Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Yr 5 - Obs & Gynae > Corrections > Flashcards

Corrections Flashcards

1
Q

1st line mx of 1ary dysmenorrhoea?

A

NSAIDs e.g. mefanamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is aspirin contraindicated in breastfeeding?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Urge to push in OA vs OP positioning?

A

Generally, women will experience an earlier urge to push in OP than OA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is indicated if Bishop’s score is ≤6?

A

vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is indicated if Bishop’s score is >6?

A

amniotomy and an IV oxytocin infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is nitrofurantoin contraindicated in breastfeeding?

A

it can induce haemolysis in infants with G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is trimethoprim contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

No - safe to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common cause of puerperal pyrexia?

A

Endometritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the 1st line antihypertensive in pregnant women with asthma?

A

Nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is aspirin given to reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia in pregnancy?

A

≥ 1 high risk factors

or

≥ 2 moderate factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give some moderate risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A
  • 1st pregnancy
  • age ≥40 y/o
  • pregnancy interval of more than 10 years
  • BMI ≥35
  • FH of pre-eclampsia
  • multiple pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give some high risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A
  • hypertensive disease in a previous pregnancy
  • CKD
  • autoimmune disease, such as SLE or APS
  • type 1 or type 2 diabetes
  • chronic hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At what BMI should women be given high dose folic acid (5mg)?

A

> 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the medication of choice in suppressing lactation when breastfeeding cessation is indicated?

A

Cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is a FH history of Wilson’s a contraindication to the copper IUD?

A

No - only a personal history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should the serum progesterone level be taken?

A

7 days prior to the next expected period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Urethral discharge in chlamydia vs gonorrhoea?

A

Chlamydia –> clear/cloudy

Gonorrhoea –> green/yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should women be referred to a maternal fetal medicine unit if foetal movements have not yet been felt?

A

By 24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is hCG secreted by?

A

Syncytiotrophoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long is the mirena IUS licensed for use as the progesterone component of HRT?

A

4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Raloxifene?

A

SERM, used to:

1) lower the risk of breast cancer if you have a high or moderate risk of developing it

2) prevent and treat bone thinning (osteoporosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are 4 mx options for ovulation induction?

A

1) Excercise & weight loss

2) Letrozole

3) Clomiphene citrate

4) Gonadotropin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1st line for ovulation induction in patients with PCOS?

A

Exercise & weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1st line medical therapy for ovulation induction in patients with PCOS?

A

Letrozole (aromatase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define PPH

A

Blood loss >500ml after vaginal delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How soon after childbirth can the implant be inserted?

A

Any time after childbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the different classification of perineal tears

A

1st degree:
- superficial damage with no muscle involvement
- do not require any repair

2nd degree:
- injury to the perineal muscle, but not involving the anal sphincter
- require suturing on the ward by a suitably experienced midwife or clinician

3rd degree:
- injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (external anal sphincter, EAS and internal anal sphincter, IAS)
3a: less than 50% of EAS thickness torn
3b: more than 50% of EAS thickness torn
3c: IAS torn
require repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician

4th degree:
- injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS) and rectal mucosa
- require repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which contraception is contraindicated in those on testosterone therapy?

A

Those containing oestrogen only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mx of stage 1A tumours in cervical cancer?

A

Gold standard –> hysterectomy +/- lymph node clearance

Maintaining fertility –> cone biopsy with negative margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Mx of stage 1B tumours in cervical cancer?

A

radiotherapy with concurrent chemotherapy is advised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is investigation required in lochia?

A

If it persists beyond 6 weeks –> get US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Role of foetal fibronectin?

A

Helps maintain the attachment of the amniotic sac to the uterine lining during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Role of testing foetal fibronectin?

A

The test measures the level of fFN in vaginal fluid.

A level of 50 ng/ml or higher between 22 and 35 weeks is associated with an increased risk of preterm delivery.

34
Q

What does grossly elevated oestradiol concentrations with suppressed LH/FSH and raised prolactin indicate?

A

Pregnancy

35
Q

Is the IUD or IUS affected by enzyme inducers?

A

No (but the implant is!)

36
Q

Around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy for an ectopic pregnancy require further treatment.

What does this further treatment involve?

A

Methotrexate +/- salpingectomy

37
Q

Risk factors for placental abruption?

A
  • previous abruption
  • HTN/pre-eclampsia
  • ruptured membranes (prolonged or premature)
  • polyhydramnios
  • uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen)
  • multiple pregnancy
  • older age
  • cocaine & smoking
  • chorioamnionitis & other infections
38
Q

The requirements for instrumental delivery: FORCEPS

A

F - fully dilated

O - OA position (preferable)

R - ruptured membranes

C - cephalic presentation

E - engaged presenting part i.e. head at or below the ischial spines (mustn’t be palpated abdominally)

P - pain relief

S - sphincter (bladder) empty

39
Q

components of ‘foetal station’ in the Bishop’s score?

A

0: -3

1: -2

2: -1,0

3: +1, +2

40
Q

Is lithium safe in breastfeeding?

A

No

41
Q

What size uterine cavity can be manage medically instead of surgically/

A

<3cm (as long as not distorting uterine cavity)

e.g. IUS, TXA, COCP

42
Q

1st line mx of magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression?

A

Calcium gluconate

43
Q

Mx of amniotic fluid embolism?

A

Supportive mainly

44
Q

Patients on DOACs should be swapped to what in pregnancy?

A

LMWH

45
Q

Foetal engagement vs station?

A

Engagement: When the largest part of the baby’s head enters the pelvis

Station: The baby’s position relative to the ischial spines

46
Q

What does a foetal station of 0 indicate?

A

the baby’s head is at the bottom of the pelvis, or fully engaged.

47
Q

When should women with multiple pregnancies avoid flying?

A

> 32 weeks

48
Q

What class of medication is tolterodine?

A

Antimuscarinic

49
Q

When is oxytocin given for active mx of 3rd stage of labour?

A

After delivery of the anterior shoulder.

50
Q

What is the genotype in androgen insensivity syndrome?

A

47XXY

The child is genotypically male but presents as female phenotypically.

51
Q

When should a VTE risk assessment be done in pregnancy?

A

At the booking visit (and on any subsequent hospital admission).

52
Q

Mx of pregnant women with a previous VTE history?

A

Automatically considered high risk and requires LMWH throughout the antenatal period.

53
Q

The assessment at booking should include risk factors that increase the womans likelihood of developing VTE.

Name some of these risk factors

A
  • Age >35
  • BMI >30
  • Parity >3
  • Smoker
  • Gross varicose veins
  • Current pre-eclampsia
  • Immobility
  • Family history of unprovoked VTE
  • Low risk thrombophilia
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • IVF pregnancy
54
Q

What is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy?

A

LMWH

55
Q

How many risk factors warrant immediate treatment with LMWH continued?

A

4 or more

56
Q

How long should LMWH prophylaxis be continued for in pregnancy?

A

Until 6 weeks postnatal

57
Q

At what age gestation would you expect the fundal height to increase by 1cm a week?

A

From 24 weeks gestation

Concern if more/less than 1cm a week

58
Q

What are the 2 SSRIs of choice in breastfeeding?

A

1) sertraline
2) paroxetine

59
Q

High risk factors for pre-eclampsia?

A

1) hypertensive disease in previous pregnancy

2) CKD

3) autoimmune disease e.g. SLE, APS

4) type 1 or 2 diabetes

5) chronic HTN

60
Q

Mx of all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A

need to be referred to gynaecology for investigation

61
Q

Transvaginal or transabdominal US when assessing foetal movements?

A

Transabdominal is recommended

62
Q

Are cephalosporins in breastfeeding considered safe to use?

A

Yes

63
Q

How does an epidural affect BP during labour?

A

Can reduce BP

64
Q

What is the most common ovarian cancer?

A

Serous carcinoma (epithelial)

65
Q

What is the commonest type of ovarian cyst?

A

Follicular cyst

66
Q

What are is the most common type of BENIGN ovarian tumour?

A

Serous cystadenoma

bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma)

67
Q

What are the 2 types of benign ovarian epithelial tumours?

A

1) serous cystadenoma

2) mucinous cystadenoma

68
Q

Is coagulopathy a contraindication to an epidural?

A

Yes

69
Q

Are all pregnant women offered screening for hepatitis B?

A

Yes (booking scan)

70
Q

Mx of babies born to mothers who are chronically infected with hepatitis B or to mothers who’ve had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy?

A

Babies should receive a complete course of vaccination + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

71
Q

Does caesarean section reduces vertical transmission rates in hep B?

A

No - little evidence

72
Q

Can Hep B be transmitted via breastfeeding?

A

No (in contrast to HIV)

73
Q

What does a high voiding detrusor pressure with a low peak flow rate indicate?

A

Bladder outlet obstruction –> can result in overflow incontinence

74
Q

What is the most risky form of breech presentation?

A

Footling presentation

75
Q

What classic triad is seen in vasa praevia?

A

Rupture of membranes followed by:

1) painless vaginal bleeding
2) foetal bradycardia

76
Q

COCP containing what may be helpful in PMS?

A

Drospirenone

77
Q

In what form is steroids given in prematurity?

A

Dexamethasone

78
Q

Risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A

1) BMI >30

2) previous macrosomic baby (≥4.5kg)

3) previous gestational diabetes

4) 1st degree relative with diabetes

5) family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)

79
Q

When are nulliparous vs multiparous women typically offered ECV?

A

Nulliparous: 36w
Multiparous: 37w

80
Q

How are ovarian cancers which are stage 2-4 primarily treated?

A

Surgical excision

81
Q
A

Yr 5 - Obs & Gynae (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions