Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

H2 Biology > COPEG > Flashcards

COPEG Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

state coding DNA

A

DNA sequences which code for a specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide or a functional RNA molecule (parts of a gene are known as exons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

state what are non-coding DNA

A

DNA sequences which do not code for amino acids in proteins or functional RNA (between genes: repetitive DNA, within genes: introns)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe regulatory regions

A
  • promotor: non coding DNA sequence which regulates rate of transcription, contains TATA box: binding site of general transcription factor (TFIID). after TFIID binds, other general transcriptor factors bind, recruiting RNA polymerase to bind at the promoter, assembling to form the transcription initiation complex, located at the start of the gene, upstream of the transcriptional start site
  • enhancers are non-coding DNA sequences that activators (specific regulatory proteins) bind to, to increase the rate of transcription; may be located upstream/downstream of the transcriptional start site, distant from the promoter
  • silencers are non-coding DNA sequences that repressors (specific regulatory proteins) bind to, to decrease the rate/inhibit transcription; may be located upstream/downstream of the transcriptional start site, distant from the promoter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe introns

A
  • non-coding sequences that are part of a gene
  • transcribed into RNA but are excised before translation begins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

give examples of repetitive dna

A

telomeres and centromeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

state what a transcriptional unit composes of

A

exons and introns, and terminator sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe exons and introns

A
  • coding regions (exons) interrupted by non-coding regions (introns)
  • after transcription, introns are removed while exons are joined together during RNA splicing
  • each exon codes for a particular amino acid sequence of the polypeptide encoded by the gene
  • after exons are transcribed into mRNA, parts of exons will not be translated further into polypeptide sequence (UTR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe terminator sequence

A

causes RNA polymerase to dissociate from the DNA template strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe the location and binding site of the 5’ UTR

A
  • found between the 5’ modified guanosine cap of mRNA and start codon
  • serves as a binding site for ribosome and other regulatory proteins which control the rate of translation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe the location and function of 3’ UTR

A
  • found after stop codon
  • contains sequences which regulate polyadenylation of mRNA, which in turn controls rate of translation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe the structure of centromeres

A
  • repetitive DNA sequences made up of tandem repeats
  • found as heterochromatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

state the functions of centromeres

A
  • adhesion point for sister chromatids in a chromosome
  • site of assembly of the kinetochore, a protein complex which attaches to the nmicrotubules of the mitotic/meiotic spindle
  • essential for the equal segregation of sister chromatids during mitosis and chromatids in meiosis II, and segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I to opposite poles, and hence to daughter nuclei
  • helps organise chromatin within interphase nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe the structure of telomeres

A
  • dsDNA sequences which form the ends of linear DNA of eukaryotic chromosomes
  • made up of hundreds/thousands of copies of a short repeated sequence arranged in tandem repeats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe the structure and function of telomerase

A
  • RNA component: forms complementary base pairs with the 3’ end of the DNA, providing a template for the complementary base pairing of new deoxyribonucleotides to form repeats of the telomere sequence
  • protein component: acts as reverse transcriptase; binds to part of the DNA at the 3’ overhang at its active site and uses the RNA template to synthesise multiple DNA repeats at 3’ end of telomere via complementary base pairing. it catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent deoxyribonucleotides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

outline the role of telomeres

A
  • protect genes at the end of linear chromosomes from being eroded. telomeres shortened due to DNA polymerase not being able to replicate DNA at the ends of linear chromosomes
  • protect the ends of chromosomes from fusion with other chromosomes
  • protect ends of chromosome from enzyme degradation
  • telomere shortening can trigger apoptosis/telomeres act as signals for cells to enter replicative senescence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

explain how gene expression can be regulated at chromatin level

A

condensation of chromatin tends to prevent gene expression by preventing RNA polymerse and transcription factors from gaining access to the promoter of a specific gene, thus inactivating transcription of that gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

explain how causing histones to be less tightly bound to DNA increases rate of gene expression

A
  • acetylation of histones neutralises their positively-charged R groups of lysine amino acid residues on histone tails
  • decreases affinity of histone octamer for DNA
  • chromatin more diffused/less compact
  • RNA polymerase and transcription factors can bind to promoter
  • these genes are more easily transcribed (catalysed by histone acetyltransferase)
  • acetylated histones: transcriptionally active genes
18
Q

explain how histones being more tightly bound to DNA decreases rate of gene expression

A

deacetylation of histones
* restores affinity of histone octamer for DNA
* chromatin more compact
* RNA polymerase and transcription factors cannot bind to promoter and control elements
* these genes are less easily transcribed (catalysed by histone deacetylases)

methylation of histones leads to condensation of chromatin
* methylated histones recruit other proteins that keep chromatin tightly packed
* RNA polymerase and transcription factors have decreased accessibility to genes in a methylated region
* these genes are less easily transcribed (catalysed by histone methyltransferase)

19
Q

explain how DNA modification (methylation) can decrease rate of gene expression

A

addition of methyl groups to cytosine in DNA within CpG islands, reaction catalysed by enzyme DNA methyltransferase, making chromatin structure more compact

genes not required for expression are not expressed when methylated

20
Q

explain how enhancers increase the rate of transcription

A

causes DNA to bend to stabilise the transcription initiation complex and increase affinity of promoter for RNA polymerase, increasin rate of transcription of gene

21
Q

explain how silencers decrease the rate of transcription

A
  • cannot facilitate correct positioning of transcription initiation complex/block assembly of transcription initiation complex/recruits proteins that bind and promote histone deacetylation or histone methylation, promoting chromatin condensation
  • transcription initiation complex is not formed at promoter
  • transcription is inhibited/very low rate of gene being transcribed
22
Q

5’ capping

A
  • modified guanosine nucleotide added to 5’ end of mRNA, protecting mRNA from exonucleases, prolonging lifespan of mRNA
23
Q

RNA splicing

A
  • takes place while RNA still being synthesised during transcription
  • spliceosomes recognise splice sites at introns and then excise introns and join together exons
  • alternative splicing using different splice sites, resulting in different combination of exons becoming linked together in mRNA, generating different mature mRNA molecules from the same pre-mRNA molecule
  • allowing more than one type of polypeptide to be coded for by a singel gene
24
Q

3’ polyadenylation

A
  • proteins recognise the poly(A) signal sequence near the 3’ end of the primary RNA transcript and recruit the enzyme poly (A) polymerase to add 50-250 adenine nucleotides at the 3’ end
  • poly(A) binding proteins binds to the 3’ poly A tail to slow down the degradation of the 3’ end of mRNA by exonucleases, promote export of the mRNA from the nucleus and facilitate the initiation of translation
25
Q

how does mRNA exit the nucleus?

A
  • mature mRNA which is ready to be exported out of the nucleus have proteins bound to it at the 5’ cap and the 3’ poly(A) tail
  • these proteins help to direct the mature mRNA to the nuclear pores, where the mRNA will exit the nucleus into the cytoplasm
26
Q

regulation at translation level using half-life of mRNA

A
  • mRNAs with long half-lives are translated into many more protein molecules than do those with short half-lives (greater gene expression)
  • stability of mRNA affected by length of poly(A) tail (the longer the poly(A) tail the more stable the mRNA)
  • length of poly(A) tail regulated by particular nucleotide sequences within mRNA (3’ UTR): contain binding sites for specific proteins that increase/decrease rate of poly(A) tail shortening
27
Q

degradation of mRNA

A
  • enzyme deadenylase shortens poly(A) tail of mRNA, triggering enzymes that remove the 5’ modified guanosine cap
  • once cap is removed, exonucleases rapidly degrade mRNA
28
Q

regulating translation of all mRNA

A
  • translation initiation factors (responsible for binding of small ribosomal subunit and recruitment of aminoacyl-tRNA to convey it to the ribosome) when inactivated/activated, will affect translation of all mRNA in a cell
  • allowing cell to shut down translation if environment conditions are poor/until appropriate conditions exist
29
Q

regulating translation of specific mRNA

A
  • initiation of translation is blocked by translation repressor proteins that bind to the mRNA at the 5’ UTR. binding of repressor prevents small subunit of ribosome from binding to ribosome binding site at 5’ UTR of mRNA
  • initiation of translation prevented bc mRNAs lack poly(A) tails of sufficient length. at an appropriate time, a poly(A) polymerases will add more A nucleotides, allowing translation of these mRNAs to begin
30
Q

post-translational level: biochemical modification

A
  • cleavage: cutting polypeptides into smaller, active final products. hormone insulin is synthesised in pancreatic cells as one long inactive polypeptide (pro-insulin). after translation, a large centre portion is cleaved, leaving 2 shorter chains that constitute the active insulin molecule
  • chemical modification of protein (glycosylation, addition of lipids, methylation, acetylation, phosphorylation and dephosphorylation) can take place during post-translational chemical modification in RER/GA
31
Q

post-translational level: protein degradation

A
  • selective breakdown of proteins
  • lifespan of intracellular protein varies -> allowing a cell to adjust the kinds and amounts of its proteins in response to chances in its environment
  • proteins marked for destruction by addition of a protein called ubiquitin
  • enzymes in the cytoplasm attach ubiquitin molecules to the protein targeted for degradation, ATP expended
  • ubiquinated protein recognised by proteasomes
  • protasome degrades ubiquinated protein into short peptides, ATP expended, ubiquitin released and can be recycled
32
Q

structure of lac operon

A
  • length of DNA comprising regulatory elements and coding sequences for three structural genes
  • promoter serves as binding site for RNA polymerase to initiate transcription
  • operator serves as binding site for lac repressor to inhibit transcription
  • lacZ gene codes for beta-galactosidase, which hydrolyses lactose to glucose and galactose, and convert lactose to allolactose
  • lacY gene codes for lactose permease to actively transport lactose into the cytoplasm of bacterium
  • lacA gene codes for transacetylase that transfer an acetyl group from acetyl CoA to lactose
  • transcription termination sequence marks the end of the operon
  • regulatory gene/lacI gene coding for lac repressor
33
Q

presence of lactose with high glucose (lac operon)

A
  • lac operon is transcribed only when lactose is present
  • entry of small amount of lactose into bacterial cell where it is converted to allolactose by beta-galactosidase
  • allolactose acts as an inducer and binds to allosteric site of lac repressor, changing the 3D conformation of the repressor
  • lac repressor can no longer bind to the operator
  • RNA polymerase binds to promoter and transcribes the three structural genes lacZ, lacY, lacA, leading to synthesis of enzymes needed for the utilisation of lactose such as beta-galactosidase, permease and transacetylase
  • high concentration of glucose inhibits adenyl cyclase, resulting in low cAMP concentration
  • catabolite activator protein (CAP) is not activated and does not bind to CAP binding site on promoter
  • lower affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter
  • basal level of transcription of structural genes even in the presence of lactose
34
Q

what happens to the lac operon in the presence of lactose with low concentration of glucose?

A
  • lac operon is transcribed only when lactose is present
  • entry of small amount of lactose into bacterial cell where it is converted to allolactose by beta-galactosidase
  • allolactose acts as an inducer and binds to allosteric site of lac repressor, changing the 3D conformation of the repressor
  • lac repressor can no longer bind to the operator
  • RNA polymerase binds to promoter and transcribes the three structural genes lacZ, lacY, lacA, leading to synthesis of enzymes needed for the utilisation of lactose such as beta-galactosidase, permease and transacetylase
  • low concentration of glucose results in high concentration of cAMP, cAMP binds to and activates CAP
  • activated CAP then binds to the CAP binding site within the lac promoter
  • increasing affinity of RNA polymerase binding to the lac promoter and hence rate of transcription of structural genes in the presence of lactose
35
Q

what happens to lac operon in the absence of lactose?

A
  • regulatory gene lacI codes for the allosteric repressor protein, lac repressor
  • lac repressor synthesised in active form that binds readily to the operator and blocks transcription by RNA polymerase
  • in the absence of lactose, the lac repressor binds to the operator and the RNA polymerase is unable to bind to the promoter, thus structural genes are not transcribed
36
Q

what happens to the trp operon in the absence of tryptophan?

A
  • regulatory gene trpR codes for the allosteric trp repressor
  • trp repressor is synthesised in the inactive form, which has little affinity for the trp operator
  • in the absence of tryptophan, trp repressor does not bind to the operator hence, RNA polymerase is able to bind to the trp promoter and the structural genes are transcribed
37
Q

what happens to the trp operon in the presence of tryptophan?

A
  • in the presence of tryptophan, binding of this corepressor to the allosteric site of the trp repressor alters the tertiary structure of the repressor, activating the trp repressor such that it binds to the operator
  • operator is now bound by active trp repressor protein and RNA polymerase is unable to bind to the promoter to transcribe the five structural genes, unable to synthesise enzymes needed for biosynthesis of tryptophan
38
Q

state the similarities of the structure and organisation of prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes

A
  • both genomes are made up of double-stranded DNA
  • both genomes have the DNA associated with proteins
39
Q

state the differences of the structure and organisation of prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes (11 pts)

