c. Floor
d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. F-22/F-35s and their adversaries will use a ______ check blocks call in lieu of the 10 NM guidance. If AWACS/GCI/RTOs are unavailable, all players must be on a common frequency and the call will be made by the closest F-22/F-35 to the adversary aircraft.
    a. 10 MILES CHECK BLOCKS
    b. 15 MILES CHECK BLOCKS
    c. 20 MILES CHECK BLOCKS
    d. CHECK BLOCKS
A
  1. F-22/F-35s and their adversaries will use a ______ check blocks call in lieu of the 10 NM guidance. If AWACS/GCI/RTOs are unavailable, all players must be on a common frequency and the call will be made by the closest F-22/F-35 to the adversary aircraft.
    a. 10 MILES CHECK BLOCKS

b.15 MILES CHECK BLOCKS

c. 20 MILES CHECK BLOCKS
d. CHECK BLOCKS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Aircrews are able to conduct IMC intercepts in approved special use airspace under the control of or monitoredby GCI/AWACS. Where are aircrews able to conduct IMC intercepts when GCI/AWACS is not available?
    a. Restricted areas
    b. Warning areas above 18k MSL
    c. ATCAAs unless prohibited by published range operating procedures or MDS specific restrictions.
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Aircrews are able to conduct IMC intercepts in approved special use airspace under the control of or monitoredby GCI/AWACS. Where are aircrews able to conduct IMC intercepts when GCI/AWACS is not available?
    a. Restricted areas
    b. Warning areas above 18k MSL
    c. ATCAAs unless prohibited by published range operating procedures or MDS specific restrictions.

d.All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Aircraft may NOT transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless which of the followingconditions apply?
    a. All adversaries are beyond 10 NM (15 NM for F-22/F-35)
    b. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10NM exists.
    c. Not Tally with all adversaries within 10 NM but not a conflict (i.e., no collision potential) based onSA.
    d. Any of the above
A
  1. Aircraft may NOT transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless which of the followingconditions apply?
    a. All adversaries are beyond 10 NM (15 NM for F-22/F-35)
    b. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10NM exists.
    c. Not Tally with all adversaries within 10 NM but not a conflict (i.e., no collision potential) based onSA.

d.Any of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What term is described as “training in the application of BFM and ACM skills to achieve a tactical Air-to-Airobjective?
    a. Basic Flight Maneuvers
    b. Air Combat Traffic
    c. Air Combat Tactics
    d. None of the Above
A
  1. What term is described as “training in the application of BFM and ACM skills to achieve a tactical Air-to-Airobjective?
    a. Basic Flight Maneuvers
    b. Air Combat Traffic

c.Air Combat Tactics

d.None of the Above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. The acronym BFM stands for _____.
    a. Basic Fighter Maneuvers
    b. Battle Fighter Maneuver
    c. Blue Fighter Maneuver
    d. Blue F-15 Maneuver
A

26.The acronym BFM stands for _____.

a.Basic Fighter Maneuvers

b. Battle Fighter Maneuver
c. Blue Fighter Maneuver
d. Blue F-15 Maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. What term is described as “peacetime rules, procedures and standards governing Air-to-Air and Air-to-Surfacetraining that when violated jeopardize flight safety”?
    a. Special Instructions (SPINS)
    b. Training Ordnance
    c. Training Rules (TR)
    d. All of the Above
A
  1. What term is described as “peacetime rules, procedures and standards governing Air-to-Air and Air-to-Surfacetraining that when violated jeopardize flight safety”?
    a. Special Instructions (SPINS)
    b. Training Ordnance

c.Training Rules (TR)

d.All of the Above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Minimum Safe Altitude is defined as the altitude that provides _____ feet of clearance above the highestobstacle/terrain feature (rounded to the next highest 100 feet) within _____ nm of the planned course, routedboundaries, or operations area.
    a. 1,000 / 3
    b. 1,000 / 5
    c. 5,000 / 3
    d. 5,000 / 5
A
  1. Minimum Safe Altitude is defined as the altitude that provides _____ feet of clearance above the highestobstacle/terrain feature (rounded to the next highest 100 feet) within _____ nm of the planned course, routedboundaries, or operations area.
    a. 1,000 / 3

b.1,000 / 5

c. 5,000 / 3
d. 5,000 / 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. _____ is defined as “Directives issued by competent military authority that delineate the circumstances andlimitations under which US forces will initiate and/or continue combat engagement with other forcesencountered.”
    a. Air Tasking Orders
    b. Operational Orders
    c. Rules of Engagement
    d. Special Instructions
A
  1. _____ is defined as “Directives issued by competent military authority that delineate the circumstances andlimitations under which US forces will initiate and/or continue combat engagement with other forcesencountered.”
    a. Air Tasking Orders
    b. Operational Orders

c.Rules of Engagement

d.Special Instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Advise aircrews when they approach airspace boundaries (__ NM for fighters and __ NM for non-fighters) oras directed by the Air Traffic Control (ATC) agency.
    a. 3 / 5
    b. 3 / 7
    c. 5 / 3
    d. 5 / 7
A

30.Advise aircrews when they approach airspace boundaries (__ NM for fighters and __ NM for non-fighters) oras directed by the Air Traffic Control (ATC) agency.

a.3 / 5

b. 3 / 7
c. 5 / 3
d. 5 / 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Airspace of defined vertical/lateral limits, assigned by ATC, for the purpose of providing air traffic segregationbetween the specified activities being conducted within the assigned airspace and other IFR air traffic is a (n) _____.
    a. ATC Assigned Airspace
    b. Jet Route
    c. Warning Area
    d. Restricted Area
A

31.Airspace of defined vertical/lateral limits, assigned by ATC, for the purpose of providing air traffic segregationbetween the specified activities being conducted within the assigned airspace and other IFR air traffic is a (n) _____.

a.ATC Assigned Airspace

b. Jet Route
c. Warning Area
d. Restricted Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. It is stated inthree digits that represent hundreds of feet and is known as _____.
    a. Angels
    b. Cherubs
    c. Flight Levels
    d. Assigned Altitudes
A
  1. A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. It is stated inthree digits that represent hundreds of feet and is known as _____.
    a. Angels
    b. Cherubs

c.Flight Levels

d.Assigned Altitudes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. The encounter with or tracking of an airborne object, normally as a result of a flight path preplanned to effectsuch encounter in the shortest practical time, is called a(n) _____.
    a. Intercept
    b. Marshalling Plan
    c. Rendezvous
    d. Strike Route
A

33.The encounter with or tracking of an airborne object, normally as a result of a flight path preplanned to effectsuch encounter in the shortest practical time, is called a(n) _____.

a.Intercept

b. Marshalling Plan
c. Rendezvous
d. Strike Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. A _____ is a special use airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions outside Class A airspace to separate/segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic in controlled airspace and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted.
    a. Warning Area
    b. IFR Training Route
    c. Military Operations Area
    d. ATC Assigned Airspace
A
  1. A _____ is a special use airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions outside Class A airspace to separate/segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic in controlled airspace and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted.
    a. Warning Area
    b. IFR Training Route

c.Military Operations Area

d.ATC Assigned Airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. A planned arrival of two or more aircraft over a predetermined point terminating in a visual contact prior to effecting a refueling hookup or conducting other activities requiring proximate operations is called a (n) _____.
    a. Abort
    b. Intercept
    c. Launch
    d. Rendezvous
A
  1. A planned arrival of two or more aircraft over a predetermined point terminating in a visual contact prior to effecting a refueling hookup or conducting other activities requiring proximate operations is called a (n) _____.
    a. Abort
    b. Intercept
    c. Launch

d.Rendezvous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a Special Use Airspace?
    a. Alert Area and Warning Area
    b. Controlled Firing Area and Military Operation Area
    c. Prohibited Area and Restricted Area
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Which of the following is an example of a Special Use Airspace?
    a. Alert Area and Warning Area
    b. Controlled Firing Area and Military Operation Area
    c. Prohibited Area and Restricted Area

d.All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. A point-to-point land line communications, terminating in monitor speakers, so that direct voice access isavailable without the need for dial-up action is a _____.
    a. Transfer
    b. Voice Page/ Hot Line
    c. FAA Liaison Hot
    d. Mission Coordinator
A
  1. A point-to-point land line communications, terminating in monitor speakers, so that direct voice access isavailable without the need for dial-up action is a _____.
    a. Transfer

b.Voice Page/ Hot Line

c. FAA Liaison Hot
d. Mission Coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. A Military Radar Unit (MRU) is a commissioned Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility, and is authorized toprovide ATC services.
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. A Military Radar Unit (MRU) is a commissioned Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility, and is authorized toprovide ATC services.
    a. True

b.False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. If a radar malfunction occurs at a Military Radar Unit (MRU), what is the MRU’s responsibility?
    a. MRU must immediately notify all aircraft in the ATC Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)/Special Use Airspace (SUA) of the radar outage.
    b. MRU must immediately notify Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility of the radar outage affectingmission operations and implement established procedures per Letter of Agreement (LOA)
    c. MRU advises aircraft to squawk 1200 and contact ATC.
    d. Both A and B
A
  1. If a radar malfunction occurs at a Military Radar Unit (MRU), what is the MRU’s responsibility?
    a. MRU must immediately notify all aircraft in the ATC Assigned Airspace (ATCAA)/Special Use Airspace (SUA) of the radar outage.
    b. MRU must immediately notify Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility of the radar outage affectingmission operations and implement established procedures per Letter of Agreement (LOA)
    c. MRU advises aircraft to squawk 1200 and contact ATC.

d.Both A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is a _____.
    a. IFR Airspace
    b. VFR Airspace
    c. Warning Area
    d. Hazardous Area
A
  1. Airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is a _____.
    a. IFR Airspace
    b. VFR Airspace

c.Warning Area

d.Hazardous Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. The term used over a voice-page hot line to alert a controlling agency that a spill out situation is imminent is_____.
    a. Handoff
    b. Point Out
    c. Whiskey Alert
    d. Transfer of Information
A
  1. The term used over a voice-page hot line to alert a controlling agency that a spill out situation is imminent is_____.
    a. Handoff
    b. Point Out

c.Whiskey Alert

d.Transfer of Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. When GCI/AWACS is used as a Tactical Monitor, responsibility for the ATC released airspace lies with themilitary ________ that scheduled and are flying within the SUA/ATCAA. These aircraft must comply with_________ for air traffic control purposes while in the SUA/ATCAA.
    a. Air traffic controller / limited maneuvering training rules
    b. Aircraft / Autonomous Operations
    c. Base or aircraft carrier / MARSA
    d. Radar unit / Due Regard
A
  1. When GCI/AWACS is used as a Tactical Monitor, responsibility for the ATC released airspace lies with themilitary ________ that scheduled and are flying within the SUA/ATCAA. These aircraft must comply with_________ for air traffic control purposes while in the SUA/ATCAA.
    a. Air traffic controller / limited maneuvering training rules

b.Aircraft / Autonomous Operations

c. Base or aircraft carrier / MARSA
d. Radar unit / Due Regard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Labeled groups whose separation is increasing or decreasing to the extent that will impact the briefed orplanned intercept flow/ targeting plan, while the aspect remains greater than or equal to a 12AA, can bedescribed using the terms:
    a. ECHLEON
    b. WEIGHTED
    c. OPENING or CLOSING
    d. PASSING or CROSSING
A
  1. Labeled groups whose separation is increasing or decreasing to the extent that will impact the briefed orplanned intercept flow/ targeting plan, while the aspect remains greater than or equal to a 12AA, can bedescribed using the terms:
    a. ECHLEON
    b. WEIGHTED

c.OPENING or CLOSING

d.PASSING or CROSSING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. A directive call to cease action, attack, event, or mission is _____.
    a. ABORT
    b. CANCEL
    c. RETREAT
    d. SKIP-IT
A

44.A directive call to cease action, attack, event, or mission is _____.

a.ABORT

b. CANCEL
c. RETREAT
d. SKIP-IT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. A directive call to initiate a briefed attack sequence or plan is _____.
    a. ABORT
    b. ACTION
    c. EXECUTE
    d. IN-PLACE
A
  1. A directive call to initiate a briefed attack sequence or plan is _____.
    a. ABORT

b.ACTION

c. EXECUTE
d. IN-PLACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. _____ [A/A] CONTACT(s) within a single GROUP that maneuvers outside of the GROUP criteria inside MELD range.
    a. LINE ABREAST
    b. BOGEY
    c. ARM
    d. QUAIL
A
  1. _____ [A/A] CONTACT(s) within a single GROUP that maneuvers outside of the GROUP criteria inside MELD range.
    a. LINE ABREAST
    b. BOGEY

c.ARM

d.QUAIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. _____ positively identified as an enemy IAW theater identification criteria; term does NOT necessarilyimply direction or authority to engage.
    a. CHICK
    b. BANDIT
    c. BOGEY
    d. UNFRIENDLY
A
  1. _____ positively identified as an enemy IAW theater identification criteria; term does NOT necessarilyimply direction or authority to engage.
    a. CHICK

b.BANDIT

c. BOGEY
d. UNFRIENDLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Execute/executing launch and decide tactics with the intent to maneuver into the visual arena is _____.
    a. BANZAI
    b. BOOMERANG
    c. BOZO
    d. BUSTER
A

48.Execute/executing launch and decide tactics with the intent to maneuver into the visual arena is _____.

a.BANZAI

b. BOOMERANG
c. BOZO
d. BUSTER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Brevity term that states system indicated is inoperative; cancelled by SWEET is _____.
    a. BENT
    b. BROKEN
    c. BUSTED
    d. SICK
A

49.Brevity term that states system indicated is inoperative; cancelled by SWEET is _____.

a.BENT

b. BROKEN
c. BUSTED
d. SICK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Which operational brevity term is a call that indicates aircraft will continue straight ahead at the merge and does NOT become ANCHORED with target(s)?
    a. BLOW THROUGH
    b. COME OFF
    c. CONTINUE
    d. EXTEND
A

50.Which operational brevity term is a call that indicates aircraft will continue straight ahead at the merge and does NOT become ANCHORED with target(s)?

a.BLOW THROUGH

b. COME OFF
c. CONTINUE
d. EXTEND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. The operational brevity word that indicates no visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft/ground position; opposite of VISUAL is _____.
    a. BLIND
    b. NAKED
    c. NO JOY
    d. TALLY
A

51.The operational brevity word that indicates no visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft/ground position; opposite of VISUAL is _____.

a.BLIND

b. NAKED
c. NO JOY
d. TALLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the operational brevity word BOGEY?
    a. A radar or visual air contact whose identity is enemy
    b. A radar or visual air contact whose identity is friendly
    c. A radar or visual air contact whose identity is unknown
    d. A radar or visual air contact whose identity is neutral
A
  1. Which of the following is true about the operational brevity word BOGEY?
    a. A radar or visual air contact whose identity is enemy
    b. A radar or visual air contact whose identity is friendly

c.A radar or visual air contact whose identity is unknown

d.A radar or visual air contact whose identity is neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

53.

_____ is a picture label describing four distinct groups with two in front and two in trail in asquare or offset square formation.

a. VIC
b. LADDER
c. WALL
d. BOX

A

53.

_____ is a picture label describing four distinct groups with two in front and two in trail in asquare or offset square formation.

a. VIC
b. LADDER
c. WALL

d.BOX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. The operational brevity word which means radar locked to a known friendly aircraft. Normally a response to a SPIKED or BUDDY SPIKE call is _____.
    a. BUDDY LOCK
    b. RAYGUN
    c. SPIKE
    d. STROBE
A

54.The operational brevity word which means radar locked to a known friendly aircraft. Normally a response to a SPIKED or BUDDY SPIKE call is _____.

a.BUDDY LOCK

b. RAYGUN
c. SPIKE
d. STROBE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. What is the definition of BUGOUT (with direction)?
    a. Emergency directive to egress for defensive or survival reasons
    b. Separation from that particular engagement/attack/operation; no intent to reengage/return
    c. Short term maneuver to gain energy, distance, or separation normally with the intent of reengaging
    d. Informative call from aircraft separated from the flight and unable to navigate to the briefed link-uppoint
A
  1. What is the definition of BUGOUT (with direction)?
    a. Emergency directive to egress for defensive or survival reasons

b.Separation from that particular engagement/attack/operation; no intent to reengage/return

c. Short term maneuver to gain energy, distance, or separation normally with the intent of reengaging
d. Informative call from aircraft separated from the flight and unable to navigate to the briefed link-uppoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. The operational brevity term _____ (position/altitude/heading) means friendly system radar lock-onindication on radar warning receiver (RWR).
    a. ANCHORED
    b. BUDDY SPIKE
    c. NAILS
    d. STROBES
A
  1. The operational brevity term _____ (position/altitude/heading) means friendly system radar lock-onindication on radar warning receiver (RWR).
    a. ANCHORED

b.BUDDY SPIKE

c. NAILS
d. STROBES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. The operational brevity term _____ is a request for confirmation of ownship position relative to BULLSEYE.
    a. ALPHA CHECK
    b. BULLSEYE CHECK
    c. TIMBER CHECK
    d. JACKAL CHECK
A
  1. The operational brevity term _____ is a request for confirmation of ownship position relative to BULLSEYE.
    a. ALPHA CHECK

b.BULLSEYE CHECK

c. TIMBER CHECK
d. JACKAL CHECK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. The operational brevity term CHAMPAGNE is a picture label describing which of the following?
    a. Three distinct groups with two in front and one behind.
    b. Three-ship inner group formation with two lead contacts line abreast and the single in trail.
    c. Three-ship inner group formation with a single contact in front and two trail contacts line abreast.
    d. Three distinct groups with a single group in front and two trail groups separated in azimu
A

58.The operational brevity term CHAMPAGNE is a picture label describing which of the following?

a.Three distinct groups with two in front and one behind.

b. Three-ship inner group formation with two lead contacts line abreast and the single in trail.
c. Three-ship inner group formation with a single contact in front and two trail contacts line abreast.
d. Three distinct groups with a single group in front and two trail groups separated in azimu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. The operational brevity term that describes an established reference point from which the position of an objectcan be referenced by bearing (Magnetic) and range (NM) from this point _____.
    a. ALPHA CHECK
    b. BULLSEYE
    c. BRAA
    d. SPOT
A
  1. The operational brevity term that describes an established reference point from which the position of an objectcan be referenced by bearing (Magnetic) and range (NM) from this point _____.
    a. ALPHA CHECK

b.BULLSEYE

c. BRAA
d. SPOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. _____ is an active missile data link terminated between high pulse repetition frequency (HPRF) and mediumpulse repetition frequency (MPRF) active.
    a. BANZAI
    b. CHEAPSHOT
    c. HUSKY
    d. BULL DOG
A
  1. _____ is an active missile data link terminated between high pulse repetition frequency (HPRF) and mediumpulse repetition frequency (MPRF) active.
    a. BANZAI

b.CHEAPSHOT

c. HUSKY
d. BULL DOG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. CHECK TIDS is a directive/descriptive call to reference a data link display and may be followed by amplifying information.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A

61.CHECK TIDS is a directive/descriptive call to reference a data link display and may be followed by amplifying information.

a.TRUE

b.FALSE

62
Q
  1. Operational brevity code word CLEAN means _____.
    a. Some sensor information on non-friendly aircraft of interest
    b. Visible battle damage
    c. Aircraft not carrying external stores
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Operational brevity code word CLEAN means _____.
    a. Some sensor information on non-friendly aircraft of interest
    b. Visible battle damage

c.Aircraft not carrying external stores

d.All of the above

63
Q
  1. Operational brevity code word CLEARED means _____.
    a. Wingman will ensure de-confliction from flight lead
    b. Requested action is not authorized
    c. Mutual support may be detached to fulfill briefed contracts
    d. Both A and C
A
  1. Operational brevity code word CLEARED means _____.
    a. Wingman will ensure de-confliction from flight lead
    b. Requested action is not authorized
    c. Mutual support may be detached to fulfill briefed contracts

d.Both A and C

64
Q
  1. What is the meaning of the operational brevity term CLEARED HOT?
    a. Target cleared to maneuver on target leg.
    b. Proceed with hot intercept geometry.
    c. Type I and Type II close air support terminal attack control clearance to release ordnance on this pass.
    d. Aircraft cleared to engage targets at pilot discretion.
A
  1. What is the meaning of the operational brevity term CLEARED HOT?
    a. Target cleared to maneuver on target leg.
    b. Proceed with hot intercept geometry.

c.Type I and Type II close air support terminal attack control clearance to release ordnance on this pass.

d.Aircraft cleared to engage targets at pilot discretion.

65
Q
  1. _____ is an uknown/nonfriendly aircraft producing contrails.
    a. CONS/CONNING
    b. MARKING
    c. COLOR
    d. CONFETTI
A

65._____ is an uknown/nonfriendly aircraft producing contrails.

a.CONS/CONNING

b. MARKING
c. COLOR
d. CONFETTI

66
Q
  1. What operational brevity term describes an F-Pole maneuver in the direction indicated; implies illuminating target at or near radar GIMBAL limits?
    a. ACTION
    b. CRANK (w/ direction)
    c. FADING
    d. PULLING (w/ direction)
A
  1. What operational brevity term describes an F-Pole maneuver in the direction indicated; implies illuminating target at or near radar GIMBAL limits?
    a. ACTION

b.CRANK (w/ direction)

c. FADING
d. PULLING (w/ direction)

67
Q
  1. _____ is a descriptive/directive call to initiate a turn in the CAP away from the anticipated threats.
    a. COMEBACK
    b. COLD
    c. CONTINUE
    d. HOT
A
  1. _____ is a descriptive/directive call to initiate a turn in the CAP away from the anticipated threats.
    a. COMEBACK

b.COLD

c. CONTINUE
d. HOT

68
Q
  1. _____ is a directive call to intercept the GROUP(s) of interest.
    a. COMMIT
    b. IN
    c. ENGAGED
    d. HOT
A

68._____ is a directive call to intercept the GROUP(s) of interest.

a.COMMIT

b. IN
c. ENGAGED
d. HOT

69
Q
  1. _____ is an inquiry as to the identification of specified track(s), target(s), or correlated GROUP is the definition of which operational brevity term? Full positional data must accompany declaration process.
    a. DECLARE
    b. ID
    c. INTERROGATE
    d. WHAT STATE
A

69._____ is an inquiry as to the identification of specified track(s), target(s), or correlated GROUP is the definition of which operational brevity term? Full positional data must accompany declaration process.

a.DECLARE

b. ID
c. INTERROGATE
d. WHAT STATE

70
Q
  1. A fill-in to a picture label describing GROUPs aligned behind and to the side of the closest GROUP describes _____?
    a. WEIGHTED
    b. WEDGE
    c. ECHELON
    d. SWEPT
A
  1. A fill-in to a picture label describing GROUPs aligned behind and to the side of the closest GROUP describes _____?
    a. WEIGHTED
    b. WEDGE

c.ECHELON

d.SWEPT

71
Q
  1. What is the definition of EXTEND/EXTENDING (with direction)?
    a. Emergency directive to egress for defensive or survival reasons
    b. Separation from that particular engagement/attack/operation; no intent to reengage/return
    c. Short term maneuver to gain energy, distance, or separation, with the intent of reengaging
    d. Informative call from aircraft separated from the flight and unable to navigate to the briefed link-uppoint
A
  1. What is the definition of EXTEND/EXTENDING (with direction)?
    a. Emergency directive to egress for defensive or survival reasons
    b. Separation from that particular engagement/attack/operation; no intent to reengage/return

c.Short term maneuver to gain energy, distance, or separation, with the intent of reengaging

d.Informative call from aircraft separated from the flight and unable to navigate to the briefed link-uppoint

72
Q
  1. _____ describes fighter with primary visual identification responsibility.
    a. BULL DOG
    b. EYEBALL
    c. SHOOTER
    d. SKOSH
A
  1. _____ describes fighter with primary visual identification responsibility.
    a. BULL DOG

b.EYEBALL

c. SHOOTER
d. SKOSH

73
Q
  1. The operational brevity term which describes a CONTACT aspect stabilized at 120-150 degree angle from the tail or 30-60 degree angle from the nose is _____.
    a. CRANK (w/ direction)
    b. DRAG (w/ cardinal direction)
    c. FLANK (w/ direction)
    d. NOTCH (ING) (w/ direction)
A
  1. The operational brevity term which describes a CONTACT aspect stabilized at 120-150 degree angle from the tail or 30-60 degree angle from the nose is _____.
    a. CRANK (w/ direction)
    b. DRAG (w/ cardinal direction)

c.FLANK (w/ direction)

d.NOTCH (ING) (w/ direction)

74
Q
  1. Expand/expanding the formation laterally within visual limits to maintain radar contact or prepare for adefensive response is _____.
    a. EXTEND(ING)
    b. FLOAT(ING)
    c. SPLIT
    d. STRIP
A
  1. Expand/expanding the formation laterally within visual limits to maintain radar contact or prepare for adefensive response is _____.
    a. EXTEND(ING)

b.FLOAT(ING)

c. SPLIT
d. STRIP

75
Q
  1. The operational brevity word FOX (THREE) signifies _____.
    a. Simulated or actual launch of a laser-guided missile.
    b. Simulated or actual launch of an infrared-guided missile.
    c. Simulated or actual launch of an active radar-guided missile.
    d. Simulated or actual launch of a semi-active radar-guided missile.
A
  1. The operational brevity word FOX (THREE) signifies _____.
    a. Simulated or actual launch of a laser-guided missile.
    b. Simulated or actual launch of an infrared-guided missile.

c.Simulated or actual launch of an active radar-guided missile.

d.Simulated or actual launch of a semi-active radar-guided missile.

76
Q
  1. _____ is an operational brevity term indicating sensor target is approaching azimuth or elevation limits.
    a. GIMBAL (w/BRAA)
    b. JINK (w/direction)
    c. MARKING (w/altitude)
    d. POSIT (w/BRAA)
A

76._____ is an operational brevity term indicating sensor target is approaching azimuth or elevation limits.

a.GIMBAL (w/BRAA)

b. JINK (w/direction)
c. MARKING (w/altitude)
d. POSIT (w/BRAA)

77
Q
  1. FURBALL will be transmitted when non-friendly aircraft and friendly aircraft are in close proximity to each other.Can be response to a DECLARE request.
    a. True
    b. False
A

77.FURBALL will be transmitted when non-friendly aircraft and friendly aircraft are in close proximity to each other.Can be response to a DECLARE request.

a.True

b.False

78
Q
  1. The operational brevity code word that means a GROUP is known to contain three or more CONTACTs is _____.
    a. GREYHOUND
    b. HEAVY
    c. HOSTILE
    d. HOT DOG
A
  1. The operational brevity code word that means a GROUP is known to contain three or more CONTACTs is _____.
    a. GREYHOUND

b.HEAVY

c. HOSTILE
d. HOT DOG

79
Q
  1. The operational brevity term GROUP means any number of air CONTACTs within _____ nm in azimuth or range of each other.
    a. 3
    b. 5
    c. 7
    d. Any of the above
A

79.The operational brevity term GROUP means any number of air CONTACTs within _____ nm in azimuth or range of each other.

a.3

b. 5
c. 7
d. Any of the above

80
Q
  1. _____ is momentary radar return(s), indicates approximate target altitude, and weapons impact within lethaldistance.
    a. SPADES
    b. BANDIT
    c. JACKAL
    d. HITS
A
  1. _____ is momentary radar return(s), indicates approximate target altitude, and weapons impact within lethaldistance.
    a. SPADES
    b. BANDIT
    c. JACKAL

d.HITS

81
Q
  1. _____ is a contact identified as enemy upon which clearance to fire is authorized in accordance with theaterrules of engagement.
    a. BANDIT
    b. TIGER
    c. VAMPIRE
    d. HOSTILE
A
  1. _____ is a contact identified as enemy upon which clearance to fire is authorized in accordance with theaterrules of engagement.
    a. BANDIT
    b. TIGER
    c. VAMPIRE

d.HOSTILE

82
Q
  1. The operational brevity term to verify specified element(s) of ROE, PID, CDE and/or coordination of forceson the referenced target/track is _______?
    a. SMACK
    b. IDENTIFY
    c. PRINT
    d. INVESTIGATE
A
  1. The operational brevity term to verify specified element(s) of ROE, PID, CDE and/or coordination of forceson the referenced target/track is _______?
    a. SMACK
    b. IDENTIFY
    c. PRINT

d.INVESTIGATE

83
Q
  1. Which of the following operational brevity words indicates a fuel state above BINGO at whichseparation/bugout/event termination should begin?
    a. BUSTER
    b. JOKER
    c. MILLERTIME
    d. TIGER
A
  1. Which of the following operational brevity words indicates a fuel state above BINGO at whichseparation/bugout/event termination should begin?
    a. BUSTER

b.JOKER

c. MILLERTIME
d. TIGER

84
Q
  1. A picture label with three or more GROUPs on the same azimuth but separated by range describes a _____.
    a. CHAIN
    b. CONFETTI
    c. LADDER
    d. WALL
A
  1. A picture label with three or more GROUPs on the same azimuth but separated by range describes a _____.
    a. CHAIN
    b. CONFETTI

c.LADDER

d.WALL

85
Q
  1. ______ is an inner GROUP formation of two CONTACTs separated in range.
    a. LINE ABREAST
    b. STINGER
    c. WEDGE
    d. LEAD-TRAIL
A
  1. ______ is an inner GROUP formation of two CONTACTs separated in range.
    a. LINE ABREAST
    b. STINGER
    c. WEDGE

d.LEAD-TRAIL

86
Q

86.

______ describes an airborne threat has passed through a defensive layer. Call should include amplifyinginformation.

a. LEAKER(S)
b. GOPHER(S)
c. FLASH
d. COVER

A

86.

______ describes an airborne threat has passed through a defensive layer. Call should include amplifyinginformation.

a.LEAKER(S)

b. GOPHER(S)
c. FLASH
d. COVER

87
Q
  1. LOST CONTACT is described as _____.
    a. Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, and target in sight
    b. Previous contact lost; provide target information.
    c. Lost radar contact with wingman
    d. Sensor information on enemy contact is lost.
A
  1. LOST CONTACT is described as _____.
    a. Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, and target in sight

b.Previous contact lost; provide target information.

c. Lost radar contact with wingman
d. Sensor information on enemy contact is lost.

88
Q
  1. _____ is a call that friendlies and targets have arrived in the visual arena. Call indicating radar returns havecome together.
    a. CLOSE/CLOSING
    b. MERGE/MERGED
    c. SHADOW
    d. TALLY
A
  1. _____ is a call that friendlies and targets have arrived in the visual arena. Call indicating radar returns havecome together.
    a. CLOSE/CLOSING

b.MERGE/MERGED

c. SHADOW
d. TALLY

89
Q
  1. _____ is an informative call indicating completion of air-to-ground ordnance delivery. Generally used by thelast striker in conjunction with a pre-coordinated egress plan.
    a. Off Target
    b. Miller Time
    c. Bud Weiser
    d. Trespass
A
  1. _____ is an informative call indicating completion of air-to-ground ordnance delivery. Generally used by thelast striker in conjunction with a pre-coordinated egress plan.
    a. Off Target

b.Miller Time

c. Bud Weiser
d. Trespass

90
Q
  1. _____ is no Radar Warning Receiver indications.
    a. CLEAN
    b. NAKED
    c. STOP
    d. MUSIC
A
  1. _____ is no Radar Warning Receiver indications.
    a. CLEAN

b.NAKED

c. STOP
d. MUSIC

91
Q
  1. The operational brevity word MUSIC means _____.
    a. Air intercept [AI] radar indications of noise jamming
    b. Electronic communications jamming of air interceptor frequencies
    c. Air interceptor [AI] radar indications of the presence of a chaff corridor
    d. Radar electronic deceptive jamming
A
  1. The operational brevity word MUSIC means _____.
    a. Air intercept [AI] radar indications of noise jamming
    b. Electronic communications jamming of air interceptor frequencies
    c. Air interceptor [AI] radar indications of the presence of a chaff corridor

d.Radar electronic deceptive jamming

92
Q
  1. Aircraft is in a defensive position and maneuver(ing) with reference to a threat is _____.
    a. CRANK (ING) (w/ direction)
    b. FLANK
    c. NOTCH (ING) (w/ direction)
    d. OFFSET
A
  1. Aircraft is in a defensive position and maneuver(ing) with reference to a threat is _____.
    a. CRANK (ING) (w/ direction)
    b. FLANK

c.NOTCH (ING) (w/ direction)

d.OFFSET

93
Q
  1. _____ is an directive call indicating a turn to a cold aspect relative to the known threat; used in launch andleave tactics and for all flight members to execute.
    a. OUT (w/direction)
    b. IN (w/direction)
    c. PRESS
    d. PUSHING
A

93._____ is an directive call indicating a turn to a cold aspect relative to the known threat; used in launch andleave tactics and for all flight members to execute.

a.OUT (w/direction)

b. IN (w/direction)
c. PRESS
d. PUSHING

94
Q
  1. _____ is a call that a CONTACT has met point of origin criteria for rules of engagement.
    a. BANDIT
    b. OUTLAW
    c. SPADES
    d. FRIENDLY
A
  1. _____ is a call that a CONTACT has met point of origin criteria for rules of engagement.
    a. BANDIT

b.OUTLAW

c. SPADES
d. FRIENDLY

95
Q
  1. PADLOCKED is an informative call indicating _____.
    a. An enemy aircraft has acquired an infrared lock on friendly aircraft
    b. An enemy (or friendly) is positioned between two friendlies (or enemies)
    c. Aircrew has locked IR-guided munitions onto the position indicated by Forward Air Controller
    d. Aircrew cannot take eyes off an aircraft, ground target, or surface position without risk of losing tally/visual
A
  1. PADLOCKED is an informative call indicating _____.
    a. An enemy aircraft has acquired an infrared lock on friendly aircraft
    b. An enemy (or friendly) is positioned between two friendlies (or enemies)
    c. Aircrew has locked IR-guided munitions onto the position indicated by Forward Air Controller

d.Aircrew cannot take eyes off an aircraft, ground target, or surface position without risk of losing tally/visual

96
Q
  1. The operational brevity term PAINT(S) indicates _____.
    a. Directive or informative call indicating illumination of target is being conducted with artificialillumination.
    b. Informative call that friendlies and targets have arrived in the same visual arena. Call indicating radarreturns have come together.
    c. An interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF/SIF modes andcorrect codes established for the identification criteria.
    d. An interrogated bogey group/radar contact which lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) IFF/SIF modesand codes required for the identification criteria.
A
  1. The operational brevity term PAINT(S) indicates _____.
    a. Directive or informative call indicating illumination of target is being conducted with artificialillumination.
    b. Informative call that friendlies and targets have arrived in the same visual arena. Call indicating radarreturns have come together.

c.An interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF/SIF modes andcorrect codes established for the identification criteria.

d.An interrogated bogey group/radar contact which lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) IFF/SIF modesand codes required for the identification criteria.

97
Q
  1. The definition of _____ is a request to provide air information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseyeformat unless briefed otherwise.
    a. NEWS-FLASH
    b. PICTURE
    c. SNAPSHOT
    d. THREAT CALL
A
  1. The definition of _____ is a request to provide air information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseyeformat unless briefed otherwise.
    a. NEWS-FLASH

b.PICTURE

c. SNAPSHOT
d. THREAT CALL

98
Q
  1. The informative call that an AIM-120 is at MPRF active range is _____.
    a. BULLDOG
    b. HUSKY
    c. CHEAPSHOT
    d. PITBULL
A
  1. The informative call that an AIM-120 is at MPRF active range is _____.
    a. BULLDOG
    b. HUSKY
    c. CHEAPSHOT

d.PITBULL

99
Q
  1. _____ is the amount of time aircraft can remain on-station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g. ONE PLUSTHIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes).
    a. JOKER
    b. PLAYTIME
    c. BINGO
    d. CLEAN
A
  1. _____ is the amount of time aircraft can remain on-station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g. ONE PLUSTHIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes).
    a. JOKER

b.PLAYTIME

c. BINGO
d. CLEAN

100
Q
  1. _____ is an informative call of a GROUP that has suddenly appeared inside of MELD range.
    a. FURBALL
    b. BOGEY
    c. OUTLAW
    d. POP-UP
A
  1. _____ is an informative call of a GROUP that has suddenly appeared inside of MELD range.
    a. FURBALL
    b. BOGEY
    c. OUTLAW

d.POP-UP

101
Q
  1. _____ is a request for friendly position; response in terms of a geographic landmark or from a common reference point.
    a. BUDDY LOCK
    b. POSIT
    c. PIGEONS
    d. HITS
A
  1. _____ is a request for friendly position; response in terms of a geographic landmark or from a common reference point.
    a. BUDDY LOCK

b.POSIT

c. PIGEONS
d. HITS

102
Q
  1. _____ (type) indicates a valid non-cooperative target recognition (NCTR) reply.
    a. ECHO
    b. FLASH
    c. PRINT
    d. SNIPER
A
  1. _____ (type) indicates a valid non-cooperative target recognition (NCTR) reply.
    a. ECHO
    b. FLASH

c.PRINT

d.SNIPER

103
Q
  1. ______ is a briefed maneuver to minimize closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to re-engage.
    a. PUMP
    b. MANEUVER
    c. HOOK
    d. COMEBACK
A
  1. ______ is a briefed maneuver to minimize closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to re-engage.

a.PUMP

b. MANEUVER
c. HOOK
d. COMEBACK

104
Q
  1. Which operational brevity word indicates a radar lock-on to unknown aircraft; a request for a BUDDY SPIKE reply from friendly aircraft meeting these parameters?
    a. RAYGUN (position/heading/altitude)
    b. SPIKE (w/ direction)
    c. STROBE
    d. VISUAL
A
  1. Which operational brevity word indicates a radar lock-on to unknown aircraft; a request for a BUDDY SPIKE reply from friendly aircraft meeting these parameters?

a.RAYGUN (position/heading/altitude)

b. SPIKE (w/ direction)
c. STROBE
d. VISUAL

105
Q
  1. A BOGEY that is complying with ACO/safe passage procedures defines the term _____.
    a. CHICK
    b. HOTDOG
    c. RIDER
    d. SKUNK
A
  1. A BOGEY that is complying with ACO/safe passage procedures defines the term _____.
    a. CHICK
    b. HOTDOG

c.RIDER

d.SKUNK

106
Q
  1. The brevity term ROLEX (+/- Time) is a timeline adjustment in minutes; always referenced from original pre-planned mission execution time; plus means later; minus means earlier.
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. The brevity term ROLEX (+/- Time) is a timeline adjustment in minutes; always referenced from original pre-planned mission execution time; plus means later; minus means earlier.

a.True

b.False

107
Q
  1. _____ is to fly at best endurance.
    a. PRESS
    b. OFFSET
    c. SAUNTER
    d. SADDLED
A
  1. _____ is to fly at best endurance.
    a. PRESS
    b. OFFSET

c.SAUNTER

d.SADDLED

108
Q
  1. What operational brevity word indicates a veto of a fighter COMMIT, usually followed by further directions?
    a. BREAK
    b. SKIP IT
    c. TERMINATE
    d. KNOCK IT OFF
A
  1. What operational brevity word indicates a veto of a fighter COMMIT, usually followed by further directions?
    a. BREAK

b.SKIP IT

c. TERMINATE
d. KNOCK IT OFF

109
Q
  1. Skate is an informative or directive call to execute launch and decide tactics and be OUT no later than desired out range (DOR).
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. Skate is an informative or directive call to execute launch and decide tactics and be OUT no later than desired out range (DOR).
    a. True

b.False

110
Q
  1. _____ is when an aircraft is out of or unable to employ active radar missiles.
    a. BENT
    b. SOUR
    c. SKOSH
    d. CLEAN
A
  1. _____ is when an aircraft is out of or unable to employ active radar missiles.
    a. BENT
    b. SOUR

c.SKOSH

d.CLEAN

111
Q
  1. _____ is an invalid/no response to an administrative IFF/SIF check.
    a. SICK
    b. SOUR
    c. BENT
    d. CLEAN
A
  1. _____ is an invalid/no response to an administrative IFF/SIF check.
    a. SICK

b.SOUR

c. BENT
d. CLEAN

112
Q
  1. _____ means clearance to employ ordnance/fires on surface target coordinates. ROE, PID, CDE, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Not to be utilized in a close air support engagement.
    a. INVESTIGATE
    b. TARGET
    c. SMACK
    d. INTERROGATE
A
  1. _____ means clearance to employ ordnance/fires on surface target coordinates. ROE, PID, CDE, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Not to be utilized in a close air support engagement.
    a. INVESTIGATE
    b. TARGET

c.SMACK

d.INTERROGATE

113
Q
  1. SNAP is a fighter request for immediate BRAA call (with appropriate fill-ins) to the group described; indicatesfighter intent to intercept/join.
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. SNAP is a fighter request for immediate BRAA call (with appropriate fill-ins) to the group described; indicatesfighter intent to intercept/join.

a.True

b.False

114
Q
  1. The operational brevity term that is a directive call to assign responsibility within a GROUP; criteria can be met visually, electronically (radar) or both is _____.
    a. LOCK
    b. MARK
    c. SORT
    d. TRACK
A
  1. The operational brevity term that is a directive call to assign responsibility within a GROUP; criteria can be met visually, electronically (radar) or both is _____.
    a. LOCK
    b. MARK

c.SORT

d.TRACK

115
Q
  1. _____ is a call to execute/executing a timing/spacing maneuver.
    a. SPIN
    b. FLOAT
    c. PRESS
    d. STERN
A
  1. _____ is a call to execute/executing a timing/spacing maneuver.

a.SPIN

b. FLOAT
c. PRESS
d. STERN

116
Q
  1. What is the meaning of the operational brevity word SPLASH(ED)?
    a. Successful water landing
    b. (Air-to-air) Target destroyed
    c. (Air-to-surface) Weapons impact
    d. Both B and C
A
  1. What is the meaning of the operational brevity word SPLASH(ED)?
    a. Successful water landing
    b. (Air-to-air) Target destroyed
    c. (Air-to-surface) Weapons impact

d.Both B and C

117
Q
  1. The meaning of the operational brevity term SPADES is an interrogated group/radar contact that _____.
    a. Lacks a valid Mode 4 only
    b. Responds with a valid System M/Mode X reply
    c. Responds with an ATO (or equivalent) IFF/SIF mode or code required for the identification criteria.
    d. Lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) IFF/SIF modes and codes required for the identification criteria
A
  1. The meaning of the operational brevity term SPADES is an interrogated group/radar contact that _____.
    a. Lacks a valid Mode 4 only
    b. Responds with a valid System M/Mode X reply
    c. Responds with an ATO (or equivalent) IFF/SIF mode or code required for the identification criteria.

d.Lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) IFF/SIF modes and codes required for the identification criteria

118
Q
  1. The operational brevity term defined as RWR indication of an AI threat in track or launch is _____.
    a. NAILS (w/ direction)
    b. PAINT
    c. SNIFF
    d. SPIKE (w/ direction)
A
  1. The operational brevity term defined as RWR indication of an AI threat in track or launch is _____.
    a. NAILS (w/ direction)
    b. PAINT
    c. SNIFF

d.SPIKE (w/ direction)

119
Q
  1. The operational brevity term for radar indication(s) of noise jamming is _____.
    a. MUSIC
    b. SPARKLE
    c. SPOOFING
    d. STROBE (w/ bearing)
A
  1. The operational brevity term for radar indication(s) of noise jamming is _____.
    a. MUSIC
    b. SPARKLE
    c. SPOOFING

d.STROBE (w/ bearing)

120
Q
  1. The operational brevity word STINGER is _____.
    a. Any armed, Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)
    b. A three-ship inner group formation with two lead contacts line abreast and a single in trail
    c. A multi-group formation of three groups with two lead groups in front and one behind from a God’seye view
    d. A three-ship inner group formation with a single contact closest in range and two trail contacts lineabreast
A
  1. The operational brevity word STINGER is _____.
    a. Any armed, Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)

b.A three-ship inner group formation with two lead contacts line abreast and a single in trail

c. A multi-group formation of three groups with two lead groups in front and one behind from a God’seye view
d. A three-ship inner group formation with a single contact closest in range and two trail contacts lineabreast

121
Q
  1. _____ is an unidentified traffic that is NOT a participant in the action in progress.
    a. HOSTILE
    b. GROUP
    c. FRIENDLY
    d. STRANGER
A
  1. _____ is an unidentified traffic that is NOT a participant in the action in progress.
    a. HOSTILE
    b. GROUP
    c. FRIENDLY

d.STRANGER

122
Q
  1. _____ is a request for an individual’s tactical situation.
    a. POSIT
    b. MONITOR
    c. PICTURE
    d. STATUS
A
  1. _____ is a request for an individual’s tactical situation.
    a. POSIT
    b. MONITOR
    c. PICTURE

d.STATUS

123
Q
  1. SWEPT is an inner GROUP formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader.
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
A
  1. SWEPT is an inner GROUP formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader.

a.TRUE

b.FALSE

124
Q
  1. The operational brevity word which means the sighting of a target, nonfriendly aircraft, or enemy position; opposite of NO JOY is _____.
    a. CONTACT
    b. PADLOCK
    c. TALLY
    d. VISUAL
A
  1. The operational brevity word which means the sighting of a target, nonfriendly aircraft, or enemy position; opposite of NO JOY is _____.
    a. CONTACT
    b. PADLOCK

c.TALLY

d.VISUAL

125
Q
  1. ______ is an informative call missile has been defeated.
    a. SMASH
    b. HUSKY
    c. CHEAPSHOT
    d. TRASHED
A
  1. ______ is an informative call missile has been defeated.
    a. SMASH
    b. HUSKY
    c. CHEAPSHOT

d.TRASHED

126
Q
  1. ______ is when an untargeted HOSTILE/BANDIT/BOGEY is within a briefed range of a friendly aircraft.
    a. POP-UP (w/direction)
    b. OUTLAW
    c. THREAT (w/direction)
    d. STRANGER
A
  1. ______ is when an untargeted HOSTILE/BANDIT/BOGEY is within a briefed range of a friendly aircraft.
    a. POP-UP (w/direction)
    b. OUTLAW

c.THREAT (w/direction)

d.STRANGER

127
Q
  1. The range at which an aircraft can execute an MDS-specific standard abort maneuver and initially kinematically defeat any missiles and momentarily remain outside an adversary’s WEZ.
    a. Minimum Abort Range (MAR)
    b. Decision Range (DR)
    c. Minimum Target Range (MTR)
    d. Minimum Out Range (MOR)
A
  1. The range at which an aircraft can execute an MDS-specific standard abort maneuver and initially kinematically defeat any missiles and momentarily remain outside an adversary’s WEZ.

a.Minimum Abort Range (MAR)

b. Decision Range (DR)
c. Minimum Target Range (MTR)
d. Minimum Out Range (MOR)

128
Q
  1. The maximum distance from the leading edge of a targeted group that a flight member must target. Beyond this range, C2 owns targeting responsibility.
    a. Shot Depth (SD)
    b. Mission effectiveness
    c. Sort
    d. Targeting Depth (TD)
A
  1. The maximum distance from the leading edge of a targeted group that a flight member must target. Beyond this range, C2 owns targeting responsibility.
    a. Shot Depth (SD)
    b. Mission effectiveness
    c. Sort

d.Targeting Depth (TD)

129
Q
  1. The range behind the closest bandit group within which trailing groups will be shot.
    a. Lethality
    b. Desired Out Range (DOR)
    c. Targeting Depth (TD)
    d. Shot Depth (SD)
A
  1. The range behind the closest bandit group within which trailing groups will be shot.
    a. Lethality
    b. Desired Out Range (DOR)
    c. Targeting Depth (TD)

d.Shot Depth (SD)

130
Q
  1. A Counter rotating CAP describes a CAP with multiple elements that coordinate their individual hot and cold legs so one element is always oriented towards the threat axis.
    a. True
    b. False
A
  1. A Counter rotating CAP describes a CAP with multiple elements that coordinate their individual hot and cold legs so one element is always oriented towards the threat axis.

a.True

b.False

131
Q
  1. Which of the following are appropriate responses to “DECLARE”?
    a. HOSTILE
    b. FRIENDLY
    c. BOGEY
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Which of the following are appropriate responses to “DECLARE”?
    a. HOSTILE
    b. FRIENDLY
    c. BOGEY

d.All of the above

132
Q
  1. Roll call is initiated by _____ after words changes, package status, Rolex, weather plan, key mission enablers, and LOWDOWN are passed. The roll call order should be briefed during mission planning. ____ will poll any flights that do not answer the roll call.
    a. TAC C2/C2
    b. Mission Commander/ops supervisor
    c. SEAD package lead/C2
    d. OCA package lead/ops supervisor
    d. OCA package lead/ops supervisor
A
  1. Roll call is initiated by _____ after words changes, package status, Rolex, weather plan, key mission enablers, and LOWDOWN are passed. The roll call order should be briefed during mission planning. ____ will poll any flights that do not answer the roll call.

a.TAC C2/C2

b. Mission Commander/ops supervisor
c. SEAD package lead/C2
d. OCA package lead/ops supervisor

133
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT criteria for Picture Labeling?
    a. Fighters committing (DCA) /pushing (OCA)
    b. Bogey/bandits/hostiles are on a steady heading (greater than 12 Aspect Angle (AA) or +/- 60 degrees

of the threat axis), and (i.e., they are “committed”)

c. Formation is determinable and labeling a picture will help build S/A.
d. Groups are within threat range as determined by anticipated missile threat.

A
  1. Which of the following is NOT criteria for Picture Labeling?
    a. Fighters committing (DCA) /pushing (OCA)
    b. Bogey/bandits/hostiles are on a steady heading (greater than 12 Aspect Angle (AA) or +/- 60 degrees

of the threat axis), and (i.e., they are “committed”)

c.Formation is determinable and labeling a picture will help build S/A.

d.Groups are within threat range as determined by anticipated missile threat.

134
Q
  1. Which of the following is a term used as a fill-in for a CHAMPAGNE, VIC, WALL, or LADDER when one or more GROUPs are out of position or offset from the standard picture label?
    a. WEIGHTED
    b. ECHELON
    c. VECTOR
    d. TUMBLEWEED
A
  1. Which of the following is a term used as a fill-in for a CHAMPAGNE, VIC, WALL, or LADDER when one or more GROUPs are out of position or offset from the standard picture label?

a.WEIGHTED

b. ECHELON
c. VECTOR
d. TUMBLEWEED

135
Q
  1. _____ defines two or more CONTACTs within GROUP criteria with an altitude seperation in relation to each other.
    a. HIGH-LOW
    b. STACK
    c. SPLIT
    d. SKINNY
A
  1. _____ defines two or more CONTACTs within GROUP criteria with an altitude seperation in relation to each other.
    a. HIGH-LOW

b.STACK

c. SPLIT
d. SKINNY

136
Q
  1. Command and Control (C2) will respond to STROBE calls with the following information.
    a. Range
    b. Bullseye location, altitude, and ID
    c. GROUP label (if applicable) to the closest group along that azimuth
    d. All of the above
A
  1. Command and Control (C2) will respond to STROBE calls with the following information.
    a. Range
    b. Bullseye location, altitude, and ID
    c. GROUP label (if applicable) to the closest group along that azimuth

d.All of the above

137
Q
  1. MUSIC calls will be answered with the following information.
    a. Bullseye location with altitude and ID
    b. Number of contacts in that group (if able)
    c. Any detected maneuvers and track direction
    d. All of the above
A
  1. MUSIC calls will be answered with the following information.
    a. Bullseye location with altitude and ID
    b. Number of contacts in that group (if able)
    c. Any detected maneuvers and track direction

d.All of the above

138
Q
  1. ____________ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking

aircraft.

a. Terminal Attack Control
b. Close Control
c. Broadcast Control
d. Procedural Control

A
  1. ____________ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking

aircraft.

a.Terminal Attack Control

b. Close Control
c. Broadcast Control
d. Procedural Control

139
Q

139 . The type of CAS where the JTAC is UNABLE to visually acquire the aircraft or target; UNABLE to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release; attacking aircraft is UNABLE to acquire the mark/target prior to weapons release is ________?

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

139 . The type of CAS where the JTAC is UNABLE to visually acquire the aircraft or target; UNABLE to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release; attacking aircraft is UNABLE to acquire the mark/target prior to weapons release is ________?

a. Type I
b. Type II

c.Type III

d.Type IV

140
Q
  1. What are the mandatory read back items in a CAS 9-Line?
    a. Lines 1, 2, and 4
    b. Lines 4, 6, and restrictions
    c. Lines 7, 8, and 9
    d. All lines must be passed
A
  1. What are the mandatory read back items in a CAS 9-Line?
    a. Lines 1, 2, and 4

b.Lines 4, 6, and restrictions

c. Lines 7, 8, and 9
d. All lines must be passed

141
Q
  1. An example of an inertially aided munition that is accurate (near precision), all weather, INS/GPS guided and

used against stationary targets is the _______.

a. AGM-114 Hellfire
b. Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM)
c. AGM-65 Maverick
d. GBU-24 Paveway III

A
  1. An example of an inertially aided munition that is accurate (near precision), all weather, INS/GPS guided and

used against stationary targets is the _______.

a.AGM-114 Hellfire

b.Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM)

c. AGM-65 Maverick
d. GBU-24 Paveway III

142
Q
  1. ________ is a low level, laser guided, and maneuverable 2000lbs free fall weapon that can be launched without

laser signal acquisition.

a. GBU-24 Paveway III
b. GBU-32 (v2) JDAM
c. AGM-88 HARM
d. AGM-154 JSOW

A
  1. ________ is a low level, laser guided, and maneuverable 2000lbs free fall weapon that can be launched without

laser signal acquisition.

a.GBU-24 Paveway III

b. GBU-32 (v2) JDAM
c. AGM-88 HARM
d. AGM-154 JSOW

143
Q
  1. For individuals that are BMC qualified, failure of the written examination results in _______ placement and requires a reexamination.
    a. NBMC
    b. BMC
    c. CMR
    d. Qualified
A
  1. For individuals that are BMC qualified, failure of the written examination results in _______ placement and requires a reexamination.

a.NBMC

b. BMC
c. CMR
d. Qualified

144
Q
  1. What methods are used to determine the examinee’s level of job knowledge and proficiency for BQ ?
    a. Academic testing
    b. Positional evaluation
    c. Instructor ability
    d. Both a. and b.
A
  1. What methods are used to determine the examinee’s level of job knowledge and proficiency for BQ ?
    a. Academic testing
    b. Positional evaluation
    c. Instructor ability

d.Both a. and b.

145
Q
  1. Qualification evaluations expire on the last day of the _____ month following the successful completion of the IQE, reevaluation, or RQE.
    a. 8th
    b. 12th
    c. 14th
    d. 17th
A
  1. Qualification evaluations expire on the last day of the _____ month following the successful completion of the IQE, reevaluation, or RQE.
    a. 8th
    b. 12th
    c. 14th

d.17th

146
Q
  1. The evaluation eligibility period is the ____ months prior to the evaluation due date.
    a. two
    b. three
    c. four
    d. six
A
  1. The evaluation eligibility period is the ____ months prior to the evaluation due date.
    a. two

b.three

c. four
d. six

147
Q
  1. The written examination and positional evaluation may be given in any order. Both portions of the evaluation must be completed within ___ days (___ UTAs) after completion of the first positional event.
    a. 10 / 1
    b. 20 / 2
    c. 30 / 2
    d. 30 / 3
A
  1. The written examination and positional evaluation may be given in any order. Both portions of the evaluation must be completed within ___ days (___ UTAs) after completion of the first positional event.
    a. 10 / 1
    b. 20 / 2

c.30 / 2

d.30 / 3

148
Q
  1. The _________ is the organization’s functional publications library for operations-related publications. It maintains information essential to the conduct of operations and/or emergency conditions.
    a. Operations Information File (OIF)
    b. Battle Management File (BMF)
    c. AFTTP 3-1.1
    d. None of the above
A
  1. The _________ is the organization’s functional publications library for operations-related publications. It maintains information essential to the conduct of operations and/or emergency conditions.

a.Operations Information File (OIF)

b. Battle Management File (BMF)
c. AFTTP 3-1.1
d. None of the above

149
Q
  1. Lookback is a periodic (3-month) sliding window management tool used to monitor crewmember currency. A qualified EXPERIENCED ABM/WD/WT is required to complete ____ events within that specified time period.
    a. 3
    b. 4
    c. 6
    d. 7
A
  1. Lookback is a periodic (3-month) sliding window management tool used to monitor crewmember currency. A qualified EXPERIENCED ABM/WD/WT is required to complete ____ events within that specified time period.

a.3

b. 4
c. 6
d. 7

150
Q
  1. Lookback is a periodic (3-month) sliding window management tool used to monitor crewmember currency. An instructor may credit ___ mission for every ___ student missions for which they were the primary instructor.
    a. .5/2
    b. 1/1
    c. 1/2
    d. 2/1
A
  1. Lookback is a periodic (3-month) sliding window management tool used to monitor crewmember currency. An instructor may credit ___ mission for every ___ student missions for which they were the primary instructor.
    a. .5/2
    b. 1/1

c.1/2

d.2/1

151
Q
  1. What form is used to document academic platform instructor qualification ?
    a. AF IMT 4143
    b. AF Form 8
    c. AETC Form 281
    d. AF IMT 4142
A
  1. What form is used to document academic platform instructor qualification ?
    a. AF IMT 4143
    b. AF Form 8

c.AETC Form 281

d.AF IMT 4142

CRC EVAL MQF (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions