CPH 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Preemption

A

a legal doctrine that allows a higher level of government to limit or eveneliminate the power of a lower level of government to regulate a specific issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

linear regression

A

used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable –> output is continuous
- the relationship between two variables is typically represented by a straight line. The standard form of a linear regression equation is:

y=mx+b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

inversely proportional linear regression

A
  • As one variable increases, the other decreases in a systematic way. Mathematically, an inversely proportional relationship can be expressed as:

Y= k/x

y is dependent variable, x is independent variable, k is a constant

  • If the inverse relationship is strong, the correlation coefficient (r) in the regression analysis would be negative, indicating a negative linear relationship.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

National Ambient Air Quality Standards

A

he NAAQS includes standards for six principal air pollutants, often referred to as “criteria pollutants.” The six pollutants are:

Ground-level Ozone (O3): Ozone can have adverse effects on respiratory health and is a major component of smog.

Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5): These are tiny particles suspended in the air, which can penetrate the respiratory system and cause various health issues.

Carbon Monoxide (CO): A colorless, odorless gas that can be harmful when inhaled in large amounts, particularly in enclosed spaces.

Sulfur Dioxide (SO2): Exposure to sulfur dioxide can irritate the respiratory system and contribute to air pollution.

Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2): Nitrogen dioxide can irritate the lungs and contribute to the formation of fine particles and ground-level ozone.

Lead (Pb): While lead emissions have decreased significantly, exposure to lead can still have harmful effects, especially in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Primordial prevention

A
  • the set of actions and measures aimed at preventing the development of risk factors for diseases and health conditions at the population level, before they even emerge
  • primordial prevention seeks to address the underlying social, economic, and environmental determinants that contribute to the development of risk factors.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Example of primordial prevention

A

Early Childhood Nutrition Programs: Implementing nutrition education and programs in early childhood settings, such as preschools and daycare centers, to instill healthy eating habits from a young age. This may involve teaching children and their parents about the importance of a balanced diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins.

Community Initiatives: Implementing community-wide programs and initiatives that promote access to affordable and nutritious food. This might involve working with local farmers’ markets, grocery stores, and community gardens to increase the availability of fresh produce in neighborhoods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primary prevention

A
  • To efforts and interventions aimed at preventing the onset of diseases, injuries, or health conditions before they occur

Examples of primary prevention include vaccinations, lifestyle modifications to reduce risk factors, and health education campaigns promoting healthy behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Secondary prevention

A

focuses on preventing the onset of diseases, secondary prevention is concerned with early identification and intervention to reduce the impact of established health problems

EXAMPLE: Mammography for Breast Cancer: Regular mammograms are recommended for the early detection of breast cancer in women. Detecting breast cancer at an early stage through screening allows for more effective treatment and improved outcomes.

Pap Smears for Cervical Cancer: Pap smears or Pap tests are used to detect abnormal cells in the cervix that may lead to cervical cancer. Early detection allows for the removal of abnormal cells or the treatment of early-stage cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tertiary prevention

A

This type of prevention is implemented after a disease or health condition has been diagnosed and treated, and it focuses on rehabilitation, support, and improving the quality of life for individuals with chronic or long-term conditions.

EXAMPLE: Exercise Programs: Prescribed and supervised exercise programs are designed to improve cardiovascular fitness, muscle strength, and overall physical function. Exercise helps individuals with heart disease regain and maintain their health and mobility.

Nutritional Counseling: Guidance on heart-healthy eating habits is provided to manage risk factors such as high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and diabetes. A healthy diet is essential for managing and preventing further cardiovascular issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Health disparity

A
  • differences in health outcomes or access to healthcare services between different populations, often linked to social, economic, or environmental disadvantages

EXAMPLE: Social Determinants of Health: Disparities in income, education, and employment can impact access to healthy foods, safe environments for physical activity, and healthcare services.

Cultural and Linguistic Barriers: Differences in cultural beliefs, health literacy levels, and language barriers may affect the understanding and management of diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Health disparity and income gap

A

The relationship between health disparities and income gaps is rooted in social determinants of health, which are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. These social determinants, including income, education, employment, and access to healthcare, significantly influence individuals’ health outcomes and contribute to health disparities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

examples of diffusion of innovation

A

Innovators (Early Adopters):

The first individuals to adopt smartphones were the innovators, often tech enthusiasts and early adopters who are willing to take risks and try new technologies. They might have been attracted to the novelty and potential of mobile computing.
Early Majority:

As smartphones became more popular and their benefits more evident, the early majority started to adopt them. This group tends to be more cautious but is influenced by the experiences of innovators and early adopters.
Late Majority:

The late majority adopts innovations once they become well-established and widely accepted. Concerns about the novelty or complexity of the technology diminish as it becomes a norm in society.
Laggards:

Laggards are the last to adopt an innovation. They may resist change and stick to traditional technologies until they become obsolete or are no longer widely available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is an example of using resources in a built environment?

A

The built environment influences a person’s level of physical activity. For example, inaccessible sidewalks and bicycle or walking paths contribute to sedentary habits. These habits lead to poor health outcomes such as obesity or diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the primary scope of services

A

Disease Prevention and Control:

Implementing measures to prevent the spread of infectious diseases.
Conducting disease surveillance and monitoring to identify and control outbreaks.
Health Education and Promotion:

Developing and disseminating health education materials.
Conducting community outreach and educational programs to promote healthy behaviors and lifestyles.
Maternal and Child Health:

Providing prenatal and postnatal care to pregnant women.
Offering child health services, including immunizations, well-child check-ups, and nutritional support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When reviewing expense, which function of management focus on this?

A

control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what nutrient promotes algae bloom?

A

nitrogen and phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the budget type for reviewing financial report?

A

operating budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the different budget types?

A
  1. Operating Budget
  2. Capital Budget
  3. Cash Budget
  4. Master Budget
  5. Zero-Based Budget
  6. Flexible Budget
  7. Incremental Budget
  8. Expense Budget
  9. Revenue Budget
  10. Project Budget
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are community based results

A

Health:

Increased Immunization Rates: A community-based health program aims to improve immunization rates among children, and a community-based result might be an increase in the percentage of vaccinated children.

Decreased Incidence of a Specific Disease: A community-based intervention targeting disease prevention may aim to reduce the incidence of a particular health issue within the community.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Market justice

A

Market forces as the primary mechanisms for ensuring access to healthcare services. It contrasts with the concept of social justice in healthcare, which emphasizes a more collective and equitable approach to providing healthcare services.

EXAMPLE: Individual Responsibility:

Market justice places a significant emphasis on individual responsibility for health and healthcare. It argues that individuals should be responsible for their own health, and those who can afford healthcare services should be able to access them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what managerial function forms the structure of authority?

A

organizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the different managerial function?

A

Planning
Organizing
Leading (or Directing)
Controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the relationship between confidence interval and risk ratio?

A

If the confidence interval for the risk ratio includes 1, it suggests that the risk ratio is not statistically significantly different from 1. This implies that there is no statistically significant association between the exposure and the outcome.

If the confidence interval does not include 1, it suggests that the risk ratio is statistically significantly different from 1. This implies a statistically significant association between the exposure and the outcome.

The width of the confidence interval reflects the precision of the risk ratio estimate. A narrower interval indicates greater precision, while a wider interval indicates greater uncertainty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ROI

A

current value of investment - cost of investment over cost of investment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS)

A

a condition that involves compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel, a narrow passageway in the wrist. The carpal tunnel is formed by the carpal bones on the bottom of the wrist and a ligament (the transverse carpal ligament) that runs across the top.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Public Health systems research

A

a field of study that focuses on understanding, analyzing, and improving the organization, delivery, and performance of public health systems. It involves investigating the structures, functions, processes, and outcomes of public health systems to enhance their effectiveness, efficiency, and impact on population health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ethnocentricism

A

the tendency to believe that one’s own cultural or ethnic group is superior to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

culturism

A

There are instances where the term “culturism” is used in a negative sense, similar to ethnocentrism but specifically focusing on culture. This negative form of culturism involves the belief that one’s own culture is superior to others and the tendency to judge or discriminate against individuals from different cultures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Plurism

A

a state in which multiple distinct groups or entities coexist within a society, and each maintains its own identity, beliefs, and practices. It is often used in the context of cultural, religious, political, or social diversity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the extent to which organizational goals are attained?

A

The extent to which organizational goals are attained in public health organizations can vary based on several factors, including the nature of the organization, its mission, resources, leadership, and the complexity of the public health challenges it addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the fastest growing contributor to healthcare cost?

A

retail prescription drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are disadvantage of a department organized by function?

A

communication barriers, lack of coordination, slow decision making, narrow perspective, duplication of effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sovereign immunity

A

This doctrine is based on the principle that the government cannot be sued without its permission because it acts as a sovereign entity with certain immunity from legal claims. The idea is rooted in the historical concept that the king or sovereign could not be sued in their own courts.

  • Public health agencies engage in various activities to protect and promote the health of the population. These activities can include disease surveillance, vaccination programs, emergency responses, and public health regulations. Sovereign immunity may come into play if legal claims arise from these activities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Leaders vs managers

A

Leaders: focus on the what and why, prioritize people and relationships, driving and managing change, have long-term focus, calculates risks and encourage innovation, adaptable and open to change

Mangers: focus on how of the achieving specific tasks and goals, focus on tasks and activities, concern with maintaining stability, focus on short-term objectives, control and direct activities, tend to be more risk-averse, seek stability and prectiability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Operating budget

A

Purpose: Plans the day-to-day operations of the organization over a specific period (usually one fiscal year).
Components: Includes revenue budget, expense budget, profit and loss statement, and cash flow statement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Capital budget

A

Purpose: Focuses on major capital expenditures, such as the acquisition of new equipment, facilities, or long-term investments.
Components: Identifies and allocates resources for significant capital projects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cash budget

A

Purpose: Manages and forecasts cash inflows and outflows to ensure that the organization maintains adequate liquidity.
Components: Projects cash receipts and disbursements, helping in short-term cash management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Master budget

A

Purpose: Integrates all individual budgets (operating, capital, etc.) into one comprehensive budget, providing an overview of the organization’s overall financial plan.
Components: Combines various budget components to create a holistic financial plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Zero-based budget

A

Purpose: Requires departments to justify all expenses from scratch, starting with a zero base, rather than using the previous year’s budget as a reference.
Components: Each expense must be justified, and the budget is built based on the needs and priorities for the upcoming period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Flexible budget

A

Purpose: Adjusts the budget based on changes in activity levels, allowing for flexibility in response to varying levels of production or sales.
Components: Variables are defined, and the budget adjusts proportionally as activity levels change.

41
Q

Incremental budget

A

Purpose: Builds on the previous year’s budget, with incremental changes or adjustments made based on anticipated changes in the upcoming period.
Components: Adjustments are made to the existing budget based on expected changes.

42
Q

Expense budget

A

Purpose: Focuses specifically on controlling and managing the organization’s expenses within predefined limits.
Components: Detailed breakdown of planned expenditures in various expense categories.

43
Q

Revenue budget

A

Purpose: Focuses on planning and projecting the organization’s sources of income, such as sales, fees, or grants.
Components: Forecasts expected revenue streams and sets targets for income generation.

44
Q

Project budget

A

Purpose: Allocates resources and funds for a specific project, outlining the costs associated with its completion.
Components: Details project-specific expenses, including labor, materials, and other relevant costs.

45
Q

Planning

A

Involves setting objectives, identifying strategies, and determining the actions needed to achieve organizational goals. Planning provides a roadmap for the organization’s future.

46
Q

Organizing

A

Focuses on arranging resources, tasks, and people to implement the plans effectively. Organizing includes creating a structure that facilitates goal attainment.

47
Q

Leading

A

Involves guiding, influencing, and motivating individuals or teams to achieve organizational goals. Leadership encompasses communication, motivation, and the facilitation of teamwork.

48
Q

Controlling

A

Entails monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting activities to ensure that organizational objectives are met. Controlling involves measuring performance against standards and taking corrective actions when necessary.

49
Q

One sample Z & t test

A
  • 1 continuous variable (dependent) and the proportion of dichotomous variable (independent)
  • need atleast 10 observations
50
Q

Two sample test

A
  • comparing a sample with a population
  • tries to determine if the data correspond to a specific population
  • is there a statistical difference between the means of the two samples
51
Q

Matched pair test

A
  • used in twin studies or before and after clinical studies
  • individual readings are not independent
52
Q

Anova

A
  • conducted to compare means of three or more continuous variables by comparing the variation in the values of the members within each of the subsamples
53
Q

Chi squared goodness of fit

A
  • 2 different groups (dichotomous) or more (nominal)
  • when you have a known set of proportions with which to compare, such as racial makeup in a sample compared with census data
54
Q

chi squared test of independence

A
  • need to calculate marginal frequencies
  • one categorial variable (nominal or ordinal) –> not independent
  • DF: (r-1)(c-1)
  • if two variables are independent, then the cell counts will closely match the product of the marginal frequencies
55
Q

Nonparametric tests

A

mann-whitney U test, sign test, wilcoxon signed rank test, kruskal-wallis test

56
Q

mann-whitney U test

A
  • 2 different group (dichotomous) or 2 treatment groups
  • dependent variable is continuous
  • compares the ranks instead of raw values of data between two samples
57
Q

sign test

A
  • 2 different groups, but not independent groups
  • dependent variable is continuous
  • It is insufficient for the 2 samples to be the same size. Each of the members of each group needs to be dependent on a member from other group. This test is used to compare before and after readings
  • considers the direction of difference
58
Q

wilcocon signed rank test

A
  • 2 different groups, but not independent groups
  • dependent variable is continuous and not normally distributed
  • it is insufficient for the 2 samples to be the same size. Each of the members of each group needs to be dependent on a member from the other group. This test is used to compare before and after readings.
  • Considers both the magnitude and the direction of difference
59
Q

Kruskal-wallis test

A
  • independent variable: 2 or more different groups
  • continuous variable
  • compares the medians among the different samples
60
Q

simple linear regression

A
  • x: 1 variable (continuous or ordinal); y: 1 continuous variable
  • 4 assumptions: linearity, independence, normality, heteroscedasticity
  • describes the data using the least squares
61
Q

multiple linear regression

A
  • x: 2 or more variables (continuous, ordinal, nominal); y: 1 continuous variable
62
Q

logistic regression models

A
  • x: 1 or more variables (continuous, ordinal, nominal); y: 1 dichotomous variable
  • used to estimate the probability of an event occurring based on a given set of data
63
Q

survival analysis

A
  • x: 1 or more variables; y: time to event
64
Q

log rank test

A
  • x: 1 or more variable; y: time to event data
65
Q

Graphical types for nominal/ dichotomous variables

A

bar chart, pie chart

66
Q

Graphical types for ordinal variables

A

histogram

67
Q

Graphical types for continuous variables

A

box and whisker plots

68
Q

hazard identification

A

determines if a chemical under exposure conditions likely to occur in humans can cause an increase in the incidence of an adverse heath effect

69
Q

Exposure assessment

A

the process of identifying potential exposure routes, specifying an exposed population, and measuring or estimating the magnitude, duration, and frequency of an exposure

70
Q

risk characterization

A

the development of a qualitative, semi-quantitative, or quantitative estimate of the risk associated with a given chemical under a defined exposure scenario.

71
Q

Biochemical oxygen demand

A

the rate at which oxygen is being consumed by microorganisms living in the water

72
Q

Lethal dose (LD50) values are determined by the amount of a substance that does the following:
a) kills those exposed to 50 grams of substance
b) kills at least 50 individuals exposed to the substance
c) kills a population when given at least 50 milliliters of the substance
d) kills 50% of those exposed to the substance

A

d) kills 50% of those exposed to the substance

73
Q

Why are goals and objectives important to each stakeholder?

A

so that duplication of efforts is minimized
- you also need to determine what they need from you

74
Q

Community toolbox

A

offers several tips on creating a vision and building consensus among stakeholders
- group facilitation methods: paired listening, story boarding, nominal group technique, and ranking
- this will help generate discussion and establish a unified vision

75
Q

social marketing approach

A

focuses on the needs and wants of the intended recipient of the communication
- uses the term product to refer to a tangible good

76
Q

What do model developers suggest using PRECEDE as the framework for?

A

for creating logical model (theory) of the problem itself with graphic representations of the causal relationship between health problems and their causes

77
Q

situation analysis

A

refers to the consideration of community demographic, social, and economic parameters in any given community in conjunction with the highest-priority issues, goals, and resources of the planning committee

78
Q

SWOT

A
  • strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats analysis
  • help identify existing community strengths or assets that can support the intervention, identify weaknesses, and plan for opportunities and potential threats, which can be both internal and external
79
Q

Milestone

A

good idea for groups to establish short term and long term goals to help the group continue to build on successes

80
Q

Type of Assets (community asset mapping)

A

human resources, physical resources, informational resources, political resources, existing intervention resources

81
Q

Healthy People 2020

A
  • federal government’s prevention agenda for building a healthier nation
  • it is a statement of national health objectives designed to identify the most significant preventable threats to health and to establish national goals to reduce these threats
82
Q

cost-benefit analysis

A

quantifies tangible and “soft” outcomes into a monetary number

83
Q

cost-effectiveness analysis

A

measures program outcomes in similar units across programs (ex. life-years saved) rather than trying to quantify the outcome in dollars

84
Q

Cost-utility analysis

A

measures outcomes by using a standardized morbidity or mortality measure, often a metric called a quality-adjusted life-year

85
Q

Types of sampling

A

simple random sample, systematic sample, stratified sample

86
Q

simple random sample

A

enumerate all members of population N, select n individuals at random

87
Q

systematic sample

A

start with sampling frame; determine sample interval; select first person at random from first and ever thereafter

88
Q

stratified sample

A

organize population into mutually exclusive strata; select individuals at random within each stratum

89
Q

p-value is 0.02

A

this would mean that there is truly no difference between the two groups of children then 2% of the time we perform this test we would obtain the effect observed in the sample data

90
Q

one way anova

A

compares three or more unmatched groups with one independent variable

91
Q

two way anova

A

determines how a response is affected by two independent variable

92
Q

Community Coalition Action Theory

A

describes the structures and processes that encompass engagement and consensus-building efforts among diverse organizations and individuals to address community-level issues, recognizing the importance of leadership, membership, processes, structures, engagement, resources, assessment, and planning

93
Q

Stages of coalition devleopment

A

formation, maintenance. institutionalization

94
Q

memorandum of agreement

A

minimize potential disagreements, provide accountability, describe deliverables, act as reporting/dissemination mechanism
- allow stakeholders to consult legal or financial advisors

95
Q

Jacobson v. Massachusetts and Viemeister v. White

A

Jacobson v. Massachusetts = compelling vaccinations
Viemeister v. White = vaccinations required for school attendance

96
Q

ACA

A
  1. Aim to achieve near universal coverage
  2. Improve fairness, quality, affordability
  3. make HC more accountable, reduce wasteful spending
  4. Strengthen primary care and prevention
  5. Invest in public health
97
Q

Interactive planning

A

involves ongoing communication and engagement with stakeholders from various sectors to collaboratively develops and implement public health interventions
- responsive to the needs and priorities of the community
- ex: community forums, working groups, and collaborative decision making platforms

98
Q

Operations research

A

scientific approach to decision making that uses statistical analysis to improve efficiency and effectiveness of operations in complex systems
- optimize resource allocation, improve disease surveillance systems, design vaccination campaigns

99
Q

organizational cybernetics

A

the study of communication and control processes within organizations, with a focus on understanding how feedback loops and adaptive mechanisms can be used to improve decision-making and performance
- enhance ability to learn from experience to improve their effectiveness