CPA AUDIT REVIEW #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which procedure is most effective in reducing attestation risk?

A

Examination of evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An Auditor’s summary in their audit documentation facilitates

A
  1. Reviews of the audit documentation
  2. Auditor’s consideration of significant findings and issues.
  3. Determination of whether any individual audit objective cannot be achieved that will prevent achievement of the overall audit objectives.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Should audit evidence be persuasive or conclusive?

A

Persuasive Evidence.

In most cases, evidence that is obtained to enable an auditor to draw reasonable conclusions on which to base the opinion is necessarily persuasive rather than conclusive.

In gathering evidence in the performance of substantive procedures, the auditor most likely relies on persuasive evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are examples of audit evidence gathered by the client?

A

Shipping documents and Receiving Reports.

Shipping documents and receiving reports are a result of the operations of the client. As goods are shipped to customers, a shipping document is prepared by the client. As goods are received from vendors, a receiving report is prepared by the client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the permanent file?

A

The permanent section of the auditor’s audit documentation usually contains copies of important entity documents.

The permanent file section of the audit documentation is kept for each audit client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What’s usually included in the permanent file?

A
  1. A Flowchart of the internal control procedures.
  2. Organizational Charts
  3. Copies of bond and note indentures.
  4. Questionnaires
  5. Information about internal control
  6. Articles of incorporation
  7. Engagement Letter
  8. analyses from previous audits of accounts of special importance to the auditor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The current file includes

A

A copy of the financial statements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the current file?

A

The current file of the auditor’s audit documentation includes all working papers applicable to the current year under audit. A copy of the financial statements must be included in the current file because the amounts included in these statements are the focus of the audit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which audit technique most likely will provide an auditor with the most assurance about the effectiveness of the operation of a control?

A

Observation of client personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Are confirmations a form of test of control, substantive procedure or analytical procedure?

A

Confirmations is a substantive procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

To obtain an understanding of a continuing client in planning an audit, an auditor most likely would

A

Read internal audit reports.

The auditor would use risk assessment procedures to gain an understanding including reading:

  1. Internal Audit reports
  2. Interim Statements
  3. Quarterly Reports
    4.Minutes of Board Meetings.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a SOC 1 Type 1 Report?

A

The report expressing an opinion on the description of controls implemented and their design.

A service auditor’s responsibility is to express an opinion on the fairness of management’s description of the system and the suitability of the design of the controls in meeting the objectives.

The Service does not test the effectiveness of the controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which audit procedure would an auditor be least likely to perform using a generalized computer audit program?

A

Investigating inventory balances for possible obsolescence.

Because obsolescence is a matter of judgment requiring consideration of many factors not reflected in the accounting records, audit software is unlikely to be useful for this task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Accounts receivable turnover ratio

A

Sales/Avg. Accounts Receivable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The tick mark þ likely indicates that the amount was traced to the

A

Outstanding check list of the applicable bank reconciliation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens when the auditor reconciles the accounts receivable ledger to the general ledger control account?

A

An Auditor will most likely learn an opening balance in a subsidiary ledger account was improperly carried forward from the previous accounting period. By reconciling the accounts receivable ledger to the general ledger control account, transfer misstatements will be identified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which audit procedure would an auditor most likely perform to test controls relating to management’s assertion concerning the completeness of sales transactions?

A

Inspect the entity’s reports of prenumbered shipping documents that have not been recorded in the sales journal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Once a CPA has determined that accounts receivable have increased because of slow collections in a tight money environment, the CPA is likely to

A

Expand tests of collectability.
Whenever collections of receivables have slowed, the auditor should determine the effects on the allowance for doubtful accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When should negative accounts receivable forms be used?

A

When the:

  1. Risk of material misstatements is low.
  2. There are many small balances
    3.Consideration by the recipient is likely.

“Negative confirmations provide less persuasive audit evidence than positive confirmations.

Unreturned requests provide no explicit evidence that the intended parties received them and verified the correctness of the information stated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

To test the completeness assertion for cash receipts, the Auditor should..

A

Trace the daily remittance list to the last validated deposit ticket for the period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which procedure prevents payment for goods not received if there isn’t a receiving function?

A

Vendor invoices should be approved by a departmental supervisor other than the employee ordering the goods.

The departmental supervisors are the most likely to be aware of the goods received by their departments. Moreover, separating ordering authority from payment authority will prevent unauthorized purchases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Concerning the content of audit documentation..

A

It is appropriate to use calculator tapes with names or explanations on the tapes rather than writing separate lists onto working papers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The AICPA standards applies to the audit of

A

Non-issuers.

24
Q

A secondary result of the auditor’s understanding of internal control for a nonissuer is that the understanding may

A

Bring to the auditor’s attention possible control conditions required to be communicated to the client.

The auditor is not required to search for significant deficiencies or material weaknesses in internal control.

25
Q

What is the primary result of the Auditor’s understanding of internal control?

A

Develop evidence to support the assessed risks of material misstatement.

26
Q

What are the main positions in an IT Department?

A
  1. Systems Analyst
  2. Programmer
  3. Operator
  4. Librarian
  5. Security
27
Q

What are the application controls?

A
  1. Input Controls
    2.Logic Checks
  2. Processing Checks
28
Q

What are the input controls?

A

These are meant to reduce mistakes when data is being ENTERED into the system.
1. Batch Totals
2. Hash Totals
3. Record Count

29
Q

What are the logic checks?

A

These are certain computer checks that can determine if data has been entered incorrectly.

  1. Limit Test
  2. Validity Tests
  3. Missing data checks
30
Q

What are the processing checks?

A

These are processes to verify the processing of data is accurate and authorized.

  1. Checkpoints: for long processes
31
Q

An auditor performs a test to determine whether all merchandise for which the client was billed was received. The population for this test consists of all

A

Vendor Invoices.

If billed comes before received - Invoices.

If received comes before billed - Receiving reports.

32
Q

An auditor testing investments would ordinarily use analytical procedures to ascertain the reasonableness of the

A

Completeness of recorded investment income.

33
Q

The auditor tests the quantity of materials charged to work-in-process by vouching these quantities to

A

Materials requisitions

34
Q

What is vouching?

A

Vouching is the examination of documents to obtain audit evidence about recorded amounts or transactions.

35
Q

What are the two directions of testing?

A

Records to documents - Vouching.

Documents to records - Tracing

36
Q

What is a key procedure to detect unrecorded debt?

A

Re-calculate interest expense based on recorded debt and compare it with recorded interest expense.

37
Q

A proper purchase cutoff is intended to

A
  1. Assure inclusion of the goods in inventory.
  2. The recognition of a liability in the period in which the client acquired title to the goods.
38
Q

What does a bond trust indenture include?

A
  1. The date of issue & date of maturity of the bond issue.
  2. The amount of the bonds.
  3. Interest rates
  4. Payment dates
  5. Descriptions of collateral.
  6. Provisions for conversions or retire.

7.Trustee Duties

  1. Sinking Fund requirements
  2. Restrictions on the borrower
39
Q

Testing from inventory listing to inventory tags provides evidence of which assertion?

A

Existence.

Validity (being valid) refers to the existence assertion.

40
Q

What is a overriding internal control principle?

A

Responsibility for the performance of each duty must be fixed.

41
Q

An audit plan for noncurrent debt should include steps that require

A

Examining bond trust indentures.

42
Q

What is a trust indenture?

A

The bond trust indenture contains information about contractual arrangements made with bondholders, such as (1) the face amount of the bonds, (2) interest rates, (3) payment dates, (4) descriptions of collateral, (5) provisions for conversion or retirement, (6) trustee duties, and (7) sinking fund requirements. The auditor should examine any bond trust indenture to determine that the client is meeting the conditions of the contract and is in compliance with the law.

43
Q

Inquiries of warehouse personnel concerning possible obsolete or slow-moving inventory items provide assurance about management’s assertion of

A

Accuracy, valuation, and allocation

44
Q

Subsequent events occurring after the balance sheet dates has what effect on the financial statement and auditor’s report?

A

A disclosure is made to the financial statement and is not adjusted and once the disclosure is made then the Auditor’s report does not need to be modified.

45
Q

What is one disadvantage of Monetary Unit Sampling (statistical sampling method)?

A

MUS eliminates the need for auditor’s judgment.

46
Q

What are the advantages of Monetary Unit Sampling?

A

If no misstatements are expected, MUS will usually result in a smaller sample size than classical variables sampling.

MUS is easier to use than classical variables sampling

MUS automatically stratifies the population.

47
Q

What is the Monetary Unit Sampling simplified sample size formula?

A

N =BV × CF/TM

n = sample size
BV = recorded amount of the account
CF = appropriate confidence factor
TM = Tolerable misstatement

48
Q

How does a increase in tolerable misstatement affect the sample size?

A

Decreases sample size

49
Q

How does a increase in RMM affect the sample size?

A

Increases the sample size

50
Q

What is used to determine the sample size for a test of controls?

A

(1) the tolerable rate of deviations from the control being tested
(2) the expected actual rate of deviations
(3) the allowable risk of overreliance

51
Q

How do you calculate the allowance for sampling risk?

A

Achieved upper deviation rate - sample deviation rate

Sampling deviation rate = # of deviations in the sample tested / total sample tested.

52
Q

The opinion section in an auditor’s report for a nonissuer should include a statement that

A

Identifies the applicable financial reporting framework and its origin.

53
Q

When a report has to be re-issued which date should be included on the report?

A

The date of the prior period report

54
Q

A closely held manufacturing company must disclose all of the following…

A
  1. LIFO Reserves
  2. Pledged Inventory
  3. Changes in methods of accounting for inventory
55
Q

If the Auditor is unable to observe the physical count of beginning inventory then a unmodified opinion is issued on which financial statement?

A

The Balance Sheet