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Y2 random qs > Control > Flashcards

Control Flashcards

1
Q

Which layer of dura continues with the spinal cord?

A

Meningeal

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2
Q

What does the tentorium cerebelli separate?

A

Occipital lobe and Cerebellum

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3
Q

Injury to which artery is responsible for an extradural/epidural haematoma?

A

Middle meningeal artery

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4
Q

Which branch of the trigeminal nerve innervates the following parts of the brain?

1) Flax cerebri
2) Tentorium cerebelli
3) Middle cranial fossa

A

Flax cerebri - V1
Tentorium cerebelli - V1
Middle cranial fossa - V2/V3

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5
Q

When does a subdural haemorrhage occur?

A

Tearing of veins from venous dural sinuses

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6
Q

What is the cause of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

How does it present?

A

Thrombus in Circle of Willis

Thunderclap headache, vomiting, confusion

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7
Q

Name 3 ways hydrocephalus occurs.

A

1) Overproduction of CSF
2) Obstruction to flow of CSF
3) Failure to reabsorb CSF through arachnoid granulations

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8
Q

GCS score of 3 suggests a patient is in what state?

A

Coma/dead

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9
Q

What is the GCS score for a patient being fully awake?

A

15

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10
Q

At what angle does the cephalic flexure bend?

A

100*

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11
Q

Which type of neural matter has unmyelinated axons?

A

Grey

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12
Q

Which lobe is responsible for behaviour, mood and language?

A

Frontal

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13
Q

Which lobe is responsible for memory and hearing?

A

Temporal

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14
Q

Which lobe is responsible for calculations and visuospatial function?

A

Parietal

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15
Q

Which lobe is responsible for vision?

A

Occipital

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16
Q

What separates the cerebral cortex into L and R hemispheres?

A

Corpus callosum

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17
Q

Which type of fibres link WITHIN hemispheres?

A

Association

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18
Q

Which type of fibres link BETWEEN hemispheres?

A

Commisural

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19
Q

Which type of fibres are carried to/from hemispheres for example in the posterior limb of the internal capsule?

A

Projection

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20
Q

Which arteries exit the skull from the foramen magnum?

A

Vertebral arteries

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21
Q

Which arteries supply the deep structures in the cerebrum eg: internal capsule?

A

Striate arteries (arising from middle cerebral)

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22
Q

Emboli can travel up the internal carotid into the middle cerebral artery and can therefore occur in which arteries?
In which sulcus would these strokes get stuck?

A

Striate arteries

Lateral sulcus

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23
Q

Which arteries are not branches or continuations of the ICA?

A

Posterior cerebral

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24
Q

What structure separates the cerebellum from the pons?

A

4th ventricle

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25
Q

The colliculi are on the posterior surface of which part of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain

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26
Q

Which gyrus separates occipital lobe into upper and lower?

A

Calcarine sulcus

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27
Q

What are the basal ganglia involved in?

A

Movement control

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28
Q

Which lobes of the brain does the lateral ventricle project into?

A

Frontal (anterior horn)
Occipital (posterior horn)
Temporal (inferior horn)

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29
Q

What connects the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle?

A

Foramen of Monro (between R/L thalamus)

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30
Q

What connects and transports CSF between the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle?

A

Cerebral aqueduct

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31
Q

How is CSF drained in the brain?

A

Lateral ventricles –> foramen of Monro
–> 3rd ventricle –> cerebral aqueduct
–> 4th ventricle –> central spinal canal
or –> subarachnoid cisterns

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32
Q

Levator palpibrae superioris does what to the eyelid?

A

Elevates it

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33
Q

What is the classic triad of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Miosis (constricted pupil)
Partial ptosis
Anhidrosis (loss of sweating)

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34
Q

What is the cause of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Interruption of sympathetic pathways often due to a pancoast tumour

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35
Q

Which eye muscle is inactivated resulting in ptosis?

A

Superior tarsal muscle (branch of levator palpibrae superioris)

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36
Q 
What do the following eye muscles do:
Superior rectus
Inferior rectus
Lateral rectus
Medial rectus
Superior oblique
Inferior oblique
A

Superior rectus - elevation
Inferior rectus - depression
Lateral rectus - abduction
Medial rectus - adduction
Superior oblique - intorsion (inward rotation)
Inferior oblique - extorsion (outward rotation)

37
Q

What muscle is responsible for accommodation?

A

Ciliary

38
Q

What muscle is responsible for constriction of the pupil?

A

Sphincter pupillae

39
Q

What muscle is responsible for dilation of the pupil?

A

Dilator pupillae

40
Q

Damage to occulomotor nerve would result in what eye presentations?

A

Lateral rectus/Superior oblique intact –> eyes point down and out
Levator palpibrae superioris damaged –> ptosis
Sphincter pupillae damaged –> dilation of pupil

41
Q

How could you differentiate between CN3 damage and Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Horners: pupil constricted (miosis), anhidrosis

CN3 damage: pupil dilated, eyes inward and down

42
Q

What does the temperomandibular joint enable?

A

Elevation/depression of jaw

43
Q

Which muscle of mastication is the most powerful?

A

Masseter

44
Q

Which muscle of mastication is the major protractor of the mandible? What shape is it?

A

Lateral pterygoid

Triangle

45
Q

Which muscle of mastication is the only one to depress the mandible?

A

Lateral pterygoid

46
Q

What is the innervation for the muscles of mastication?

A

V3 trigeminal

47
Q

Unilateral damage to trigeminal nerve causes the jaw to deviate towards or away from the lesion?

A

Towards the paralysed side

48
Q

Which mater are the denticulate ligaments found in?

What role do they have?

A

Pia mater

Prevent rotation of spinal cord

49
Q

Which vertebral boundary do the following terminate at:
Spinal cord?
Dural sac?

A

Lumbar cistern - L1/L2

Dural sac - S2

50
Q

At what level of the spinal cord is a lumbar puncture performed?

A

L3/L4

or L4/L5

51
Q

Damage to the anterior segmental medullary arteries results in which deficits?

A

Pain and temperature

52
Q

Damage to the posterior segmental medullary arteries results in which deficits?

A

Propriception and discriminative touch

53
Q

White matter increases as you go up or down the spinal cord?

A

Up (cervical has the most)

54
Q

The ventral grey horn is enlarged in which segments of the spinal cord? Why?

A

Cervical and lumbosacral

Accumulation of motor neurons for innervation of the limbs

55
Q 
Which nuclei and lamina are the following:
Pain and temp
Spinothalamic tract cells
Motor - SCM/trapezius
Sympathetic neurons
General sensory processing
A

Pain and temp - substantial gelatinous II
Spinothalamic tract cells - marginal zone I
Motor - SCM/trapezius - accessory IX
Sympathetic neurons - lateral column VII
General sensory processing - posterior horn III-VI

56
Q

Which structure units the ventral and dorsal roots?

A

Interventricular foramen

57
Q

Which type of skin thickness does NOT have hair follicles on?

A

Thick - palms, soles

58
Q

Is the dermis of thick skin thick too or thin?

A

Thin - opposite

59
Q

What type of epithelium is skin?

A

Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

60
Q 
Put in order of superficial to deep layers of skin:
Stratum granulosum
Stratum germinativum/basale
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidium
Stratum spinosum
A

1) Stratum corneum
2) Stratum lucidium
3) Stratum granulosum
4) Stratum spinosum
5) Stratum germinativum/basale

61
Q

Which layer of skin contains keratinocytes?

A

Stratum germinativum/basale

62
Q

For the following skin receptors mention their function in detection and if their adaptation is rapid/slow:

1) Merkel cell
2) Pacinian corpuscle
3) Meissener’s corpuscle
4) Ruffini endings

A

Merkel cell neutrite complex - pressure/texture - slow
Pacinian corupscle - vibration - rapid
Meissener’s corpuscle - flutter/motion - rapid
Ruffini endings - stretching - slow

63
Q

Which skin receptor is involved with reading braille?

A

Merkel cell neutrite complex

64
Q

In the cerebellum what is the order of the function subdivision from medial to lateral?

A

Vestibulocerebellum
Spinocerebellum
Cerebrocerebllum

65
Q

Which of the cerebellum subdivisions comprises of the flocculonodular lobe?

A

Vestibulocerebellum

66
Q

Which of the cerebellum subdivisions comprises of most of the vermis?

A

Spinocerebellum

67
Q

Which of the cerebellum subdivisions coordinates balance and posture?

A

Vestibulocerebellum

68
Q

Which of the cerebellum subdivisions coordinates fine movements?

A

Cerebrocerebellum

69
Q

Which of the cerebellum subdivisions coordinates posture and locomotion?

A

Spinocerebellum

70
Q

Damage to which part of the medulla results in inability to blink?

A

Inferior olivary nucleus

71
Q

Is cerebellum influence contralateral or ipsilateral?

A

Ipsilateral

72
Q

Which cerebellum connection involves the superior cerebellar peduncle?

A

Motor cortex passing to midbrain

73
Q

Which cerebellum connection comes into the inferior cerebellar peduncle from the same side?

A

Spinocerebellum

74
Q

Which cerebellum connection knows what your muscles are doing?

A

Spinocerebellum

75
Q

Which cerebellum connection knows what you want to do (intended movements)?

A

Cerebrocerebellum

76
Q

Is the input from the cerebellum connection moving across the midline or entering the ICP from the same side?

A

Crossing the midline

77
Q

Tuncal ataxia is the inability to stand or sit without falling over - a lesion in which subdivision of the cerebellum is responsible?

A

Vestibulocerebellum

78
Q

A lesion in the cerebrocerebellum results in what type of incoordination?

A

Incoordination of voluntary movement
Tremor of intent
Past pointing/dysmetria

79
Q

A lesion in which subdivision of the cerebellum results in gait ataxia?
What type of people are at a higher risk of this

A

Spinocerebellum

Chronic alcoholics

80
Q

For the basal ganglia DIRECT pathway are the following pathway points excitatory or inhibitory:

1) Cortex –> Striatum (caudate + putamen)?
2) Thalamus –> Cortex
3) Striatum –> Globus pallidum
4) Globus pallidum –> Thalamus

A

Caudate –> Striatum = excitatory
Thalamus –> Cortex = excitatory
Striatum –> Globus pallidum = inhibitory
Globus pallidum –> Thalamus = inhibitory

81
Q

What is the effect of the direct basal ganglia pathway on the cortex?

A

Excitatory

82
Q

For the basal ganglia INDIRECT pathway are the following pathway points excitatory or inhibitory:

1) Cortex –> Striatum
2) Striatum –> Globus Pallidum (externa)
3) Globus Pallidum –> Subthalamic Nucleus
4) Subthalamic Nucelus –> Globus Pallidum (interna)
5) Globus Pallidum (interna) –> Thalamus
6) Thalamus –> Cortex

A 
Cortex --> Striatum = excitatory
Striatum --> Globus Pallidum (externa) = inhibitory
Globus Pallidum --> Subthalamic Nucleus = inhibitory
Subthalamic Nucelus --> Globus Pallidum (interna) = excitatory
Globus Pallidum (interna) --> Thalamus = inhibitory
Thalamus --> Cortex = excitatory
83
Q

In the direct pathway what increase of which fibres is the GP Interna receiving?

A

Increase of inhibitory fibres

84
Q

In the indirect pathway what increase of which fibres is the GP Interna receiving?

A

Increase of excitatory fibres

85
Q

What is the main function of the substantia nigra pars compacta?

A

Initiate movement

86
Q

What is the effect of the substantia nigra on the direc/indirect pathways?

A

Direct - excites

Indirect - inhibits (excitatory effect as a result)

87
Q

What is the result of a diminished substantia nigra?

A

No movement initiation

88
Q

Most common disease of basal ganglia?

A

Disruption of nigrostrial input –> PD

Y2 random qs (6 decks)

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