COPD Flashcards

1
Q

Which bugs most commonly cause an exacerbation of COPD

A

Bacteria:
- Haemophilus influenzae (most common cause)
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Moraxella catarrhalis

Viral
- Respiratory viruses (e.g. human rhinovirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clinical features of acute exacerbation of COPD

A
  • dyspnoea
  • cough
  • wheeze
  • more sputum/ change in colour
  • hypoxia
  • confusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how should an exacerbation of COPD be treated in the community?

A
  • increase frequency of bronchodilator use
  • consider giving via nebuliser
  • prednisolone 30 mg daily for 5 days
  • Oral antibiotics (amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What would make you consider admitting a patient with an exacerbation of COPD?

A
  • severe breathlessness
  • acute confusion
  • cyanosis
  • oxygen saturation <90%
  • social reasons e.g. inability to cope at home
  • significant comorbidity (such as cardiac disease or insulin-dependent diabetes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How should an exacerbation of COPD be managed when patients are admitted to hospital?

A
  • Oxygen therapy (venturi mask)
  • Nebulised SABA and SAMA (salbutamol and ipratropium)
  • oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone
  • IV theophylline
  • NIV if T2RF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what pH can NIV be used?

A

respiratory acidosis
pH 7.25-7.35

*can be used if pH < 7.25 but need monitoring in HDU and a lower threshold for intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Causes of COPD

A

Most common:
- Smoking

Genetic:
- Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Others:
cadmium (used in smelting)
coal
cotton
cement
grain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Investigations if suspecting COPD

A
  • spirometry (obstructive pattern)
  • CXR: hyperinflation, bullae, flat hemidiaphragm
  • FBC: exclude secondary polycythaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In COPD the FEV1/FVC ratio is <70%. COPD is then graded based on the FEV1 % of predicted. Describe the 4 stages

A

> 80% Stage 1 - Mild
50-79% Stage 2 - Moderate
30-49% Stage 3 - Severe
< 30% Stage 4 - Very severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For how long should patients with LTOT be using supplementary oxygen?

A

for at least 15 hours a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should you consider an LTOT assessment for patients with COPD?

A

very severe (FEV1 < 30%)
cyanosis
polycythaemia
peripheral oedema
raised JVP
O2 sats <92% on room air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What investigation is used to assess patients for LTOT?

A

ABG on 2 occasions at least 3 weeks apart to assess accurate pO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What pO2 on ABG assessment should instigate LTOT

A

pO2 of < 7.3 kPa

OR a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
- secondary polycythaemia
- peripheral oedema
- pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Before starting LTOT what must you ensure about the patients home environment?

A

Home risk assessment:
- risks of falls from tripping over the equipment
- risks of burns and fires
- ensuring neither the patient nor any family at home are smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Non-pharmacological management of COPD

A

> smoking cessation
annual FLU vaccine
pneumococcal vaccine
pulmonary rehab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

First line COPD treatment

A

SABA (salbutamol) or SAMA (ipratropium)

17
Q

For patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators, the next treatment step is determined by whether they have ‘asthmatic features’. Describe these features.

A
  • previous diagnosis of asthma/atopy
  • high eosinophil count
  • variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400 ml)
  • diurnal variation in peak flow
18
Q

If a patient has no asthmatic features/ features suggesting steroid responsiveness, what is the next step of treatment after short-acting bronchodilators?

A

LABA + LAMA

(if already taking a SAMA, discontinue and switch to a SABA)

19
Q

If a patient has Asthmatic features/features suggesting steroid responsiveness, what is the next step of treatment after short-acting bronchodilators?

A

LABA + ICS

then if necessary:
LABA+ICS+LAMA

20
Q

If swapped onto a LAMA, patients should discontinue a SAMA and be given a SABA instead. TRUE/FALSE?

A

TRUE

21
Q

When is oral theophylline considered

A

after unsuccessful trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators

OR people who cannot used inhaled therapy

22
Q

What prophylactic antibiotics can be used in COPD?

A

Azithromycin (only in selected patients)

23
Q

What investigations should be completed prior to starting a patient on prophylactic azithromycin?

A

LFTs

ECG to exclude QT prolongation

24
Q

Who should receive mucolytics?

A

Patients with chronic productive cough

Discontinue if symptoms do not improve with this

25
Q

In what patients are PDE-4 inhibitors (e.g. Roflumilast) recommended?

A

FEV1 <50% of predicted

> 2 exacerbations in past year despite triple inhaled therapy (LABA+LAMA+ICS)

26
Q

Clinical features of cor pulmonale

A
  • peripheral oedema
  • raised JVP
  • systolic parasternal heave
  • loud P2
27
Q

Management of cor pulmonale

A
  • loop diuretic for oedema,
  • consider long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)
  • ACEi, Ca2+ channel blockers and alpha blockers are not recommended by NICE
28
Q

In patients with stable COPD, what 3 interventions can improve survival

A
  1. smoking cessation
  2. LTOT
  3. lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients
29
Q
A