Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Purple book > Craniofacial growth, Developing dentition > Flashcards

Craniofacial growth, Developing dentition Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the incidence of ankylosis in primary dentition?

A

7 – 14% in primary dentition

Most often affects lower Ds, followed by lower Es, upper Ds, upper Es
associated with agenesis of succadaneous tooth
multiple teeth seen as frequently as single

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does early correction of unilateral posterior crossbite eliminate morphological and positional asymmetries of the mandible?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What # of weeks define the embryonic period?

A

The first 8 weeks of life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most favorable eruption sequence in max permanent dentition?

A

61245378

612 regular
want 4s to come in (1st PM)
Then 5s (2nd PM)
Then 3s (canines)
Last 7s (so that 3s can take up leeway space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name 6 pharyngeal fistulae, cysts, and tumors associated with branchial arch malformation

A
  1. Thyroglossal duct cyst/ectopic thyroid (2nd pouch)
  2. Hemangiomas
  3. Thymic anomalies (e.g. DiGeorge)
  4. SCM tumor of infancy (sternocleidomastoid)
  5. Cervical teratoma/dermoid cyst and midline cervical cleft
  6. Lymphangioma/cystic hygroma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Increase in size of individual cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What radiographs will best locate a supernumerary tooth?

A

2 PAs or occlusal films reviewed by the parallax rule

also: two PAs either using two projections taken at right angles to one another or the tube shift technique (buccal object rule or Clark’s rule) or by CBCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 6 stages of histodifferentiation?

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Proliferation
  3. Histodifferentiation
  4. Morphodifferentiation
  5. Apposition
  6. Mineralization and Maturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the mechanisms of formation for intramembranous bone formation?

A

Periosteum and sutures, generally in areas of tension
no cartilagenous precursors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a patient has crowded primary dentition, what % of the time will this patient have crowding in the permanent dentition?

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Moyer’s Analysis

A

Measures the M-D width of the mandibular incisors
Maxillary tooth predicted by mandibular teeth

Tanaka and Johnson also uses m-d width of lower incisor: Y = A + B (X) where
Y is sum of m-d widths of unerupted canines & PMs
X is sum of m-d widths of lower incisors
A and B are constants

Y = 11 + 0.5X for maxillary arch
Y = 10.5 + 0.5X for mandibular arch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SNB average?

A

80˚
>80 then prog
<80 then retro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a low birth weight?

A

2,500 g at birth (5.5 lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are most supernumerary teeth located?

A

Maxilla – 80-90%, ½ of that in the anterior area

Most common site – mesiodens
Second most common – paramolar (max. molar)

25% of mesiodens erupt spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Calcification of the permanent teeth

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Will a permanent molar w/ part of its occlusal surface clinically visible and part under the distal of the second primary molar “jump” and self-correct?

A

NO

This is the impacted type, not the self-correcting type.

After the age of 7, definitive tx is indicated to manage and/or avoid early loss of the primary second molar and space loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is considered a full termbirth?

A

37-41 wks of completed gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F The majority of pts have Class I malocclusion.

A

T. 53%
Class II – 32%
Class III – 14 %
Open bite 5%
deep bite 10%
severe overjet >6mm 15%

29% have malocclusion where tx is highly desirable or mandatory (6.5 mill)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What arch has the stapes, styloid process, and stylohyoid ligament?

A

2 – Hyoid arch.

Also has lesser cornu/upper portion of body of hyoid, posterior digastric and muscles of facial expression
CN 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do the mandibular processes merge to create?

A

Lower lip and mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Systemic conditions implicated in delayed primary exfoliation and permanent eruption

A
  • Vit D resistant rickets
  • Endocrine disorders
  • CP
  • Celiac
  • Prematurity/ low birth weight
  • diabetes
  • Genetic disorders (there are 26! Including OI, Cleidocr dyspl, ED, Chondroectod D, Albright’s, Gorlin, MPS, Gardner, Down, Apert, Achondroplasia, Cherubism and more)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What arch develops into muscles of mastication?

