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Skyborne > CPL > Flashcards

CPL Flashcards

1
Q

When to put gear down

A

Before 1000ft, midfield downwind

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2
Q

Touch and gos

A

No touch and gos if rwy is less than 4000ft

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the up limit switch?

A

If all three are depressed then the gear Unsafe light will extinguish

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4
Q

What about the down limit switch?

A

If all three are depressed it will signal the hydraulic pump to stop, and also give us the three green indication in the aircraft.

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5
Q

Gear Warning Horn will sound WHEN

A
  • Gear lever is up but the squat switch is open on the ground
  • Throttle is less than 14” of Manifold Pressure and gear is in the up position
  • Flaps 25 or greater is selected and gear is still in the up position
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6
Q

Vx & Vy

A

Vx = 72GD and = 78GU
Vy = 78GD and = 90GU

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7
Q

Speeds in normal traffic pattern

A

95/85/75 in traffic pattern

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8
Q

Vr and Vle and Vretraction

A

71 & 129 & 107

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9
Q

Manifold pressure and rpms for manoeuvres and traffic pattern, fast nav or cruise

A

19” 2400rpm for maneuvers and traffic pattern 24” 2500rpm for nav or fast cruise

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10
Q

What is a prop overspeed, and why does it happen?

A

Loss of oil pressure, due to leak, oil flowing towards engine from prop hub

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11
Q

What would be some instances we would want to land gear up?

A

Marshy, muddy terrain, over water, or if we could not properly get 3 green

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12
Q

What can you do with a CPL and if you don’t know where can you find out?

A

find out in FCL (flight crew licence)
​Exercise ALL the privileges of the holder of a LAPL and a PPL
​Act as PIC/Co-pilot of any aircraft operations, other than commercial air transport
​Act as PIC of commercial air transport of any single-pilot aircraft, subject to restrictions
​Act as a co-pilot in commercial air transport, subject to restrictions

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13
Q

Cloud distances

A

​Below 10’000ft 5km visibility, 1500m sideways, 1000ft below cloud
Above 10’000ft 8km visibility, 1500m sideways, 1000ft below cloud

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14
Q

V glide

A

79

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15
Q

• Black rubber inside wheel well?

A

Help reduce any damage

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16
Q

• Why doesn’t the tubing get caught as the wheel goes up?

A

Strut extends as the wheels come off the ground, which pulls the tubing tight and stops it from getting caught

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17
Q

• Why are there 2 static ports

A

To get an average between the two

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18
Q

• Antennas on the top

A

VOR, ELT, Coms, GPS (MCAT on bottom, Marker beacon, coms, ADSB, transponder)

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19
Q

• What colour is JetA1

A

Straw

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20
Q

• Type of fuel

A

100LL (low led for anti knocking properties)

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21
Q

What are the take-off and landing distances factors?

A

• Find in part CAT/POH performance charts. Take off safety factor x1.25. Landing Safety factor x1.43

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22
Q

How long is class 1 medical valid for? And class 2

A

Class 1: Single pilot operations: 1 year under 40, 6 months above 40
• Dual pilot operations: 1 year under 60, 6 months above 60
• Class 2 - 5 years under 40, 2 years over 40, 60+ is 6 months

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23
Q

How long do you need to keep the record of your flight for (plog)?

A

3 years and you would find it in part CAT

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24
Q

Difference between revalidation and renewal

A

Revalidation = still valid and making it still valid
• Renewal = its expired and you need new one

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25
Q

What are the differences between Airmanship and TEM?

A

• Airmanship - SOP, checklist knowledges
• TEM - knowing stuff on the day identifying risks and how to mitigate

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26
Q

How is MSA determined?

A

Highest obstacle plus 300ft, buildings/masts do not need approval under 300ft

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27
Q

CPL licence - If you started your own business and had a CPL what would you need to charge for flights?

A

• AOC, Air Operators Certificate

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28
Q

What is an MOA and can you fly in it?

A

• Military Operating Area, VFR allowed exercise extreme caution when flying

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29
Q

What is Max Drift and how do you calculate it?

A

• Max drift - the maximum amount of drift that you will experience in flight
• (Wind speed/TAS) x60 = Max drift

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30
Q

What are you checking when you look at the main gear

A

• Check the over centre joint, hydraulic actuator, J-hook, down lock switch and the squat switch if on the left gear.

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31
Q

How does the landing gear go up?

A

Electrically driven hydraulically actuated

32
Q

How does the landing gear go down?

A

• Completely gravity it is slowed down by hydraulics so not so rough

33
Q

How does the landing gear go down?

A

• Completely gravity it is slowed down by hydraulics so not so rough

34
Q

Why do the Ailerons have counter balances?

A

reduces flutter which allows the manufacturer to set a higher VNO and VNE

35
Q

What is the piece of wire on the ailerons? (connecting the wing and aileron

A

• Wire on the far side of the wing, makes sure that static charges are shared between the wing and the aileron. So that the charge can dissipate through the static wick.

36
Q

What trim tab does the arrow have

A

Anti servo trim tab - moves in the same direction as control

37
Q

Tyre pressures

A

Main gear = 27 psi
• Nose gear = 30 psi

38
Q

Can you fly on a tyre with no tread?

A

Yes (recycled inner tubes)

39
Q

What does the stall inducer do?

A

• Causes the wing to stall closer/over the root so that the airflow goes over the stabilator creating the buffet feel and leaving the ailerons unstalled.

40
Q

What happens if the static port becomes blocked, what will Airspeed read in the climb

A

• One of the static ports blocked - second static port on the tail will take the reading
• Both ports blocked - PUDSOD / POCSUC Static under reads in climb

41
Q

What power does the external charge use?

A

12 Volt, inline with the battery voltage

42
Q

Intakes, intake below landing light and right of prop looking front on

A

• Intake below landing light - environmental systems, provides air which flows around a shroud and the exhaust, provides heated air for the cabin and window defrost
• (looking front on at nose) Intake to right of prop (next to cylinder 2) - allows cooling air to enter towards lower portions of cylinder 2 and 4

43
Q

Air inlet for alternate air / air filter

A

• Located on the bottom of the cowling within the wheel-well, unfiltered and heated so don’t leave it on unless necessary.

44
Q

The Antennas

A

• Top (tail to nose): VOR, ELT, Coms, GPS (VEC-G)
• Bottom (tail to nose): Marker Beacon, Coms 2 (long wire), ADSB, Transponder. (MCAT)

45
Q

Why are the antennas different lengths?

A

• To pick up different different length radio waves

46
Q

What is the frequency of the ELT?

A

243Mhz UHF (121.5 x2)

47
Q

What frequency does the transponder operate on?

A

• All SSR systems use 1030Mhz as the uplink frequency from a ground-based interrogator, 1090Mhz as the downlink frequency from an airborne transponder UHF.

48
Q

Marker beacons

A

75Mhz carrier frequency.
Inner (white) 3000Hz modulation (6 dots),
Middle (amber) 1300Hz modulation (dots and dashes),
Outer (blue) 400Hz modulation (dashes).

49
Q

VOR Frequency

A

108 -117.95 MHz

50
Q

Coms Frequency

A

118 -136 Mhz

51
Q

What is the allowable alcohol limit for a pilot to fly? Is it the same for everyone?

A

UK CAA stipulates that a pilot may not perform duties with a BAC (blood alcohol concentration) of 0.2 grams per litre of blood. The FAA allows this to range between 0.2 and 0.4 grams.

52
Q

How do you find VA for your current weight?

A

(√current weight/max gross weight) x Va at max weight

53
Q

Which wing is starboard and which is port? Which colour NAV light would you expect to see on each?

A

Starboard - Right (green light)
- Port - Left (red light)

54
Q

How do you renew your SEP rating?

A

Pass a proficiency check in a single-engine (single-pilot) aeroplane with an examiner. The proficiency check must take place within the 3 months immediately before the rating’s expiry date; or

  • 12 hours of flight time in single-engine (single-pilot) aeroplane within the 12 months preceding the rating’s expiry date, including the following:

 6 hours as pilot-in-command (PIC)

 12 take-offs and landings

 a training flight of at least 1 hour (or a maximum of three totalling 1 hour) with the same flight instructor or class rating instructor. If you have already completed a proficiency check or skill test in another type or class of aeroplane, you will not have to complete this training flight

55
Q

When doing your magneto check, what is the maximum allowable difference between each magneto drop? How much is one of the magnetos allowed to drop?

A

Max drop - 175 RPM

Max difference between two drops - 50 RPM

56
Q

When might a pilot expect to experience flutter? How is VNE determined?

A
  • Past VNE. Determined through test flights.
57
Q

Is there a clearway at Vero Beach 12L? How would I find this information?

A

12L ASDA and TORA are the same, making it a balanced field runway, so no clearway. You can find this in either the AIP or Chart Supplement book.

58
Q

Why doesn’t the Warrior have aileron balances?

A

The aileron balances permit the Arrow to fly at higher speeds (VNO and VNE). They do so because the reduce flutter which typically occurs past VNE. This is determined through flight testing.

59
Q

What are you looking for when you’re checking the aileron?

A

Checking that the aileron moves up and down, free of obstruction. Checking that the ailerons move symmetrically. Checking that the linkages are not loose or damaged. Checking that the bonding wire between wing and aileron are connected.

60
Q

What should you as a pilot do if you need to climb above a high obstacle and you know that you have a blocked static port (causing both airspeed and altimeter to under-read)?

A

Trim Vy attitude (around 8 degrees) and ensure that power and manifold is pressure is full, continuing the climb, reading your instruments would be unreliable.

61
Q

Say, for example, you need to use alternate static air. What should you do?

A

Close the cabin vents. The alternate static port is located inside the cockpit. Airflow into the cabin (through the vents) at a positive pressure will cause the static pressure of the cabin/cockpit to increase. This will cause erroneous static readings and unreliable indications.

62
Q

Position fix

A

tune into 2 VORs, tail of bearing pointers are the radials you are on, draw radials and plot on map where they cross and then cross check with ground map features

63
Q

What is PartCAT?

A

Commercial Air Transport. Part refers to the subsection of rules originally from the EASA Basic Regulation.

64
Q

What are the typical minimum altitudes outside of controlled airspace? Can you fly below 500ft?

A

Minimum altitude that will allow for a safe forced landing. 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a 2000ft radius of the aircraft when overhead built up areas. 500ft otherwise. Technically you can go below 500ft as long as you’re not within 500ft of a person, building or vehicle.

65
Q

What is this (pointing at the oil cooler vent)?

A

It’s the oil cooler vent. Air intake to the left of the prop as you look at it from the front, is the oil cooler air and it exits out the vent at the bottom.

66
Q

Why are the ELT access point screws plastic?

A

Allows for easier access to the ELT on the ground after a forced landing and the power is out in the aircraft. The ELT carries an internal power source and can be removed and carried around to track the position on your person.

67
Q

What is this (pointing to the data plate)?

A

Aircraft data plate which can identify an aircraft in the event of a crash and major damage.

68
Q

What is the spin recovery (red box item)?

A

RUDDER………………..Full opposite to the direction of rotation
CONTROL WHEEL………………..Full forward whilst neutralising ailerons
THROTTLE………………Idle
RUDDER……………………..Neutral (once rotation has stopped)
CONTROL WHEEL…………….As required to smoothly regain level flight attitude

69
Q

Squat switch

A

Left main gear, keep gear from retracting when on the ground, metal tab should be open

70
Q

Prop governor

A

Controls oil flow to hub via the pilot valve

71
Q

Exercise propeller? run up check

A

Bring prop lever (blue) down:
First time: drop in rpm by couple 100
Second: increase in manifold pressure - engine working harder, higher prop pitch
Third: decrease in oil pressure - oil flowing from engine to prop and check none leaking from cowling

72
Q

Fuel system tank size useable fuel

A

Two 38.5 us gallon tanks, total 77, useable 72

73
Q

Static ports location

A

Rear of aircraft either side of fuselage near tail

74
Q

Vs Vs0 (dirty)

A

60, 55

75
Q

Prop over speed emergency procedure

A

Throttle - RETARD, Oil Pressure - Check, Prop control - FULL DECREASE rpm, then set if any control available, Airspeed - REDUCED, Throttle - AS REQUIRED to remain below 2700rpm

76
Q

Vno, Vne

A

Vno = 146
Vne = 183

Skyborne (7 decks)

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