Core Microbiology - Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a parasite

A

Organism that lives on another organism (its host) and benefits by deceiving nutrient at the others expense

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2
Q

What is symbiosis

A

Living togethers, long term interactions

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3
Q

What is mutualism

A

Where both species benefit

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4
Q

What is parasistim

A

Where the parasite gets benefits

The host gets nothing but always suffers injury

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5
Q

What is commensalism

A

Parasite derives benefit without injuring the host

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6
Q

What is a definitive host

A

Harbours the parasite for the adult stage of the parasite or where the parasite reproduces

Usually human in the human parasitic infections

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7
Q

What is intermediate host

A

Harbours the laval or asexual stages of the parasite

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8
Q

What is the paretic host

A

Host where the parasite remains viable without further development

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9
Q

What is taenia

A

a cestode

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10
Q

what is schistosomiasis

A

a trematode

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11
Q

What is assures lumbricoides

A

Intestinal nematode

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12
Q

What is wuchereria bancrofti

A

Tissue nematode

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13
Q

What are cryptosporidium, guard,, entamoeba and falciparum

A

Protozoa

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14
Q

What is direct parasitic life cycle

A

Where one animal sheds the parasite and the other animal consumes it straight away

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15
Q

What are indirect parasitic life styles

A

Where their are intermediate hosts

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16
Q

What causes ascariasis

A

an intestinal nematode

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17
Q

Life cycle type in ascariasis

A

Direct - worm goes from intestine, eggs to faeces, ingest the larvae, passes into our intestine, into portal circulation and then transports to the lung and swallow them and pass to the intestine

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18
Q

Type of disease in ascariasis

A

Lung migration phase –> causes loafers syndrome: dry cough, dyspnoea, wheeze, haemoptysis, eosinophilic proneness

Intestinal phase –> malnutrution and, migration and obstruction

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19
Q

Prevelance of ascariasis

A

In areas of poor hygiene

Peak prevalence age 3-8

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20
Q

Treatment of ascariasis

A

Albendazole - Prevents glucose absorption by worm, worm detaches and dies

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21
Q

What is schistosomiasis

A

a trematode

predominantly affects those in africa

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22
Q

Type of life cycle in schistosomiasis

A

Eggs hatch and infect snails in freshwater snails. The coercive leave the snails and penetrate the skin

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23
Q

Symptoms of schistosomiasis

A

Swimmers itch
Katayama fever
Urinary (S. Haematoburium) - haematuruia, bladder fibrosis and dysfunction CAN GET SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

Hepatic - portal hypertension and liver cirrhosis

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24
Q

Treatment of Schistosomiasis

A

Praziquentel

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25
Q

What is hydatid disease caused by

A

Echinococcus - helminth infection

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26
Q

Life cycle of hydatid disease

A

Humans accidental intermediate host (usually iyn dogs and sheep)
Dogs get it by eating cyst infected organ
Found wherever dogs and sheep are

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27
Q

Clinical symptoms of hydatid disease

A

Cysts (mainly liver and lungs)
Mass effect with secondary hypertension
Control by worming dogs to reduce egg production

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28
Q

When do we suspect malaria

A

Returning traveller with fever

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29
Q

What causes malaria

A

Protozoa
Plasmodium
Transmitted by anopheles mosquito

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30
Q

Symptoms of malaria

A

Fever, rigor, renal gailure, hypoglycaemia, pulmonary oedema, circulatory collapse, anaemia, bleeding, DIC

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31
Q

Treatment of malaria

A

Insectide spraying in homes
Larvicidal spraying in breeding pools
Larvivorous species introduced to mosquito breeding areas
Chemoprophylaxis

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32
Q

What causes Cryptosporidosis

A

Cryptosporidium parvum and hominis (sporozoa)

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33
Q

How is cryptospoidosis spread

A

Human to human but also animal reserves
Faecal - oral spread!
Direct life cycle

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34
Q

How is cryptosporidosis spread

A

Humans at risk in swimming pools, cild care workers, nursing home
Animal - human spread in backpackers, farmers, visitors to farms etc.