A

1st arch, also mylohyoid, anterior digastric, tensor palatini, tensor tympani
CN5 – Trigeminal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some rules of thumb for timing of primary tooth loss affecting successor eruption?

A

Loss of 1˚ tth before age 5 => delays premolar
Loss of 1˚ tth after age 8 => accelerates premolar

Loss prior to completion of crown of successor → delays
Loss after crown completion → accelerates eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which branchial arch has the most frequent anomalies?

A

2nd (95%)

1st arch only has 1% of all branchial anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F:
Baume Type I is non-spaced dentition.

A

False

Baume Type I – generalized spacing of primary dentition (2/3)
Baume Type II – non-spaced (1/3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bilateral posterior crossbites in children (primary teeth)

A

Manifestation of a true skeletal constriction
Associated with dolicocephalic growth, open bite
Midlines are symmetric, no notable shift of mandible
2-3% of posterior crossbites
Treated with expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If a patient has no spacing in the primary dentition, what % of the time will this patient have crowding in the permanent dentition?

A

66%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What branchial arch is the major contributor to the facial structures?

A

1st arch mainly

some contribution from the 2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ectopic eruption of permanent molars occurs in up to ___% of the population

A

3%
new guideline

more common in children with cleft lip and palate (25% of kids with CL/P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Interference with cranial vault growth leads to ___________

A

Craniosynostosis
“copper-beaten skull”

e.g. Apert’s and Crouzon’s syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What 3 ways do you make up for incisor liability?

A
  1. Intercanine width development
  2. Facial placement of lower anteriors
  3. primary spacing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If a pt has 3-6mm spacing in the primary dentition, what % of the time will the pt have crowding?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Space regaining appliances

A

Fixed: active holding arches, pendulum appliances, Jones jig

Removable: Hawley appliance with springs, lip bumper, and headgear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is development?

A

Increase in complexity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

1st branchial pouch anomalies

A

Atretic eustachian tube → recurrent OM
eustachian tube diverticuli
absence of tympanic cavity, mastoid antrum
perforated tympanic membrane
bifid tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If you cannot palpate the canine bulge and there is radiographic overlapping of the permanent canine with the formed root of the lateral during mixed dentition, what should you do?

A

EXT the primary canine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Functional Matrix theory

A
  • Functional demands of the craniofacial complex controls growth
  • influence of “capsular matrices”
  • Moss and Salentijn
  • says that bones don’t grow but are grown: soft tissue grows – bone and cartilage respond
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the precursor for the mandible?

A

Meckel cartilage

1st arch also has malleus, incus, sphenomandibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a normal nasolabial angle?

A

100-110˚

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F
Undermining resorption happens with light, continuous forces on the pdl.
Heavy forces result in hyalinization.

A

F light forces result in “frontal resorption”
T. heavy forces result in “undermining resorption” and pdl become hyalinized because blood supply to the pdl becomes occluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Are most children mesial, flush, or distal step?

A

Mesial 60%
flush 30%
distal 10%
(source??)

Handbook says
mesial 15% “incidence”
flush 75% “incidence”
distal no percentage given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the lateral lip and maxilla derived from?

A

Fusion of median nasal and maxillary processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What percentage of primary supernumeraries have permanent supernumeraries?

A

1/3 of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What two points make Frankfurt Horizontal?

A

Po- Or
Porion-Orbitale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Servosystem theory

A
  • Midface grows, maxillary arch follows, maxillary/mandibular relationship leads to muscular repositioning of the mandible, condylar cartilage responds
  • Petrovic
47
Q

2nd arch anomalies

A 
Malformed auricle/microtia
ossicular malformation (stapes, malleus, incus)
muscular asymmetry of face
hyoid malformation (lesser horn and upper body)
48
Q

Early versus late mesial shift

A

Early mesial shift – closure of generalized posterior spacing with eruption of the 6s
(uses primate space)

Late mesial shift – mesial drift of the 6s into the leeway space

49
Q

What are the 5 facial processes?

A 
Median nasal + lateral nasal = median frontonasal
Paired maxillary (x2)
Paired mandibular (x2)
50
Q

An example of a disorder of endochondral ossification is

a. cleidocranial dysplasia
b. achondroplasia
c. osteogenesis imperfecta

A

b. Achondroplasia
results from interference with cranial base growth
short limbs; atypical epiphyseal growth
defect in fibroblast growth factor receptor gene

a. Cleidocranial dysplasia (intramembranous bone)
c. osteogenesis imperfecta (both intra + endo)

51
Q

What is the most favorable eruption sequence in the mandibular permanent dentition?

A

61234578

6
12345
78

Mandibular eruption is ahead of maxillary

52
Q

What are risk factors of root resorption due to ortho tx?

A

open bite
root anatomy
high force levels
extraction therapy
amount of incisor retraction
? asthma

53
Q

When do you do space maintenance in the primary anterior dentition?

A

Early loss of max. incisor in child with active digit habit

54
Q

What % of canines ectopically erupt?

A

1.5 – 2%

F affected 3x more frequently than M

55
Q

What is the most favorable eruption sequence in primary dentition?

A

ABDCE (for both max and mand)

56
Q

Name three 1st branchial arch syndromes

A

Treacher Collins (mandibulofacial dysplasia)
Pierre Robin sequence
Hemifacial microsomia

57
Q

When are facial structures “defined” during in utero development?

A

Between about 3 and 11 weeks

58
Q

How long does it take for the root completion of a primary tooth? Permanent tooth?

A

Primary – 18 months post eruption
Permanent – 3 years post eruption

59
Q

What type of bone formation is responsible for

  1. cranial vault
  2. cranial base
  3. maxilla
  4. mandible?
A
  1. Cranial vault – intramembranous
  2. Cranial base – endochondral
  3. Maxilla – intramembranous
  4. Mandible – intramembranous (body – appositional along posterior border of ramus and remodeling resorption along anterior border) AND endochondral (condyle)
60
Q

What % of Class III malocclusion is heritable?

A

56%

61
Q

OSAS may be associated with what dental findings?

A

Narrow maxilla, crossbite, low tongue position, vertical growth, and open bite

Hx associated with OSAS may include snoring, observed apnea, restless sleep, daytime neurobehavioral abnormalities or sleepiness, and bedwetting
Physical findings may include growth abnormalities, signs of nasal obstruction, adenoidal facies, and/or enlarged tonsils

62
Q

Calcification of the primary teeth begin when?

A

4th fetal month

63
Q

When does the greatest rate of increase in all dimensions of the dental arches occur?

A

Between birth and 3 yo.

64
Q

Label These

A

Most forward point of chin – Pg

Lowest most point on the anterior margin of the foramen magnum in the midline – Ba

Intersection of the frontal bone and the nasofrontal suture in the midsagittal plane – Na

65
Q

What is the incidence of permanent vs primary hypodontia?

A

Permanent: 3.5 – 6.5%
Primary 0.1 – 0.9%

66
Q

T/F “Complex” malocclusion involves multiple teeth

A

F. It is a skeletal discrepancy

Compound is teeth
Simple – single tooth
complex + compound = dental and skeletal component

67
Q

What % of pts have crowding in the permanent dentition if they have the following typed of primary dentition:

a. spacing ≥ 6 mm
b. spacing 3-6 mm
c. spacing < 3 mm
d. no spacing
e. crowding

A

Spacing ≥ 6mm ➔ no crowding

spacing 3-6mm ➔ 20% crowding

spacing < 3mm ➔50% crowding

no spacing ➔ 66% crowding

crowding ➔ 100% crowding

68
Q

The mandibular primary lateral incisors calcify at how many weeks in-utero? 12 14 16 18

A

ANSWER: c. 16 weeks or 4 months (All primary teeth begin calcification at the 4th fetal month)

69
Q

Where is the primate space?

A
70
Q

ANB should be about what?

A

2˚

71
Q

What is accretion?

A

Increase in non-cellular material

72
Q

What % of impacted permanent incisors erupt normally after the mesiodens or othersupernumerary incisor is removed?

A

75%

if no eruption after 6-12 months and sufficient space exists, surgical exposure and orthodontic extrusion is needed

73
Q

What are the cranial nerves?

A

O, o, o, to touch and feel very good velvet, such happiness
1. Olfactory
2. Optic
3. Oculomotor(eye mvmts)
4. Trochlear SO4
5. Trigeminal (Passing Through Zanzibar By Motor Car)
6. AbducensLR6
7. Facial (expression, tip of tongue taste)
8. Vestibulocochlear (formerly known as auriculotemporal)
9. Glossopharyngeal (taste last 2/3 tongue, others)
10. Vagus
11. Spinal Accessory(SCM, trap)
12. Hypoglossal (muscles of tongue)
some say marry money but my brother says big boobs matter more.

SO4, LR6

74
Q

Compare and contrast endochondral versus intramembranous bone formation:

A
75
Q

When does the embryonic period end? What follows it?

A

Embryonic ends wk 8
Fetal period begins wk 9 in utero and lasts until birth

  • more growth rather than development
  • body grows more rapidly
  • ossification begins
76
Q

How does the prevalence of max central diastema change with age?

A

Decreases with age:
44-97% 6 yo
33-46% 9 yo
7-20% 14 yo

77
Q

The vagus nerve is derived from what pouch, and what muscles and skeletal components are also derived from that pouch?

A

4th Arch
Thyroid cartilage, laryngeal cartilage
Pharyngeal constrictors, laryngeal muscles
CNX Vagus

78
Q

What % of mesiodens erupt spontaneously?

A

25%

a mesiodens that is conical in shape and not inverted has a better chance for eruption than one that is tubercular and inverted

79
Q

T/F The face develops btwn 24thand 28th day.

A

T.

80
Q

The 3rd arch has what skeletal, muscle, and nerve derivatives?

A

Lower part of body of hyoid (bone)

stylopharyngeus muscle (muscle)

glossopharyngeal nerve CN9 (nerve)

81
Q

Describe the ideal primary dentition occlusion

A

Flush terminal or mesial step
class I canines
generalized spacing including primate spaces
2 mm overjet
2 mm overbite (30%)

82
Q

What are the morphologic developmental stages of the tooth?

A

Lamina
Bud : prolif, morpho
Cap : prolif, histo, morpho
Bell : prolif, histo, morpho
Advanced bell
Hertwig’s Epithelial root sheath
Enamel and Dentin : apposition

83
Q

What % of incisors erupt ectopically or are impacted from supernumerary teeth?

A

About 2%

Incisors can also have altered eruption due to pulp necrosis (following trauma or caries) or pulpal tx of the primary incisor

84
Q

When you extract the primary canine, what % of permanent canines erupt that were previously impacted/off the track

A

75%

85
Q

Pharyngeal arch structure

A
86
Q

What is the frequency of hypodontia?

A

1.5 – 10% excluding 3rd molars
Handbook: 4%, no gender differences

  1. 3rd molars most common (20%)
  2. mandibular 2nd premolar (3.4%)
  3. max lateral incisor (2.2%)
  4. max 2nd premolar (0.85%)
    <1% primary (max incisors & 1st molars)
87
Q

Correlate the arches 1-4 with the cranial nerves:
trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, vagus, facial

A
  1. Trigeminal
  2. Facial
  3. Glossopharyngeal
  4. Vagus
88
Q

Name a common 2nd cleft anomaly

A

Branchial cleft cyst

  • congenital epithelial cyst
  • 90% arise from 2nd branchial cleft
  • M = F
  • cysts twice as common as fistulas
  • Tx: surgical excision
89
Q

Can poor nasal respiration increase facial height and cause anterior open bite?

A

Yes

also increased OJ and narrow palate
but not the sole or even major cause of these conditions

90
Q

Which teeth are most commonly affected by microdontia?

A
  1. Laterals
  2. 2nd premolars
  3. 3rd molars

most to least

91
Q

Peak mandibular growth occurs between which two stages of Cervical Vertebral Maturation?

A
92
Q

When should you treat a strong maxillary frenum?

A
  1. Attachment exerts a traumatic force on the gingiva causing the papilla to blanch
  2. Attachment causes a diastema to remain after the eruption of the permanent canines
93
Q

Bifid uvula is an example of cleft palate

A

Yes. Can range from submucous to complete, palatal muscle diastasis, notch in posterior surface of hard palate

94
Q

Ideal time to ext the mesiodens

A

Adjacent incisors have at least 2/3 root development will present less risk to the developing teeth but still allow for spontaneous eruption of the incisors

95
Q

Which headgear tends to open the bite and extrudes molars?

A

Cervical pull headgear

HPHG minimizes bite opening effect

96
Q

What is the incidence of hyperdontia?

A

0.5 – 2%
‘as high as 3%’ in oral surgery guideline

5x more common in the permanent dentition
Males affected 2x more than females
10x more common in maxillary arch versus mandibular

97
Q

What are average values for SNA, SNB, ANB, and GoGn to SN

A

SNA – 82
SNB – 80
ANB – 2
GoGn to SN (mandibular plane) – 32
OP to SN – 14

98
Q

What is growth?

A

Increase in size

99
Q

2nd pouch anomalies

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst
failure of ablation of thyroglossal duct
anywhere from base of tongue to upper mediastinum
cystic lesion just below hyoid in midline that moves with deglutination and tongue protrusion

Lingual thyroid
failure of migration of thyroid → atopic
90% of cases at the base of tongue (ectopic thyroid tissue)
4:1 female: male
usually not noted until teen or young adult
asymptomatic usu; dysphagia, airway compromise
reddish mass at base of tongue
70% lack normal positioned thyroid tissue (only thyroid)
1/3 have hypothyroidism (edema of face and tongue, delayed eruption of teeth)

100
Q

By what week are the palatal shelves usually fused?
A. 10 wks
b. 11 wks
c. 12 wks

A

c. 11 wks.

Secondary palate zips closed from incisive foramen posteriorly
Primary palate zips from posterior to anterior.

101
Q

If canine impaction diagnosed at a later age (11 to 16), if the canine is not horizontal, what % of the time will the permanent canine erupt if you extract the primary canine?

A

75%

Extraction of the first primary molar also has been reported to allow eruption of the first bicuspids and to assist eruption of the canine

102
Q

What is average SNA?

A

82˚
bigger SNA means maxillary prognathism
smaller SNA means maxillary retrognathism

103
Q

What embryonic structures give rise to the palate?

A

Median nasal process → primary palate
Maxillary processes → palatal shelves (2o palate)
these structures fuse anteriorly and posteriorly from the area of the incisive foramen

104
Q

What % of ectopically erupting permanent molars self-correct?

A

66%
by age 7

(22% for CLP)

105
Q

What is incisor liability (quantitatively)?

A

Maxilla: 7.6 mm
Mandible 6.0 mm (handbook – 5mm)

Difference in width between the permanent incisors and primary incisors

106
Q

How much is Leeway space and what does it mean?

A

Size difference between primary molars & permanent premolars
Maxillary arch has about 1.5 mm per side
Since A,J 1.5 mm > 4, 13
Mandibular arch has about 2.5 mm per side
Since K,T 2mm > 20, 29
L,S 0.5 mm > 21, 28

Handbook says 0.9 mm per quad for upper
1.7 mm per quad for lower

107
Q

Does the mandibular intermolar width and arch length increase or decrease with age?

A

Both decrease

108
Q

Pharyngeal arch derivatives

A
109
Q

If the resting tongue position is normal, does a tongue thrust have clinical significance?

A

No, only if the resting position is forward

Then incisor displacement is likely

110
Q

What structures are derived from the median nasal process?

A

Philtrum, tip of nose, columella, primary palate (premaxilla)

111
Q

What is the hyperplasia?

A

Increase in # cells

112
Q

What process are the palatal shelves part of?

A

Maxillary process. Union is through fusion.

113
Q

What is the prevalence of microdontia?

A

1 – 8%

114
Q

Which gender has more mesiodens occurrence?

A

Males

Purple book (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions