Course Questions Pt 3

Question 1

Which of the following would you NOT include in the development of a Neurofeedback training protocol?
A. Client symptoms, history and presenting diagnosis
B. Continuous performance tests
C. EEG metrics like amplitude, power ratios, and peak frequencies
D. The amount of artifact in the original EEG assessment

Answer 1

D. The amount of artifact in the original EEG assessment

Question 2

Which of the following values would be typical values to train in a Neurofeedback protocol?

A. EEG ratios
B. Coherence
C. Peak frequencies
D All of the above

Answer 2

D All of the above

Question 3

Which of the following is an example of statistical database training?

A. Amplitude training of the raw EEG
B. Power ratio training
C 19 channel z-score training
D. None of the above

Answer 3

C 19 channel z-score training

Question 4

Which of the following are symptoms of over-arousal?

A. Low motivation and fatigue
B. Daytime sleepiness
C. Anxiety, muscle tension, and hyperactivity
D. All of the above

Answer 4

C. Anxiety, muscle tension, and hyperactivity

Question 5

When developing Neurofeedback training protocols, why is ongoing observation important?

A. A protocol that was initially indicated may need to be changed quite soon
B. Areas and frequencies that are dysregulated in one direction may easily dysregulate in the opposite direction with training
C. The vast majority of clients are excellent self reporters
D. A and B

Answer 5

D. A and B

Question 6

Compared to other neuroimaging techniques, EEG has a better ________ resolution but has less precise ____________ resolution.

A. Temporal; spatial
B. Spatial; temporal
C. Location; visual
D. Visual; location

Answer 6

A. Temporal; spatial

Question 7

What is one thing that EEG can measure that other types of neuroimaging cannot?

A. White matter tracts
B. Abnormal brain structures
C. Action potentials
D. Network communications

Answer 7

D. Network communications

Question 8

Compared to a normative database, a client’s EEG power values are 2 standard deviations away from expected values. Which of the following describes how a clinician might interpret the results?

A. The clinician would find the 10-20 electrode placement of the activity that is 2 standard deviations above the average and interpret the region as diseased.
B. Any data different from the statistical database represents a clinical or functional abnormality.
C. The clinician could explore the client history to match symptoms from the client that correlate with the identified difference from expected values.
D. The clinician would not interpret the results; it is unacceptable for anyone other than a physician skilled in clinical application to interpret QEEG data

Answer 8

C. The clinician could explore the client history to match symptoms from the client that correlate with the identified difference from expected values.

Question 9

True or false: The final QEEG is an analog signal.

Answer 9

False

Question 10

In quantitative EEG (qEEG) assessment, data is interpreted ____________.

A. Objectively
B. Subjectively
C. Incorrectly
D. Only by the computer

Answer 10

B. Subjectively

Question 11

True or false: The analog EEG signal that is recorded from the scalp is processed by the NeXus-10 and NeXus-32 amplifiers into a digitized signal.

Answer 11

True

Question 12

You record the EEG from a migraine patient and you decide to process the data with NeuroGuide software platform. Which of the following metrics are you likely to see that directly relate to the migraine condition?

A. Increased theta power in the occipital and temporal regions
B. Increased theta/alpha ratio in parietal and occipital areas
C. Reduced occipital alpha on the side of the headache
D. All of the above

Answer 12

D. All of the above

Question 13

What percentage of individuals who have incurred an mTBI will have symptoms that last more than one year?
A. 1%
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 50%

Answer 13

C. 15%

Question 14

True or false: White matter damage in the brain following an mTBI was most likely caused by shearing forces.

Answer 14

True

Question 15

EEG coherence metrics:
A. Measure amplitude changes in the EEG between different electrode sites.
B. Measure the correlation between a pair of signals at a specific frequency.
C. Are a direct measure of timing in the EEG between two electrode sites.
D. Are considered to be the best way to study power ratios.

Answer 15

B. Measure the correlation between a pair of signals at a specific frequency.

Question 16

Which of the following are variables that can be trained with Z-Score Neurofeedback Training?
A. Absolute and Relative Power of all frequency bands
B. Phase and Coherence for all frequency bands
C. Amplitude asymmetry for all frequencies
D. All of the above

Answer 16

D. All of the above

Question 17

Z-Score Neurofeedback trains toward Z = 0. Which of the following best describes what this means?
A. The client’s Z-score metrics are trained toward those of a neurotypical control.
B. If a client’s Z-score of 3 is trained to a Z-score of 2, the client’s EEG is not significantly different from neurotypical aged-matched controls.
C. The client is trained based on an arbitrary threshold.
D. All of the above

Answer 17

A. The client’s Z-score metrics are trained toward those of a neurotypical control.

Question 18

True or false: Due to the unique nature of Z-score training, feedback displays are different from those conventionally used for EEG Neurofeedback.

Answer 18

False

Question 19

In the study by Paul Wand and Gerald Gluck, Z-score Neurofeedback and SPECT scans were compared. Which of the following describes the result of this study?
A. There was poor agreement between SPECT and LORETA scans
B. The concurrent and construct validity for LORETA as a measure was not supported as a scientifically based treatment.
C. Emphasizes the importance of and sensitivity of LORETA network measures of connectivity in correspondence to SPECT scan measures.
D. None of the above

Answer 19

C. Emphasizes the importance of and sensitivity of LORETA network measures of connectivity in correspondence to SPECT scan measures.

Question 20

When using the NeXus-10 for Z-score Neurofeedback training, the maximum number of channels that can be trained is:

2

4

12

19

Answer 20

4

Question 21

Which of the following EEG montages uses a “monopolar” placement of electrodes?
A. Longitudinal bipolar montage
B. Circumferential montage
C. Cz - A1 - A2
D. T3 - Cz - A1

Answer 21

C. Cz - A1 - A2

Question 22

A transverse bipolar montage differs from a longitudinal bipolar montage in which of the following ways?
A. They are identical
B. The transverse bipolar montage compares electrode combinations between the left and right sides of the scalp whereas the longitudinal bipolar montage compares electrode combinations between the front and the back of the head.
C. The transverse bipolar montage uses circumferential derivations and the longitudinal bipolar montage does not.
D. None of the above

Answer 22

B. The transverse bipolar montage compares electrode combinations between the left and right sides of the scalp whereas the longitudinal bipolar montage compares electrode combinations between the front and the back of the head.

Question 23

If you wanted to localize particular features of the EEG (e.g. Mu Rhythm, slow transients, etc.) which montage would you use?

A. Laplacian
B. Average reference
C. Longitudinal bipolar
D. Circumferential

Answer 23

A. Laplacian

Question 24

In general, which anatomical region contributes the least amount of EEG activity to the recording?
A. Posterior or occipital cortex
B. Earlobes or mastoid process
C. The frontal cortex
D. The temporal lobes

Answer 24

B. Earlobes or mastoid process

Question 25

Which of the following is true about evoked and event-related potentials?
A. Each EEG response to a stimulus is averaged in a time-locked fashion over a large number of trials.
B. Evoked and event-related potentials do not correlate well with the physical and psychological characteristics of stimuli.
C. Typical types of stimuli used are light flashes, auditory sounds, cognitive input, and go-no-go tasks.
D. A and C

Answer 25

D. A and C