CPG 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Where a temporary overdraft accommodation remains outstanding for longer than 30 days it shall be classified as a past due loan.

A

TRUE

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2
Q

According to the CPG, for obligor to whom we have extension of credit, there will be several approvals across the bank towards problem recognition, the classification of problem exposure and remedial action

A

FALSE

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3
Q

Credit portfolio risk limits may be proposed by credit Management and approved by Management credit committee

A

FALSE

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4
Q

In order to ensure transparency of risks taken, it is the responsibility of Relationship Management to accurately, completely and in a timely fashion, report the comprehensive set of credit risk data into the independent risk reporting system

A

FALSE

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5
Q

Settlement risk occurs when there is a simultaneous exchange of value with a counter party for the same value date and verification that payment is received is not made until after the bank has paid / delivered on the obligation

A

TRUE

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6
Q

While considering settlement risk, there is also a risk that the counter party does not deliver at all and as such resulting in exposure of the bank to direct lending risk

A

TRUE

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7
Q

Clearing risk is the risk that the bank may be reimbursed on another value date for payments made on behalf of customers

A

TRUE

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8
Q

Documentation risk is the risk that documentary evidence on which the bank depends to enforce rights under contracts or transactions will not be complete, covered and enforceable

A

TRUE

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9
Q

Legal and regulatory risks may occur when the Bank, a related corporate entity, a transaction or a customer is subject to a change in exposure resulting from legal or criminal sanctions or litigations

A

TRUE

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10
Q

Liquidity risk is the risk that the bank will be able to meet all of its financial commitments to
customers and markets when due

A

FALSE

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11
Q

Under the CPG, it is the responsibility of Management and Board of Directors to ensure the
integrity of the credit process and proper documentation of credit decision

A

FALSE

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12
Q

The level of authority required to approve credit will decrease as amounts and transaction
risks decreases and as risk ratings improves

A

TRUE

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13
Q

The CPG proposes a system of multiple standards for the measurement of credit risk in order
to ensure consistency across business, stability in methodologies and transparency of risk

A

FALSE

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14
Q

Contingent lending risks may occur in products ranging from letters of credit to guarantees to
unusual commitments

A

TRUE

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15
Q

Direct lending risk exists for the entire life a transaction

A

TRUE

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16
Q

Contingent lending risk exists for the entire life of the transaction

A

TRUE

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17
Q

Country risk events may include political events

A

TRUE

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18
Q

Tentative action shall be taken on a reactive basis to minimize the bank`s loss on a non-performing asset

A

FALSE

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19
Q

Under the CPG, approval credit product programs shall demonstrate that the behavior of the
portfolio will not be predictable

A

FALSE

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20
Q

Individual credits are applicable in respect of facility request and credit approvals for
customers who do not fit into credit product programmes and product offerings

A

TRUE

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21
Q

Individuals / business credits are suitable for which, if any, of the under listed

A

Any of above

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22
Q

Is it right to state that some credit activities in the Retail Banking business unit may be
categorized as individual /business credits

A

FALSE

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23
Q

The board credit committee is the highest credit approval body in the bank and is responsible
for approval of credit beyond the authorized approval limit

A

FALSE

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24
Q

The criticized assets committee is headed by GDMD and is convened once every month to
review all qualifying assets and take decision on remedial action and / or provisionary

A

FALSE

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25
Q

The Board credit committee is headed by the GMD and by the GDMD in his absence

A

FALSE

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26
Q

Loans that show little or no movement during their tenor or which fail to be liquidated on due
date are to be regarded as delinquent

A

FALSE

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27
Q

The decision to transfer non-performing facility to the remedial assets Management unit is
normally taken at Management credit committee meetings

A

FALSE

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28
Q

In some instances where it is determined that the probability of turnaround of a facility
performance is remote, such facility may be immediately classified as lost

A

FALSE

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29
Q

Under which of the under listed instances will a facility be classified lost

A

death/disappearance of obligor

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30
Q

Generally, recovery action may be instigated at any point in time in the life of a credit exposure

A

FALSE

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31
Q

In the event of recovery, the bank`s entitlement shall be limited to the full amount of principal and interest unpaid to date of recovery

A

FALSE

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32
Q

Where sale proceeds from realizing a collateral security falls short of the bank`s entitlement, the difference may be forgiven the customer

A

FALSE

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33
Q

The relationship Manager is responsible for bringing in industry, prudent and other specialists (e.g., Legal, Tax) when required

A

TRUE

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34
Q

Risk Management policies are approved by the Board Credit committee to enable informed decision making and approval, and establish / maintain an appropriate environment for risk
Management

A

FALSE

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35
Q

Compliance with the CPG shall be monitored on an ongoing basis by Credit Risk Management and reported on a quarterly basis to the MCC

A

TRUE

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36
Q

Regardless of Risk Rating Limits, Legal Lending Limits will always prevail

A

TRUE

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37
Q

Exposure against Risk Rating Limits may be measured as the outstanding and unusual
commitments (OSUC) to a relationship

A

TRUE

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38
Q

OSUC to a given relationship does not include settlement and clearing exposure, or the underwritten position of a credit under listing transaction unless the position becomes aged beyond the extension period

A

TRUE

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39
Q

What level of approval is required for Cash Exception

A

Line ED/Head CRM

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40
Q

What level of approval is required for Immaterial Exceptions

A

Line ED/Head CRM

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41
Q

What level of approval is required for Passive Exception

A

Line ED/Head CRM

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42
Q

What level of approval is required for Long-term conditioning

A

MCC

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43
Q

An approved Risk Rating Limit exception does not need to be re-approved during the annual review process

A

TRUE

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44
Q

Risk management policies shall be approved by the Board of Directors to enable informed decision making and approval, and establish/maintain an appropriate environment for risk management in the bank

A

TRUE

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45
Q

The Management Credit Committee (MCC) shall consider facility proposals in excess of the highest individual credit authority limit. Facility proposals that exceed the approval authority of the MCC shall be approved by The Board Credit Committee on behalf

A

TRUE

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46
Q

All appointments and designations for credit risk approval, as well as corresponding credit limits, must be reviewed and re-approved by the Head of Credit Risk Management at least twice a year.

A

TRUE

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47
Q

Each customer facing business unit need not maintain up to date records of credit approval authority delegated to approving officers

A

FALSE

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48
Q

Credit programs shall be primarily defined to accommodate credit offerings where there is business opportunities that such will address for groups or groups of customers with homogenous business fundamentals and/or profiles such that their financial needs are better met through a common approach

A

TRUE

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49
Q

Approvals under credit programs need not be within approved global exposure and maximum individual exposure limits and shall be exercised within the market facing business units, subject to approval limits as may be set by the bank for each product program

A

TRUE

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50
Q

To provide flexibility in managing valued customer relationships, especially for specific Institutional banking customers that satisfy at the minimum, the criteria for the best risk rating, the bank shall approve guidance limits. These shall be pre-approved exposure limits which shall immediately upon approval be advised to the customer but available to allow for
quick response to temporary emergency needs for accommodation / enhancement of facilities.

A

TRUE

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51
Q

Unusual risk policies approved by MCC is limited to, the following: Exposure to director
related accounts; Exposure to politicaly exposed entities and Exposure to gambling entities

A

FALSE

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52
Q

All unusual/special risks shall require approval at Management Credit Committee / Board
Credit Committee or Board of Directors subject to applicable limits

A

FALSE

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53
Q

Any increases to Total Facilities, whether caused by new facilities or increases to existing
facilities, must be approved, based on the new Total Facilities amount, as per the Credit
Facility Approval Grid

A

TRUE

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54
Q

Availments under approved credit facilities shall be through drawdown memorandum
approved by an officer in Credit Risk Management only

A

FALSE

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55
Q

Availments under approved credit facilities shall be through drawdown memorandum
approved by an officer in Credit Risk Management and an officer in Legal Department, who
will verify that all conditions precedent to drawdown have been met.

A

TRUE

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56
Q

Drawdown on facilities classified substandard shall be through drawdown memorandum
approved by an officer in Credit Risk Management and an officer in Legal Department, who
will verify that all conditions precedent to drawdown have been met

A

TRUE

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57
Q

Drawdown of facilities classified doubtful and worse need not be approved by the Head of
Credit Risk Management at a minimum

A

FALSE

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58
Q

When an established credit facility undergoes a material change in terms, tenor or conditions
(with materiality determined by the Head of Credit Risk Management), Total Facilities must
be re-approved, in accordance with the Credit Facility Approval Authority

A

TRUE

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59
Q

When the amount of a credit facility is reduced or cancelled, or the tenor is shortened, the
Relationship Manager / Originating Officer must promptly advise the applicable credit
administration area, in writing, that the credit systems be updated to reflect the changes

A

TRUE

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60
Q

Four officers from the business unit may approve any reallocation or sub allocation from an
approved facility, where the obligor, Exposure Type (Direct, Contingent) and tenor are pre-established, in order to establish or increase another facility under the following conditions

A

FALSE

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61
Q

If a reallocation or sub-allocation is for a related obligor of equivalent or better risk rating
within the same client relationship, and the last three conditions are met, then two business
credit officers may approve reallocations sub-allocations, one of whom must be the
responsible business Group Head

A

TRUE

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62
Q

Upon confirmation of full repayment of the credit facility and liquidation of the bank`s
exposure, all collateral, guarantee or support for any type of credit transaction shall be
released to the customer in accordance with agreed terms and conditions

A

TRUE

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63
Q

The release of collateral, guarantees or support for any type of credit transaction requires the
following approvals: · Before the corresponding commitment is cancelled or repaid, the
Managing director must determine if the release of the collateral, guarantee or support
constitutes a material change in the risk of the transaction. if so, then the transaction must be
re-approved, based on the credit facility approval grid

A

TRUE

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64
Q

Requests to waive or amend the provisions contained in existing credit agreements must be
considered carefully, as they may be a critical component of problem identification and
remedial management activities. Such requests must be approved by the responsible business
Ed and in accordance with the Credit Approval Grid, but not to exceed the Group MD/CEO
limit for credits. Any waiver or ammendments for facilities above that must be approved by
GDMD/GMD

A

TRUE

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65
Q

Amendments to credit agreements, such as the lengthening of tenor, increasing facility
amount, or material relaxation of collateral structure, do not require full credit approval of
Total Facilities, in accordance with the Credit Approval Grid

A

FALSE

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66
Q

Under no circumstance can the periodic review be temporarily extended

A

FALSE

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67
Q

All credit facilities must be reviewed once every 12Months

A

TRUE

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68
Q

All credit facilities must be reviewed once every 12 Months. However the periodic review
may be temporarily extended for up to 60 days with approval of the Business ED and the
Head of Credit Risk Management. Extensions beyond 60 days, up to 90 days, must be
approved by the GMD/CEO (or designee)

A

FALSE

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69
Q

In cases where there has been a review extension the annual review date may then be reset, as
one year from the approved extension date

A

TRUE

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70
Q

Under no circumstance are unaudited financial statements acceptable in the annual review
process

A

FALSE

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71
Q

When Access Bank underwrites and distributes any loans or debt instrument The Hold
Position is the amount that Access Bank intends to retain

A

TRUE

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72
Q

When Access Bank underwrites and distributes any loans or debt instrument The
Underwritten Position is the amount Access Bank commits to purchase and distribute to
investors

A

TRUE

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73
Q

When Access Bank underwrites and distributes any loans or debt instrument The Total
Position is the sum of Access Bank`s Hold and Underwritten Positions

A

TRUE

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74
Q

When Access Bank underwrites and distributes any loans or debt instrument The Total
Position is the amount that Access Bank intends to retain

A

FALSE

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75
Q

When Access Bank underwrites and distributes any loans or debt instrument The Hold
Position is the amount Access Bank commits to purchase and distribute to investors

A

FALSE

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76
Q

When Access Bank underwrites and distributes any loans or debt instrument The
Underwritten Position is the sum of Access Bank`s Hold and Underwritten Positions

A

FALSE

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77
Q

All Credit Programs for Credit Underwriting must be approved in line with the Credit
Approval Authority grid

A

FALSE

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78
Q

Credit underwriting and distribution requires the approval of individuals with highly
specialized market skills and specific product expertise

A

TRUE

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79
Q

The level of approval in credit underwriting does not depend upon the amount and facility
risk rating

A

FALSE

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80
Q

One off transactions (i.e., those done outside a Credit Program) also require approval in line
with the Credit Approval Authority grid

A

TRUE

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81
Q

The Hold Position is subject to credit approval in accordance with the Credit Facility
Approval Authority Grid. This Hold Position amount must be aggregated with other credit
exposures for the relationship, and need not be included in Total Facilities

A

FALSE

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82
Q

Each Credit Program must have an approval process for the Underwritten Position that
specifies approval levels as a function of the size of the underwriting. But the Underwritten
Position, during its defined distribution period, need not be captured by the market risk /
issuer risk reporting and limit framework

A

FALSE

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83
Q

Each Credit Program must have an approval process for the Total Position that specifies
approval levels as a function of the size of the Total Position

A

TRUE

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84
Q

In Best Efforts Undertakings, Access Bank agrees to use its best efforts to place loans or
securities with investors

A

TRUE

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85
Q

Although distribution efforts are similar to an underwriting, a Best Efforts undertaking also
entails a legal commitment to fund any distribution shortfall. However, there is risk here in
the franchise damage associated with a failed undertaking

A

FALSE

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86
Q

Best Efforts Undertakings should either have a specific approval process, documented as part
of a Credit Program, or the total amount of the undertaking must be approved pursuant to
credit underwriting requirements

A

TRUE

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87
Q

In Assignments and Participations the distribution of Underwritten Position is normally
accomplished by assignments, in which an investor assumes his pro rata share of a transaction
on a full risk basis, with no recourse or future funding risk to the underwriter

A

TRUE

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88
Q

Unfunded participations entail counterparty funding risk, in that, should the participant fail to
fund, Access Bank is not obligated. Therefore, any unfunded portion of a transaction sold by
participation does not require credit approval as an increase to the issuer hold position

A

FALSE

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89
Q

With regards to Documentation Requirements Underwriting commitment need not follow
Commitment Letter standards

A

FALSE

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90
Q

Each underwriting and distribution must have a Defined Distribution Period that cannot
exceed 180 days, unless otherwise specified in advance as part of the original transaction
approval

A

FALSE

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91
Q

Distribution period begin For loans - when the issuer accepts Access Bank`s commitment,
either verbally or in writing. And For securities - on the date the price is set

A

TRUE

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92
Q

The distribution is completed when another party contractually assumes Access Bank`s
commitment or purchases the asset

A

FALSE

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93
Q

Even though another party contractually assumes Access Bank`s commitment or purchases
the asset the distribution is in complete

A

FALSE

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94
Q

If an Underwritten Position is not completely sold within the Defined Distribution Period
(usually 90 days), the amount remaining is considered Aged Inventory and must be marked to
market

A

TRUE

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95
Q

All Access Bank employees involved in the creation and management of risk exposures shall
comply at all times with the risk management policies, and procedures as approved

A

TRUE

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96
Q

Compliance shall be monitored on an ongoing basis by the bank`s Internal Audit Unit and reported on a quarterly basis to the Board of Directors

A

FALSE

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97
Q

The risk management unit shall have specific and overall responsibility for ensuring
compliance with the Risk management Policies and procedures

A

TRUE

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98
Q

The Legal Unit shall have specific and overall responsibility for ensuring compliance with the
Risk Management Policies

A

FALSE

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99
Q

The following constitute the pillars of Access Bank`s credit policies and procedures: (Select
the inappropriate item)

A

Credit Official Policy

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100
Q

Risk Rating Limits Policy - Every extension of credit must be approved in line with the approval requirements stated in this policy. Credit Risk Management must sign off on all extension of credits for the credit approval to be valid

A

FALSE

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101
Q

Credit Approval Policy - Access Bank shall utilize Risk Rating Limits to maintain a diversified portfolio of risk asset

A

TRUE

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102
Q

Specific Risk Policy - Certain extensions of credit have incremental or unique approval and risk management requirements or may be prohibited altogether

A

TRUE

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103
Q

Credit Program Policy - Credit programs will be used to document business specific credit approval or risk management requirements, and are approved identically to extensions of credit

A

TRUE

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104
Q

Annual Review Policy - There will be consistent credit analysis standards across Access Bank, for the approval of credit facilities

A

FALSE

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105
Q

Credit Analysis Policy - All credit files must be maintained and reviewed at least once every 12 months

A

FALSE

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106
Q

The following are the rules governing the extension of credit, one of the items does not belong

A

Official Credit Policy

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107
Q

Risk Rating Limits, shall always prevail over Legal Lending Limits set by the Regulators

A

FALSE

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108
Q

Section 20 (1a) of the Bank and Other Financial Institutions Act (BOFIA) 1991 as amended states that a Bank shall not grant more than 50% of its shareholders` funds unimpaired by losses to a company, its subsidiaries and associates

A

FALSE

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109
Q

What concept describes the BOFIA requirement that a Bank shall not grant more than 20% of its shareholders` funds unimpaired by losses to a company, its subsidiaries and associate

A

One Obligor Limit

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110
Q

At Access Bank, the concept of one obligor is extended to include any company belonging to a group whose management are strongly linked by virtue of their related ownership structure and in particular, where the business fortune of one entity affects the other. Thus credits extended to any member of the group shall be aggregated to determine total facilities to the group, as well as the appropriate level of approval of such facilities

A

TRUE

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111
Q

With regards to the one obligor limit It shall be the responsibility of the Board of Directors to determine whether related company obligations shall be aggregated, and the basis for their decision shall be documented

A

FALSE

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112
Q

Listed is the guide, to determining the One Obligor Is there any item listed that is
inappropriate and should be excluded

A

All sub at least 80%

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113
Q

For the purposes of applying Risk Rating Limits, the obligor risk rating that is used must be

A

All of the above

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114
Q

At Access bank, Exposure against Risk Rating Limits is measured as the Outstandings and Unused Commitments (OSUC) to a given relationship

A

TRUE

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115
Q

Outstandings and Unused Commitments OSUC are the sum of all Outstandings (including Direct and Contingent Exposure) against Total Facilities, as well as the unused portion of any Committed Facility included in Total Facilities

A

TRUE

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116
Q

Which of the under-listed statements is correct

A

Outstandings and Unused Commitments OSUC do not include settlement and clearing exposure or the Underwritten Position of a credit underwriting transaction

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117
Q

Which of the under-listed statements is incorrect

A

Risk Rating Limit Exceptions are encouraged but must be approved in advance at the appropriate level

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118
Q

Approval for a Risk Rating Limit Exceptions is determined by the RRLE type

A

TRUE

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119
Q

Types of Risk Rating Limit Exceptions include the following except

A

Long Term & Continuing

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120
Q

Limit exceptions, defined as overages up to 10% of Risk Rating Limit. Is a material exception

A

FALSE

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121
Q

Passive exceptions may be caused by

A

A valuation change on an existing transaction

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122
Q

Passive exceptions need not be pre-approved, instead, they are flagged as part of the regular reporting process, and must be reviewed and their associated action plan must be approved as soon as possible after they occur, (but no later than the next quarterly review of Risk Rating Exceptions)

A

TRUE

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123
Q

Passive exceptions must be pre-approved, and need not be flagged as part of the regular reporting process, nor reviewed. Whilst their associated action plan also need not be approved as soon as possible (Can be later than the next quarterly review of Risk Exceptions)

A

FALSE

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124
Q

Cash, Immaterial and Passive Risk Rating Limit Exceptions (RRLEs) require approval from Line ED and Head of Credit Risk Management (or their designees)

A

TRUE

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125
Q

All Risk Rating Limit Exceptions apart from Cash, Immaterial and Passive exceptions require approval by MCC

A

TRUE

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126
Q

Cash, Immaterial and Passive Risk Rating Limit Exceptions RRLEs require approval by MCC

A

FALSE

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127
Q

All other RRLEs apart from Cash, Immaterial and Passive exceptions require approval from Line ED and Head of Credit Risk Management (or their designees)

A

FALSE

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128
Q

During the annual review all Risk Rating Limit Exceptions must be noted on the Facility Approval Memo

A

TRUE

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129
Q

Under-listed are the steps in the credit approval process select the inappropriate item in the group

A

Step 1: Visit Customers Site

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130
Q

A proposal or marketing letter requires credit approval even though it expressly disclaims any commitment or any undertaking to provide a commitment or other services, and does not obligate Access Bank in any way

A

FALSE

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131
Q

Marketing letters will be jointly approved by the business head or ED and the Head of Credit Risk Management)

A

TRUE

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132
Q

Marketing letters must be jointly approved by the MCC and the managing Director

A

FALSE

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133
Q

When establishing Total Facilities for a relationship, Total Facilities must include the under listed select the inappropriate item:

A

The borrowers business description

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134
Q

The level of authority required for approval is a function of the Total Facilities amount

A

TRUE

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135
Q

The level of authority required for approval can be found on the Credit Facility Approval Grid

A

TRUE

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136
Q

All extensions of credit in the bank need not be approved in compliance with the Credit Risk Management Policy Guide

A

FALSE

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137
Q

Extensions of credit facilities in the regions need not have the concurrence of the Head of Credit Risk in the Regional Office but requires the approval of an officer of the bank with a covering credit approval limit

A

FALSE

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138
Q

Which of the under-listed statements is correct

A

No credit exposure shall be created on the judgment or at the discretion of a single bank officer acting independently. All extensions of credit or In

139
Q

Approval Authority shall be in line with delegated credit approval authority limits at the Board Credit Committee, Management Credit Committee (MCC) or designated bank officers.

A

TRUE

140
Q

An obligor shall represent all related parties that are associated/belong to the same group of companies whose management are strongly linked or share the same ownership. Exposures to any such obligor shall be aggregated to determine the level of Access

A

TRUE

141
Q

Which of the under-listed statements is correct

A

By definition and for the purpose of credit creation at Access Bank, a group of companies shall exist where one or more of the shareholders of the company

142
Q

The following have individual levels for credit approval within the bank except

A

RM

143
Q

Credit approval authority shall be approved by the Group Managing Director/CEO based on delegation by the Board of Directors, on the recommendation of Business EDs and Head of Credit Risk Management

A

TRUE

144
Q

Risk management is the responsibility of

A

All of the above

145
Q

_____ attention shall be paid to quantifiable and non-quantifiable risks

A

Particular

146
Q

Before granting credit to an individual or sole proprietor you must do all the following except

A

Having a personal relationship with the client

147
Q

Individuals or business credit must be secured by all the following except

A

Relevant past history with the Bank

148
Q

Unsecured loans to individuals or organisation, other than to members of staff of the Bank, shall require

A

GMD/GDMD’s approval irrespective of the amount involve (in addition to other approvals that may be required)

149
Q

Which of the following is not a type of Credit Exposures

A

Legal Commitments

150
Q

A credit extension made known to the borrower and to which the Bank is committed (As long as the borrower fulfils prior conditions) is

A

An advised facility

151
Q

Acceptance of an advised credit by a corporate client must be supported by a ________, among other requirements of the facility terms

A

Board Resolution

152
Q

The tenor of revolving credits must not exceed

A

3 years

153
Q

To manage the Bank`s exposure effectively, an Account Officer may choose not to advise the full amount of the facility available for a client. This may be done for one of the following reasons

A

As a marketing tool

154
Q

An Overdraft (OD) is a line of credit that allows a customer write cheques for _______ the actual balance on the account with a finance charge on the excess

A

more than

155
Q

Ideally, the use of an OD should be restricted to

A

Working capital requirements

156
Q

Before granting an OD, It is imperative for an account officer to study the client`s business and satisfy himself as to which of the following:

A

All of the above

157
Q

For customers wishing to draw against confirmed drafts (DAUD or DAUE), the facility shall be approved for

A

The tenor the draft is in clearing

158
Q

The tenor of the Revolving Credit must not exceed

A

Three years

159
Q

The bank will only go into warehouse financing where:

A

All of the above

160
Q

Where a warehouse financing facility is granted which of the following is necessary to be done:

A

All of the above

161
Q

What is the maximum tenure of a time loan

A

one year or less

162
Q

What is the maximum tenor of a term loan

A

7 years

163
Q

Where a financing request or risk is too large for one Bank, two or more Banks may jointly provide financing. The Bank shall be willing to participate in Syndications led by other Banks subject to:

A

Syndicated facility being subject to the same high standards of credit analysis, documentation, etc

164
Q

These are exceptional or unsecured credit extensions to certain companies and/or
individual having special relationships with the Bank, some of which are already subject to certain restrictions by law except:

A

Loans to staff of the bank

165
Q

Agricultural loans are one of the most complex and high risk loans the Bank can grant. Appraisal of all Agricultural loans must take account of:

A

All of the above

166
Q

The Bank may extend credit for specific agricultural ventures: provided that:

A

The bank receives acceptable guarantees from public or private sources external to the project

167
Q

Advance Payment, Bid Bonds and Guarantees should contain all of the following elements except:

A

The Bank may not charge fee for its issuance

168
Q

What is the maximum tenor for placements with approved banks

A

360 days

169
Q

What is the nature of the limit that the CPG imposes on the bank concerning takings
from other bank

A

None

170
Q

Access Bank policy will be not to finance Armament loans and Gambling loans in any form. What exceptions, if any, exist in the CPG

A

Board of Directors must approve

171
Q

Section 20 (1a) of the Banks and Other Financial Institutions Decree (BOFID) 1991 states that a Bank shall not grant more than ______ of its shareholders` funds unimpaired by losses to a company, its subsidiaries and associates

A

0.2

172
Q

The concept of one obligor is taken further to include any company belonging to a group whose management are linked by virtue of their related ownership structure and in particular, where the fortune of one entity can readily pass to the other

A

TRUE

173
Q

As a guide, the term One-obligor to a borrower includes All subsidiaries owned at least 50%; such interest to be an aggregate of both direct and indirect shareholding

A

TRUE

174
Q

As a guide, the term One-obligor to a borrower includes Any less than 50% owned affiliate where the borrower exercises management control. Also where, in the opinion of the lending officer, the commercial fortunes of the affiliate are strongly influenced by the borrower

A

TRUE

175
Q

As a guide, the term One-obligor to a borrower includes Any obligor related to the borrower as a result of guarantees, endorsements, or other similar arrangements in favor of the Bank

A

TRUE

176
Q

As a guide, the term One-obligor to a borrower includes All obligor under common ownership or control of a corporation or individual

A

TRUE

177
Q

What is the current approval limits for Executive Directors

A

75 million

178
Q

What is the current approval limits for Group Deputy Managing Director

A

150 million

179
Q

What is the current approval limits for Group Managing Director

A

200 million

180
Q

What is the current approval limits for Management credit committee

A

500 million

181
Q

What is the current approval limits for Board credit Committee

A

6 billion

182
Q

What is the current approval limits for Board of Directors

A

Above 6 billion

183
Q

There is no limit to the amount of credit which may be approved by the Board of directors provided the credit conforms to the CPG and statutory lending limit

A

TRUE

184
Q

The management Credit Committee is responsible for reviewing and approving all credits that are above the level of the managing Director i.e. the committee shall review and approved extensions of credit, including one-obligor commitments, that exceed N200 Million

A

FALSE

185
Q

The Management Credit Committee shall meet at least at once a month

A

FALSE

186
Q

For an MCC meeting, The Chairman or Vice Chairman, the Secretary and at least 2 other members shall form a quorum.

A

FALSE

187
Q

In the absence of the Group Managing Director, The GDMD automatically assumes the leading limit of the GMD

A

FALSE

188
Q

Recommendation and approval of facilities shall be by a minimum of ______Credit
Officers, at least one of which must have the authority to approve the recommended amount

A

3

189
Q

The bank`s pricing strategy shall be based on the following except

A

Customers ability to pay

190
Q

Which of the following is not a consideration in ascertaining the margins to be applied in estimating lending rate:

A

Size of the customer

191
Q

What is the purpose of risk management policies

A

None

192
Q

Risk management policies may play a role in ensuring optimal customer satisfaction
while maintaining a sound risk asset portfolio

A

TRUE

193
Q

Which one of the following does not form a critical part of the Bank`s risk management policy

A

None

194
Q

Once an underwriting becomes Aged Inventory, a memorandum, specifying the Extension Period (usually an additional 90 days), and describing an action plan or alternate strategy and the Mark to market methodology, must be prepared by Investment Banking Division

A

TRUE

195
Q

The process to approve an Aged Inventory memorandum must be documented as part of the Credit Program. Required approvers must include a business ED and the Head of Credit Risk Management

A

TRUE

196
Q

All Aged Inventory positions must be reported at least monthly to the GMD, GDMD and responsible business Executive Director. The process for reporting Aged Inventory must be included within the Credit Program

A

TRUE

197
Q

Access Bank is committed to conducting business in an environmentally and socially responsible manner, but need not take cognizance of the Equator Principles

A

FALSE

198
Q

All credit relationships are subject to reviews on at least an annual basis in the form of an Abbreviated, a Nominal or a Full Credit Review

A

FALSE

199
Q

True or False

At any time a credit approval authority or the Head of Credit Risk Management may
determine that a more frequent review cycle is more appropriate for a particular relationship, geography, industry or business

A

TRUE

200
Q

An Abbreviated Annual Review is allowable each year for the following: Select the
inappropriate item

A

Any relationships with classified (substandard and worse) facilities or has been adversely noted at a CAC review in the review period

201
Q

What is the segment market for Current Account Individual

A

Individual

202
Q

What account type is Access Premier Account

A

Current

203
Q

Does this account attract interest payment, and at what rate

A

Yes, the interest on the account is 1% per annum

204
Q

What are the variants of MPower Biz accounts

A

MPower Biz Classic, MPower Biz Gold and MPower Biz Platinum

205
Q

What is the minimum daily balance and maximum turnover on Mpower Biz Classic

A

20,000 and 10mm

206
Q

A Contact Center imputer is the one who

A

Log cards requests

207
Q

Verve Debit card is blocked on ______ application

A

None

208
Q

Monthly maintenance fee is charged on which of the accounts below

A

None

209
Q

The opening balance for early savers account is

A

5,000

210
Q

The age limit for Standard Savings account is

A

None

211
Q

The maximum monthly turnover for Mpower Biz Classic account is

A

10 million

212
Q

An unresolved customer`s request should be left on what status

A

In progress

213
Q

Below are some of the details required in resolving a dispense error complaint except

A

None

214
Q

What is the minimum daily balance for a Solo Account

A

500

215
Q

What is the full meaning of EMP

A

Emerging Market Payments

216
Q

What is the minimum daily balance for Investment Savings Account

A

None

217
Q

When does a customer forfeit the interest accruable on Investment Savings Account

A

When money is drawn at will

218
Q

What is the Monthly Maintenance Charge for Investment Savings Account

A

None

219
Q

What is the minimum opening balance for a Current Account

A

10,000

220
Q

What is the meaning of N3 per mile

A

3 on every 1000

221
Q

These can be used as means of address verification except

A

Interntional Passport

222
Q

What is the minimum daily balance on a Domiciliary Account

A

Zero

223
Q

What is the maximum percentage of a customer’s salary who owns an Mpower Salary Account is offered as a Salary Advance

A

0.5

224
Q

Which of these accounts has a Zero Monthly Maintenance

A

Domicillary

225
Q

Financial Literacy Campaign is a benefit of which of the accounts below

A

Access Early Savers

226
Q

Which of these account holders can access an overdraft from the Bank

A

Current

227
Q

An Access customer who is transferring cash from Nigeria to Ghana uses which of these platforms

A

Access Direct

228
Q

Cash withdrawals from a prepaid card is done via

A

ALL

229
Q

What is the maximum daily load limit for a prepaid card

A

20k or USD equivalent

230
Q

What is the validity period for a prepaid card

A

24 months

231
Q

A lost prepaid card is re-issued by

A

Sending a mail to Card Services - Credit/Prepaid Card

232
Q

What is the cost for using our ATM card on other bank’s ATM machines

A

Zero

233
Q

What countries are covered under Access Direct for now

A

Nigeria & Ghana

234
Q

What is the maximum amount one can send using Access Direct

A

$10,000

235
Q

How many days does it take the beneficiary of Access Direct to get the transferred funds

A

Instantly

236
Q

What is the applicable charge to an Access Direct beneficiary

A

No charge

237
Q

What is the brand name for the Black card

A

The Access Black Card

238
Q

Which of these is a Card not present Transaction

A

ALL

239
Q

Which of these units deals on Interbank Foreign Exchange

A

Treasury

240
Q

Which of these is an interest bearing investment with no specific maturity date

A

Call deposits

241
Q

What is the full meaning of RTGS

A

Real Time Gross Settlement

242
Q

What is the full meaning of PCIDSS

A

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard

243
Q

What is the maximum data retention period for Access Bank’s Information assets (digital and paper)

A

10 years

244
Q

State 2 applications used for customers’ account balance enquiry

A

Infopool and Transaction History

245
Q

What type of account allows equal monthly contribution in order to meet a target

A

Investment Savings

246
Q

Which of the following applications is used to transfer funds offshore to beneficiaries wherever you are in the world without walking into any Access Bank branch

A

Access Trade

247
Q

What is the full meaning of PAN

A

Primary Account Number

248
Q

The contact Center has the right to adjust these limits on credit cards except

A

Global Limit

249
Q

The Access Bank standard font type, size and colour for replying customer’s mails are

A

Arial, 12 and blue

250
Q

eGain always gives _____ to all inbound mails received

A

Auto response

251
Q

In the email handling flow chart, all requests escalated to other units/branches are closed on Siebel immediately

A

No

252
Q

Customer’s account details can only be communicated to third party if and only if the customer can not be reached on phone

A

No

253
Q

What is the full meaning of “CIU”

A

Customer Information Update

254
Q

The maximum monthly turnover for Mpower Biz Classic account is

A

10 million

255
Q

All of these cards are activated on the ATM except

A

Visa prepaid

256
Q

What is the cartoon character attached to the Access Early Savers

A

Dora the Explorer

257
Q

In Access FT, _________means that all charges – which include Access bank’s handling, telex and VAT charges + offshore charges are to be borne by the beneficiary. Therefore, the beneficiary will receive less than the amount transferred

A

BEN

258
Q

In Access FT, _________means that offshore charges ONLY are borne by the beneficiary. The beneficiary will receive less than the amount transferred

A

SHA

259
Q

In Access FT, _________means that offshore charges are borne by the remitter including the local charges so all the banks in the transfer chain are expected to pass their charges to Access bank so that the beneficiary gets the full amount transferred

A

OUR

260
Q

What Mobile Network can Access Money be registered

A

Airtel

261
Q

What is the maximum daily transaction limits on Access money

A

15,000

262
Q

Where can a customer load his wallet on Access money

A

Branch

263
Q

________ is a service that enables card holders provide their Travel details to the Contact Center ahead of their slated departure

A

Travel Advisory Services

264
Q

What is the validity period for an Emergency Card

A

30 days

265
Q

For all Credit card types, what are the limits on Emergency Card and Emergency
Cash

A

$5k and 50

266
Q

The Turn around time for an emergency card/cash request is

A

24 - 48 hours

267
Q

Does Access Premier account attract interest payment, and at what rate

A

Yes, 0.1% per annum

268
Q

Which of these products is not designed for individual

A

Mpower Biz Classic

269
Q

What are the variants of MPower Biz accounts

A

Classic, Gold & Platinum

270
Q

What is the minimum daily balance and maximum turnover on Mpower Biz Classic

A

20k and 1 million

271
Q

What is the minimum daily balance and maximum turnover on Mpower Biz Gold

A

50k and 50 million

272
Q

What is the minimum daily balance and maximum turnover on Mpower Biz Platinum

A

250k and 100 million

273
Q

How will I know which variant of MPower Biz to open for the customer

A

Based on customers business turnover

274
Q

What are benefits enjoyed by staff on the MPower Salary account

A

Salary Advance - up to 50% of net monthly salary and Personal Loan - up to 50% of the net annual salary

275
Q

What is the required minimum opening balance for Investment Savings Account

A

There is no fixed opening balance, as the opening amount would depend on the targeted amount

276
Q

What is the stipulated minimum tenor for Investment Savings Account

A

6 months

277
Q

The following can be used for address verification except

A

International Passport

278
Q

Which of this is not a document required to open Early Savers accounts

A

Gender of account holder

279
Q

Can Early Savers account be opened by un-born

A

Yes

280
Q

Can dividend warrants be deposited in Solo Account

A

No

281
Q

Which is the charge for Reference Letter

A

5,000

282
Q

What is the charge for Counter Cheque charge

A

100

283
Q

In Access Bank, accounts become dormant within what period

A

1 year

284
Q

What is the minimum daily balance on Early Savers

A

1,000

285
Q

What is the monthly maintenance charge on Access Premier

A

500

286
Q

What is the monthly maintenance charge on Mpower Biz Platinum

A

7,500

287
Q

What is the monthly maintenance charge on Mpower Biz Gold

A

5,000

288
Q

What is the monthly maintenance charge on Access IPSA

A

200

289
Q

What is the interest rate on Standard Savings

A

0.04%

290
Q

What type of account is Mpower Salary

A

Payroll Administration

291
Q

Which of these products require only 1 reference

A

Access IPSA

292
Q

What is the Monthly maintenance on Access Premier

A

500

293
Q

What is the maximum monthly turnover on Mpower Biz Classic

A

10 million

294
Q

What is the maximum monthly turnover on Mpower Biz Gold

A

50 million

295
Q

What is the maximum monthly turnover on Mpower Biz Platinum

A

100 million

296
Q

What is the new COT charge for Mpower Biz Gold that defaults

A

N3 per mile

297
Q

What is the opening balance on Solo account

A

1,000

298
Q

Which of these is not a variant of Access Bank`s Visa Credit Cards

A

Visa credit card silver

299
Q

What is the annual maintenance charge on Current Individual account

A

None

300
Q

What is minimum number of cars accommodated in Vehicle Fleet Finance product

A

10

301
Q

The CPG provides for the preparation of a report on deferrals by CAD. How
often must they do this?
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Quarterly

A

B. Monthly

302
Q

What may trigger the need for an Exposure Quality Review?

A. A change in relationship Management
B. Identification of a decline in the quality of the facility
C. Significant change in the indemnity of the customer.

A

B. Identification of a decline in the quality of the facility

303
Q

How often must the MCC Institute periodic reviews of exposure in the bank?

A. Weekly
B. Quarterly
C. Annually

A

B. Quarterly

304
Q

The overall responsibility of sustaining the quality of individual risk exposure is primarily that of:

A. Head, Credit Risk Management
B. Group Head of Market facing biz unit
C. Relationship Manager
D. Executive Management
E. MCC

A

C. Relationship Manager

305
Q

The CPG provides that the discovery of any declining risk exposure must be brought to the notice of the Chairman of Criticized Assets Committee within:
A. 24hrs of the discovery
B. 48hrs of the discovery
C. 72hrs
D. 7 days

A

D. 7 days

306
Q

Whose responsibility will it be to make this report to the chairman of the
CAC?
A. Relationship management
B. Group Head of Business unit
C. ED of business unit
D. Head, Credit Risk Management
E. ED of business unit & Head, Credit Risk Management

A

E. ED of business unit & Head, Credit Risk Management

307
Q

In the event that the collateral for a credit facility is a mortgage on landed property, which one of the following is a condition precedent to final approval of the credit request?
A. Governor’s consent
B. Registration at land registry/Corporate Affairs Commission
C. Receipt of certificate of good title from search
D. All of the above.

A

C. Receipt of certificate of good title from search

308
Q

Whose responsibility is it under the CPG to develop and implement a bollateral management plan in respect of each facility?
A. Legal department.
B. Relationship Management
C. Credit Risk Management

A

C. Credit Risk Management

309
Q

In the event of non-compliance with collateralization conditions, whose responsibility is it to report to the Chairman, CAC?
A. Legal department
B. Relationship Manager
C. Credit Risk Management
D. Customer

A

C. Credit Risk Management

310
Q

What is the time frame within which the report will be made?

A. Within 24hrs
B. Within 48hrs
C. Within 72hrs
D. Within 7 days

A

D. Within 7 days

311
Q

Fill the blank space with the appropriate option. In the event of delinquency, a formal notice shall be made to the customer within ——- working days of default. A second notice shall be made after ——- working days of the first
notice.
A. 7 days ——–14 days
B. 14 days ——– 28 days
C. 10 days ———– 20 days

A

C. 10 days ———– 20 days

312
Q

The CPG provides that a credit watch list of non-performing / delinquent credits shall be prepared for circulation. How regularly must this report be guaranteed?

A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Quarterly
D. Daily

A

B. Monthly

313
Q

Under the CPG, the responsibility for delinquency Management shall be that of?

A. Legal department
B. Credit Risk Management
C. Relationship Management
D. Remedial Assets unit

A

D. Remedial Assets unit

314
Q

Under the CPG, all non performing /delinquent credits shall be classified as remedial assets after…
A. 90 days
B. 180 days
C. 360 days

A

C. 360 days

315
Q

Which one of the following is True? Credit facilities may be restructured:

A. At the request of the Obligor requiring a revision of the credit terms and condition
B. By the RM on identification of need to restructure based on performance of the facility C. Both A & B

A

C. Both A & B

316
Q

How much loan loss provisioning must be made for outstanding credit facility not specifically provided for?

A. 5%
B. 2%
C. 1%

A

C. 1%

317
Q

Where a non performing credit exposure has been classified as ‘doubtful’, how much loan loss provisioning must be made?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 50%

A

A. 10%

318
Q

Where a credit exposure has been classified as ‘lost’, how much loan loss provision does the CPG stipulate?

A. 100%
B. 75%
C. 50%

A

A. 100%

319
Q

Consideration of interest waivers and/ or credit charge shall be limited only to credit exposure classified as

A. “Gone”
B. “Doubtful”
C. “Lost”

A

C. “Lost”

320
Q

Discussions and negotiation in respect of repayment / waiver is the responsibility of:

A. Relationship Manager
B. Credit risk Management
C. Remedial Asset Unit
D. Executive Management

A

C. Remedial Asset Unit

321
Q

Under what circumstance may the bank consider granting a new facility to a borrower who had previously enjoyed a waiver?
A. If it is shown that customer has turned a new leaf
B. If customer brings biz to the bank
C. Where the customer has fully settled the previously granted waivers.
D. It depends on the circumstances

A

C. Where the customer has fully settled the previously granted waivers.

322
Q

All waivers of interest and charges shall require the approval of…

A. The Board
B. MCC
C. GMD
D. CBN

A

C. GMD

323
Q

Under what condition(s) will an exposure be recommended for write-off?

A. If continued contact with customer is impossible
B. If recovery cost is expected to be higher than the outstanding debt
C. If amount of realized from realization of credit collateral sanity leaves a balance of the debt
D. If it is reasonably determined that no further recovery on the facility is possible
E. Any of the above

A

E. Any of the above

324
Q

Under the CPG all credit facility write offs require approval by..?

A. The MCC
B. The Board of Directors
C. The Central Bank
D. The E.F.C.C.

A

C. The Central Bank

325
Q

In case of erroneous interest or charges debited to a customer’s account, reversal may be approved by…

A. Group Head Operations
B. ED Operations
C. Head Credit Risk Management
D. GMD

A

D. GMD

326
Q

Under the CPG, what is the primary reference document for creating & managing credit exposure?

A. Market Risk Policy
B. Environmental & Social Risk Policy
C. Country Risk Management Policy
D. Enterprise Risk Management Framework
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

327
Q

Under the CPG, which of the following statement is True?

A. The CPG is intended only for personnel involved in the creation & Management of credit exposure
B. All business units/ countries must fully comply with the provision of the CPG, whether or not their risks are specifically addressed by there policies.
C. All of the above

A

B. All business units/ countries must fully comply with the provision of the CPG, whether or not their risks are specifically addressed by there policies.

328
Q

Under the CPG, the Africa regional office of the credit risk Group reports to…

A. The GMD
B. The GDMD
C. The ED for rest of Africa
D. Head, Credit Risk Management in Head Office

A

D. Head, Credit Risk Management in Head Office

329
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not a function of the MCC?

A. Approve Individual credit exposures line with its approval limits
B. Agree on portfolio plan / strategy for the bank
C. Approve lending decisions & limit setting
D. Review credit policy recommendation for Board approval

A

C. Approve lending decisions & limit setting

330
Q
  1. Whose responsibility is it to ensure the integrity of the credit process and proper documentation of the credit decision?A. Credit Risk Management
    B. Legal department
    C. Relationship Management
    D. Any of the above.
A

C. Relationship Management

331
Q

The policy document sets out a framework for

A. The consistent management of Credit Risk
B. Identifying opportunities
C. Accessing Risks
D. Minimizing cost of credit

A

A. The consistent management of Credit Risk

332
Q

The policy is derived from

A. Leading international banks
B. The Bank’s Enterprise Risk Management Frameworks
C. The Central Bank of Nigeria
D. The Nigerian Deposit Insurance Corporation

A

B. The Bank’s Enterprise Risk Management Frameworks

333
Q
  1. The Enterprise Risk Management Framework represent the following except

A. A structured approach to identifying opportunities
B. Assessing the risk inherent in these opportunities
C. Monitoring and reporting of demand deposits
D. Managing these risks proactively in a cost effective manner

A

C. Monitoring and reporting of demand deposits

334
Q
  1. The manual outlines the general policies and procedures’ framework for credit risk management in the bank and incorporates provisions for

A. Marketing and risk analysis
B. Approval and administration of risk exposure
C. Monitoring and reporting of risk exposure
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

335
Q
  1. The credit risk management policy manual is designed for the following except

A. Structuralize credit policies for the bank, giving clients clear and consistent direction for the creation of risk exposure across all asset creating business units.
B. Provide a comprehensive guide and framework in creating and managing risk assets.
C. Provide a framework for the on-going maintenance of the bank’s risk management policies and processes
D. Prudent management of decline in credit quality

A

A. Structuralize credit policies for the bank, giving clients clear and consistent direction for the creation of risk exposure across all asset creating business units.

336
Q
  1. To ensure that the overall approach to creating and managing risk assets remains relevant and responsive to environment changes, the risk management policies will

A. Be reviewed on an on-going basis
B. Be appraised every 5 years
C. Undergo assessment every quarter
D. Be evaluated every year
E. All of the above

A

A. Be reviewed on an on-going basis

337
Q
  1. The policy manual is intended for

A. Entry level personnel
B. Relationship Managers
C. All personnel involved in the creation and management of credit exposure
D. Management personnel involved in the creation and management of credit exposure
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

338
Q
  1. Access Bank’s risk management policies comprise the following except

A. Policies
B. Standards
C. Procedures
D. Structures

A

D. Structures

339
Q
  1. Proposals for addition to or modification of policy statements and procedures or any section of this manual will be presented to

A. Head, Human Capital
B. Management Credit Committee
C. Board of Directors
D. The Head, Credit Risk Management

A

D. The Head, Credit Risk Management

340
Q

According to the Bank’s Risk Management Philosophy, the Bank “considers risk management philosophy and culture as the set of shared beliefs, values, attitudes and ______________ characterizing how the Bank considers risk in everything it does, from strategy development and implementation to its day-to-day activities”.

A. Culture
B. Psychology
C. Practices
D. Expectation

A

C. Practices

341
Q

The Bank’s Risk Management philosophy is that ________________ and _________________ risk attitude will ensure sustainable growth in shareholder value and reputation.

A. Aggressive and prudential
B. Moderate and guarded
C. Restrained and reasonable
D. Extreme and temperate

A

B. Moderate and guarded

342
Q

The following are all guiding principles for the Bank’s risk culture except: Management and staff shall:

A. Consider all forms of risk in decision-making
B. Create and evaluate business-unit and Bank-wide risk profile to consider what is best for their individual business units/departments regardless of what is best for the Bank as a whole
C. Adopt a portfolio view of risk in addition to understanding individual risk elements
D. Retain ownership and accountability for risk and risk management at the business unit or other point of influence level

A

B. Create and evaluate business-unit and Bank-wide risk profile to consider what is best for their individual business units/departments regardless of what is best for the Bank as a whole

343
Q

The enterprise risk management is

A. Mandatory
B. Optional
C. Discretionary
D. Fixed

A

A. Mandatory

344
Q
  1. Risk management is the responsibility of

A. Management Credit Committee
B. Risk Officer’s
C. Relationship Manager’s
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above