cpe280 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Pharmaceutical engineering

A

is a field that deals with the process of creating pharmaceutical products such as medicines.

They also help to produce regulatory guidelines regarding the production of medical drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is biopharmaceutical engineering

A

A field that deals with the process of a biological medicinal product which is a pharmaceutical drug product manufactured from biological sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between biopharm and pharm

A
  • method by which they are produced
    bio- produced from living organisms
    pharm - series of chemical synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is biological engineering

A

the application of principles of biology and engineering to create products of value to society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

unit operations

A
  • fermentation
  • cell culture reactors
  • centrifugation
  • filtration
  • chromatography
  • crystillisation
  • solvent extraction
  • precipitation

engineering

  • scale up
  • materials
  • useful maths to assist operation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

types of organisms

A
  • bacteria
  • yeast
  • fungi
  • actinomycetes
  • mammalian cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

low molecular weight drugs

A

small molecules-synthetic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the first synthetic compound was synthesised by who

A

german chemist Justus von Liebig and was used as a sedative-hypnotic until 1869

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the role of chemical engineering in pharmacy industry

A
  • compounds are synthesised by chem eng processes
  • the extraction of active ingredient from complex mixture of side products
  • important part of chemical engineering is purification and mixing
  • batch system so control systems are vital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sulphonamides
what are they?
who produced them?

A

the molecule was orginally part of a collection of azo dyes bio-converted to sulfanilamide in the body. (stops the growth of gram postive bacteria .)

sulphonamides mimic a precursor in folate biosynthesis and stops bacterial growth. can cause a wide range of diseases such as scarlet fever, pneumonia, meningitis and septicaemia.

Gerhard Domagk served as a medic in the german army, in the late 1920s he worked at testing bayers collection of azo-dyes as therapeutic agents against streptococcal infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

penicillin
who discovered it?
what did penicillium mould do?
when was it available?

A

discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928. Professor Harold tried to purify penicillin but failed. Ernst and Florey investigated natural antibacterial agents produced by microorganisms and revisited flemings work and discovered the properties and how to manufacture and purify it.

widely available in 1944

penicillium mould was producing something that suppressed bacterial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what did Howard Florey do in 1941 to help industrialise penicillin?

A

he flew to USA to get help and met with Andrew Moyers group USDA which developed liquid culture of penicillium and improved yields.

He also met with pfizer as they needed to design reactors that could produce penicillin, they knew how to run liquid fermentation processes. Maragret Rousseau american chemical engineer to design the first commercial penicillin production plant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Typical media for developing liquid culture

A
Typical media
• glucose (0-1 % w/w)
• lactose (1-3 % w/w)
• corn steep liquor (1-5 % w/w)
• sodium nitrate (0-0.05 % w/w)
• calcium carbonate (0-1 % w/w)
• phenylacetate (0.01-0.1 % w/w)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

corn steep liquor

A

is a waste product of ‘corn wet milling’ process where clean corn is soaked in water containing lactic acid and sulphur dioxide for 40 hours, the liquor is filtered then concentrated using evaporators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what did Chaim Weizmann do?

A

The first world war demanded quantities of acetone for the manufacture of cordite used in artillery shells. Weizmann is the founding father of industrial microbiology and developed the ABE process which produces acetone.

the ABE process is anaerobic cultivation of clostridium acetobutylicum so needs no aeration and stirring is not critical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how was ethanol fermented?

A

raw material was corn milled and the germ and bran extracted before adding to hot water. the corn mash inoculated and left for 2 days (will contain spores). continuous distillation resulted in 50% water, 30% butanol, 15% acetone and 5% ethanol.
transferred to kettle skills to produce pure buanol, acetone and 95% ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how is citric acid made?

A

using a fermentation of aspergillus niger and is an aerobic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what was the issue with growing penicillin in deep tanks and how was it solved?

A

it needs air to grow, aerating the fermentation in deep tanks presented a problem. Bubbling sterile air through the culture medium caused severe foaming. Squibb solved the problem by using an anti-foam to alter the surface tension and pop the bubbles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

oxygen transfer

A
  • sparger:ncan be open tubes, perforated tubes, porous diffusers
  • impellers: rushton turbine is a high shear impeller and breaks air bubbles down to a smaller size
  • baffles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Genomes

A

the distance between bases along the DNA strands =0.3nm
for the human genome with its length of 3GBP it tells us that each of our cells has approx a metre of DNA, which is compressed into a nuclear volume with a radius of a few microns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Plasmids

A

small circular, double - stranded DNA molecule that is distinct from a cells chromosomal DNA.

They naturally exist in bacterial cells and they also occur in some eukaryotes .

often the genes carried in plasmids provide bacteria with genetic advantages such as antibiotic resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Genetic engineering

A
  1. isolate plasmid from bacterium
  2. isolate gene of interest from another cell
  3. insert gene of interest into plasmid (recombinant DNA)
  4. Bacterial cell takes up plasmid containing gene through a process called transformation
  5. bacterial cell divides along with the plasmid and forms a clone of cells.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are amino acids

A

all proteins are composed of 20 amino acids.

Amino acids are amphoteric and zwitterionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

peptide bonds

A

condensation reaction of two amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Charged polar side chains

A

basic aa are +ve charged at physiological PH
acidic aa are -ve charged at physiological PH
the 20 aa vary in properties including polarity, acidity, basicity, aromaticity, ability to cross link, ability to hydrogen bond and chemical reactivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Polypeptides

A

described starting at the amino terminus (N-terminus) and sequentially naming each residue until the carboxy terminus (C-terminus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Primary structure

A

amino acid sequence in a polypeptide chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Secondary structure

A

double helix

defined as the local conformation of its backbone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

tertiary structure

A

folding of secondary structure together with its spatial dispostions of its side chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Quaternary structure

A

the four separate chains of hemoglobin assembled into an oligomeric protein

spatial arrangement of protein subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

properties of proteins are determined by…

A

three dimensional structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Central dogma

A

DNA–> RNA –> Protein
transcription
translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Transcription

A

synthesis of RNA

unique nucleotide sequence of a gene is transcribed from DNA into a complementary nucleotide sequence in messenger RNA (mRNA).

mRNA carries the protein building instructions to the cellular machinery that synthesizes protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Translation

A

polypeptide syntheis under the direction of mRNA

linear sequence of mRNA is translated into a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide.

translation occurs on ribosomes they facilitate the orderly linking of amino acids into polypeptide chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

protein post translational modifications

A

increase the functional diversity of proteins, covalent addtion of functional groups, proteolytic cleavage
of regulatory subunits, or degradation of entire proteins.

commonly employed to regulate cell activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Advantages of protein post translational modifications

A

occur at distinct amino acid side chains or peptide linkages and most often mediated by enzymatic activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Glycosylation

A

protein glycosylation is one of the major PTMs with significant effect on protein folding, distribution, stability and activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

phosphorylation

A

reversible protein phosphorylation, principally on serine, threonine or tyrosine residues is the most important PTMs

play critical roles in the regulation of many cellular processes including cell cycle and growth

most common mechanism of regulating protein function and transmitting signals throughout the cell

only occurs at the side chains of three amino acids in eukaryotic cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is pharmaceutics

A

A branch of pharmacy which includes the study of, formulation of drugs into a dosage form

A systematic approach to get an effective and stable formulation without disturbing its quality and deals with the technology involving large scale manufacturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is a drug

A

A chemical entity obtained from various source which produces therapeutic effect on the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

physical Pharmaceutics

A
rheology
diffusion
aggregation
surface tension 
adhesion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Biological Pharmaceutics

A

nanoparticle flow
diffusion invivo
bioadhesion
movement in tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Dosage form

A

drugs are combined with other inert substances and converted into a suitable form of adminstration into body e.g. capsules, injections and tablets

44
Q

Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients

A

Chemical compound that are actually used for diagnosis treatment and prevention of disease

45
Q

excipients

A

Substances used to give particular shape to the formulation, to increase stability, platability and to make preparation more elegant

46
Q

Excipient types?

A
coloring agent 
sweetening agent 
Flavouring agent 
Solubilizing agents 
antioxidants 
preservatives 
binding agents
47
Q

What is Pharmacopoeia

A

legal and official book issued by recognised authority appointed by government of each country.

Comprimises of:
- a list of pharmaceutical substances, formulae along with their description and standards

48
Q

What is Physical Pharmacy

A

study of physiochemical properties of a drug, additives, solvents and their application in the development of dosage form.

Includes the study of micrometrics, rheology and interfacial tension

49
Q

What is biopharmaceutics

A

is the relationship between the physicochemical properties of a drug in a dosage form and observed therapeutic response after administration

50
Q

what are biopharmaceutical methods

A

application of knowledge of drug release and transport across biomembranes to obtain/predict therapeutic affect from a product on administration to a patient

51
Q

Biopharmaceutical factors influence the:

A
  • protection and stability of the drug within the product
  • rate of drug release from the product
  • rate of dissolution of the drug at the absorption site
  • availability of the drug at its site of action
52
Q

factors related to drug instability

A
  • chemical degradation of the active drug
  • toxicity of the degradation product (hydrolysis, oxidation and photolysis)
  • decrease in the product bioavailability
  • change in the physical appearance in the dosage form
53
Q

Factors that can improve protein stability

A
  • optimisation of pH
  • choice of solvent
  • temperature
  • ionic strength
54
Q

Environmental factors during dissolution

A
  • intensity of agitation
  • concentration gradient (difference in concentration between solubility of the drug in dissolution media and average conc of bulk fluid)
  • composition of dissolution medium (pH, ionic strength, viscocity are determined by the compostion of the medium)
  • temperature of the dissolution medium
55
Q

Factors affecting solubility

A
  • polymophism
  • amorphous state
  • free acid
  • particle size
  • surfactants
56
Q

Factors relating to the composition and method of manufacture for tablets and capsules

A
Tablets 
- amount type of diluent 
- type of tablet 
- granule size and size distribution
-compression force 
Capsules 
- amount type of diluent 
- granule or powder size
57
Q

Enviromental factors involved with dosage forms

A
  • humidity during manufacture
  • storage conditions for the dosage form
  • age of the dosage forms
58
Q

organic diluents

A

starch, lactose promote dilution of poorly water soluble.

59
Q

inorganic diluents

A

dicalcium phosphate divalent calciumtetracycline complex- poorly soluble

60
Q

lubricants

A

use to ensure good flow property of granules and reduce the sticking of particle to dyes

61
Q

Granulating agents

A

used to hold a powder together in granulation, to promote the cohesive compact for directly compressible material

62
Q

surfactants

A

used as wetting agent, solubilizes

63
Q

colorants

A

may decrease the dissolution rate of crystalline drug by absorption onto crystalline face.

64
Q

properties of collodial dispersion

A
  • particle shape
  • diffusion and sedimentation
  • light scattering
  • viscocity
  • gel formation
  • electric properties
65
Q

wet granulation

A

has been shown to improve the wettability of poorly soluble drugs by incorporating hydrophillic properties into the surface of granules resulting in a greater dissolution rate

66
Q

beaker methods

A
  • rotating basket appratus (100RPM)
  • rotating paddle apparatus ( paddle is vertically attatched to variable speed motor 50RPM)
  • paddle over disk method
67
Q

factors influencing the time course of drug in plasma

A
  • physical and chemical properties of the drug
  • type of dosage form of the drug
  • compostion and method of manufacture of the dosage form
  • site of absorption of the administered drug
  • type of food taken by the patient
  • age of patient
    genetic compostion of the patient
68
Q

bioavailability

A

transfer of drug from its site of administration into the body system

69
Q

psychological factors influencing drug absorption

A

Nature of cell membrane

  • semi - permeable: permits only water
  • highly charged molecules and large molecules
70
Q

physicochemical factors influencing drug absorption

A

surface area of the drug
salt form
state of hydration
solubility

71
Q

dosage form factors influencing drug absorption

A
  • rate of administration

- the inert ingredients

72
Q

what is ADME

A

An acronym in pharmacology of adsorption, distriubution, metabolism and excretion and describes the dispostion of a pharmaceutical compound within an organism

73
Q

what is adsorption

A

process which drugs enter the body

74
Q

metabolism

A

irreversible transformation of patent drug compounds into daughter metabolites

75
Q

why are dissolution tests important

A

tests binding of tablets and capsules

76
Q

what is collodial dispersion

A

is a mixture of two substances, one in the dispersed phase and other in the continous phase

77
Q

What is pharmaceutical analysis

A

the application of analytical procedures used to determine the purity, safety and quality of drugs and chemicals

78
Q

examples of pharmaceutical analysis

A
  • titration
  • spectroscopic techniques
  • chromatographic methods
  • spectrometry
79
Q

importance of pharmaceutical analysis

A
  • identification of a drug in the formulated product
  • determination of active ingredient or addtional impurities
  • stability of the drug
  • concentration of specified impurities
    concentration of drug in plasma
80
Q

types of chemical analysis

A

qualitative - preformed to establish compostion of natural substances, preformed to indicate whether substance is present in the sample

quantative - mainly used to quantify any substance in the sample

81
Q

Instrumental methods (quantative)

A
  • volumetric methods: acid base, redox, precipitation and complexmetric
  • spectral analysis: colourimetry, UV visible, Infared, NMR and mass
  • chromatographic techniques (planar, column)
  • electrochemical methods; cell lysis
  • Hyphenated techniques : GC-MS, LC-MS
82
Q

what is colourimetry

A

used to determine the concentration of a solution having colour, uses fixed wavelengths which are in the visible range

83
Q

what is spectrophotometry

A

measures how much light a chemical substance absorbs, by measuring the intensity of light (uses UV and IR)

84
Q

what is Infrared spectroscopy

A

interaction of infrared radiation with matter to identify and study chemical substances

85
Q

What is Liquid chromatography

A

affinity of analyte as it passes through mobile phase. Liquid analyte is used

86
Q

What is Gas chromatography

A

used for analytes that can be vapourised without being decomposed

87
Q

what is HPLC chromatography

A

reservoir –> pump –> injector –> column –> detector –> data system
mobile- non polar
stationary - polar

88
Q

what is size exclusion chromatography

A

large particles can not enter the pores of stationary phase (elute faster)

89
Q

what is ion exchange chromatography

A

ionic compounds are separated together with inetractions of ions

90
Q

what is Affinity chromatography

A

bind, wash and elute

91
Q

examples of non instrumental methods

A
  • Bioloigical methods: in vitro, animal studies and microbiological assays
92
Q

What is microbiology

A

the study of living organisms of microscopic size which include bacteria, fungi and viruses.

93
Q

what does microbiology deal with

A

deals with the form, structure, reproduction, physiology and classification of microrganisms

94
Q

Examples of microbiology

A

wine making, penicillin production

95
Q

what is pharmaceutical microbiology

A

involves the study of microorganisms associated with the manufacture of pharmaceuticals.

96
Q

examples of pharmaceutical microbiology

A

minimizing the number of microorganisms in a process environment and ensuring the finished pharmaceutical product is sterile

97
Q

what is industrial microbiology

A

production of medicinal products such as antibiotics and vaccines, fermented beverages, industrial chemicals, production of proteins and hormones by genetically engineered organisms

98
Q

what is good manufacture practice (GMP)

A

the production and testing practice that helps to ensure a quality production

99
Q

why is GMP required

A
  • to minimize human error
  • to prevent the contamination of pharmaceuticals
  • to ensure high quality of production
100
Q

GMP guidelines

A
  • Personnel protection equipment
  • environment: control air, temp and humidity
  • Equipment: must be cleaned and stored
    Validiation: to ensure stability and conformity
101
Q

Microbial tests for pharmaceuticals

A
  1. Microbial limit test
  2. Sterility testing
  3. Bacterial Endotoxin tests
  4. Growth promotion test
  5. Water Microbiological analysis
  6. Microbial identification
102
Q

what is microbial limit test

A

(bioburden testing)
used to estimate the total number of viable organisms. the microbial content of the product includes the total bacterial count, total yeast and mold count

103
Q

what is bacterial endotoxin(LAL testing)

A

endotoxins are natural compounds released by the cell wall of gram negative bacteria and are potentially toxic to humans.

The test for bacterial endotoxins is used to detect or quantify endotoxins using LAL which is an extract of blood cells from horse shoe crab.

104
Q

Growth promotion test

A

quality control test of media measuring the ability of any media used to support growth when the inoculum contains a small number of microrganisms

105
Q

Ecology of microorganisms as it affects the pharmaceutical industry

A
  • atomosphere
  • water
  • skin
  • raw materials
  • packaging
  • equipment
106
Q

contamination

A
  • microbial spoilage
  • infection risk
  • contamination control
107
Q

types of microbial assays

A
  • agar plate diffusion assay

- rapid reliable reproduciible microbial assay method