ABH MANUAL CHAPTERS 1-9 Flashcards
1
Q
How many main parts make up the construction of the standard screwdriver?
A
3
2
Q
What makes a standard screwdriver different from a Phillips head screw driver?
A
The end
3
Q
The Stillson adjustable wrench is equipped with how many jaws?
A
2
4
Q
What provides gripping ability on the Stillson adjustable wrench?
A
Serrated teeth
5
Q
When a definite force must be applied to a nut or bolt head, what tool must be used?
A
Torque wrench
6
Q
The hinges on bolt cutters should be kept?
A
Well oiled
7
Q
What tool can be used as a lever for moving objects short distances ?
A
Wrecking bars
8
Q
The term pneumatic describes what type of power source?
A
Air
9
Q
Excessive air pressure when utilizing pneumatic tools will result in?
A
Damage to the tool
10
Q
The average size electric drill is equipped with what capacity, three fingered chuck?
A
1/4
11
Q
The pneumatic chipping hammer is another tool useful to the ABH when scaling?
A
Large areas
12
Q
Which power tool a be manufactured to be powered by air or electricity?
A
Rotary impact scaler and chipping hammer.
13
Q
Where exact measurements are required, what measuring tool is used?
A
Caliper
14
Q
On a steel or tape rule, the long line represents?
A
Inch mark
15
Q
What should be done to prevent tape or fiber glass rules from kinking?
A
Kept in a wooden box
16
Q
A dynamometer is an apparatus used to determine?
A
Breaking strength
17
Q
Uses for the dynamometer may include determining the breaking strength of the tensioning system of what equipment ashore?
A
E-28
18
Q
Before portable electric tools are used for the first time after procurement, they should be inspected by?
A
Electrical safety officer
19
Q
Personnel operating tools that produce excessive noise level were required to wear hearing protection issued by?
A
Divisional supply representative
20
Q
What class explosion proof electric tools should be utilized where exposed explosives are present?
A
Class 1
21
Q
Handheld portable electric tools authorized for use onboard ship shall be equipped with
A
On/off switch
22
Q
Extension cords should be no longer than 25 feet in length except when used on what class ship?
A
CVNs
23
Q
Which of the following are allowed to be worn around rotating machinery?
A
Earrings
24
Q
It is required to wear leather gloves when handling ______?
A
Sharp material
25
Tending lines are used for _____?
Personnel safety
26
Generally, small stuff is line that is less than?
1 3/4 inches
27
What knot is used to secure components on the MK-1 life preserver?
Bowline
28
When would an ABH possibly require the use of a block and tackle?
Overturn a crashed aircraft.
29
What is the mechanical advantage of the gun tackle?
2.1
30
It is imperative that equipment be stowed in its assigned area for what reason?
Ready for use
31
The A/S32A-30A is primarily designed for towing _______?
Ground support equipment
32
What is the secondary mission of the A/S32A-30A?
Tow small aircraft
33
The A/S32A-32 towing tractor (SD-2 spotting dolly) is controlled by the use of a _________?
Joystick
34
What is the maximum towing capacity of the A/S32A-30A (support equipment & aircraft wing tractor)?
40,000 lbs
35
The overall height of the A/S32A-32 towing tractor (SD-2 spotting dolly) is ______?
30 inches
36
What is the drawbar pull of the A/S32A-32 towing tractor?
14,000 lbs
37
How many phases are there in the ground support licensing program?
2
38
Who will handle the phase two portion of the ground support licensing program?
Division
39
Phase two of the ground support licensing program covers _______?
On-the-job training
40
What type of material is the NWC-4 universal wheel chock made from?
Polyurethane
41
What is the difference between the regular TD-1B and the type used on amphibious assault ships?
Length
42
For specific information concerning the high power tie down assembly for each type of aircraft, you would refer to the_________?
NAVAIR 17-1-537
43
When utilizing the NWC-4 universal wheel chock, where should the adjustable end of the chock be placed on the aircraft wheel?
Aft
44
The TB-1B can be tightened by use of the ________?
Tensioner assembly
45
The 24 ALBAR is designed specifically for what aircraft?
SH-60
46
When the aircraft elevator is loaded to capacity, with all pumps in use, what is the total duty cycle time?
60 seconds
47
The horizontal locking bars of the aircraft elevator are powered ________?
Pneumatically
48
Aircraft elevator safety stanchions should not be operated in___________?
Automatic mode
49
V-1 division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation?
Flight deck
50
V-3 division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation?
Hangar deck
51
A division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation?
Machinery room
52
There are how many different compositions of nonskid?
2
53
Nonskid coatings kits are supplied in how many components?
2
54
The shelf life of nonskid is ______?
1 year
55
What is the most preferred method of nonskid removal?
Water-jetting
56
In order to ensure the correct primer coverage, the DFT reading must be taken when the primer has _______?
Cured
57
When completing the primer application process, what will allow corrosion to set in and degrade the process?
Holiday
58
VLA markings on the hangar deck are placed ______ from the deck?
14 feet
59
The ships frame number markings are placed on both the starboard and port bulkheads, at frame intervals of ______?
10
60
For what class ship does the Naval Air Warfare Center Visual Landing AIDS General Service Bulletin, No. 8 establish standard certification requirements and inspections?
CVN
61
What color wand is utilized by the catapult topside safety petty officer?
Green
62
What color wand is utilized by the weight board operator?
White
63
What flight deck personnel utilize one stubby and red banded wand?
Ordnance arming crew
64
On then flight deck of a CVN, what color wands are utilized by the LSE?
One red standard and one green standard
65
What symbol is worn on the life vest of a helicopter plane captain?
H
66
What symbol is worn on the life vest of helicopter LSE?
H
67
On the flight deck, all officers, chief petty officers, and leading petty officers are identified by ________?
Three orange stripes
68
During an aircraft movement, the brake rider is required to keep the canopy open in order for _______?
The brake rider to hear
69
Upon aircraft landing , who is responsible for the installation of the down locks?
Plane captain
70
Before commencing an aircraft move, who is responsible for verifying the qualification on the move crew members?
Director
71
What hand signal is given before chocks and chains are removed from an aircraft?
Apply brakes
72
During an aircraft elevator evolution, when the words “stand by for a turn” are passed, the elevator must be _______?
Raised to the flight deck
73
Before commencing elevator movement, the horn must be sounded _______ time(s).
Three
74
Any damage to an aircraft, no matter how slight, must be immediately reported to the ______?
ACHO
75
In operations requiring taxiing of aircraft, directors are stationed at intervals of _____feet along the flight deck?
50 to 100
76
The standard position for a director is ahead of the aircraft, in line with the _______?
Left wing tip
77
Squadron inspectors must NOT perform inspections while an aircraft is ______?
Taxiing
78
After the launch bar has been properly seated and verified by the hookup petty officer, he or she gives what signal to the director?
Go
79
According to the NAVAIR 00-80T-120, aircraft recovery stations are manned __________ minutes prior?
30
80
What is the purpose of having a tow tractor in a ready condition during recovery?
To tow aircraft with blown tires
81
What is the initial tie down requirement for the F/A-18?
Six
82
For information concerning the attachment points on certain aircraft, you should refer to the _______?
NAVAIR 80T-120
83
As a minimum, what tie down category is required for refueling operations?
Initial
84
At what pounds per square inch (psi) is fire main pressure used for undercutting ice during severe cold weather?
100
85
The mobile crash crane is secured with a minimum of ______ tiedowns?
13
86
When aircraft embark, when is the aircraft integrity watch NOT set?
During general quarters
87
Who is the aircraft integrity watch responsible to when in port?
ACHO
88
The integrity watch messenger of the watch composition is provided by_______?
The air wing
89
What integrity watch team member is responsible for the scheduling of required training and lectures?
Air wing watch coordinator
90
Transient aircraft requiring assistance while taxiing on the runway will be met by a vehicle displaying the words _________?
FOLLOW ME
91
During high winds on shore, multi engine aircraft are tied down and secured at _______ points?
Six
92
On shore stations, what types of stakes provide the greatest aircraft security?
Corkscrew
93
Vehicles operating in the vicinity of aircraft must limit their speed to 5 mph within ________ feet?
50
94
What is the maximum speed limit, in miles per hour (mph), on a runway where no aircraft are present?
10
95
A transient vehicle on an air station displaying a red flag is carrying _____?
Explosives
96
At an air terminal, a vehicle visual signal of a white light is a signal telling you to _______?
Return
97
Who may authorize the movement of aircraft while port?
Air department duty officer?
98
How many helicopters cans be launched simultaneously from an LPD?
2
99
On the AV-8B aircraft, the steering accumulator must be __________ before attaching the tow bar?
Depressurized
100
To move the MV-22 aircraft, use of what device is the preferred method to power the brake system?
Auxiliary brake pump
101
How many tie down requirements are on amphibious assault ships?
3
102
When parking aircraft in the hangar bay, you should allow clearance for?
Fire plugs
103
During the spotting of aircraft in anticipation of heavy weather, as many aircraft as possible should be moved _________?
To the hangar bay
104
How many pounds per square inch (psi) should the braking system of the AV-8B be pressurized before towing?
2,000
105
When personnel are used as counterweights to tow an AH-1 aircraft, personnel should position themselves on the ________?
Ammo bay doors
106
For detailed information for the proper utilization of aircraft handling signals, you make reference to what manual?
NAVAIR 00-80T-113
107
Making a sharp turn while taxing an AV-8B under heavy gross weight will cause the aircraft outrigger to _________?
Deflate
108
The jet efflux produced by an AV-8B during vertical operations will exceed what temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?
200 degrees
109
During wing stow/unstow operations, the tiedown chains on the MV-22 must be ________?
Slacked
110
The maximum safe relative wind conditions for folding or unfolding the MV-22 prop rotor blades and wing stow/unstow operations is _________ knots?
45 knots
111
During flight operations, who is responsible for ensuring type mobile firefighting equipment is manned and ready?
Flight Deck Officer
112
Arming of helicopters shall be conducted after the pilot has signified that he or she is ready for ________?
Takeoff
113
Arming shall be conducted only while Aircraft is at a complete stop and control of that aircraft has been turned over to _______?
Arming crew supervisor
114
Who is responsible for indicating to the LSE/director what aircraft requires dearming upon landing?
Aircraft dearming supervisor
115
Who is responsible for providing the personnel for the aircraft integrity watch?
Embarked units
116
Who ensures that a complete FOD walkdown has been conducted prior to flight operations?
Aircraft handling officer
117
In preparation for flight operations, who is responsible for ensuring that all antennas, flagstaffs, and lifelines are lowered?
Air officer
118
What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to taxi aircraft?
Any color
119
What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to start engines?
Red
120
What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to engage rotors?
Amber
121
During recovery, the words “ Stand by to recover aircraft” are passed or the 5MC. What color beacon is displayed on the deck status light?
Red
122
Who is responsible for setting flight quarters?
Officer of the deck
123
What color flight deck jerseys are worn by combat cargo personnel?
White
124
From whom does the LSE request permission to engage or disengage rotors?
Flight deck supervisor
125
Who can authorize an aircraft to engage rotors while the ship is in a turn?
Commanding Officer
126
What steady velocity of winds, in knots, is considered optimum for pickup and delivery during vertical replenishment?
15 to 30 knots
127
In order to smother a fire, what element of the fire triangle need to be removed?
Oxygen
128
In order to starved a fire, what element of the fire triangle needs to be removed?
Fuel
129
In order to cool a fire, what element of the fire triangle needs to be removed from the fire triangle?
Heat
130
What class of fire is the burning of energized electrical equipment?
Class C
131
What class of fire is the burning of petroleum based products?
Class Bravo
132
What class of fire is the burning of magnesium and aluminum?
Class Delta
133
Which of the following extinguishing agents is used initially on class “C” fires?
CO2
134
Which of the following agents extinguishing is used as a last resort on class “C” fires?
PKP
135
On CVN class ships, what is the capacity of the hangar deck salvage forklift?
20,000 pounds
136
What is the minimum number of personnel it takes to deploy a 1 1/2 inch AFFF hose?
3 people
137
What is the maximum number of personnel it takes to deploy a 2 1/2 inch hose?
7 people
138
During a flight deck fire evolution, what person is responsible for the organization of personnel to the scene leader?
Background assistance leader
139
Who is responsible for providing assistance to the air department for casualty evacuation ?
Air wing commander
140
During a multiaircraft fire in the hangar bay of an LHA, who will supervise the activation of the hangar bay sprinkler system?
Hangar deck officer
141
What type of fire extinguisher should be kept available for a ruptured liquid oxygen converter?
Water
142
How many personnel are required for immediate response manning using the P-25 firefighting vehicle?
3
143
Controls for operating the emergency lighting on the AFFF hose outlets are located in________?
Primary flight control
144
On a LPD class ship, which person is responsible for the training, supervision, and organization of flight deck/landing platform firefighting and rescue teams?
Air officer
145
Ona LPD class ship, who has the overall responsibility for aircraft firefighting, salvage, jettison and personnel rescue operations?
Helicopter control officer
146
On ACS ships, other than LPD class ships, the helicopter control officer is under the direction of what person?
Damage control assistant
147
For determining messengers/phone talkers requirements, which person will make the determination on what mode of communication will be utilized to meet minimum requirements?
Commanding officer
148
How many AFFF hose teases shall be manned for maintenance turnips without rotor engagement on LPD class ships?
2
149
On a LPD class ship, who is responsible for the direction of all aircraft movement on the flight deck/landing platform during aircraft crash evolutions?
Air Officer
150
What is the minimum working load of the ladder required by the crash and salvage tool inventory?
300 pounds
151
How many crash axes are required by crash and salvage tool inventory?
2 Axes
152
How many spinner wrenches are required for each AFFF and saltwater hose station?
2 wrenches
153
What is the required weight of the ball peen hammer utilized in the crash and salvage inventory?
1 1/2 pounds
154
Tools in the crash and salvage inventory shall be engraved, displaying the_________?
Hull Number
155
What is the minimum length requirement of the ladder in the crash and salvage inventory?
12 feet
156
How many additional CO2 extinguishers shall be provided for the flight deck on all ACS helicopter operations?
2 bottles
157
What fire fighting equipment is stowed in repair lockers and is used for mixing saltwater and AFFF concentrate?
Educators
158
During the overhaul stage of a fire on an LPD, the senior firefighter will have a___________?
Halligan tool
159
Aircraft engine wet start fires are cause by ?
Residual fuel
160
Who will provide immediate first aid and commence the evacuation of casualties?
Background personnel
161
How many personnel are utilized for the overhaul team?
2 personnel
162
Onboard LPD/ACS ships, what is the minimum amount of flight deck drills that shall be conducted monthly?
2 drills monthly
163
Personnel assigned as crash, rescue and salvage crew members assigned to LPDs and ACS’s shall attend the helicopter firefighting team training course once during a ________?
24 month cycle
164
Which of the following information shall not be provided to the scene leader by the exercise observer when conducting drills?
Type of aircraft
165
In which of the following manuals would you find the crash crew information diagram?
NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1
166
In what aircraft would you find the ESCAPAC(series) ejection seat?
S-3
167
How many personnel are normally part of a rescue team?
2 personnel
168
What color is the pull handle on most aircraft doors?
Red
169
On which of the following locations on an aircraft fuselage would you not find a hatch?
REAR of A/C
170
What person is responsible for the coordination of aircraft jettison operations?
Crash Chief
171
Who is responsible for conducting drills and training of the crash and salvage crew?
Air Bos’n
172
Who is responsible for the supervision of the installation of aircraft hoisting equipment for each model aircraft onboard?
Crash leading petty officer
173
How many pounds is the salvage platform capable of supporting?
1,000 pounds
174
When load testing the crash and salvage platform, the load is held off the ground for ________?
2 minutes
175
How much weight , in pounds, is applied to the tail hook dolly, when performing a weight test inspection?
600 pounds
176
How often is the load test performed on the crash and salvage platform?
Annually
177
The 6,000 pound crash and salvage forklift is normally used for performing _________?
Rescue operations
178
What is the maximum lifting capacity of the auxiliary hoist on the CVCC?
10,000 pounds
179
What is the engine operating rpm range of the CVCC?
1800-2100
180
How many batteries are in the AACC?
2 batteries
181
What type of material is the tail hook strap made from?
Nylon
182
What type of material are belly bands made from?
Nylon
183
The 15 foot ALBAR has a maximum gross handling weight of _______?
90,000 pounds
184
What type of material I’d the universal salvage harness made of ?
Polyester
185
How many TD-1A/B tiedoewn chains are there in the crash and salvage inventory ?
12 chains
186
The K-12 forcible entry saw is cooled by?
AIR
187
What is the power source of the K-12 forcible entry saw have?
Gasoline
188
The welding of forged steel will reduce its breaking strength by ________?
30 %
189
How many adapters are there for the aircraft crash dolly?
2 adapters
190
Hydrazine can be found in the auxiliary power unit of what aircraft?
F-16
191
What training device is used to creat an actual burn practice and simulated operations?
MOBILE AIRCRAFT FIREFIGHTING DEVICE
192
Which shore based facility does not have a primary aircraft emergency alarm inter-communication system installed?
Security
193
During pump and roll operations, the turret streams on the vehicle shall be set to prevent_________?
Impairing the driver’s vision
194
How many categories are there for airfield minimum response requirements?
6 categories
195
The standby alert status requires the firefighting personnel to be on the scene within_________?
5 minutes
196
Who is authorized to increase manning as appropriate for each firefighting and rescue vehicle, if the primary mission of the aviation facility involves extra-hazardous flight operations?
Type commander
197
With the exception of extra personnel required to operate firefighting vehicles, what is the minimum required staffing for all types of major aircraft firefighting vehicles performing immediate response alert?
2 personnel
198
How many categories are there for for helistop and heliport requirements?
2 categories
199
When positioning the mounted twin agent unit, it should be positioned to facilitate pulling the nozzle and hoses from the?
Rear of the vehicle
200
In the absence of the station fire chief, who exercise overall control of the airfield other than at the immediate scene of an accident?
Air operations officer
201
How many principle fire protection functions are at aviation shore facilities?
2
202
At an aviation airfield facility, who is responsible for the operational readiness, performance, technical training, and management of their respective fire protection organizations?
Fire chief
203
What is the minimum number of firefighters required to meet the minimum requirement for a category 3 Navy airfield?
3
204
Ejection seat training for shore activity firefighters should be held at a minimum every_______?
180 days (Semi annually)
205
In order for air facility firefighters to maintain proficiency in firefighting, how many live fire training evolutions are conducted semi-annually?
6 evolutions
206
The daily aircraft firefighting and rescue journal should be maintained for minimum of ________?
3 years
207
What manual requires all aviation firefighting shore facilities to maintain a crash grid map system?
NAVAIR 00-80T-114
208
How many gallons of water can be discharged per minute with the P-19 bumper turret?
250 gallons
209
What is the capacity of the AFFF tank on the P-19 firefighting vehicle?
130 gallons
210
What is the diameter on the hand line of the P-19?
1 inch
211
What type of roof turret is mounted on the Oshkosh T-series firefighting vehicles?
NON-ASPIRATING
212
When water fog is used on a wheel assembly fire, an intermittent application of short bursts should be used in intervals of________?
5 to 10 seconds
213
What will happen to the hydraulic fluid called “SKYDROL” when it comes in contact with high temperatures from a fire?
Decompose
214
How many wheeled flight line extinguishers should be available for three CH-53 aircraft?
1
215
Portable drills purchased for the use of manually opening the F-35 canopy must have a voltage of at least __________?
18 volts
216
What percent of backup ready stock should be maintained by shore-based fire departments?
10 %
217
TAU firefighting apparatus is primarily used for extinguishing what class of fires?
Bravo fires
218
How many pounds of Halon are on the P-25 firefighting vehicle?
60 pounds
219
How many universal salvage slings are required at a minimum for shore-based salvage?
6 slings
220
What is utilized for expeditious rescue of pinned victims, lifting heavy debris, and other various needs if entry at the immediate mishap scene is inaccessible to heavy equipment?
Airbags
221
what type of starting system does the retrieve system assembly on the E-28 arresting gear use?
Electric
222
What is the total number of cylinders in the engine of the retrieve assembly of the E-28 arresting gear?
4 cylinders
223
During an aircraft arrestment with the E-28 arresting gear, what reaction actually applies a braking force on the aircraft, bringing it to a stop?
Fluid resistance
224
What is the width of the E-28 purchase tape?
8 inches
225
What is the thickness of the E-28 purchase tape?
0.0344 of an inch
226
Which of the following indicates that the cross ECM pendant of the E-28 arresting great is no longer under the required tension?
Strobe lights
227
The tape pressure roller of the E-28 arresting gear is under tension by the ________?
Springs
228
What is the function of the retrieve engine assembly on the E-28 arresting gear?
Rewind and tension tape
229
The purchase tape is made of what types of material?
Nylon
230
How many feet are the donut wire supports positioned apart from each other?
14 feet
231
How would you identify the original and exact location of the cross deck pendant wire support positions on the runway?
Paint markings
232
Wire supports must be replace when they show excessive wear and have radical cracking of _________ or longer?
1 inch
233
What is the minimum cable clearance of the cross deck pendant?
2 inches
234
The cross deck pendant is made of what type of wire?
Rotating
235
How often is a functional check performed on the E-28 Arresting gear?
Every 30 days
236
Lithium batteries can be found where?
Sonobuoys, weapons, communication equipment, aircraft
237
What is the drawbar pull of the A/S 32A-32A Tow tractor?
8,500 lbs
238
Which Tow bar was designed for H-53 helicopters with inflight refueling probes?
20 ALBAR
239
Which Tow Bar was designed for the SH-60 series with a max towing weight of 20,000 lbs?
24 ALBAR
240
What I’d the permanent tie down requirement for an AV-8B?
10 chains
241
On the E-28 Arresting gear system what is the Max Aircraft engaging speed on a shore based airfield?
160 knots
242
What three personnel use Amber wands?
Flight deck officer
Aircraft directors
Gear pullers
243
Plane Captains use what color of wands?
Blue
244
On Amphibious ships, who is responsible to wave off aircraft not in acceptable approach?
LSO (Landing Signal Officer)
245
On an amphibious ship who is responsible for Crash and Salvage equipment?
Air officer
246
Who does the Flight Deck Supervisor report to on an amphibious ship?
Directly to the Air Officer.
247
On a CVN who is responsible for the administrative training of V-1?
Flight Deck Officer
248
On a CVN who is responsible for equipment repair, function within the air department?
Air Officer
249
Who acts as the Air Department Training Coordinator onboard a CVN?
Assistant Air Officer ( MINI BOSS)
250
What is the Max lifting capacity of the A/S 32A-32?
16,000 pounds
251
What is the height of the spotting dolly?
30 inches
252
What is the Drawbar pull of the A/S 32A-32?
14,000 pounds
253
Loaded speed of the Spotting dolly?
2 MPH
254
On a LHD ship the MV-22 Aircraft has a minimum of how many feet clearance?
15 feet
255
In what condition do helicopters have tow bars attached, specific LSE, tractor driver, Handling crew, and start crew?
Condition III / ALERT 30
256
What condition has Helicopters standing by with rotor blades spread, starting equipment plugged in, and the LSE/ starting crew ready for launch?
Condition I / ALERT 5
257
Which Condition allows Aircrew to be on immediate call and helicopter rotors are folded?
Condition II / ALERT 15
