Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Micro Test 2- Albertson > Control Of Microbial Growth & Tools and Techniques > Flashcards

Control Of Microbial Growth & Tools and Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

Infections that develop during the course of a hospital stay and not present at the time of admission

A

Nosocomial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Microbes present at given place and time that are undesirable or unwanted

A

Contaminant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Free of all microorganisms and their spores

A

Sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Agent or method used to carry out disinfection

A

Disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Use of chemical agents on the skin or other living tissue to eliminate or inhibit microorganisms

A

Antisepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Use of physical procedures or chemical agents to destroy, inhibit, neutralize, or remove at least most potentially infectious microorganisms

A

Disinfect / decontaminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Microbial resistance to killing (from most resistant to least resistant)

A 
Bacterial endospore 
Mycobacterium 
Protozoan cysts 
Non-enveloped small viruses 
Vegetative bacteria 
Fungi 
Enveloped viruses

(Younger cells are easier to destroy then older cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Factors affecting the effectiveness and choice of sterilization or disinfection method

A

Microbial population composition
Microbial death
Population size
Concentration/ intensity of antimicrobial
Duration of exposure
Temperature and pH
Presence of protective or neutralizing matter
Physical nature of materials being treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Modes of action of microbial control methods

A

Damage to cell wall
Disrupt cytoplasmic membrane
Inhibit synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids
Alter function of proteins and nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

General methods of physical control of microorganisms

A

Cold temperatures
Heat
Radiation
Filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can cold temperatures be a physical control?

A

Refrigeration
- Slow metabolism of microbes, but does not kill most microbes

Freezing
- stops metabolism, but does NOT kill microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can heat be a physical control?

A

Heat kills the cells

Most heat is more effective than dry heat but boiling does not kill bacterial endospores

Dry heat
Most heat
Incineration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the conditions of dry heat?

A

160 to 180 C for two hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the conditions for moist heat?

A

121 C for 15 minutes

  • minimum time required to ensure killing
  • Large load may require more then an hour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the limitations to moist heat?

A
  • cant be used for certain thermolabile substances

- cant be used for items adversely affected by moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The burning of organic material destroys living cells

A

Incineration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can radiation be a physical control?

A

Ionizing radiation- Gamma
Ionizing radiation- Electron beam radiation
Non- ionizing radiation- ultraviolet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can filtration be a physical control?

A

Membrane micropore filters

High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Methods of chemical control of microorganisms

A

High- level disinfectant
Intermediate- level disinfectant
Loop level disinfectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What may be sterilants under appropriate conditions?

A

High- level disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Microbial and sporocidal, although some may do so slowly; effectiveness approaches sterilization

A

High- level disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Effective against vegetative forms of bacteria and maybe be effective against fungi and viruses but few products will be sporocidal

A

Intermediate- level disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A few are antiseptics

A

Intermediate- level disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Usually bactericidal; not sporocidal or tuberculocidal, often not fungicidal or virucidal

A

Low- level disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A chemical substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that inhibits or kills microorganisms and which can be used to treat or control infection

A

Antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The antibiotic will affect only the target organism (microbe) without harming the host (patient)

A

Selective toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are inhibitors of cell wall synthesis?

A

Beta-lactam Antibiotics
Vancomycin
Bacitracin
Isoniazid (INH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis by inhibiting the formation of cross links between the polymers of the bacterial cell wall and examples

A

Beta- lactam

  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Binds onto the cross-link peptide, so that the link cannot be completed and peptidoglycan polymer cannot elongate

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Blocks phospholipid carrier that helps carry subunits of peptidoglycan across membrane to cell wall

A

Bacitracin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inhibits formation of mycolic acid in cell walls of mycobacterium (tb organism)

A

Isoniazid (INH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Inhibitors of protein synthesis

A

Chloramphenicol, clindamycin
Macrolides
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the principle of inhibitors of protein synthesis?

A

Inhibits accurate translation of mRNA or polypeptide chain formation at the ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Inhibits the polypeptide elongation in translation by binding to 50S ribosome subunit and blocking peptide bond formation

A

Chloramphenicol, clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Binds to 50S subunit; prevents translocation

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Inhibit translation by binding to 30S ribosomal protein causing misreading of mRNA and incomplete synthesis of protein molecules

A

Aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Inhibits translation into polypeptides (protiens) by blocking binding of tRNA to the 30S ribosome-mRNA complex

A

Tetracyclines

38
Q

Disrupts functional integrity of cytoplasmic membrane, allowing nucleotides and proteins to escape

A

Principle of inhibitors of cell membrane function

39
Q

Inhibitors of cell membrane function

A

Polymyxins

Amphotericin B

40
Q

Active against gram-negatives, but neurotoxins limits them to external use

A

Polymyxins

41
Q

Antifungal; binds with ergosterol in fungal membranes; somewhat toxic

A

Amphotericin B

42
Q

Competitive inhibition of essential nucleic acid precursor or binds essential enzyme

A

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis

43
Q

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis

A 
Quinolone and Fluorquinolones 
Rifampin
Metronidazole 
Nucleoside analogues 
Flucytosine, 5-fluorocytosine
44
Q

Inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase

A

Quinolone and Fluorquinolones

45
Q

Inhibits transcription by binding to RNA polymerase and inhibiting initiation of mRNA synthesis

A

Metronidazole

46
Q

Antiviral antimicrobics

A

Nucleoside analogues

47
Q

Incorporates into fungal RNA and interferes with DNA and protein synthesis

A

Flucytosine, 5-fluorocytosine

48
Q

Inhibitors of bacterial metabolism

A

Sulfonamides
Trimethoprim
Azoles

49
Q

What do antiviral inhibit?

A

Inhibit viral DNA polymerase

Inhibit translation of viral mRNA

50
Q

Major types of culture media

A

Nutrient
Enriched
Selective
Differential

51
Q

To dilute the specimen in order to obtain colonies which are physically separated from each other

A

Isolation

  • streak the specimen across agar cutler media in Petri dish
52
Q

A single type of bacteria which is maintained free from other bacteria

A

Pure culture

- Pure culture is required for biochemical testing

53
Q

What is the significance of bacterial colony morphology?

A

Enables visual differentiation of many bacteria

54
Q

Hemolysis is only where and due to what?

A

Due to bacterial production of enzymes which alter the hemoglobin of red blood cells

  • Alpha: green sone around colony
  • Beta: clear zone around colony
  • Gamma: no change in the red blood cells around the colony
55
Q

Cellular morphology and staining characteristics are useful

A

Microscopic exam

  • Gram stain or various wet mount preparations
56
Q

Grows on blood agar plate and other special media similar to bacteria and how long will it take?

A

Cultivation of yeast

  • 2 to 7 days
57
Q

Presumptive by microscopy; biochemical tests; antigen tests

A

Identification for yeasts

58
Q

Grow on media with antibiotics which inhibit the growth of bacteria and when will colonies be visible?

A

Cultivation for moulds

  • 1 to 4 weeks
59
Q

Direct microscopic exam of specimen; microscopic exam of culture; few biochemical tests; few antigen detection tests

A

Identification of moulds

60
Q

Grow in living culture cells and how long will it take to grow?

A

Cultivation of viruses and some atypical bacteria

  • 2 to 21 days to grow
61
Q

The ability of the test to detect every low levels of antigen or antibody when it is present

A

Sensitivity

  • designed to ensure that all true- positives are detected
  • may be used as initial screening or presumptive tests
62
Q

The ability of the test to accurately detect only the correct antigen or antibody

A

Specificity

  • distinguish cross- reactive and false positive results from true positives
63
Q

Reaction is based on specific Ag-Ab match-ups, what are they?

A

Epitopes must be detectable

Epitopes must be highly specific to produce accurate results

Possibility of cross reactive (false positive)

64
Q

Increase the number of copies of significant microbial gene sequences soothed so they can be detected

A

Gene amplification

65
Q

Test kits used to detect the presence of significant gene sequences

A

Gene probes

66
Q

The reaction of a particle- sized antigen with its corresponding antibody resulting in a macroscopic (visible) clumping

A

Slide agglutination

67
Q

Characteristics of slide agglutination

A 
Time: 2-20 min 
Low sensitivity 
Uses:
- specimen screening 
- confirm culture/ biochemical identification
68
Q

AB is tagger with fluorescent substance which hives off a particular color of light at a specified wavelength of UV light

A

Immunoflourescence

69
Q

Characteristics of Immunoflourescence

A

Time: real time to 1 hour to 2 days after collection

Ver sensitive and very specific

70
Q

Ab (known) is labeled with color producing enzyme

A

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) Method

71
Q

Characteristics of ELISA

A
  • Known Ab reacts with unknown Ag; unbound Ab washed off
  • Very sensitive and accurate test
    Time: Few min-2 days; typically 1-4 hours
72
Q

Know molecule and detection molecules are embedded in a membrane

A

Lateral flow immunoassay

  • specimen deposited on one end of membrane and wicking pad draws the fluid containing the specimen and reagents through membrane

Prego test

73
Q

What are the commonly used objectives and eyepiece magnification?

A 
Low power
- 10x
High (dry) power 
- 40 to 45x
Oil immersion 
- 90 to 100x

Eye piece
10x

74
Q

Magnification total, lighting and exam for low power

A

Total: 100x total
Lighting: use low light intensity
Exam: KOH prep, other wet count preparations

75
Q

Magnification total, lighting and exam for high dry power

A

Total: 450x
Lighting: low to medium light
Exam: other wet mount preparations

76
Q

Magnification total, lighting and exam for oil immersion

A

Total: 1000x
Lighting: high light intensity
Exam: gram stain of bacteria

77
Q

Gran stain smear preparation

A
  1. Smear specimen onto clean glass
  2. Allow to air dry
  3. Fix smear to slide by flooding dry smear with methanol for 1 min
78
Q

What are the staining steps of a gram stain?

A
  1. Primary stain (crystal violet): 1 min, rinse
  2. Mordant (grams iodine)L 1 min, rinse
  3. Decolorizer (acetone and alcohol): 2 to 5 seconds, rinse
  4. Counterstain (safranin): 30 to 60 seconds, rinse, dry
79
Q

When is a gram stain interpreted and what do the results mean?

A

30-60 minutes

Gram positive: blue-violet
Gram negative: print-red

80
Q

What is the procedure of wet mount microscopic exams?

A
  1. Place specimen on clean slide and cover with think glass

2. Observe using low and/ or high dry power and reduced light intensity

81
Q

What are the four wet mount exams?

A

Potassium Hydroxide Wet Prep (KOH)
- fungal mycelia fragment in skin scrapings

India ink capsules in CSF
- reveals yeast cells

Saline we prep of vaginal exudate
- reveals yeast cells and Trichomonas

Direct observation Viral or chlamydia cell
- reveals cytoplasmic effects (CPE)

82
Q

The microorganism is not inhibited by the maximum safe dose/ concentration of the anti microbic

A

Resistant

83
Q

The microorganism is inhibited by the maximum safe dose/ concentration of anti microbic

A

Susceptible

84
Q

The microbe may be inhibited by a very high dosage that may be borderline toxic

A

Intermediate

-typically resistant

85
Q

Factors affecting choice of antimicrobic

A 
“Drug-bug” relationship 
Toxicity of drug 
Route of administration for pt 
Patient compliance 
Cost of treatment
86
Q

What is the purpose of disk diffusion?

A

Determine which antibiotics might be effective in treating a particular infection when tested against one breakpoint concentration of each antimicrobic

87
Q

What is the principle of disk diffusion?

A

Technique is useful only for rapid growing aerobic and facultative bacteria

88
Q

Interpretation of disk diffusion

A
  • zone size measured and compared

- zone size correlates with specific concentration of anti microbic in bloodstream

89
Q

The purpose of Minimum inhibitory concentration

A

Determines the minimum effect concentration of each anti microbic agent that is effective against the bacterial pathogen

90
Q

The principle of Minimum inhibitory concentration

A
  • Bacterium is tested against various concentrations of each antimicrobic
  • Minimum concentration required to inhibit the bacterium is report, often along with interpretive information
91
Q

The interpretation of Minimum inhibitory concentration

A

Report indicate the MIC value

- one MIC per antimicrobic for each bacterium

Micro Test 2- Albertson (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions