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Yr 5 - MSK > Corrections > Flashcards

Corrections Flashcards

1
Q

At what age can a diagnosis of OA be made without any investigations?

A

≥45 y/o

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2
Q

Mechanism of NSAIDs?

A

Block COX1 and COX2 enzymes

COX1 - generates prostaglandins involved in the protection of GI mucosa

COX2 - generates prostaglandins that mediate inflammation and pain

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3
Q

How can NSAIDs cause HTN?

A

Block prostaglandin production –> prostaglandin is a vasodilator

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4
Q

What is the most common gene associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

HLA-DR4

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5
Q

What 2 Abs may be seen in RA?

A

1) RF

2) Anti-CCP

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6
Q

How does rheumatoid factor cause inflammation in RA?

A

Targets Fc portion of IgG

Causes immune system activation against the patient’s own IgG –> autoimmune reaction

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7
Q

What type of immunoglobulin is RF normally?

A

IgM

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8
Q

What 3 pulmonary manifestations can be seen in RA?

A

1) Pulmonary fibrosis

2) Caplan syndrome

3) Bronchiolitis obliterans

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9
Q

What is caplan syndrome?

A

Pulmonary nodules in patients with RA exposed to coal, silica, or asbestos dust.

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10
Q

Cataracts in RA is a side effect of what drug treatment?

A

Steroids

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11
Q

What 2 scoring systems can be used in RA?

A

1) Health assessment questionnaire (HAQ)

2) Disease activity score 28 joints (DAS-28)

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12
Q

What 2 things are used to measure success of RA treatment?

A

1) DAS-28

2) CRP

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13
Q

Which is the mildest DMARD used in RA?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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14
Q

What are the 2 safest DMARDs in pregnancy?

A

1) Hydroxychloroquine

2) Sulfalazine (extra folic acid required)

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15
Q

Which 2 DMARDs are teratogenic?

A

1) Methotrexate

2) Leflunomide

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16
Q

Which DMARD causes pyridine suppression?

A

Leflunomide

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17
Q

Which DMARD causes peripheral neuropathy?

A

Leflunomide

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18
Q

3 key side effects of sulfalazine?

A

1) orange urine

2) bone marrow suppression

3) reversible male infertility

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19
Q

3 key side effects of hydroxychloroquine?

A

1) retinal toxicity

2) blue-grey skin discolouration

3) hair lightening

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20
Q

Which RA drugs can cause reactivation of tuberculosis?

A

Anti-TNF drugs

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21
Q

What is the initial mx for RA?

A

DMARD monotherapy (usually methotrexate)

+

short-term bridging corticosteroid

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22
Q

Describe swellings in OA vs RA

A

OA - bony

RA - boggy

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23
Q

What is used to manage a flare of RA?

A

IM methylprednisolone

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24
Q

How long must the symptoms be present for for a PMR diagnosis to be made?

A

2 weeks

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25
Q

When is PMR pain and stiffness worse? (2)

A

1) in morning

2) after rest/inactivity

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26
Q

What are some associated features seen in PMR?

A
  • giant cell arteritis
  • systemic symptoms e.g. weight loss, fatigue
  • carpal tunnel syndrome
  • peripheral oedema
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27
Q

What antibodies are seen in SLE?

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs)

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28
Q

Mx of PMR?

A

Steroids (start 15mg prednisolone daily)

Treatment typically lasts 1-2 years

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29
Q

What should be consdiered to prescribe alongside long-term steroids?

A

1) PPIs

2) Osteoporosis protection e.g. vit D, calcium, bisphosphonates

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30
Q

What 3 medications can be used in the mx of fibromyalgia?

A

1) pregabalin

2) duloxetine

3) amitriptyline

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31
Q

What T score is normal on a DEXA scan?

A

> -1

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32
Q

What T score defines osteopenia?

A

-1 to -2.5

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33
Q

What T score defines osteoporosis?

A

<-2.5

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34
Q

What T score defines severe osteoporosis?

A

<2.5 + fracture

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35
Q

What investigation measures bone mineral density?

A

DEXA scan

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36
Q

How does a DEXA scan work?

A

Measures how much radiation is absorbed by bone - indicates density.

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37
Q

What medications can lead to osteoporosis?

A
  • PPIs
  • Steroids
  • Anti-oestrogens
  • SSRIs
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38
Q

Impact of tamoxifen on osteoporosis?

A

Tamoxifen is a SERM:

  • Blocks oestrogen in breast tissue
  • Stimulates oestrogen in uterus & bone –> helps prevent osteoporosis BUT increases risk of endometrial cancer
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39
Q

What is a SERM used to treat osteoporosis?

A

Raloxifene

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40
Q

What 2 tools can be used to calculate the 10-year risk of a major osteoporotic fracture and a hip fracture?

A

1) FRAX tool

2) QFracture (preferred)

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41
Q

What QFracture score indicates the need for a DEXA scan?

A

> 10%

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42
Q

Medical mx of osteoporosis?

A

1) Calcium
2) Vitamin D
3) Bisphosphonates

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43
Q

Give some side effects of bisphosphonates

A

1) Osteonecrosis of jaw

2) Osteonecrosis of external auditory canal

3) Reflux & oesophageal erosion

4) Atypical fractures

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44
Q

What is a notable risk of raloxifene?

A

VTE risk

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45
Q

NICE advise that all women aged ≥65 years and all men aged ≤75 years should be assessed for osteoporosis.

When would younger patients be assessed?

A

In the presence of risk factors such as:

1) previous fragility fracture

2) current use or frequent recent use of steroids

3) history of falls

4) family history of hip fracture

5) other causes of 2ary osteoporosis:
- hypogonadism e.g. low testosterone in men and premature menopause in women
- endocrine e.g. diabetes, Cushing’s, hyperthyroidism
- malabsorption e.g. IBD, coeliac
- RA

6) low BMI

7) smoking

8) alcoholism

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46
Q

What is the first step in risk assessment in osteoporosis?

A

Exclude 2ary causes !! e.g. hypogonadism, diabetes, Cushing’s, RA, IBD, coeliac

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47
Q

Bone protection in steroid use:

If it likely that the patient will have to take steroids for at least 3 months then you should start bone protection straight away.

What is 1st line for bone protection?

A

Oral alendronate (also ensure calcium + vitamin D replete)

48
Q

What should all patients prescribed NSAIDs for osteoarthritis be co-prescribed?

A

PPIs (regardless of their age or GI symptom history)

49
Q

How do NSAIDs affect the stomach?

A

NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, compromising the protective mucosal barrier of the stomach and increasing the risk of ulceration and GI bleeding.

50
Q

Mechanism of PPIs?

A

Inhibit the hydrogen-potassium ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells –> reduce gastric acid secretion.

51
Q

1st line in osteoarthritis?

A

Topical NSAIDs e.g. diclofenac

52
Q

What does the management of patients following a fragility fracture depend on?

A

Age

53
Q

Mx of patients ≥75 y/o that have had a fragility fracture?

A

These patients are PRESUMED to have osteoporosis.

Start immediately on 1st line therapy (oral bisphosphonate e.g. alendronate) without the need for a DEXA scan.

54
Q

Mx of patients <75 y/o that have had a fragility fracture?

A

Arrange a DEXA scan

55
Q

What is the most effective treatment for osteoarthritis patients who experience significant pain?

A

Joint replacement (arthroplasty)

56
Q

What is the nerve most likely to be injured during knee arthroplasty?

A

Common peroneal nerve (problems dorsiflexing foot)

57
Q

What is broken down into uric acid in gout?

A

Purine

58
Q

What is a key class of medication that increases risk of gout?

A

Thiazide diuretics e.g. indapamide

These increase direct urate reabsorption in the proximal renal tubules.

59
Q

Measuring Uric acid levels can be used in the diagnosis of gout.

What should the levels be measured?

A

At least 2 weeks AFTER first presentation of gout

60
Q

What does aspirated joint fluid show in gout? (3)

A

MSU crystals:

1) Needle shaped

2) Negatively birefringent of polarised light

3) No bacterial growth

61
Q

What are the crystals made of in pseudogout?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

62
Q

Medical management of ACUTE gout flares (1st, 2nd & 3rd line)?

A

1st –> NSAIDs (with PPI cover)

2nd –> Colchicine (in patients who cannot use NSAIDs e.g. renal disease)

3rd –> Oral steroids

63
Q

Prophylaxis of gout?

A

1st line –> Allopurinol

2nd line –> Febuxostat

64
Q

What are 2 common side effects of colchicine?

A

Abdo symptoms & diarrhoea

Very dangerous in OD

65
Q

What is the mechanism of allopurinol & febuxostate?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors –> lower uric acid level

66
Q

Who is offered urate-lowering therapy (e.g. allopurinol)?

A

Offered to ALL patients after their FIRST attack of gout.

1) Prophylaxis is not started until weeks after the first acute attack has resolved.

2) Once allopurinol or febuxostat is initiated, it is continued during an acute attack.

67
Q

Who is gonococcal septic arthritis most common in?

A

Sexually active individuals.

In a young patient presenting with a single acutely swollen joint, consider gonococcal septic arthritis until proven otherwise.

68
Q

What is reactive arthritis usually triggered by?

A

Urethritis or gastroenteritis

69
Q

What criteria is used for the diagnosis of septic arthritis?

A

Kocher criteria

70
Q

What is the Kocher critiera?

A

1) Fever >38.5

2) Non weight bearing

3) Raised ESR

4) Raised CRP

71
Q

What needs to be ruled out after diagnosing septic arthritis?

A

Systemic bacteraemia

72
Q

What is typical 1st line Abx given in septic arthritis (or until sensitivities are known)?

A

Flucloxacillin

  • vancomycin if MRSA suspected
  • clindamycin in penicillin allergy
73
Q

Which Abx is typically used for the treatment of Neisseria gonorrhoea in septic arthritis?

A

Ceftriaxone

74
Q

if osteomyelitis is suspected, what investigation should be done?

A

MRI

75
Q

What should be added when starting allopurinol in gout prophylaxis?

A

Consider colchicine cover when starting allopurinol (may need to be continued for 6m).

NSAIDs if colchicine cannot be tolerated.

76
Q

Typical appearance of joint aspiration fluid in RA?

A

Yellow (as RA is an inflammatory condition)

77
Q

What predominates in cytology of aspirated fluid in RA?

A

High WBC count, predominantly polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMNs).

78
Q

What condition is most commonly associated with scleritis?

A

RA

79
Q

What does XR of the sacroiliac joints typically demonstrate in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Subchondral erosions & subchondral sclerosis of the sacroiliac joint

80
Q

What is used to manage acute flares of RA?

A

IM methylprednisolone

81
Q

What area of the lungs can fibrosis be seen in in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Apical region

82
Q

1st line Abx in early suspected Lyme disease?

I.e. tick bite + erythema migrans

A

Doxycycline (amoxicillin if pregnant)

83
Q

1st line Abx in disseminated Lyme disease?

A

Ceftriaxone

84
Q

What is the most useful investigation in confirming a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Pelvic XR –> sacroilitis

85
Q

What might you see on a CXR in a patient with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Apical fibrosis

86
Q

What is adhesive capsulitis?

A

AKA frozen shoulder.

A common cause of shoulder pain.

87
Q

What condition does adhesive capsulitis have an association with?

A

Diabetes mellitus

88
Q

Features of adhesive capsulitis?

A
  • EXTERNAL rotation is affected more than internal rotation or abduction
  • both active and passive movement is affected
  • bilateral in up to 20% of patients
89
Q

How long does an episode of adhesive capsulitis typically last?

A

6m to 2y

90
Q

1st line mx of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Oral NSAIDs & physio

91
Q

What is the most common reason total hip replacements need to be revised?

A

Aseptic loosening.

Over time, wear and tear can lead to the prosthesis becoming loose within the bone, causing pain and reduced function. This typically occurs many years after the initial surgery.

92
Q

CK value in rhabdo vs exercise induced CK elevation?

A

Rhabdo -> markedly and acutely elevated usually to at least 5 times the upper limit of normal

Exercise induced –> 2-4x upper limit

93
Q

CK level in polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Normal

94
Q

Asbestosis causes pulmonary fibrosis predominantly affects what area of lungs?

A

Lower zones

95
Q

CK level in PMR?

A

Normal

96
Q

1st line mx for ankylosing spondylitis?

A

NSAIDs & physio

97
Q

1st line bisphosphonate in osteoporisis?

A

alendronate

98
Q

1st line mx of moderate/severe psoriatic arthritis?

A

Methotrexate

99
Q

What may be considered if a rib fracture is not controlled by normal analgesia?

A

Intercostal nerve block

100
Q

What is discitis?

A

Discitis is an infection in the intervertebral disc space.

101
Q

what is the most common organism causing discitis?

A

S. aureus

102
Q

What is the most common mechanism of ankle sprain?

A

Inversion –> stretching of lateral ligament

103
Q

What is a highly sensitive but poorly specific sign for scaphoid fracture?

A

Anatomical snuffbox tenderness

104
Q

Typical mechanism of injury in scaphoid fracture?

A

FOOSH

105
Q

What 2 movements causes worsened pain in lateral epicondylitis (‘tennis elbow’)?

A

1) wrist extension against resistance with elbow extended

2) supination of forearm with elbow extended

106
Q

After the first VTE, patients with antiphospholipid syndrome should be on what medication?

A

Lifelong warfarin

107
Q

What investigations should be performed in all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis?

A

1) Xrays of hands & feet

2) Anti-CCP & RF antibodies

108
Q

What ligament is most commonly injured in inversion ankle sprains?

A

Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

This is located on the lateral side of the ankle

109
Q

1st imaging investigation in vertebral osteoporotic fractures of the spine?

A

Xray of the spine –> may show wedging of the vertebra

110
Q

What score is used to assess if a patient is deemed high risk for osteoporosis?

A

FRAX or QFracture sscore

If a patient is deemed high-risk based on a QFracture or FRAX score they should have a DEXA scan.

111
Q

What is the threshold for defining osteoporosis on a DEXA scan?

A

T score of ≤ 2.5 SD

112
Q

Purpose of a DEXA scan?

A

Assess bone mineral density

113
Q

Mx of postmenopausal women, and men age ≥50, who are treated with oral glucocorticoids?

A

1) If starting ≥7.5 mg/day prednisolone or equivalent for the next 3 months, start bone protective treatment at the same time

2) Start oral bisphosphonates (don’t wait for DEXA)

114
Q

Mx of a postmenopausal woman, or a man age ≥50 has a symptomatic osteoporotic vertebral fracture?

A

General osteoporosis management

Start treatment straight away - oral bisphosphonates are used first-line e.g. alendronate or risedronate

115
Q

For osteoporosis in young men, what should you check?

A

testosterone

Low testosterone levels are associated with higher bone turnover therefore osteoporosis.

116
Q

If a patient suffers significant upper GI side effects from the use of alendronate, what should this be changed to?

A

Risedronate or etidronate

117
Q
A

Yr 5 - MSK (17 decks)

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