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Y2 random qs > CP > Flashcards

CP Flashcards

1
Q

What 4 things present with SLE?

A

Photosensitive malar rash
Multiple mouth ulcers
Arthralgia - joint pain
Alopecia - hair loss

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2
Q

Which 3 organs are involved with SLE?

A

Lung - pleural effusion
Kidney - lupus nephritis
Brain - cerebral lupus

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3
Q

What condition uses a-inteferon as a replacement therapy?

A

Hep C

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4
Q

What condition uses B-inteferon as a replacement therapy?

A

MS

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5
Q

What condition uses y-inteferon as a replacement therapy?

A

CGD

IL-12 deficiency

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6
Q

In replacement therapy of the immune system what are the following molecules used to treat?

1) IL-2
2) alpha inteferon
3) G-CSF/GM-CSF
4) beta inteferon
5) y-inteferon

A

1) Stimulate T cell activation
2) Hep C treatment
3) Increase neutrophil production in bone marrow
4) MS therapy
5) CGD, IL-12 deficiency, atypical mycobacteria

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7
Q

What is the name of the drug that acts as a folate antagonist and has a side effect of pneumonitis?

1) Cyclophospamide
2) Basilixmab
3) Methotrexate
4) Azathioprine (AZA)
5) Myophenolate mofetil (MMF)
6) Ciclosporin A
7) Sirolimus
8) Tacrolimus
9) Daclizumab

A

Methotrexate

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8
Q

Which drugs are anti-metabolates and act by inhibiting nucleotide synthesis?

1) Cyclophospamide
2) Basilixmab
3) Methotrexate
4) Azathioprine (AZA)
5) Myophenolate mofetil (MMF)
6) Ciclosporin A
7) Sirolimus
8) Tacrolimus
9) Daclizumab

A

Azathioprine - AZA

Myophenolate mofetil - MMF

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9
Q

Which drugs are calcineurin inhibitors?

1) Cyclophospamide
2) Basilixmab
3) Methotrexate
4) Azathioprine (AZA)
5) Myophenolate mofetil (MMF)
6) Ciclosporin A
7) Sirolimus
8) Tacrolimus
9) Daclizumab

A

Ciclosporin A

Tacrolimus

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10
Q

Which drug is a macrolide antibiotic but also inhibits mTOR?

1) Cyclophospamide
2) Basilixmab
3) Methotrexate
4) Azathioprine (AZA)
5) Myophenolate mofetil (MMF)
6) Ciclosporin A
7) Sirolimus
8) Tacrolimus
9) Daclizumab

A

Sirolimus

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11
Q

Which drug cross links DNA and has a side effect of cystitis?

1) Cyclophospamide
2) Basilixmab
3) Methotrexate
4) Azathioprine (AZA)
5) Myophenolate mofetil (MMF)
6) Ciclosporin A
7) Sirolimus
8) Tacrolimus
9) Daclizumab

A

Cyclophosphamide

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12
Q

Whcih drugs inhibit IL-2 signalling?

1) Cyclophospamide
2) Basilixmab
3) Methotrexate
4) Azathioprine (AZA)
5) Myophenolate mofetil (MMF)
6) Ciclosporin A
7) Sirolimus
8) Tacrolimus
9) Daclizumab

A

Basiliximab

Daclizumab

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13
Q

Which drugs are often uses in vasculitis?

1) Cyclophospamide
2) Basilixmab
3) Methotrexate (MTX)
4) Azathioprine (AZA)
5) Myophenolate mofetil (MMF)
6) Ciclosporin A
7) Sirolimus
8) Tacrolimus
9) Daclizumab

A

Methotrexate (MTX)

Cyclophosphamide

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14
Q 
What is the hormone cycle of sex hormones?
[Hypothalamus]
           ¦
   [Pituitary]
           ¦
    [Tissue]
A 
[Hypothalamus]      GnRH
           ¦                         ¦
   [Pituitary]           LH    FSH
           ¦                         ¦
    [Tissue]          sex hormones
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15
Q 
What is the hormone cycle of thyroid hormones?
[Hypothalamus]
           ¦
   [Pituitary]
           ¦
    [Tissue]
A 
[Hypothalamus]       TRH
           ¦                         ¦
   [Pituitary]               TSH
           ¦                         ¦
    [Tissue]              T4    T3
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16
Q 
What is the hormone cycle of growth hormones?
[Hypothalamus]
           ¦
   [Pituitary]
           ¦
    [Tissue]
A 
[Hypothalamus]      GHRH
           ¦                         ¦
   [Pituitary]                GH
           ¦                         ¦ 
    [Tissue]                    ¦
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17
Q 
What is the hormone cycle of cortisol?
[Hypothalamus]
           ¦
   [Pituitary]
           ¦
    [Tissue]
A 
[Hypothalamus]       CRH
           ¦                         ¦
   [Pituitary]                ACTH
           ¦                         ¦ 
    [Tissue]            adrenal cortex
                                     ¦
                                 cortisol
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18
Q

What type of diagnostic test provides a T score that reflects bone density?

A

DEXA scan

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19
Q

For the following bone conditions what are the T score ranges?

1) Osteopenia
2) Osteoporosis

A

Osteopenia: -1 –> -2.5
Osteoporosis:

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20
Q

What are the 2 hereditary genes for pancreatitis?

Which is autosomal and which is recessive?

A

PRSS1 - autosomal dominant

SPINK1 - autosomal recessive

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21
Q

What type of pain does acute pancreatitis present with?

A

Sharp pain in epigastric region radiating to back

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22
Q

Which enzymes in the blood are raised in pancreatitis?

A

Amylase/Lipase

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23
Q

What symptom makes chronic pancreatitis mimic cancer?

A

Weight loss

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24
Q

What type of pancreatic cancer is most common?

What is the pathogenesis?

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

KRAS –> inactivates p16 (tumour suppressor)

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25
Q

What is Trousseau’s syndrome? When does it present?

A

Inflammation of veins

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

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26
Q

What is Courvoisier’s sign? What condition does it suggest?

A

Palpable GB but no pain

Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma

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27
Q

From which cells do Pancreatic Neuroendocrine Tumours derive from?

A

Islet cells

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28
Q

Presentation of spider naevia, ascites and gynaecomastia suggest which condition?

A

Hepatic failure

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29
Q

What genetic inborn errors result in chronic hepatitis?

A

Wilson’s disease (copper)
Haematochromatosis (iron)
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

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30
Q

C.perfringens and S.aureus can cause which GI condition?

A

Gastroenteritis

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31
Q

Which anaerobic bacterial family is penicillin resistant?

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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32
Q

What antibiotic do you use to treat Staph Aureus?

A

Flucloxacillin (not MRSA)

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33
Q

What antibiotic do you use to treat MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

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34
Q

What antibiotic do you use to treat S.pyogenes?

A

Benzylpenicillin

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35
Q

What antibiotic do you use to treat gram -ve bacilli eg: E.coli?

A

Cephlasporins (avoid in elderly)

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36
Q

What antibiotic do you use to treat anaerobes?

A

Metronidazole

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37
Q

Name the 4 main families of B lactam antibiotics in order of narrow spectrum to broad?

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Monobactams

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38
Q

What does Staphylococcus contain that makes it resistant to some penicillins?

A

B lactamase enzyme

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39
Q

What are Extended spectrum β-lactamases (ESBLs) resistant to?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins

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40
Q

What is another name for Amocixillin-clavulanate?

A

Augmentin

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41
Q

What is the special family Augmentin belongs to?

A

BLBLIs (Beta Lactam/Beta Lactamase Inhibitors)

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42
Q

What is the negative of using BLBLIs?

A

They are very broad spectrum so can lead to C.diff

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43
Q

What type of antibiotic is Vancomycin part of?

1) B lactams
2) Glycopeptides

A

Glycopeptides

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44
Q

What is the name of the fungal pathogen that is responsible for dermatophyte infections?

A

Trichophyton Rubrum

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45
Q

What are the names of the fungal pathogens that are responsible for tinea unguium?

A

Trichophyton Rubrum

Trichophyton Interdigitae

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46
Q

What are the treatments for dermatophyte infections?

A

Topical antifungals:
Clotrimazole
Terbinafine

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47
Q

What type of surfaces do candida colonise?

A

Mucosal

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48
Q

What is the treatment for candida infections?

Who cannot receive this treatment and why?

A

Oral azoles:
Fluconazole
Pregnant women - increases risk of tetratologies

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49
Q

What is the treatment for aspergillosis?

A

Itraconazole
Voriconazole
Amphotercin B

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50
Q

Which virus is a double stranded enveloped DNA virus and therefore has the ability to establish latency and reactivate?

A

Herpes

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51
Q

Match up the following viruses (numbered) with their common names (lettered):

1) HSV1
2) VZV
3) HSV2
4) Herpes Zoster

A) Genital Herpes
B) Chicken Pox
C) Cold Sores
D) Shingles

A

HSV1 –> cold sores
HSV2 –> genital herpes
VZV –> chicken pox
HZ –> shingles

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52
Q

Name the 2 mechanisms of transmission of Varicella Zoster Virus.

A

1) Respiratory droplets

2) Fluid from vesicles

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53
Q

Which virus presents with atypical lymphocytes on a blood film?

A

EBV

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54
Q

Which 2 viruses are associated with infectious mononucleosis?

A

EBV and CMV

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55
Q

What treats CMV?

1) Flucloxicillin
2) Acyclovir
3) Valacyclovir
4) Ganicyclovir

A

Ganicyclovir

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56
Q

Which virus presents with the nomenclature of H1N1?

A

Influenza

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57
Q 
Which of the influenza strains mutates regularly?
Influenza A
Influenza B
Influenza C
Influenza D
A

Influenza A

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58
Q

Which virus presents with dermatomal distribution (found along dermatomes)?

A

Shingles

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59
Q

What disease is one of the most common causes of hospitalisation in children presenting as bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

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60
Q

What is targeted and therefore reduced in numbers in HIV patients?

A

CD4

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61
Q

Which hepatitis infections transmit enterically (faeco-oral)?

A

Hep A and E

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62
Q

Which hepatitis infections have parenteral transmission (blood borne/vertical)

A

Hep B, C, D

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63
Q

What does Hep D require for replication?

A

Hep D requires Hep B

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64
Q

Which of the following viruses are associated with point-source outbreaks?

1) Hep B
2) Rota virus
3) Norovirus
4) Parvovirus

A

Norovirus

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65
Q

Which virus infects erythroid progenitor cells leading to transient anaemia?
What are its other names?

A

Parvovirus

Slapped Cheek Syndrome or Fifth Disease

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66
Q

People with which condition are affected badly by parvovirus?

1) Pregnant women
2) Children
3) Sickle cell patients
4) Immunocomprised

A

Sickle cell - because affect those with high erythrocyte turnover –> leads to transient aplastic crisis

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67
Q

Which prion disease is associated with eating contaminated beef?

A

nvCJD

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68
Q

What is the histological change of prion diseases in brain tissue?

A

Spongiform

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69
Q

Which viruses replicate in the gut but have no GI symptoms?

1) Enteroviruses
2) Parvoviruses
3) Noroviruses
4) Rota viruses

Give an example of one.

A

Enteroviruses - Coxsackie A/B

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70
Q

For which condition is oseltamivir used to treat?

A

Influenza

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71
Q

Which antiviral is used as an M2 H+ channel blocker?

1) Acyclovir
2) Valacyclovir
3) Oseltamivir
4) Amantidine
5) Ganiciclovir

A

Amantidine

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72
Q

What antiviral treats RSV?

A

Ribavirin

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73
Q

In sepsis what type and how much oxygen do you give?

A

15L/min of high flow oxygen

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74
Q

In sepsis how much fluid do you give?

A

500ml/15 minutes

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75
Q

What are the commonest treatments for UTIs?

A

Trimethoprim

Nitrofuratonin

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76
Q

What is Cor Pulmonale?

A

(R sided) Pulmonary hypertensive heart disease

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77
Q

Which of the following are not causes of R sided hypertensive heart disease?

1) Pulmonary parenchyma diseases
2) Chest movement disorders
3) Disorders including pulmonary arterial compression
4) Endocarditis
5) Pulmonary vessel diseases

A

Endocarditis

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78
Q

In the RAAS system where does Renin come from?

A

Kidneys

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79
Q

In the RAAS system what converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II?
Where does it come from?

A

ACE

Lungs

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80
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have on the adrenal glands?

A

To produce aldosterone –> induce reabsorption of NaCl/H2O in the kidneys

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81
Q

In terms of layers what is the difference between a true aneurysm and a false/pseudo aneurysm?

A 
True = all 3 layers (intima, media, adventitia)
False/Pseudo = just breaks vascular wall
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82
Q

What is orthopnoea?

A

Shortness of breath lying flat

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83
Q

Does paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea (PND) present in R sided heart failure or L sided heart failure?

A

L sided

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84
Q

What do WEDGE pressure and BOXCAR nuclei indicate?
Which is used in L sided heart failure?
Which is used in R sided heart failure?

A

The severity of hypertrophy
L sided - WEDGE
R sided - BOXCAR nuclei

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85
Q

Which side of the heart is the mitral valve on?

A

L side

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86
Q

Which disease presents with a holosystolic murmur if regurg is present?

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP)

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87
Q

Between which weeks does faulty embryogenesis result in CHDs?

A

Weeks 3-8

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88
Q

Name the 4 conditions presenting with L –> R shunts.

A

VSD
ASD
AVSD
PDA

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89
Q

Name the 5 conditions presenting with R –> L shunts.

A 
Tetralogy of Fallot
Truncus arteriosus
Tricuspid atresia
Transportation of great arteries
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
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90
Q

Which shunt presents with cyanosis and systemic venous emboli?

A

R –> L

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91
Q

Which shunt presents with no cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension?

A

L –> R

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92
Q 
What's the most common CHD?
ASD
VSD
Truncus arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus
A

VSD

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93
Q 
What is the most common R --> L shunt?
Tetralogy of Fallot
Truncus arteriosus
Tricuspid atresia
Transportation of great arteries
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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94
Q

What drug is used to treat breast cancer by blocking oestrogen receptors and is also a risk factor for uterine cancers?

A

Tamoxifen

95
Q

Which glycoprotein receptors do platelets bind to fibrinogen via?

A

Glycoproteins 2b/3a

96
Q

Which glycoprotein receptors do platelets bind to vWF via?

A

Glycoprotein 1b

97
Q

Alpha globin chains are coded for in genes HBA1 and HBA2 on which chromosome?

A

Cr16

98
Q

Beta globin chains are coded for on which chromosome?

A

Cr11

99
Q

What criteria is used to determine whether a sore throat infection is bacterial?
What are the 4 aspects to the criteria?

A

CENTOR

1) Exudate
2) Temp > 38*C
3) Absence of cough
4) Tender lymph nodes

100
Q

What is the cause of infectious mononucelosis (glandular fever)?

A

EBV

101
Q

What is the triad of symptoms for glandular fever?

A

Cervical lymphadenopathy
Tonsillar pharyngitis
Fever

102
Q

Which treatment do you avoid in glandular fever as it gives the patient a mac-pap rash?

A

Ampicillin

103
Q

For which infection is CURB used as a severity scorer?

A

Pneumonia

104
Q

What does CURB stand for?

A

C - confusion
U - urea (>7)
R - resp rate (>30)
B - blood pressure (<90/<60)

105
Q

What are the 4 types of primary lung carcinomas?

A

Small cell
Large cell undifferentiated
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma

106
Q

What is the term for lymphatics within the lung being involved with a tumour?

A

Lymphangitis Carcinomatosa

107
Q

What mutation causes Cystic Fibrosis?
Which chromosome?
What is the treatment?

A

F508 deletion on CFTR gene
Chromosome 7
Orkambi

108
Q

If a pleural effusion presents with <2.5 protein is it a transudate or exudate?

A

Transudate

109
Q

If a pleural effusion presents with >2.9 protein is it a transudate or exudate?

A

Exudate

110
Q

What are the common types of malignant mesothelioma?

Which is more common?

A

Pleural - 92%

Peritoneal - 8%

111
Q

Is malignant mesothelioma more common in men or women?

Who gets affected more severely?

A

Men - more common

Women - affects worse

112
Q

What gene mutation is responsible for malignant mesothelioma?

A

BAP1

113
Q

Which type of asbestos is the most oncogenic in malignant mesothelioma?

A

Crocidolite (blue)

114
Q

What is the Cappadocian carcinogen?

A

Erionite

115
Q

Which resp disease commonly presents with centrilobal emphysema, wheeze and mucus gland hyperplasia?

A

Asthma

116
Q

Which chronic disease presents with fine crackles, dry cough and a honeycomb appearance?

A

CILD (Chronic Interstitial Lung Disease)

117
Q

Who does sarcoidosis affect?

What is the chest xray key feature?

A

Young females

Hilar lymphadenopathy

118
Q

Which disease presents with interstitial pneumonia affecting the lower lobes first?

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

119
Q

Silicosis can reactivate which serious condition?

A

TB

120
Q

Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 3

121
Q

Actinomyces in hay lead to which disease?

A

Farmers lung

122
Q

Pigeon antigens lead to which disease?

A

Pigeon fancier’s lung

123
Q

Primary ciliary dyskinesia (Kartegener’s syndrome) and CF give predisposition to which resp disease?

A

Bronchiectasis

124
Q

What type of sputum is produced in Bronchiectasis?

A

Foul smelling sputum

125
Q

Testicular swelling, gynaecomastia, exophthalmos and infertility is a presentation of which testicular cancer?

A

Seminoma

126
Q

What are the infection markers of a seminoma?

A

hCG and PLAP

127
Q

Teratomas affect the young or old?

A

Young - 0-20yrs

128
Q

What is alpha-fetoprotein a marker for?

A

Yolk-sac tumours (eg: testis)

129
Q

What does the Gleason scoring system test for?

A

Prostate cancer

130
Q

Which tumour suppressor gene gives a 20x risk of prostate cancer?

A

BRCA2

131
Q

Blood in semen, pain on ejaculation, urinary leaks and delayed urination are classical presentations of which type of cancer?

A

Prostate

132
Q

What do androgens do in terms of cell death and proliferation of cells?

A

Androgens inhibit cell death and increase cellular proliferation

133
Q

In Benign Prostate Hyperplasia (BPH) which zone is diffusely enlarged?
How does it present?

A

Transition Zone

Incomplete emptying of bladder, nocturia etc (LUTS)

134
Q

Malakoplakia of testis can have granular cytoplasm high in which type of cell:

1) Neutrophil
2) Eosinophil
3) Basophil
4) Leukocyte

A

Eosinophil

135
Q

Which side is cryptorchidism more common on?

A

Right side

136
Q

What is a normal urine volume produced per day?

A

750-2000ml/24h

137
Q

What is oliguria?

A

<400

138
Q

What is anuria?

A

<100

139
Q

What is polyuria?

A

> 3000

140
Q

What does plasma creatinine do as GFR decreases?

A

Increases

141
Q

What does eGFR measure?

A

Renal function of creatinine, age and sex

142
Q

Which type of renal obstruction (uni/bilateral) is:

(i) acute?
(ii) chronic?

A

Acute - bilateral

Chronic - unilateral

143
Q

What type of cancer is transitional cell carcinoma?

A

Bladder cancer

144
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Von Hippel Lindau Syndrome?

A

Dodgy VHL gene (TS gene) (which is normally required to break down HIF-1) causes cell growth and increased survival leading to tumours

145
Q

Who is at a higher risk of renal cell carcinoma:

(i) males?
(ii) females?

A

Males

146
Q

What is the most common renal cell carcinoma?

A

Clear cell carcinoma

147
Q

What gene is a precursor to cervical cancer (adenocarcinoma)?

A

CGIN

148
Q

What does Gardasil protect you from?

A

HPV - strains 6, 11, 16, 18,

149
Q

When is FIGO staging used?

A

Cervical cancer

150
Q

What is a colposcopy and when is it used?

A 
Examination of the cervix
HPV +ve
Any high grade dyskaryasis
Invasive malignancies
Glandular neoplasia
151
Q

How do you treat cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

Large Loop Excision of Transformation Zone (LLETZ)

152
Q

In vulval intraeptihelial neoplasia (VIN) which type is graded 1-3, affects young people and is related to HPV:

(i) classic/baseloid/warty
(ii) differentiated

A

Classic/baseloid/warty

153
Q

Which type of vulval cancer is the most common?

A

SCC

154
Q

What is leiomyoma?

A

Benign smooth muscle (fibroid) tumours with oestrogen (E2) and progesterone (P4) dependent growth

155
Q

What disease is caused by ectopic pregnancies?

A

Endometriosis

156
Q

In vulval intraeptihelial neoplasia (VIN) which type is associated with lichen sclerosus, not graded, affects old people and is not related to HPV:

(i) classic/baseloid/warty
(ii) differentiated

A

Differentiated

157
Q

Are PTEN and Kras mutations in type 1 (endometroid) or type 2 (serous) adenocarcinomas of the endometrium?

A

Type 1 - endometroid

158
Q

What type of people are affected by serous (type 2) carcinomas?

A

Post-menopausal

159
Q

Who does Wilm’s tumour/nephroblastoma affect?

A

Children

160
Q

What condition is the Rotterdam criteria used in?

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

161
Q

What is Sheehan syndrome a cause of?

A

Hypogonadotrophic gonadal failure

162
Q

Which category of ovarian cancer is serous carcinoma from?

A

Surface epithelia

163
Q

What is the prognostic test used in Breast Cancer?

What are the values in the range?

A

Nottingham
< 3.4 = good
3.4 - 5.4 = moderate
> 5.4 = poor

164
Q

Which benign breast disease is common in adolescents?

A

Fibroadenomas

165
Q

A rare fibroepithelial neoplasm which can be benign, borderline or malignant?

A

Phyllodes tumour

166
Q

What is the key nuclear receptor used to diagnose breast cancer?

A

Oestrogen

167
Q

HER2 is a gene commonly found in breast cancer patients - what treatment do you use against it?

A

Herceptin

168
Q

Which antibiotics are safe to use in pregnant women?

A

Penicillins (amoxicillin) and Cephlasporins

169
Q

Which antibiotics are unsafe to use in pregnant women?

A

Chloramphenicol –> grey baby syndrome

Tetracycline

170
Q

Which infection is a precursor to symptomatic UTIs in pregnant women?

A

Asymptomatic bacteriuria

171
Q

What type of infections are most common at childhood?

A

Respiratory

172
Q

B. pertussis causes which disease?

A

Whooping cough

173
Q

Most common causes of meningitis in:

  • neonates
  • children
  • elderly
A

Neonates - Group B Strep (S. Agalactiae)
Children - Neisseria Menigitidis
Elderly - S. Pneumoniae

174
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis?

A

Coxsackie (Enteroviruses)

175
Q

Meningococcaemia is caused by which bacteria?

What type of rash occurs?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Maculopapular rash

176
Q

What type of strep causes Scarlet Fever?

What is the key feature?

A

Group A Strep (S. Pyogenes)

Desquamation (skin peeling)

177
Q

What disease presents with a pink mac pap rash?

A

Rubella

178
Q

What does Ribavirin treat?

A

Hep C

RSV

179
Q

Name a cause of neutropenia?

A

Drugs (antibiotics) or Chemotherapy

180
Q

What results in basophilia?

A

CML

181
Q

In parasitic infections what blood marker is raised?

A

Eosinophils

182
Q

Kupffer cells in the liver and Langerhans in the skin are examples of which type of cell?

A

Monocytes

183
Q

Monocytosis occurs in which infection?

A

TB

184
Q

What is the effect of bone marrow transplants and glandular fever on lymphocytes?

A

Lymphocytosis - glandular fever

Bone marrow transplants - lymphopenia

185
Q

What type of cell is further differentiated into platelets?

A

Megakaryocytes

186
Q

MDS is a complication of chemotherapy. Which of its syndromes can be actively treated by Lenalidome

A

5q syndrome

187
Q

What does leucodepeltion mean?

A

Removal of WBCs

188
Q

What is the name of the only adequate fibrinogen concentrate available for IV use?
What does it treat?

A

Cryoprecipitate

Treats: Haemophilia, vWD, haemorrhages

189
Q

Fresh frozen plasma is used when?

When can it not be used for?

A

Coagulopathy during bleeding/surgery
Massive haemorrhage

Warfarin reversal (PCC)
Replacing a single factor deficiency
190
Q

Blood group A can transfuse who?

A

A or AB

191
Q

Blood group B can transfuse who?

A

B or AB

192
Q

Blood group AB can transfuse who?

A

AB

193
Q

Blood group O can transfuse who?

A

A, B, AB, O

194
Q

Blood group A can receive blood from who?

A

A or O

195
Q

Blood group B can receive blood from who?

A

B or O

196
Q

Blood group O can receive blood from who?

A

O only

197
Q

Blood group AB can receive blood from who?

A

A, B, AB or O

198
Q

Who is the primary receiver?

A

AB

199
Q

Who is the primary donator?

A

O

200
Q

PTT measures which pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A

Extrinsice

201
Q

Intrinsic pathway of coagulation cascade is measured by what?

A

APTT

202
Q

Thrombin time measures which pathway in the coagulation cascade?

A

Common pathway

203
Q

Meningococcal sepsis presents with what type of rash?

A

Non-blanching purpuric rash

204
Q

What type of anti blood molecule is Clopidogrel?

A

Antiplatelet

205
Q

What factor is von Willebrand Disease associated with?

A

FVIII

206
Q

What does aspirin inhibit?

A

COX - synthesises platelets

207
Q

Management of overantigoagulation?

A

Stop heparin –> consider protamine

208
Q

Myeloproliferative disorder marked by which gene mutation?

A

JAK2 V617F

209
Q

CALR = mutation in exon 9

What is it used as a marker for?

A

Myeloproliferative disorders

210
Q

CML is caused by which mutation?

A

Philadelphia (9;22)

211
Q

Hydrocarbamide treats which condition?

A

Thrombocytosis

212
Q

Treatment of polycythaemia vera?

A

Aspirin

213
Q

Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor - what myeloid disease can it treat?

A

CML

214
Q

When is blood urea raised?

A

UTIs

215
Q

C-reactive protein
Procalcitonin
TRAIL
are markers of what?

A

Inflammation

216
Q

What does serology specifically test for?

A

Antibodies

217
Q

What is the treatment for C.Diff?

A

Metronidazole

218
Q

Beta-1-3 glucan is the component of which organism’s cell wall?

A

Fungi (chitin)

219
Q

Tetracyclines treat which propionic bacteria?

A

Acne

220
Q

Quinolone is used in patients allergic to what?

A

Penicillin

221
Q

What do you give for high risk penumonia?

A

Co-amoxiclav

Erythromycin

222
Q

What do you give for low risk pneumonia patients?

A

Amoxicillin

223
Q

What is a risk of C.diff?

A

Co-amoxiclav

224
Q

Echinocandins, Azoles and Nystatin are part of which antimicrobial family?

A

Anti-fungal

225
Q

Antibiotic resistance involves what different stages?

A

1) Absent target - antibiotics –> viruses
2) Decrease in permeability - vancomycin –> g-ve bacteria
3) Target modification - fluclox –> MRSA
4) Enzymatic degradation - penicillin –> b-lactamases
5) Drug efflux

226
Q

Praziquentil treats what parasites?

A

Schistosomiasis

227
Q

What treats ascariasis?

A

Albendazole

228
Q

MIC = ?

A

minimum inhibiton concentration

- lowest concentration of antibiotics that kill all bacteria

229
Q

Trichomoniasis is treated by what?

A

Metronidazole

230
Q

Metformin treats which ovary disease?

A

Polycystic ovary disease

231
Q

Autoantibodies of B cells act directly cytotoxic and activate what system?

A

Complement

232
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is due to what?

What is the treatment?

A

Anti-Ach receptor blocking neuromuscular junctions causing muscle weakness
T: acetylcholine esterase inhibitor

233
Q

Pernicious anaemia is due to what autoimmune destruction?

What is the result?

A

Parietal cells and intrinsic factor

B12 deficiency

Y2 random qs (6 decks)

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