A
  • in prokaryotic genome, DNA is found as a circular DNA molecule while in eukaryotic genome, DNA is found as a linear DNA molecule
  • in prokaryotic genome, DNA is complex with non-histone proteins while in eukaryotic genome, DNA is complexed with histone proteins
  • prokaryotic genomes are much smaller while eukaryotic genomes are much larger
  • in prokaryotic genome, DNA is found in non-membrane bound nucleoid region while in eukaryotic genome, DNA is found in double-membrane bound nucleus
  • in prokaryotic genome, the genome is mostly located on one main chromosome while in eukaryotic genome, the genome is divided into different chromosomes
  • in prokaryotic genome, plasmids may be present while in eukaryotic genome, plasmids are usually absent
  • in prokaryotic genome, telomeres are absent since DNA is circular while in prokaryotic genome, telomeres are present in chromosomes
  • in prokaryotic genome, most of the DNA in a genome codes for protein, tRNA and rRNA, with a small amount of non-coding DNA while in eukaryotic genome, most DNA is non-coding
  • introns are generally absent in prokaryotic genome while in eukaryotic genome the gene exists as split. genes – pieces of coding sequence, the exons, are separated by non-protein-coding segments, introns
  • in prokaryotic genome the genes are closely packed while in eukaryotic genome, there are large amounts of non-coding DNA between genes
  • in prokaryotic genome, non-coding DNA is mostly made up of regulatory sequences (promomters, operators, repressor binding sites) while in eukaryotic genome, non-coding DNA is made up of regulatory (promoters, enhancers, silencers) and repetitive sequences
40
Q

outline the difference between prokaryotic control of gene expression with the eukaryotic model (8 pts)

A
  • in prokaryotes, genes involved in similar metabolic functions are grouped as an operon and are under the control of a single promoter and other control elements while in eukaryotes, each gene has its own promoter. some genes of related function may be under the influence of the same control element
  • in prokaryotes, genes of the operon are transcribed together into a single mRNA while in eukaryotes, each gene is individually transcribed
  • absence of histones in prokaryotes = absence of chromatin remodelling while in eukaryotes, control of gene expression by chromatin remodelling (acetylation/methylation of histones) is possible
  • prokaryotes uses mostly negative regulation (repressors that bind to operators) and some positive regulation while eukaryotes uses mostly positive regulation because of DNA stored as chromatin (rendering most promoters inaccessible and so genes are normally silent in the absence of other regulation)
  • absence of RNA processing in prokaryotes (absence of introns) while in eukaryotes, RNA processing provides opportunities for regulating gene expression (alternative splicing is unique to eukaryotes)
  • in prokaryotes, control of gene expression by enhancers is rare while in eukaryotes, control of gene expression by enhancers is common
  • in prokaryotes, transcription and translation are tightly coupled and happen simultaneously while in eukaryotes, transcription occurs first in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm after mRNA is transported out of the nucleus
  • in prokaryotes, regulation at the translation level is less prominent while in eukaryotes, regulation at the translation level is more prominent
41
Q

define control elements and explain how control elements and othe factors influence transcription

A
  • control elements are non-coding regions of a DNA molecule that has the ability to influence the rate of transcription
  • promoter: contains a TATA box which is recognised by general transcription factors (TFs), TFs interact with RNA polymerase to form the transcription initiation complex, allowing basal level of transcription of a gene
  • enhancer: a type of distal control element found few thousands of nucleotides upstream/downstream of start site/even within an intron. activators bind to enhancers, interact directly with RNA polymerase and general TFs to accelerate the assembly of the TIC. activators may assist in recruiting histone acetylase and chromatin remodelling complex to allow greater accessibility to general TFs and RNA polymerase to the promoter region, resulting in increase in rate of transcription
  • silencer: DNA region bound by repressors. inhibits gene expression by preventing bound activator from binding to TFs, repressing chromatin remodelling complexes and recruting histone deacetylases to make chromatin inaccessible to general TFs and RNA polymerase, transcription rate decreases/stops
42
Q

describe the eukaryotic processing of pre-mRNA

A
  • post-transcriptional modification is required to process pre-mRNA to form mature mRNA and to facilitate the export from nucleus to cytoplasm
  • 5’ end is immediately capped with a modified form of guanosine
  • at 3’ end, where there is polyadenylation sequence present, formation of a poly(A) tail is catalysed by enzyme poly(A) polymerase
  • signals for RNA splicing are short nucleotide sequences at ends of introns, spliceosome interacts with splice sites at ends of an intron. it cuts at specific points to release the intron, then immediately joins together two exons that flanked the intron

H2 Biology (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions