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ABH RATE > CRASH AND SALVAGE > Flashcards

CRASH AND SALVAGE Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

How many Halon 1211 (20-lb) portable fire extinguishers are mounted on the right side of the P-25 MFFV

A

THREE

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3
Q

Within the CVN, LHD, and LHA damage control organization are how many repair teams are there in the air department?

A

Three repair teams

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4
Q

Who is responsible for aircraft firefighting, salvage jettison, and personnel rescue?

A

AIR BOSS

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5
Q

What is responsible for coordination of all aircraft movement on the flight/hanger decks during aircraft crash and fire evolutions and insurer communication between the scene leader and primary flight control (PRIFLY)?

A

Aircraft Handling Officer (ACHO)

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6
Q

Who is responsible for organizing, supervising and training the crash, salvage, and rescue team (both fly and hanger deck) and maintaining and operating assigned equipment on the flight deck?

A

AIR BOATSWAIN

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7
Q

Who is a trained individual in the vicinity of an incident who understands the requirements of the emergency and excepts responsibility for directing all available firefighting assets at the scene

A

Scene leader

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8
Q

AFFF hoses shall be deployed to the scene using maximum personnel participation when in place a hose team shall consist of one AFFF hose with a minimum of how many persons?

A

5 persons

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9
Q

In each hangar bay PFFPEs shall be available for a minimum of how many SCBA-equipped hotsuit men?

A

2 hot suit men

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10
Q

1 1/2 inch AFFF hose reels and variable pattern nozzles are specifically designed and installed for rapid deployment by how many people?

A

One person on rapid deployment

3 to 5 on the hose

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11
Q

Who shall supervise the activation of appropriate zones of the hanger sprinkling system for any multi aircraft fire or with a spill fire is judged to be beyond the capability of the initial host team?

A

HANGAR DECK OFFICER (HDO)

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12
Q

Jettison of aircraft may only be authorized by who?

A

Commanding Officer (CO)

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13
Q

A minimum of how many CONFLAG stations in each hanger bay shall be manned and during all ordnance loading/offloading evolutions?

A

One station

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14
Q

CVN flight deck’s have an AFFF firefighting system consisting of flush-deck and deck-edge nozzles installed in combination with the saltwater washdown system. AFFF from the concentrate tank is injected into the saltwater (the injection point is on the 03 level just downstream of the salt water control valve) via a position displacement pump, at how many gpm?

A

60 gpm

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15
Q

A minimum of what percent of the installed fire pump capacity shall be available in each of the YOKE fire main groups to provide adequate AFFF coverage for the flight quarters?

A

75%

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16
Q

What is the flight deck repair team called?

A

CRASH AND SALVAGE

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17
Q

During non-flight operations while aircraft are embarked, crash and salvage crew shall be manned with at least 1 MFFV (P-25) driver and how many rescue personnel?

A

2 personel

Senior and Junior

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18
Q

Who is a trained individual in the vicinity of an incident who understands the requirements of the emergency and except responsibility for directing all available firefighting assets at scene?

A

SCENE LEADER

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19
Q

A hose team shall consist of one AFFF hose with a minimum of five persons (maximum seven) on each 2 1/2 inch hose and a minimum of three persons (maximum how many) on each 1 1/2 inch hose?

A

Five people

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20
Q

Who is responsible to the air officer for organizing and supervising the response to all aircraft related emergencies on the flight deck and deck?

A

AIR BOATSWAIN

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21
Q

Who shall have the overall responsibility for the firefighting effort on the flight deck?

A

AIR OFFICER

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22
Q

Balance pressure proportioned are installed on the LHDs and LHAs. The balance pressure proportioner mixes AFFF concentrate with salt water at a nominal percent of what over a wide range of flows?

A

6%

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23
Q

A TAU mounted vehicle with a crew of two persons may be utilized where aircraft gross takeoff weight is how many pounds or less?

A

14,000 lbs or less

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24
Q

What is a VTOL facility that provides a designated landing area for routine use, but does not provide basing facilities such as fueling or maintenance?

A

HELISTOP

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25
Q

Grid map systems based on compass azimuth and mileage out to how many nautical miles from the airfield?

A

15 nautical miles

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26
Q

The primary flight line extinguishers are wheeled units that consist of a minimum 50 pounds of PKP (with hand held CO2); or 150 pounds of halon 1211 or other clean agent; or how many gallons of AFFF?

A

30 lbs AFFF

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27
Q

Shore based fire departments/ARFF units should maintain a backup ready stock of PFFPE of approximately what percent of total unit requirements and must establish a rapid procurement procedure?

A

10% of total unit requirements

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28
Q

The P-19 has seater capacity of how many gallons of water?

A

1,000 gallons

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29
Q

The p-19 can hold how many gallons of AFFF solution?

A

130 gallons

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30
Q

The USMC twinned-agent firefighting system (Model No. TM280A) in use within the Fleet Marine Force is skid mounted and contains 100 gallons of AFFF premixed solution and how many pounds of dry chemical extinguishing agent PKP?

A

450 pounds of PKP

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31
Q

A mobile water supply vehicle with at least how many gallon water capacity shall be provided at all category 2-4 USMC operated airfields?

A

3,000 gallons

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32
Q

When Composite materials have been released in the air what actions should be taken?

A
  1. Call for favorable winds.
  2. Set Circle William.
  3. Fight with AFFF (spray in air).
  4. Notify other ships and commands within 50 mile area.
  5. Notify A/C within 500ft and 1,000ft
  6. Clean up with 0.006 wax or shop vacuum.
  7. spray with water fog.
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33
Q

Composite material that are reinforced with what kind of fibers provide superior stiffness, high strength-to-weight ratio, and ease of fabrication?

A

Carbon/Graphite

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34
Q

Approximately what temperature will cause epoxy binder to ignite or decompose ?

A

752 degrees F

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35
Q

The purpose of the Wh?at is to provide immediate response to observed, unanticipated emergencies and to control such fires until the standby alert can effect rescue and fire extinguishment?

A

IMMEDIATE RESPONSE ALERT

(IRA)

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36
Q

The minimum required staffing for all types of major aircraft firefighting vehicles performing immediate response alert is how many firefighters with the exception of ARFF vehicles that require additional personnel to operate?

A

TWO FIREFIGHTERS

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37
Q

No one person shall perform IRA duty for more than a total of how many hours in any one-24 hour period?

A

8 hour period

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38
Q

What does the acronym TAU stand for?

A

Twin, Agent, Unit

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39
Q

What is IRA

A

IMMEDIATE, RESPONSE, ALERT

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40
Q

The point of receipt of the emergency alarm at the public safety answering point to the point where sufficient information is known to the dispatcher and applicable units are notified of the emergency is known as what?

A

DISPATCH TIME

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41
Q

The time beginning when units are notified of the emergency to the beginning point of travel time is known as what?

A

TURNOUT TIME

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42
Q

The time that begins when units are in route to the emergency incident and ends when units arrive at the scene is defined as what?

A

TRAVEL TIME

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43
Q

Liquid oxygen boils into a gaseous form at what temperature?

A

-297

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44
Q

Although Halon 1211 is one of the most effective firefighting agents and only “clean” agent currently in use, it had been identified as an ozone-depleting substance and has not been produced since what date?

A

1 JANUARY 1994

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45
Q

A minimum of how many live fire training evolutions shall be conducted semi-annually, per member?

A

Six training evolutions

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46
Q

A daily journal shall be maintained by each aircraft firefighting and rescue organization. It shall be maintained for a minimum of how many years?

A

3 years

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47
Q

What is the serial number to tell whether an F-18 has OBOGS or LOX?

A

164196

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48
Q

What is a tool used for firefighters to locate quick means of transit, in case of a fire, over a large area?

A

Grid maps

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49
Q

What is used to fight and extinguish fires in shadow areas in and around the fuselage that are not extinguished by the turret?

A

HANDLINES

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50
Q

All aviation ships that are certified to operate with V-22 aircraft are required to procure and utilize wand extensions for how many-pound CO2 handheld fire extinguishers ?

A

15 pound extinguishers

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51
Q

What along with CO2 or other clean agent are the primary agent for internal engine fires?

A

HALON 1211

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52
Q

When responding to a wheel fire/hot brakes, emergency crews should approach the wheel with extreme caution in a fire and aft direction, never from the side in line with the wheel axle. Peak temperature may not be reached until how many minutes after aircraft has came to a complete stop?

A

15 to 20 minutes

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53
Q

When water fog is used on a wheel assembly fire, an intermittent application of short bursts (5 to10 seconds) every how many seconds should be used?

A

30 seconds?

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54
Q

In aircraft mishaps where carbon/graphite or boron tungsten fibers are used are suspected, helicopters should never be used to control the fire or be allowed to fly or hover over the site not less than 509 feet above ground level, or within how many feet horizontally?

A

1,000 feet horizontally

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55
Q

Nitrogen cylinders provide for inert-gas storage and utilized as an agent expellant shall be hydrostatically tested every how many years?

A

Every 5 years

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56
Q

The most common method of controlling or extinguishing a fire is to eliminate one or more of the sides of the tetrahedron. This can be accomplished by the following methods: Smothering, or what else?

A

STARVING

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57
Q

DO NOT USE HALON1211 ON WHAT CLASS OF FIRES?

58
Q

What class of fires (burning wood and wood products, cloth, textiles and fibrous materials, paper and paper products) are extinguished with water in straight or fog pattern.

A

CLASS ALPHA

59
Q

Test indicate that voltages greater than how many kilovolts can be developed on insulated metal objects from 1 to 2 second application of CO2 from an extinguisher?

A

15 kilovolts

60
Q

Class B fires, petroleum- based products: gasoline, jet fuels, and other flammable/ combustible liquids) are extinguished with AFFF, halon 1211, purple K powder, and what else?

A

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

61
Q

PKP dry chemical extinguishers are intended primarily for what type of fires?

A

CLASS B FIRES

62
Q

What class fire involved energized electrical equipment?

A

CLASS CHARLIE

63
Q

Coats and trousers shall be properly sized for the wearer to ensure that the PFFPE coat and PFFPE trousers have at least a how many- inch over lap of all layers so there is no gaping of the total thermal and radiant heat protection when the protective garments are worn?

A

A 2 inch overlap

64
Q

Attack class C fires with application of non-conductive agents (CO2, Halon 1211, PKP); or attack with application of fresh or salt water in fog patterns maintaining nozzle at least how many feet from the energized object?

65
Q

What does ESF stand for and what does it do?

A

Explosive Suppressant Foam

  • Flexible polyether polyester polyurethane.
  • Provides explosive protection from projectile penetration.
  • If ignited may produce flammable liquids.
  • Founds in drop tanks.
66
Q

PFFPE shall be maintained in accordance with what?

67
Q

Class D fires (combustible metals such as what) are extinguished with water in large quantities applied in an arrow angle fog?

A

MAGNESIUM AND TITANIUM

68
Q

What provides firefighters and rescue men with the ability to detect surface temperatures on areas exposed to fire in order to determine where additional firefighting effort needs to be concentrated on.

A

Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC)

69
Q

What is a flexible polyether and polyester polyurethane foam installed in certain aircraft fuel cells to provide explosive protection from projectile penetration in hostile environment?

A

EXPLOSIVE SUPPRESSANT FOAM (ESF)

70
Q

Emergency limits for exposure to hydrazine vapors are in concentration of 30 parts per million (ppm) for 10 minutes, 20ppm for 30 minutes and 10 ppm for 60 minutes. Irreversible health effects occur at how many ppm for 30 minutes?

A

80 parts per million (ppm)

71
Q

Liquid oxygen is a light blue liquid that flows like water and is extremely cold. It boils into gaseous oxygen at -297 and has an expansion rate of what?

72
Q

An effective method of stopping an oxygen leak is to spray the leak with what?

73
Q

Anti icing fluids are usually a mixture of about 85 percent alcohol and 15 percent what?

74
Q

Class A combustibles in aircraft fired are best extinguished with what?

A

AQUEOUS FILM FORMING FOAM (AFFF)

Smothering agent starves the fire of oxygen

75
Q

What shall not be directed into a battery compartment to effect cooling or dip lace explosive gases?

A

CO2

Co2 is dispersed at a temperature of -110

76
Q

Dry chemical, carbon dioxide and Class D extinguishers, including LITH-X, have been found to be generally ineffective and are not recommended for what type of fires?

A

Lithium battery

77
Q

What can be used to asses whether a disconnected battery temperature is rising over time?

A

THERMAL IMAGING CAMERA (TIC)

78
Q

The actual time for cooling of weapons shall be determined by the air boatswain incident commander based upon the degree of actual exposure of the weapon to the fire. historically weapons have been cooked for a minimum of how many minutes or until deemed safe by Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) personnel?

A

15 minutes

79
Q

What flamable metal is gray and brittle

80
Q

The application of water or AFFF on a lithium fire results in a decomposition of water into hydrogen and oxygen. Liberated hydrogen may violently ignite if confined and allowed to reach its lower explosive limit. This hydrogen ignition may produce a pressure wave of burning lithium that can be scattered a distance of approximately how many feet?

81
Q

Polyethylene packaging material (bubble wrap) present a hazard in that they cannot be extinguished by water only. What must be used on these materials to preclude a continued re flash?

82
Q

AM-241 emits potentially hazardous amounts of alpha and gamma radiation. Alpha emittance is approximately 5 Me V; gamma remittance is approximately what?

83
Q

What is a light, gray-white, nonracial rice, hard, and brittle metal that resembles magnesium and may be found on some aircraft?

84
Q

Three percent and what percent AFFF is approved for what use?

A

6% shipboard use

85
Q

And SCBA has a full-face mask, regulator, pressure reducer, air cylinder cylinder, pressure gauge associated hoses, and a harness with adjustable shoulder strap’s and waist belt which allows it to be worn on the back. The air cylinder is usually of a 30-minute 45-minutes or how many minute rated duration

A

60 minutes

86
Q

Various-nozzles are used on all AFFF and salt-water hose lines. Flow rates are how many GPM for all 2 1/2 inch hose lines

87
Q

Procurements of the coat, trousers, helmets (also including the attached shroud),footwear, and proximity gloves specified as elements of the PFFPE shall meet the requirements of what?

A

NAVAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION (NFPA 1971)

88
Q

PFFPE shall be maintained in accordance with what?

89
Q

What provides firefighters and rescue personnel with the ability to detect surface temperatures on areas exposed to fire?

A

Thermal Imaging Camera

(TIC)

90
Q

Personnel assigned to crash and salvage shall attend (as a team) the aircraft firefighting shipboard team training (AFFSTT) course C-780-2012A once during an 18 month cycle or whenever the team experiences a greater than what percent turnover?

91
Q

Approximately how many knots relative windspeed provides optimum distribution of AFFF from the flight deck extinguishing system?

92
Q

Hose teams attack the fire from what angle when able?

A

45 degree angle

93
Q

What should be utilized as the initial agent of choice for the control and extinguishment of aircraft engine wet start/residual fires because of its “clean agent” qualities?

A

Halon 1211

Bromochlorodifluoromethane

94
Q

What metal has been known to be toxic

A

Lead

lead can enter the body through inhalation, Ingestion, or absorbtion.

95
Q

What is a wet start fire?

EXPLAIN

A

When an accumulated residual amount of fuel ignites the engine or tail assembly area.

  1. Increase engine RPM’s to blow tire out.
  2. Residual fire on shutdown can often be extingushed by windmilling with jet start unit.
  3. Halon 1211 attack from windward in tail pipe assembly then intake
96
Q

What are the two chemicals that make up anti-icing fluids?

A

85% alcohol and 15% glycerin

Alcohol burns with an almost invisible flame around the canopy

97
Q

What fuel is known for its stable attribute and has been used in the propulsion the the MK 46 torpedo?

A

OTTO FUEL

Burns bright red , freeflowing oily, heavier than water.

-cool propellant below 250 degrees F

98
Q

What key features best describe Hydrazin?

A
  • Clear, oily, waterlike
  • Odor like ammonia
  • Flash point of 126 degrees F
  • Sensitive to electrical sparks
  • 30% water and 70% Hydrazine to power EPU on F-16
99
Q

The temperature produced by the burning of vaporized aircraft fuel and air is intense (approximately how many degrees F)?

A

1,500 degrees F

100
Q

What along with jet fuels (JPs) constitute the principle problems in aircraft firefighting?

A

AVGAS

Flash point is -50 degrees

Spread rate is 700-800 fpm

101
Q

The flashpoint of AVGAS is -50 degrees F. The rate of flame spread has been calculated to be between and per minute?

A

800 feet per minute

102
Q

What jet is a blend of gasoline and kerosene and has a flash point from -10 degrees F?

A

JP-4

Has a flashpoint of -10 degrees

has a flashpoint of 700-800 fpm

103
Q

JP-5 is a kerosene grade with a flash point of 140 degrees F. The rate spread had been calculated to be in the order of how many feet per minute?

104
Q

The lowest flashpoint considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is what?

A

140 degrees F

JP-5

105
Q

As little as a what percent mixture of JP-4 in JP-5 will reduce the flashpoint by 40 degrees?

A

2.5 percent

106
Q

JP-8 is a kerosene grade with a flashpoint of what?

A

100 degrees F

107
Q

What is a type of fuel whose energy is derived from biological carbon fixation (fermentation of carbohydrates)?

108
Q

Fuel loads can vary from 30 gallons in small aircraft to approximately how many gallons in large jet aircraft?

A

50,000 gallons

109
Q

Hydrazine has a flashpoint of what?

A

126 degrees

110
Q

If liquid hydrazine is splashed in the eyes or on skin, flood water for how long and seek medical care?

A

15 minutes

111
Q

Hydrazine will become a hyperbolic with exposure to oxidizes, it’s fires can best be handled by diluting with large amounts of what?

112
Q

Grade JP-4 jet fuel is a blend of gasoline and kerosene and has the flashpoint of what?

A

10 degrees F

113
Q

In the past the navy has used hypergolic mixtures for propulsion in rocket motors and ballistic missiles; now the only mixture currently in use by the navy is used to propel what?

A

AQM-37 TARGET DRONE

114
Q

What is a stable liquid mono-propellant used in the propulsion of the MK 46 torpedo?

A

OTTO FUEL II

115
Q

The nitrate esters in the Otto fuel are known for their acute effects, including nasal turgidity, blood pressure changes, headaches, and what else?

A

DYSPNEA (breathing troubles)

dysp·ne·a

dispˈnēə/

noun

MEDICINE

difficult or labored breathing.

116
Q

The most effective method of extinguishing an OTTO FUEL II Fire is to cool the propellant below what temperature?

A

250 degrees

117
Q

Otto fuel concentrations of less than 1.0 ppm, but greater than how many ppm, produce a complete nasal blockage in some individuals?

A

0.4 parts per million (ppm)

118
Q

The MK 50 torpedoes internal propulsion system is fueled by how many pounds of lithium?

119
Q

The Rotor blades on an H-60 have been known to go as low as how many feet from the deck?

A

Can go as low as 4 feet from the deck

made of magnesium

120
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the MH-60R?

121
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the MH-60S?

122
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the MV-22?

123
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the SH-60?

124
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the E-2C?

125
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the SH-60B?

126
Q

What is the max hoisting weight for the C-2?

127
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the F/A18?

128
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the SH-60F?

129
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the T-45?

130
Q

What is the max hoisting weight of the F/A18 E/F?

131
Q

All personnel assigned to U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps shore-based fire departments shall be certified by the DOD firefighter certification system in accordance to what?

A

DODI 6055.06-M

132
Q

Inspection of navy aircraft firefighting operations shall be in accordance with what?

A

OPNAVINST 11320.23

133
Q

What contains the standard hand, wand and light signals used by aircraft, aircrews, aircraft fire fighting, and other aircraft support personnel?

A

OPNAVINST 00-80T-113

134
Q

All personnel assigned duties incidental to flight operations shall attend a formal aviation firefighting school as required by what?

A

OPNAVINST 3541.1

135
Q

What is the length of the stabilizing lines

A

50 feet long 4 of each

to maintain composure of the rig

136
Q

What is the shutdown procedures for the E-2 Hawkeye?

A
  • ​Pull both condition levers back aft
  • Turn both left and right generator switches off
  • Throttle in neutral
137
Q

Portable drills purchased must be how many volts or higher rating?

A

18 volts or higher

138
Q

Aircraft must not be hoisted with winds in excess of how many knots?

A

15 knots

15 to 25 operational necessity above 25 only authorized by CO

139
Q

Tag lines are usually how long

A

100 ft long with 4 of each

140
Q

What is the capacity of the webbing material for the crash handling tiedown?

A

10,000 Pounds

141
Q

Manila Line is made from what biological plant?

A

The Abaca Plant

142
Q

Tending lines are normally how long in length?

A

100ft long

They are used for personnel safety

ABH RATE (13 decks)

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