CPA AUDIT REVIEW #5 Flashcards

1
Q

Under which of the following circumstances is the use of the blank form of positive confirmation of accounts receivable most likely preferable?

A

The recipients are likely to sign the confirmations without devoting proper attention to them

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2
Q

An auditor of the financial statements of an issuer has included an emphasis paragraph in the auditor’s report. In accordance with PCAOB auditing standards, an emphasis paragraph

A

Is never required.

Under PCAOB auditing standards for audits of issuers, an emphasis paragraph is (1) never required, (2) not a substitute for required critical matters, and (3) is not referred to in the opinion section.

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3
Q

Which of the following controls would be most effective in assuring that the proper custody of assets in the investing cycle is maintained?

A

The recorded balances in the investment subsidiary ledger are periodically compared with the contents of the safe deposit box by independent personnel.

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4
Q

Nature refers to:

A
  1. Type of test performed
  2. When the type of test changes that refers to nature
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5
Q

What does operating effectiveness refer to?

A

Operating effectiveness relates to how and by whom the control (manual or automated) was applied and the consistency of application. A control that is not implemented, no matter how well designed, is ineffective absent the mitigating effect of compensating controls. Furthermore, the control risk is high for all other controls.

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6
Q

What happens if the group auditor or engagement team is not involved in the component Auditor’s work?

A

Refer to the Component Auditor’s work if they meet the certain requirements.The reference to the Component Auditor is not a qualification.

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7
Q

To assess the reasonableness (amounts) of dividend income from investments in issuers, the Auditor should

A

Check dividend records from publicly available sources which include amounts and payment dates.

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8
Q

An objective of a PERFORMANCE AUDIT is to determine whether an entity’s

A

Specific operating units are functioning economically and efficiently.

Performance audits include economy and efficiency audits. The objectives of these audits are to determine (1) whether the entity is acquiring, protecting, and using its resources economically and efficiently; (2) the causes of any inefficiencies; and (3) whether the entity has complied with laws and regulations concerning matters of economy and efficiency.

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9
Q

Smith, CPA, has been asked to issue a review report on the balance sheet of Cone Company, a nonissuer, and not on the other related financial statements. Smith may do so only if

A

The scope of Smith’s inquiry and analytical procedures is not restricted.

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10
Q

Attestation engagements under Government Auditing Standards include

A

Reporting on the reliability of performance measures.

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11
Q

What are examples of attestation engagements such as to examine, review or to perform agreed upon procedures?

A

(1) An entity’s internal control over financial reporting
(2) An entity’s compliance with requirements of specified laws, regulations, policies, contracts, or grants
(3) Management discussion and analysis (MD&A)
(4) Prospective financial or performance information
(5) The accuracy or reliability of performance measures
(6) Allowable, reasonable, or final contract cost
(7) The quantity, condition, or valuation of inventory or assets.

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12
Q

Which of the following audit procedures is best for identifying unrecorded trade accounts payable?

A

Reviewing cash disbursements recorded subsequent to the balance sheet date to determine whether the related payables apply to the prior period.

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13
Q

The search for unrecorded payables should

A

(1) include examining cash payments made after the balance sheet date and comparing them with the accounts payable trial balance, (2) sending confirmations to vendors with small and zero balances, and (3) reconciling payable balances with vendors’ documentation.

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14
Q

Under which of the following circumstances would an entity be expected to accrue a loss contingency for the period under audit?

A

A loss contingency is not accrued unless it is probable and can be reasonably estimated.

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15
Q

A practitioner has examined a client’s compliance with debt covenants associated with a bank loan and is ready to issue a report. Which of the following standards apply to the report?

A

Compliance attestation standards.

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16
Q

A practitioner may perform an agreed-upon procedures engagement on prospective financial statements provided that which of the following is met?

A

The prospective financial statements include a summary of significant assumptions.

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17
Q

A Practitioner may accept an agree-upon procedures engagement based on what factors?

A

(1) The practitioner is independent

(2) The engaging party agrees to the procedures and takes responsibility for their sufficiency

(3) The statements include a summary of significant assumptions.

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18
Q

The current file of an auditor’s audit documentation most likely would include a copy of the

A

Bank Reconciliation

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19
Q

What does the current file include?

A

The current file of an auditor’s audit documentation includes all working papers applicable to the current year under audit. A bank reconciliation supports a specific amount on the audited year’s financial statements. Thus, it belongs in the current file.

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20
Q

An auditor’s report on comparative financial statements should be dated as of the date of the

A

No earlier than completion of the auditor’s most recent audit.

The auditor’s report on comparative financial statements should be dated no earlier than the date the auditor obtained sufficient appropriate evidence for the opinion on the most recent audit.

21
Q

A cutoff test of sales complements the verification of

A

Accounts Receivable

22
Q

A principal advantage of statistical methods of attribute sampling over nonstatistical methods is that they provide a scientific basis for planning the

A

Sample size

23
Q

The report on summary financial statements should indicate that the

A

Procedures performed included evaluating whether they are prepared in accordance with the applied criteria.

The report on the summary statements describes, among other things, the procedures performed. They primarily include (1) comparing the summary statements with the related information in the audited statements and (2) evaluating whether the summary statements are prepared in accordance with the criteria applied by management.

24
Q

Which of the following statements best serves as management’s assertion of consistency in an MD&A presentation?

A

Nonfinancial data have been accurately derived from related records.

Assertions are management representations in the MD&A presentation.
They relate to
(1) Occurrence
(2) Consistency with the financial statements
(3) Completeness
(4) Presentation and disclosure.

Assertions about consistency are whether
(1) Reported transactions, events, and explanations are consistent with the statements
(2) Historical financial amounts are accurately derived from the statements and related records
(3) Nonfinancial data have been accurately derived from related records.

25
Q

When an auditor is to conduct an audit of a service organization, what considerations should the auditor make in the planning stages regarding internal controls of the organization?

A

The auditor should determine whether management has adequately described complementary user controls.

26
Q

Comparing management’s cash budget with the year-end balance test the

A

Completeness Assertion

27
Q

Vouching a sample of recorded cash receipts to accounts receivable and customer orders test the

A

Occurrence Assertion

28
Q

Analytical Procedures applies to which assertion?

A

Completeness

29
Q

Inspection of documents applies to which assertion?

A

Existence

30
Q

Why do Auditors develop specialized audit software?

A

Auditors develop specialized audit software for the following reasons:
1. Unavailability of alternative software
2. Functional limitations of alternative software
3. Efficiency considerations
4.Increased understanding of systems
5. Opportunity for easy implementation
6. Increased auditor independence and prestige

31
Q

Confirmation of accounts receivable that have been categorized initially by an auditor as “exceptions” most likely could be due to

A

Payments mailed to the client that have not been recorded.

Exceptions are differences between the recorded balance and the amount confirmed by the debtor.

32
Q

A purchasing agent searches the inventory master file for what information relevant to a purchase?

A

The approved vendor and the economic order quantity.

The inventory master file includes the approved vendor, economic order quantity, costs, and any other relevant terms.

33
Q

As the acceptable level of audit risk decreases, an auditor may

A

Postpone the planned timing of substantive tests from interim dates to the year end. Substantive testing should be increased when the acceptable level of audit risk decreases.

34
Q

Generalized audit software is useful for

A

Test of controls and substantive procedures.

Generalized audit software is useful for both tests of controls and substantive procedures. It can be used to perform audit tasks such as (1) sampling and selecting items; (2) testing extensions, footings, and calculations; (3) examining records; (4) summarizing and sorting data; and (5) performing analytical procedures.

35
Q

When evaluating internal control of an entity that processes sales transactions on the Internet, an auditor would be most concerned about the

A

Potential for computer disruptions in recording sales.

36
Q

How is sampling interval calculated?

A

The tolerable misstatement is divided by the reliability factor to calculate the sampling interval.

37
Q

How is the sample size calculated?

A

Carrying amount / sampling interval

38
Q

An auditor’s decision concerning whether to dual date the audit report is based upon the auditor’s willingness to

A

Extend audit procedures

39
Q

Omission of significant assumptions requires which opinion?

A

Adverse opinion

40
Q

What is the advantage of a payroll computer system?

A

Direct deposit into employees’ accounts.

41
Q

A practitioner may report on a review of pro forma financial information (PFFI) if the related historical financial statements have been

A

Reviewed or Audited

42
Q

The guidance for a compilation of financial statements also applies to

A

AR-C 80, Compilation of Financial Statements, also applies to a compilation of (1) prospective, (2) pro forma, or (3) other historical financial information.

43
Q

The appropriate date for the client to specify as the effective date in the audit inquiry to legal counsel is

A

As close to the date of the auditor’s report as possible.

44
Q

An accountant is considering an engagement to compile the pro forma financial information (PFFI) of a nonissuer. The accountant may accept the engagement if

A

The underlying transaction or event was a change in capitalization.

PFFI shows the significant effects on historical information that might have resulted if an underlying transaction or event had occurred earlier. The following are examples of such transactions or events:
Business combination
Change in capitalization (e.g., an initial public offering of equity securities)
Disposition of a significant portion of a business
Change in the form of a business
Proposed sale of securities and the application of the proceeds

45
Q

As lower acceptable levels of the risk of incorrect acceptance and performance materiality are established, the auditor should plan more work on individual accounts to

A

Find smaller misstatements

A lower performance materiality means that the tolerable misstatement in an account is smaller. Accordingly, as the acceptable risk of incorrect acceptance decreases, the desired assurance increases, and the auditor decreases the tolerable misstatement.

46
Q

True or False

A

A matter can be emphasized without modifying the opinion.

True

Matters emphasized may include significant related party transactions.

47
Q

Which special purpose frameworks Auditor’s report include a description of the purpose of the statement or refer to a note with information?

A

Regulatory or contractual special purpose framework (the use of the report must be restricted).

48
Q

Financial forecasts and Financial Projections can be

A

Examined but not reviewed