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35
Q

Symptoms of cryptosporidosis

A

Diarrhoea etc

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36
Q

Treatment of cryptosporidosis

A

Nitzoxanide and rehydration for symptomtic

If immunocompromised give paramomycin, nitazoxNISW, OCREOTIDE, HIV PATIENTS quickly initiation HAART

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37
Q

Commonly used antiprotozoals

A

Metronidazole, pentamidine, nitazoxanide, pyrimethamine, anti malaria

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38
Q

Commonly used antihelminthics

A

albendazole, mebendazole, ivermectin, praziquentel

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39
Q

Name notifiable disaeses

A

Meningitis, poiomyelitis, measles, mumps, rubella and smallpox

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40
Q

What Ig stays long tiem

A

IgG

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41
Q

What Ig is in the acute infection

A

IfM

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42
Q

What are the possibilities for a child with a rash

A

Chicken Pox
Measles
Parvovirus - slapped cheek disease
Rubella

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43
Q

What causes measles

A

Paramyxovirus - single stranded RNA

Spread person to person by droplet

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44
Q

Infectivitiy in measles

A

4 days before to 4 days after rash

15 minutes contact time is highly significant

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45
Q

Incubation of measles

A

7-18 days (10-12) average

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46
Q

Features of measles

A

3C’s conjuctivitis, coryza and cough

+ fever and malaise and Koplik spots

47
Q

Complication of measles

A

Otitis media, pneumonia, diarrhoea, acute encephalitis

Subacute sclerosing panencephalisits –> rare fatal and late response

48
Q

Treatment of measels

A

antibitoics for superficial infections!

49
Q

Prevention of measels

A

Live vaccine at age 1

don’t give to immunocompromised

50
Q

Causes of chicken pox

A

Varicella zoster virus - human DNA virus

Spread by respiratory/personal contact

51
Q

Incubation and infectivity of chicken pox

A

14-15 day incubation

Infectivity 2 days before rash to after the vesicle dry up

52
Q

Features of chicken pox

A

Fever, malaise, anorexia
Centripetal rash
Much worse effects in adults

53
Q

Complications of VZV

A

Prenuonitis, thrombocytopenic purpura, foetal variclla syndrome and congenital varicalla zoster

54
Q

When do we give IgG in VZV

A

Test mother who is pregnant if no history of chicken pox - if no IgG five them immunoglobulins

55
Q

Treatment of IgG

A

Only really treat symptomatic adults and immunocomprosimed children
Give Aciclovir oral but IV in severe cases
Chlorphenimarine can relieve the itch

56
Q

Prevention of chicken pox

A

Live vaccine 2 doses
Give VZ immunoglobulins if significant exposure and pregnant or immunocompromised, neonates or no antibodies to VZ at all

57
Q

What cause rubella

A

Togavirus an RNA virus

58
Q

Incubation and infectivity of rubella

A

14-21 days

Infective one week before rash to 4 days after

59
Q

Features of rubella

A

Lymphadenopathy
Non specific rash - starts on the face and spreads to the rest of the body
Aching joints particularly in young females
50% of children are asymptomatic

60
Q

Rubella in pregnany

A

Congenital rubella syndrome
Cataracts, deafness, cardiac abnormalities, microcephaly, retarded intra-uterine growth
Foetal damage rare if contracted after 16 weeks

61
Q

Testing for rubella

A

IgM positive for about 1-3 months

This means that women who is IgM positive even at 20 weeks may have contracted the disease much earlier

62
Q

Treatment of rubella

A

No treatment

But vaccine part of MMR

63
Q

What causes slapped cheek diseases

A

Parvovirus RNA Virus

Transmitted by respiratory secretion from other to child

64
Q

Incubation and infectivity of parvovirus

A

4 to 14 days incubation

Once you have the virus no longer ingective

65
Q

Foetal diseases of parvovirus

A

anaemia, hydrops

Can give intrauterine foetal transfusion for anaemia

66
Q

Features of parvovirus

A

Minor respiratory illness
Rash - slapped cheek
Athralgia, plastic anaemia - may be prolonged in immunocompromised
Tends to peak in early summer/late spring

67
Q

Treament of parvovirus

A

None if self limiting - blood transfusion
No vaccine available
Infection control difficulty prior to the rash arising!

68
Q

Enterovira linfections

A

Transmission is faecal-oral and by skin contact - wide spread disease and can cause neonatal meningitis

69
Q

Causes of respiratory problems in childrem

A
Respiratory Syncitial Virus
Metapneumovirus
Adenovirus
Parainfluenza
Rhinovirus
70
Q

What is RSV

A

Pneumovirus

Causes bronchiolitis - under 1s annual winter epidemics can be life threatening

71
Q

Treatment of RSV

A

Oxygen and manage fever.fluids
DO not give bronchodilators or steroids
Give Ig and monoclonal antibodies - Palvizumab

72
Q

What is metapneumovirus

A

Paraomyxovirus
Causes respiratory illness similar to RSV - mild URTI to peumonia
Supportive care only
Nearly universal by age 5

73
Q

What is adenovirus

A

10% of all respiratory infection in childhood

causes mild URTI occasional pneumonia and conjuctivitis

74
Q

Treatment of adenovirus

A

No treatment but cidofovir in immunocompromised

75
Q

What is parainfluenza

A

Paramyxovirus: 4 types, 3 in summer 1 in winter
Person- person transmission
Causes croup/bronchiollitis/inhalation

76
Q

Rhinovirus

A

Causes common cold

In 70% of children with mild URTI

77
Q

Causes of childhood diarrhoaea

A

Rotavirus
Norovirus
Mumps

78
Q

What is rotavirus

A

Reovirus - RNA Virus
Spread faecal-oral route
Season in UK
Causes diarrhoea and committing

79
Q

Treatment of Rotavirus

A

Treat with rehydration - prevent now with oral live vaccine at 2-3 months

80
Q

What is norovirus

A

Wintervomiting book
VOmiiting for 12-60 hours
Treat with rehydration

81
Q

What is mumps

A

Paramyxoviridae virus

82
Q

Transmission, incubation and infectivity of mumps

A

Direct contact/droplet spread
Infective several days before parotid swelling to several days after
Incubated for 2 - 4 weeks

83
Q

Symptms of mumps

A

Initially low grade fever, anorexia, malaise and headache
Then earache, tenderness over ipsilateralpartoid
Then gradually enlarging parotid with severe pain

USUALLY BILATERAL pyrexia up to 40 degrees
Rapidly resolved after peak swelling and parotid returns to normal size within 1 week

84
Q

Treatment of Mumps

A

Symptomatic only

BUT live attenuated vaccine availbale

85
Q

Other manifestations of mumps

A

CNS invovlement or Epididymo-orchitis

Infection in first trimester increases the risk of foetal death

86
Q

Ways of infection prevention and control

A

Eliminate the pathogenic organism, remove source/reservoir, minimise transmission, prevent entry/exit, reduce susceptibility

87
Q

What type of rooms prevent infection

A

Positive Pressure Ventilated lobbies

88
Q

Types of surveilance

A

Passive - clinical reporting and lab rrcords

Active surveillance - seeking out trouble

89
Q

What is sterilization

A

complete killing of all types of microorganisms

90
Q

Types of sterilization

A

Heat (Dry or moist - in the autoclave), chemical, filtration or ionising radiation - used for single use disposable equipment

91
Q

What is disinfection

A

Removal or destruction of sufficient numbers of potentially harmful micro-organisms to make safe to use!

92
Q

What is antisepsis

A

disinfection applied to damaged skin or living tissues

93
Q

What is the best method of sterilization

A

Heat as least hazardous

94
Q

Chemical disinfection usually used for

A

envirnomental decontamination, antisepsis and heat sensitive items

95
Q

Sterilisation of surgical instruments

A

Moist hear

96
Q

sterilization of flexible endoscope

A

Chemical as has metal/plastic and sensitive parts

97
Q

Sterilisation of syringe nedles

A

Gamma irradiation pre use - dispose after use

98
Q

Disinfecting of central venous catheter insetion site

A

Chemical antisepsis

99
Q

What is the single most effective medical intervention before (not including sanitation)

A

vaccination

100
Q

What did Jenner do

A

inoculation with cowpox to protect against small pox

101
Q

Who made vaccines against chickenpox, cholera, anthrax, diphtheria and rabies

A

Pastier

102
Q

How long do maternal antibodies protect for

A

Upto 1 years

103
Q

When can we inject human immunoglobulin

A

HNIG - pooled plasma

Can give specific for tetanus, botulism, Hep B, rabies, varicella

104
Q

Types of live vaccine

A

MMR, BCG, Yellow Fever, Varicella (acts like natural infection) don’t give to immunocompromised

105
Q

inactivated vaccines

A

pertussis, typhoid, IPV

106
Q

components of organisms invaccines

A

influenza and pneumococcal

107
Q

inactivated toxins in vaccines

A

diphtheria and tetanus

108
Q

what is an antigen

A

anything that can be bound by an antibody

109
Q

Advantages of live vaccine

A

Single dose sufficient
strong immune response provoked
local and systemic immunity produced

110
Q

disadvantages of live vaccine

A
potential to become virulent
can't use in immunocompromised
interference by viruses or vaccines and passive antibody
poor stability
potential for contamination
111
Q

advantages of inactivated vaccines

A

stable, constituents clearly defined, no risk of infection

112
Q

disadvantages of inactivated vaccines

A

need several doses, local reactions common, adjacent needed, shorter lasting immunity

113
Q

What is mass vaccination

A

aims to vaccinate enough of the population to reduce risk of infetion

114
Q

How do antibodies produce immunity

A

Antigen binds to antibody –> triggers clonal expansion
IgM produced first then IgG
IgG binds antigen tightly and simultaneous complement binding facilitates destruction of the antigen bearing organisms
IgG decline when infection resolved but one of the IgG lymphocytes persists with the ability to recognise that specific antigen –> immunological memory