CPH

Question 1

What are the levels of the social ecological model?

Answer 1

individual, interpersonal, organizational, community, public policy

Question 2

Theories contributing to individual level

Answer 2

The health belief model and transtheoretical model (processes/stages of change)

Question 3

Theories contributing to interpersonal level

Answer 3

theory of planned behavior & social cognitive theory

Question 4

Theories contributing to community level

Answer 4

Roger’s diffusion of innovations

Question 5

What is the social ecological model used for?

Answer 5

• need to intervene in all levels
• used to understand the individual and environment to understand the influence
• understand the risk of protective factors and addressing leverage points

Question 6

Constructs of diffusion of innovation

Answer 6

• innovation: idea, product, process
• communication channels: methods to make innovation known to social system
• time: time it takes for innovation-decision process to occur, and rate of adoption
• social system: group in which the innovation is introduced

Question 7

Literacy advocates in the U.S. recommend that for health promotion materials to be effective, they should be written at which of the following reading levels?

A 2nd–4th grades
B 6th–8th grades
C 10th–12th grades
D college level

Answer 7

B* 6th–8th grades

Question 8

The introduction of sewage into a stream is most likely to cause a measurable change in which of the following ways?

A decrease in decomposing organic concentration
B increase in biochemical oxygen demand
C increase in dissolved oxygen concentration
D stabilization of biochemical oxygen demand

Answer 8

B increase in biochemical oxygen demand

Question 9

Diversity of the workforce is considered important in health care research, education, and administration for which of the following reasons?

A It increases efficiency.
B It improves health literacy.
C It decreases work-related stress.
D It demonstrates institutional commitment.

Answer 9

D It demonstrates institutional commitment.

Question 10

Approximately how many local health departments are there in the United States?
A 890
B 3,000
C 10,600
D 59,000

Answer 10

B* 3,000

Question 11

Which of the following is the most important limitation in the use of vital statistics data for public health research?
A Births and deaths that occur outside of institutions are not recorded.
B Data collected vary substantially from state to state.
C Data files are not readily available to people collecting data outside the agency.
D Variables of research interest may not be collected

Answer 11

D* Variables of research interest may not be collected

Question 12

A needs assessment process identifies several behavioral and environmental factors on which the intervention could potentially focus. However, to keep the project on budget, the scope of the intervention must be limited. Which of the following criteria is most appropriate to consider when deciding on which behavioral and environmental factors to focus the intervention?

A compliance with guidance from the project’s sponsor
B what is feasible within the project budget
C the specific research interests of the planning team members
D the strength of the evidence that the desired changes can be achieved

Answer 12

D* the strength of the evidence that the desired changes can be achieved

Question 13

Which of the following historical events raised awareness of the need for the protection of research subjects and resulted in the 1947 creation of the International Code of Ethics for research?
A Nazi human experimentation
B Willowbrook hepatitis studies
C publication of the Belmont Report
D Tuskegee Syphilis Study

Answer 13

A* Nazi human experimentation

Question 14

Most funding for nursing home care in the United States comes from which of the following sources?
A Medicaid
B Medicare
C out-of-pocket
D private insurance

Answer 14

A* Medicaid

Medicaid is a federal and state government program that provides health coverage for low-income individuals, and it plays a significant role in funding nursing home care for those who meet the eligibility criteria. While Medicare (Option B) covers short-term nursing home care in specific situations, it is Medicaid that primarily supports long-term nursing home care for those with limited financial means. Out-of-pocket payments (Option C) and private insurance (Option D) also contribute to nursing home care funding, but they are generally secondary to Medicaid for those who qualify.

Question 15

A health services researcher is studying a new influenza vaccination to determine whether it should be recommended for all senior citizens. Which of the following vaccination attributes is most appropriate to evaluate first in the process of assessing the new vaccination?
A cost-benefit
B effectiveness
C efficacy
D efficiency

Answer 15

C* efficacy

Efficacy is related to how well a vaccine works under ideal or controlled conditions in clinical trials, which might not always reflect real-world performance. Evaluating efficacy is essential, but it typically comes after assessing effectiveness in real-world settings.

Question 16

Community public health goals and objectives are best developed by which of the following?
A elected officials who are accountable to the public
B public health professionals who have access to data trends
C medical professionals who treat members of the community
D members of the community who understand community needs

Answer 16

D* members of the community who understand community needs

In public health, it is essential to engage the community in the goal-setting and objective-development process. Members of the community who understand their own needs and priorities can provide valuable insights into what specific health goals and objectives are most relevant and feasible for their particular community. This participatory approach ensures that the goals and objectives align with the community’s values and address their specific health concerns. While elected officials, public health professionals, and medical professionals can contribute valuable input, involving the community itself is central to the success of public health initiatives.

Question 17

According to the transtheoretical model of change, as individuals go from pre-contemplation to maintenance, “con” behavioral beliefs decrease and “pro” behavioral beliefs increase. This process is best described as which of the following?
A decisional balance
B self-liberation
C reinforcement management
D self-efficacy

Answer 17

A* decisional balance

The concept of “decisional balance” is central to the transtheoretical model of change. It involves weighing the pros and cons of behavior change. As individuals progress through the stages of change (pre-contemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance), they become more aware of the advantages (pros) of changing their behavior and the disadvantages (cons) of not changing. This process helps individuals make informed decisions and move towards successful behavior change.

Question 18

The management of a health care facility requires staff to adhere to ethical principles and provide culturally appropriate care. The institutionalization of these values is most likely to influence which of the following aspects of health care provided by this facility?
A acceptability
B accessibility
C accountability
D adequacy

Answer 18

A* acceptability

By promoting and enforcing ethical principles and culturally appropriate care, a healthcare facility is more likely to be seen as acceptable and trustworthy by the community it serves. Patients and their families are more likely to accept and seek care at a facility that values ethics, respects cultural diversity, and provides care in a culturally sensitive manner. This contributes to the overall acceptability of the facility in the eyes of its patients and the community.

Question 19

Which of the following methods is most appropriate for collecting data from stakeholders for a community-based intervention?
A conducting a mail survey
B conducting a telephone survey
C holding key informant interviews
D reading the blogs of community members

Answer 19

C* holding key informant interviews

Conducting key informant interviews is often the most effective way to collect in-depth, qualitative data from stakeholders in a community-based intervention. Key informants are individuals who have a deep understanding of the community, its needs, and the issues at hand. Through interviews, you can gather valuable insights, perspectives, and context-specific information that may not be captured through other methods like mail or telephone surveys.

Question 20

Which of the following terms describes the process of working with and through groups of people in partnerships and coalitions that help mobilize resources and influence systems to address their wellbeing?
A collaboration
B community action
C community engagement
D constituency development

Answer 20

C* community engagement

Community engagement involves actively involving and collaborating with community members, organizations, and stakeholders to address the needs and wellbeing of the community as a whole. It often includes building partnerships, coalitions, and working collectively to promote positive change and empower the community to be part of the decision-making process. Community engagement is a key concept in public health and community development to ensure that the community’s voice and needs are central in shaping interventions and policies.

Question 21

A study is conducted to compare colorectal screening rates in white and African-American men. Researchers contact 50 white men and 50 African-American men older than 50 years of age by telephone and ask them if they have undergone colorectal screening. Fifty-five percent of white men and 49% of African-American men report undergoing appropriate screening. Which of the following tests is the most appropriate method of analysis of the survey data?
A paired t-test
B Pearson chi-square (X2) test
C two-sample t-test
D Spearman correlation test

Answer 21

B* Pearson chi-square (X2) test

The chi-square test is commonly used for analyzing categorical data to determine whether there is an association or significant difference between two categorical variables, such as race (white vs. African-American) and colorectal screening (underwent or did not undergo screening). It’s a suitable method for assessing the relationship between these two variables and determining if there’s a statistically significant difference in screening rates between the two groups.

Question 22

Researchers are seeking a spokesperson for a health communication campaign to promote breast cancer screening for low-income women. To ensure the strongest effect of the campaign on the target group, the researcher should select a spokesperson who shares which of the following characteristics with the target group?
A personal attitudes
B ethnic background
C level of knowledge
D socioeconomic status

Answer 22

A* personal attitudes

Question 23

On the basis of the present evidence, the greatest reduction in injuries and death related to motor vehicles in the United States is most likely to be a result of which of the following?
A increase in law enforcement and highway patrol officers
B stricter motor vehicle inspection laws
C modifications to vehicles and highway systems
D stiffer penalties for drunk drivers and repeat speeders

Answer 23

C* modifications to vehicles and highway systems

While all of the options listed can contribute to improving road safety, modifications to vehicles and highway systems have demonstrated the greatest potential for reducing injuries and deaths related to motor vehicles.

Question 24

A federal law is passed requiring labeling on food products. In subsequent years, the rate of obesity among adults decreases. Which of the following terms best describes the relationship between the law and the change in obesity rates?
A causal
B correlated
C retrospective
D prospective

Answer 24

B* correlated

Question 25

A local health department establishes a program with community outreach and clinical components that is intended to reduce the number of drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. A measure of the program's outcomes is the number of A clinical visits for drug-resistant tuberculosis. B community education sessions. C drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. D patients receiving follow-up care for drug-resistant tuberculosis.

Answer 25

C* drug-resistant tuberculosis cases. The number of drug-resistant tuberculosis cases is a direct and objective measure of the program's effectiveness in achieving its intended outcome. Reducing the number of drug-resistant tuberculosis cases is the primary goal of the program, and this measure reflects the program's impact on public health.

Question 26

Which of the following is a modeling and simulation tool used to investigate stocks, flows, and feedback loops of complex problems? A interactive planning B operations research C organizational cybernetics D system dynamics

Answer 26

D* system dynamics System dynamics is a methodology for studying complex systems by examining the relationships among various components (stocks and flows) and the feedback loops that affect the system's behavior over time. It is particularly useful for analyzing dynamic systems, such as those found in environmental, economic, and public health contexts. System dynamics models help in understanding how changes in one part of the system can have cascading effects throughout the system.

Question 27

Which of the following is a characteristic of a health care system based on social justice? A Access to medical care is viewed as an economic reward of personal effort and achievement. B Production and distribution of health care are determined by market-based demand. C An individual's ability to pay is considered inconsequential for receiving medical care. D Markets are assumed to be more efficient than government at allocating health resources equitably.

Answer 27

C* An individual's ability to pay is considered inconsequential for receiving medical care. In a health care system rooted in social justice, access to medical care is not determined by an individual's ability to pay. Instead, it emphasizes the equitable distribution of healthcare services and resources to ensure that everyone, regardless of their financial means, has access to necessary medical care. The principle of social justice seeks to reduce health disparities and promote fairness in healthcare delivery. It stands in contrast to systems where access is determined by an individual's economic status or market-based demand (Options A and B). The focus is on providing care based on need, rather than the ability to pay.

Question 28

A group uses problem solving to reconcile underlying differences and create a win-win situation for the mutual benefit of all parties. This approach exemplifies which of the following styles of conflict management? A accommodating B avoiding C collaborating D compromising

Answer 28

C* collaborating Collaborating is a conflict management style where all parties work together to find a solution that addresses the concerns and interests of everyone involved. It is a win-win approach that aims to create outcomes that benefit all parties and is often characterized by open communication, active problem-solving, and a commitment to finding mutually agreeable solutions. In this style, the focus is on reaching a consensus that satisfies the needs and goals of all parties involved.

Question 29

What percentage of all spending on health in the United States is devoted to public health funding? A 3% B 11% C 28% D 52%

Answer 29

A* 3%

Question 30

A researcher wants to conduct a study of hookah use in a college town. He plans to use the PRECEDE-PROCEED Planning Model. Which of the following is an example of a reinforcing factor in this situation? A feeling relaxed after using hookah B self-efficacy to decline using a hookah C having multiple hookah cafes around campus D knowledge of the health effects of hookah use

Answer 30

A* feeling relaxed after using hookah A describes a personal outcome of using hookah (feeling relaxed), which may be an immediate consequence.

Question 31

Which of the following best exemplifies a vision statement in a health department's strategic plan? A The department will provide quality, comprehensive, culturally proficient health services. B The department will initiate a smoking education program in all primary schools in the region. C The department is committed to protecting and promoting the health of the residents of the community. D The department will provide extraordinary service to the community it serves, resulting in the healthiest community in the region.

Answer 31

D* The department will provide extraordinary service to the community it serves, resulting in the healthiest community in the region. A vision statement is typically a forward-looking statement that describes the aspirational and inspirational goal or future state that an organization aims to achieve. It often goes beyond specific actions or services and conveys a broader sense of purpose and the desired outcome. Option D clearly articulates a vision of providing extraordinary service with the ultimate goal of creating the healthiest community in the region.

Question 32

The following table shows the incidence risk of oral cancer in cigarette smokers and non-smokers: Oral Cancer Rates per 100,000 Smoker 35.0 Non-Smoker 18.0 The attributable risk of oral cancer due to cigarette smoking is equal to A 35.0 / 18.0. B 35.0 - 18.0. C 35.0 x 18.0. D 35.0 + 18.0.

Answer 32

B* 35.0 - 18.0.

Question 33

The PEPFAR program was created to respond to which of the following global health concerns? A malaria B tuberculosis C dengue fever D HIV/AIDS

Answer 33

D* HIV/AIDS PEPFAR is a U.S. government initiative established to combat HIV/AIDS on a global scale, primarily focusing on providing resources and support to address the HIV/AIDS epidemic in various countries, particularly in sub-Saharan Africa. It is one of the largest and most significant programs aimed at preventing and treating HIV/AIDS worldwide.

Question 34

A crucial step for establishing positive team interdependence is A determining deadlines. B attending group meetings. C establishing group member roles. D managing communication patterns.

Answer 34

C* establishing group member roles. Establishing clear roles and responsibilities for each team member is essential for building positive team interdependence. When team members understand their roles and how they contribute to the team's goals, it helps create a sense of purpose and encourages collaboration. This clarity in roles ensures that everyone knows what is expected of them, which, in turn, fosters a more effective and cohesive team. While other factors, like managing communication patterns (Option D), are also important, they often depend on having well-defined roles in the team.

Question 35

A recent report on suicide rates among indigenous youth noted that the incidence of suicide rates among the children and youth of the Inuit population living in northern arctic region is five times higher when compared to the rates in rest of Canada. The government has recently asked for policy options to be drafted that could help reduce the incidence of these suicides. Which of the following potential stakeholders is key to be engaged in this process? A physicians working in urban cities B local school district board C local municipalities D non-profit organizations

Answer 35

B* local school district board The local school district board is a crucial stakeholder in this process because schools play a significant role in the lives of young people. They can provide support, education, and intervention programs to address mental health issues and suicide prevention. Engaging with the local school district board is essential in developing and implementing strategies to help youth at risk.

Question 36

The landmark Institute of Medicine report in 1988 entitled The Future of Public Health, identified three core functions of public health as A epidemiology, health policy, and evaluation. B surveillance, program development, and health policy. C assessment, policy development, and assurance. D administration, implementation, and monitoring.

Answer 36

C* assessment, policy development, and assurance.

Question 37

Which of the following phases of the policy-making process includes a "window of opportunity"? A policy modification B policy rulemaking C policy formulation D policy implementation

Answer 37

C* policy formulation The "window of opportunity" typically refers to a specific period during the policy formulation phase when external factors, such as political, social, or economic conditions, create a favorable environment for the consideration and development of new policies. During this phase, policymakers and advocates can introduce and shape policy proposals. It's a critical time to influence the policy agenda and build support for particular policy options. Once the policy formulation phase ends and a specific policy is developed, it moves into the policy rulemaking and policy implementation phases.

Question 38

The times observed for completing a sorting task are scored in terms of order of finish. This is an example of A continuous data. B interval data. C nominal data. D ordinal data.

Answer 38

D* ordinal data. Ordinal data is a type of categorical data in which the values can be ordered or ranked, but the intervals between values are not necessarily equal or meaningful. In this case, the order of finish represents a ranking, but the time intervals between the order of finish categories may not be consistent or equal. It conveys information about the relative position or order of the data but does not provide information about the exact magnitude or distance between the categories.

Question 39

A smoking cessation campaign highlights better health outcomes and a healthier environment. Which of the following social marketing principles is used in this campaign? A focusing on behavioral outcomes B maintaining a market perspective C prioritizing consumers' rather than marketers' benefits D developing a strategic marketing mix of communication elements

Answer 39

C* prioritizing consumers' rather than marketers' benefits In this campaign, the emphasis is on the benefits that consumers (smokers) would receive by quitting smoking, such as improved health outcomes and a healthier environment. The focus is on addressing the needs and desires of the target audience, which aligns with the principle of prioritizing consumers' benefits. This approach is more likely to resonate with and motivate the target audience to change their behavior.

Question 40

Leading by example best exemplifies which of the following styles of leadership? A strategic B visionary C delegative D participative

Answer 40

D* participative

Question 41

A mother and her child have lived in an area with poor air quality for several years, yet only the child shows symptoms of an environmentally linked respiratory disease. Which of the following is the most likely reason? A Young children show symptoms earlier than adults. B Young children have higher metabolic and respiratory rates. C Adults living in these areas develop tolerance to air pollutants. D Adults are more likely to have comorbidities that mask the symptoms.

Answer 41

B* Young children have higher metabolic and respiratory rates.\] Young children often have higher metabolic and respiratory rates compared to adults. This means that they breathe more rapidly, and their bodies process air pollutants differently. As a result, they may be more vulnerable to the effects of poor air quality and may show symptoms of environmentally linked respiratory diseases earlier and more acutely than adults. Their developing respiratory systems and higher metabolic rates can make them more susceptible to the negative effects of air pollutants.

Question 42

Which communication technique makes it easier to understand and use health information? A plain language B common terminology C ethical communication D gender-neutral language

Answer 42

A* plain language Plain language is a communication approach that involves presenting information in a clear, straightforward, and easily understandable manner. It avoids complex jargon, technical language, and unnecessary complexity. This technique is particularly important in healthcare to ensure that patients and the general public can comprehend health information and instructions, enabling them to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions regarding their health. It promotes health literacy and helps people access, understand, and use health-related information effectively.

Question 43

In an urban community, which of the following is most likely to contribute to the heat island effect? A reducing housing density B increasing the use of air-conditioning C minimizing areas of vegetation growth D increasing the number of power plants

Answer 43

C* minimizing areas of vegetation growth The urban heat island effect occurs when urban areas experience higher temperatures than their rural surroundings, primarily due to human activities and the built environment. One significant factor contributing to this effect is the reduction of vegetation, including trees and green spaces, in urban areas. Trees and vegetation provide natural shade and cooling through evapotranspiration, which helps mitigate the absorption and retention of heat in urban environments.

Question 44

An example of a health disparity is A an elderly population who receive low-cost dental care. An example of a health disparity is B a rural town served by a doctor with an office 50 miles away. C physically disabled patients with access to Medicaid coverage. D an unequal occurrence of sickle cell anemia across racial groups.

Answer 44

B a rural town served by a doctor with an office 50 miles away.

Question 45

Which source of United States law gives power to health departments? A treaties B statutes C regulations D common law

Answer 45

B* statutes Health departments derive their authority from statutes, which are laws enacted by legislative bodies, such as Congress at the federal level and state legislatures at the state level. These statutes provide the legal framework and authority for health departments to carry out their public health functions and responsibilities. Health departments then develop and enforce regulations (Option C) based on the authority granted to them by statutes to address specific public health issues. Treaties (Option A) and common law (Option D) may play roles in other areas of law but are not the primary sources of power for health departments.

Question 46

Which of the following complaints is most likely to result in the investigation of a restaurant? A One person reported becoming ill after eating at the restaurant. B Two people became ill, one with a migraine headache and one with diarrhea, after eating at the restaurant. C Three friends became ill with vomiting within 4 hours of eating the same food items. D Five family members developed diarrhea within 48 hours of eating at the restaurant.

Answer 46

C* Three friends became ill with vomiting within 4 hours of eating the same food items. This complaint suggests a cluster of individuals who became ill after eating the same food items at the restaurant in a relatively short time frame. Such clusters of foodborne illnesses are often investigated as they may indicate a potential foodborne outbreak. In this case, the commonality of the food items and the timing of the illness onset in multiple people raise concerns about the safety and quality of the food served at the restaurant. Food safety authorities are likely to investigate to determine the cause and prevent further cases.

Question 47

Evidence-based guidelines for the communication of public health risks and disasters recommend which of the following practices? A being available to the media during a crisis B stating "no comment" when the level of risk is unknown C maintaining a professional separation from media sources D limiting the background information presented to the media

Answer 47

A* being available to the media during a crisis Maintaining open and accessible communication with the media during a public health crisis or disaster is a recommended practice. Effective communication is essential to inform the public, provide guidance, and manage the dissemination of accurate and timely information. By being available to the media, public health authorities can help ensure that accurate and important information is conveyed to the public, which can help mitigate risks and manage the crisis more effectively.

Question 48

The correlation between social status and health in economically developed countries is most likely explained by which of the following? A genetic differences B cultural and linguistic competency C health care financing and quality of services provided D chronic anxiety related to low social status in addition to lack of material resources

Answer 48

D* chronic anxiety related to low social status in addition to lack of material resources While all of the factors listed can play a role in health disparities, the social determinants of health, including socioeconomic factors, have a significant impact on health outcomes. Low social status, often associated with lower income and education levels, can lead to chronic stress and anxiety related to one's social position. This chronic stress can have adverse effects on health.

Question 49

What are the six general phases for policymaking process?

Answer 49

1. Agenda setting 2. Policy formulation 3. Policy adoption 4. Policy implementation 5. Policy evaluation 6. Policy modification

Question 50

Agenda setting

Answer 50

the key in policy process and pertains to getting the problem on the agenda whereby Congress, state legislator, or local public officials seek to address the identified problem

Question 51

Policy formulation

Answer 51

when policies are proposed to address the problem and then debated by policymakers. Although policy makers may agree a problem is important, inaction can occur if an acceptable policy solution is not agreed upon.

Question 52

Policy adoption

Answer 52

occurs after a policy adopted when government units make the policy operation, which requires both human and financial resources

Question 53

Policy implementation

Answer 53

occurs after a policy is adopted when government units make the policy operational. which requires both human and financial resources

Question 54

Policy evaluation

Answer 54

follows implementation to determine whether the policy is meeting its goals in addressing the identified problem

Question 55

Policy modification

Answer 55

occurs after policy evaluation when results are used to determine if a policy should be continued, modified, or repealed

Question 56

Title XVII of the Social Security Act (Medicare)

Answer 56

enacted in 1965 under President LBJ, provides health care coverage to person who are 65 years and older. Later it expanded to cover younger persons who qualify for social security benefits

Question 57

Medicare Part A

Answer 57

covers hospital inpatient care and if funded by a payroll tax that is paid by both employers and employees

Question 58

Medicare Part B

Answer 58

covers supplemental medical services. Participation in Part B requires Medicare beneficiaries to pay a monthly premium that is supplemental by federal funds

Question 59

The Medicare policy "window of opportunity" in 1965 was successful with the passage of Medicare because of what factors? A. The public perceived that a problem existed B. Support existed for the policy design C. A majority in Congress supported the plan D. All of the above

Answer 59

D. All of the above

Question 60

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA)

Answer 60

Enacted in 2010, a key provision is that employers with 50 or more employees must purchase health insurance for their employees or otherwise pay a penalty. It also required noncovered individuals who do not qualify for Medicaid to purchase health insurance, with federal subsidies to those with qualifying incomes.

Question 61

The ACA legislation was passed as a result of what factors? A. The policy solution was embraced by a majority of Republicans in Congress B. The majority in Congress supported the proposed policy solution C. The political climate between Republicans and Democrats was favorable D. All of the above

Answer 61

B. The majority in Congress supported the proposed policy solution

Question 62

Title XIX of the Social Security Act (Medicaid)

Answer 62

enacted in 1965, the original Medicaid covers low-income persons in special needs categories, such as pregnant women, children, etc. vary by state with some states providing more generous benefits than others - This is a federal-state partnership

Question 63

Since then, what occurred with the Medicaid expansion? A. All states have expanded Medicaid consistent with the ACA B. Some states have requested waivers to avoid the mandate to expand Medicaid C. The US Supreme Court overturned the mandate for states to expand Medicaid D. Some states have been given approval to delay their Medicaid expansion

Answer 63

C. The US Supreme Court overturned the mandate for states to expand Medicaid

Question 64

SCHIP

Answer 64

covers children who do not qualify for original Medicaid, but whose family incomes are insufficient to afford private health insurance

Question 65

EMTALA

Answer 65

ED screening examination was not provided, passed to ensure emergency care is accessible to all persons and not based on a patient's ability to pay - an unfunded mandate, such that hospitals and physicians risk not being paid for the EMTALA services they are required to provide

Question 66

HCAHPS survey

Answer 66

asks hospital patients about their satisfaction with factors such as communication with doctors and nurses, responsiveness of hospital staff, discharge instruction, and overall rating of the hospital

Question 67

IOM model

Answer 67

focuses on forming community coalitions to identify and prioritize health problems and subsequently develop, implement, and monitor intervention strategies

Question 68

Matched paired T-test

Answer 68

values need to be associated in a specific manner than makes the readings not independent

Question 69

Sentinel surveillance

Answer 69

monitors a special community to look for changes in distribution of disease - conducted in a small location

Question 70

Interval variables

Answer 70

continuous variable that has distinct order - lacks true zero - fail to reveal ratios of amounts ex. PH--> 0 does not mean absence of acidity

Question 71

Four P's of marketing

Answer 71

price, place, product, promotional strategy

Question 72

Nuisance Abatement

Answer 72

the control of the interference with a community's use of public space ex. improper sewage disposal

Question 73

Coagulation & flocculation

Answer 73

- part of the steps for water treatment - chemicals with positive charge are added to the water to neutralize the effects of dirt and other dissolved particles

Question 74

What does assessment do?

Answer 74

- monitor health - diagnose & investigate

Question 75

what does policy development do?

Answer 75

- inform, educate, empower - mobilize community partnerships - develop policies

Question 76

What does assurance do?

Answer 76

- enforce laws - link/provide care - assure competent workforce - evaluate

Question 77

Vision

Answer 77

communicates what your organization believes are the most ideal conditions for your community

Question 78

Mission

Answer 78

describes what the group is actually going to do and why

Question 79

Objective

Answer 79

answer the question of who, what, how much and by when

Question 80

regression

Answer 80

used to predict or estimate the value of one variance corresponding to a given value of another variable

Question 81

P (A U B)

Answer 81

P(A) + P(B)

Question 82

P(A|B) =

Answer 82

P(A n B)/ P(B)

Question 83

When there is enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis...

Answer 83

it means the sample mean is extreme enough and the confidence interval does not include the hypothesized value

Question 84

when there is not enough evidence to reject the null

Answer 84

sample mean is not extreme enough and confidence interval includes the hypothesized value

Question 85

when do we do a t-test

Answer 85

when a given sample with mean and there is an unknown population standard deviation

Question 86

when do we use a two-sample t-test

Answer 86

- when we are comparing people in one group to people in a second group when these two groups are independent of each other - when we have continuous measurements (blood pressure, lead levels in blood, birth weight) - the population distribution of the measurement are approximately normal in the two groups

Question 87

what does it mean when graph is skewed left

Answer 87

mean is less than median

Question 88

what does it mean when graph is skewed right

Answer 88

mean is greater than median